RULES
Rules Administered By AFSA
GENERAL RULES
General Rules
Guidance: Purpose of this rulebook
The purpose of this rulebook, “GEN”, is to complement the regulatory framework established by the Financial Services Framework Regulations (“the Framework Regulations”).
GEN 1.1 complements Part 3, Chapter 1 of the Framework Regulations by describing the process of application for a Licence to carry on Regulated Activities (i.e. to become an Authorised Firm) and the criteria that the AFSA will apply in considering an application.
GEN 1.2 complements Part 3, Chapter 2 of the Framework Regulations by describing the process of application for a Licence to carry on Market Activities (i.e. to become an Authorised Market Institution) and the criteria that the AFSA will apply in considering an application.
GEN 1.3 contains an application process for a Licence to carry on Ancillary Services (i.e. to become an Ancillary Service Provider) and the criteria that the AFSA will apply in considering an application.
GEN 2 creates two categories of employees who attract regulatory attention. Approved Individuals occupy the most critical roles in an Authorised Person, which are referred to as “Controlled Functions”.
GEN 2.1 identifies a number of roles that an Authorised Person must fill.
Their appointment requires the approval of the AFSA. Designated Individuals occupy less critical roles, referred to as “Designated Functions”, and do not require AFSA approval, but may only be appointed by an Authorised Person after it has applied a fit and proper test.
GEN 3 contains rules restricting the circumstances in which significant shareholders in an Authorised Person may change.
GEN 4 contains two sets of core principles. The first are applicable to Authorised Persons, the second to Approved Individuals and Designated Individuals.
GEN 5 contains the key System and Controls requirements that apply to all Authorised Persons and Ancillary Services Providers.
GEN 6 complements Part 8 of the Framework Regulations (Supervision). The chapter begins with guidance setting out a non-exhaustive list of the circumstances in which the AFSA is likely to exercise the supervisory powers granted to it by sections 96 to 101 of the Framework Regulations.
GEN 6.1 adds details to section 97 of the Framework Regulations which gives the AFSA the power to require an Authorised Person to provide it with a report on a specified matter.
GEN 6.2 identifies a large number of instances in which an Authorised Person is obliged to make a notification to the AFSA. Finally
GEN 6.3 contains requirements relating to accounting and auditors, including requirements to prepare financial reports, keep accounting records, make certain notifications to the AFSA and cooperate with an auditor.
1. LICENSING OF CENTRE PARTICIPANTS
1.1. Authorised Firms
1.1.1. Definition of Regulated Activities
An activity shall be a Regulated Activity that may be carried on by an Authorised Firm, subject to the terms of its Licence, if that activity:
- (a) is specified in the list of activities in Schedule 1; and
- (b) is carried on by way of business as described in GEN 1.1.9; and
- (c) is not otherwise excluded in accordance with any other provision in GEN 1.1.
The Regulated Activities that may be carried on by an Authorised Firm, subject to the terms of its Licence, are specified in Schedule 1 and 1.4.1(b).
1.1.2. Form and content of application for a Licence
A Person may apply to the AFSA for a Licence authorising a Centre Participant to carry on one or more Regulated Activities by:
- (a) completing the form prescribed in Schedule 3 and filing the form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the form;
- (b) providing such further information as the AFSA may require; and
- (c) paying the fee prescribed in the Fees Rules.
Guidance: AFSA discretion to waive requirements A Person may apply to the AFSA to waive the requirements as to the contents of the Form prescribed in Schedule 3 pursuant to section 32(4) of the Framework Regulations.
1.1.3. Adequate and appropriate financial resources
This section was added on 2 December 2018.
1.1.4. Adequate and appropriate non-financial resources
In assessing whether an applicant has adequate and appropriate non‐financial resources for the purposes of section 34(1)(a) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the skills and experience of those who will manage the applicant's affairs;
- (b) the applicant's resources to identify, monitor, measure and take action to remove or reduce risks as to its safety and soundness;
- (c) the effectiveness of the applicant's business management; and
- (d) whether the applicant's non‐financial resources are sufficient to enable the applicant to comply with the Regulations and Rules that are likely to be relevant to the applicant.
1.1.5. Fitness and propriety
In assessing whether an applicant is fit and proper for the purposes of section 34(1)(b) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the fitness and propriety of the members of its Governing Body;
- (b) the applicant's connection with any Person or membership of any Group;
- (c) the fitness and propriety of the applicant's Controllers or any other Person associated with the applicant;
- (d) the impact a Controller might have on the applicant's ability to comply with the applicable requirements;
- (e) the Regulated Activities undertaken or to be undertaken by the applicant and the risks to their continuity;
- (f) the nature (including the scale and complexity) of the activities of the applicant and any associated risks that those activities pose to the AFSA’s Regulatory Objectives;
- (g) the complexity of any products or services that the applicant may offer or provide in carrying on those activities;
- (h) whether the applicant's business model will allow for its affairs and business to be conducted and managed in a sound and prudent manner, having regard to, amongst other things, the interests of its Clients and the integrity of the AIFC;
- (i) any matter which may harm or may have harmed the integrity or the reputation of the AFSA or AIFC, including through the carrying on of a business by the applicant for a purpose connected with a Financial Crime; and
- (j) any other relevant matters.
1.1.6. Effective supervision
In assessing whether an applicant is capable of being effectively supervised by the AFSA for the purposes of section 34(1)(c) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the nature, including the complexity, of the Regulated Activities that the applicant will carry on; and
- (b) the way in which the applicant's business is organised; and
- (c) (if the applicant is a member of a Group) whether membership of the Group is likely to prevent the AFSA’s effective supervision of the applicant; and
- (d) whether the applicant is subject to consolidated supervision.
1.1.7. Compliance arrangements
In assessing whether an applicant has adequate compliance arrangements for the purposes of section 34(1)(d) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider whether it has:
- (a) clear and comprehensive policies and procedures relating to compliance with all applicable legal requirements; and
- (b) adequate means to implement those policies and procedures and monitor that they are operating effectively and as intended.
1.1.8. Modification or withdrawal of an Authorised Firm’s Licence
An Authorised Firm may apply to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence, to have a condition or restriction varied or withdrawn, or to have its Licence withdrawn by:
- (a) completing the form prescribed in Schedule 3 and filing the form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the form;
- (b) providing such further information as the AFSA may require; and
- (c) paying the fee prescribed in the Fees Rules.
1.1.9. Activities carried on by way of business
A Person carries on an activity by way of business for the purposes of GEN 1.1.1 if that Person:
- (a) engages in the activity in a manner which in itself constitutes the carrying on of a business;
- (b) holds himself out as willing and able to engage in that activity; or
- (c) regularly solicits other Persons to engage with him in transactions constituting that activity.
1.1.10. Exclusion in respect of Dealing in Investments as Principal
A Person does not carry on the Regulated Activity specified in paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 by entering into a transaction, unless that Person:
- (a) holds himself out as willing, as principal, to buy, sell or subscribe for Investments at prices determined by him generally and continuously rather than in respect of each particular transaction;
- (b) holds himself out as engaging in the business of buying Investments with a view to selling them;
- (c) holds himself out as engaging in the business of underwriting Investments; or
- (d) regularly solicits members of the public with the purpose of inducing them to enter into transactions.
1.1.11. Exclusion in respect of acting as nominee
A Person does not carry on any of the Regulated Activities specified in paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 11, 12 or 15 of Schedule 1 where that Person enters into a transaction solely as a nominee for another Person and is bound to and does act on that other Person’s instructions.
1.1.12. Exclusion in respect of acting with or for Group companies
A Person does not carry on any of the Regulated Activities specified in paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 11, 12, 15 or 18 of Schedule 1 where that Person is a Body Corporate and carries on that activity solely as principal with or for other Bodies Corporates:
- (a) which are within the same Group as that Person; or
- (b) which are or propose to become participators in a joint enterprise and the transaction is entered into for the purposes of or in connection with that enterprise;
and for the purposes of the activities specified in paragraphs 3, 5, 6 and 12 of Schedule 1 the assets in question belong to a Body Corporate falling within (a) or (b).
This Exclusion does not apply to a Credit Provider that only provides Commercial Captive Finance.
1.1.13. . Exclusion in respect of non-financial business
A Person does not carry on any of the Regulated Activities specified in paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 11, 12 or 15 of Schedule 1 where that the Person carries on the activity solely for the purposes of or in connection with the sale of goods or the supply of services to a customer of the Person or a member of the same Group, provided that:
- (a) the supplier’s main business is to sell goods or supply services and not to carry on any Financial Service; and
- (b) the customer is not an individual; and for the purposes of the activities specified in paragraphs 3, 5, 6 and 2 of Schedule 1 the assets in question belong to that customer or member.
This Exclusion does not apply to a Credit Provider that only provides Commercial Captive Finance.
1.1.14. Exclusion in respect of dealing in Commodity Derivatives or Environmental Instruments
A Person who is a Body Corporate does not carry on the Regulated Activity specified in paragraphs 1 or 2 of Schedule 1, where:
- (a) the Person carries on such activities as a member of an Authorised Market Institution or Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution;
- (b) the Person carries on such activities for its own account or for another Body Corporate which is in the same Group as the Person, provided that any such member of the Group for which the Person acts is a wholly-owned Subsidiary of a Holding Company within the Group or is the Holding Company itself;
- (c) the Person restricts such activities to transactions involving or relating only to Commodity Cerivatives or Environmental Instruments on that Authorised Market Institution or Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution;
- (d) the main business of the Person is dealing in relation to Commodity Derivatives or Environmental Instruments; and
- (e) the Person is not part of a Group whose main business is the provision of financial services.
1.1.15. Exclusion in respect of acquisition or disposal of a Body Corporate
A Person does not carry on a Regulated Activity specified in paragraphs 1, 2, 10 or 11 of Schedule 1 if the activity is carried on solely for the purposes of or in connection with the acquisition or disposal of Shares in a Body Corporate, other than an Investment Company, provided that:
- (a) such Shares carry at least 50 per cent of the voting rights or the acquisition will take an existing holding to at least 50 per cent; or
- (b) the object of the transaction may reasonably be regarded as being the acquisition of day to day control of the Body Corporate.
1.1.16. Exclusion in respect of acting as a trustee
- (a) A Person who is a trustee does not carry on a Regulated Activity specified in paragraphs 1, 3, or 5 of Schedule 1 in circumstances where he is acting as a trustee.
- (b) A Person does not carry on a Regulated Activity specified in paragraph 7 of Schedule 1 by way of business where he is:
- (i) acting as trustee, enforcer or protector; or
- (ii) where he is arranging for a Person to act as trustee, in respect of less than three (3) trusts.
- (c) A Person falling within paragraph (d) or (e) of the definition of a DNFBP does not provide Trust Services where it only:
- (i) arranges for a Person to act as trustee in respect of an express trust; or
- (ii) provides services with respect to the creation of an express trust; provided that:
- (1) the provision of such services is solely incidental to the practice of law or accounting as the case may be; and
- (2) the DNFBP is not holding itself out as Providing Trust Services.
- (d) A Person is not Providing Trust Services if that Person is the Trustee of a Fund and the activities are in connection with, or arise from, acting as the Trustee of the Fund. Guidance Acting as trustee, protector or enforcer are not activities incidental to the practice of law or accounting and require a License.
1.1.17. Exclusion in respect of Single Family Offices
A Person does not carry on a Regulated Activity specified in paragraphs 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, or 15 of Schedule 1 if:
- (a) that Person is a Single Family Office; and
- (b) the activity is carried on exclusively for the purposes of, and only in so far as it is, carrying out its duties as a Single Family Office.
1.2. Authorised Market Institutions
Guidance: Definition of Market Activity
- Market Activity is defined in the section 18 of the Framework Regulations as:
- (a) Operating an Exchange;
- (b) Operating a Clearing House;
- (c) [intentionally omitted]
- (d) Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform;
- (e) Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform.
- (f) Operating a Private Financing Platform.
1.2.1. Form and content of application for a Licence
A Person may apply to the AFSA for a Licence for a Centre Participant to carry on one or more Market Activities in the AIFC by:
1.2.2. Adequate and appropriate financial resources
In assessing whether an applicant has adequate and appropriate financial resources for the purposes of section 37(1)(a) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) how the applicant will comply with the applicable provisions of AMI 2.2;
- (b) the provision the applicant makes in respect of any liabilities, including contingent and future liabilities;
- (c) the means by which the applicant manages the risks to its business;
- (d) the rationale for, and basis of, the applicant's business plan;
- (e) whether the applicant's assets are appropriate given the applicant's liabilities;
- (f) the liquidity of the applicant's resources;
- (g) the nature and scale of the business which will be carried on by the applicant;
- (h) the risks to the continuity of the services which will be provided by the applicant;
- (i) the applicant's membership of a Group and any relevant effect which that membership may have; and
- (j) whether the applicant is capable of meeting its debts as they fall due.
1.2.3. Adequate and appropriate non-financial resources
In assessing whether an applicant has adequate and appropriate non‐financial resources for the purposes of section 37(1)(a) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the skills and experience of those who will manage the applicant's affairs;
- (b) the applicant's resources to identify, monitor, measure and take action to remove or reduce risks as to its safety and soundness;
- (c) the applicant’s resources to control and monitor access to, and the use of, its facilities in a manner designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors;
- (d) the applicant’s resources to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with Market Abuse, Financial Crime or money laundering, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence;
- (e) the applicant’s resources to monitor and take action in the event of a member of an applicant being unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more Market Contracts;
- (f) the effectiveness of the applicant's business management; and
- (g) whether the applicant's non‐financial resources are sufficient to enable the applicant to comply with the Regulations and Rules that are likely to be relevant to the applicant.
1.2.4. Adequate and appropriate technology resources
In assessing whether an applicant has adequate and appropriate technology resources for the purposes of section 37(1)(a) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the applicant’s resources for the evaluation, selection and on-going monitoring of the information technology systems used by the applicant;
- (b) the applicant’s willingness and ability to use development and testing methodologies in line with internationally accepted testing standards in order to test the viability and effectiveness of such systems; and
- (c) the means by which the applicant will secure and maintain the confidentiality of the data and ensure that the systems used by the applicant are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident.
1.2.5. Fitness and propriety
In assessing whether an applicant is fit and proper for the purposes of section 37(1)(b) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the fitness and propriety of the members of its Governing Body;
- (b) the applicant's connection with any Person or membership of any Group;
- (c) the fitness and propriety of the applicant's Controllers or any other Person associated with the applicant;
- (d) the impact a Controller might have on the applicant's ability to comply with the applicable requirements;
- (e) the Market Activities concerned and the risks to their continuity;
- (f) the nature (including the scale and complexity) of the activities of the applicant and any associated risks that those activities pose to the AFSA’s objectives;
- (g) whether the applicant's business model will allow for its facilities to function in a fair and orderly manner, having regard to, amongst other things, the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors;
- (h) any matter which may harm or may have harmed the integrity or the reputation of the AIFC or AFSA , including through the carrying on of a business by the applicant for a purpose connected with Market Abuse or a Financial Crime; and
(i) any other relevant matters.
1.2.6. Effective supervision
In assessing whether an applicant is capable of being effectively supervised by the AFSA for the purposes of section 37(1)(c) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the nature, including the complexity, of the Market Activities that the applicant will carry on;
- (b) if the applicant seeks a licence to carry on the Market Activity of Operating an Exchange, a Loan Crowdfunding Platform or an Investment Crowdfunding Platform, the size, nature and complexity of any markets in respect of which the applicant will offer its facilities in carrying on that Market Activity;
- (c) if the applicant seeks a licence to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Clearing House, the complexity of the Investments and transactions, and the size of the likely transaction values and volumes in respect of which the applicant will offer clearing and settlement services in carrying on that Market Activity;
- (c) the way in which the applicant's business is organised;
- (d) (if the applicant is a member of a Group) whether membership of the Group is likely to prevent the AFSA’s effective supervision of the applicant; and
- (e) whether the applicant is subject to consolidated supervision.
1.2.7. Compliance arrangements
In assessing whether an applicant has adequate compliance arrangements for the purposes of section 37(1)(d) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider whether it has:
- (a) clear and comprehensive policies and procedures relating to compliance with all applicable legal requirements;
- (b) adequate means to implement those policies and procedures and monitor that they are operating effectively and as intended;
- (c) effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance of its Members with its own rules and, if relevant, its clearing and settlement arrangements; and
- (d) if the applicant seeks a licence to carry on the Market Activity of Operating an Exchange, effective arrangements to verify that issuers admitted to trading on its facilities comply with the Market Rules;
- (e) [intentionally omitted]
1.2.8. Modification or withdrawal of an Authorised Market Institution’s Licence
An Authorised Market Institution may apply to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence, to have a condition or restriction varied or withdrawn, or to have its Licence withdrawn by:
1.3. Ancillary Service Provider
1.3.1. Definition of Ancillary Service
The Ancillary Services that may be carried on by an Ancillary Service Provider, subject to the terms of its Licence, are specified in Schedule 2.
1.3.2. Form and content of application for a Licence
A Person may apply to the AFSA for a Licence authorising a Centre Participant to carry on one or more Ancillary Services in the AIFC by:
1.3.3. Fitness and propriety
In assessing whether an applicant is fit and proper for the purposes of section 41 of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
- (a) the applicant’s standing with any relevant regulatory body;
- (aa) registration with the AIFC Legal Services Board of at least one employee of the applicant applying for a Licence to carry on an Ancillary Service of Providing Legal Services;
- (b) the applicant’s disciplinary record;
- (c) the applicant’s procedures for monitoring and preventing Financial Crime;
- (d) the risk posed to the AIFC by the applicant’s activities; and
- (e) such other matters as the AFSA considers relevant.
1.3.3-1 Effective supervision
In assessing whether an applicant is capable of being effectively supervised by the AFSA for the purposes of section 41(1) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will consider:
(a) the nature, including the complexity, of the Ancillary Services that the applicant will carry on; and
(b) the way in which the applicant's business is organised; and
(c) (if the applicant is a member of a Group) whether membership of the Group is likely to prevent the AFSA’s effective supervision of the applicant; and
(d) whether the applicant is subject to consolidated supervision.
1.3.4. Notifications
An Ancillary Service Provider must promptly notify the AFSA of any change in its:
- (a) name; or
- (b) legal status; or
- (c) address; or
- (e) beneficial ownership.
1.3.5. Application to modify or withdraw an Ancillary Service Provider’s Licence
An Ancillary Service Provider may apply to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence, to have a condition or restriction varied or withdrawn, or to have its Licence withdrawn by:
1.3.6. Withdrawal of an Ancillary Service Provider’s Licence by the AFSA
The AFSA may withdraw the Licence of an Ancillary Service Provider:
- (a) on the application of the Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (b) [intentionally omitted]
- (c) following a request by the Registrar of Companies; or
- (d) in the event of the insolvency or the entering into administration of the Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (e) if the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable in the interests of the AIFC.
1.4. FinTech Lab Activities
1.4.1. Activities performed in FinTech Lab
- (a) the Regulated and/or Market Activities that are specified in Schedule 1 and 4 of GEN can be carried on by a Person subject to the terms and Licence issued under FINTECH.
- (b) a Person may apply to the AFSA for a Licence authorising a Centre Participant to carry on activities not specified in (a).
- (c)For the purposes of (b), the AFSA may grant a Licence for a Person to carry on activities as specified in the Licence.
2. CONTROLLED AND DESIGNATED FUNCTIONS
2.1. Mandatory appointments
2.1.1. Appointments to be filled by Approved Individuals
(1) Subject to (2) an Authorised Person, must make the following appointments and ensure that they are held by one or more Approved Individuals at all times:
(a) Senior Executive Officer;
(b) Finance Officer;
(c) Compliance Officer; and
(d) Money Laundering Reporting Officer
(2) For an Authorised Person Operating a Representative Office the mandatory appointments in (1) may be carried on by its Principal Representative.
2.1.2. Appointments to be filled by Approved Individuals or Designated Individuals
[intentionally omitted]
2.2. Controlled Functions
2.2.1. Designation of roles as Controlled Functions
The functions specified in GEN 2.2.2 to 2.2.5 are Controlled Functions.
2.2.2. Senior Executive Officer
The Senior Executive Officer function is carried out by an individual who:
- (a) has, either alone or jointly with other Approved Individuals, ultimate responsibility for the day‐to‐day management, supervision and control of one or more (or all) parts of an Authorised Person's Regulated Activities; and
- (b) is a Director, Partner or Senior Manager of the Authorised Person
2.2.3. Director
The Director function is carried out by an individual who is a director of an Authorised Person which is a Body Corporate.
2.2.4. Finance Officer
The Finance Officer function is carried out by an individual who is a Director, Partner or Senior Manager of an Authorised Person who has responsibility for monitoring the Authorised Person's compliance with the applicable Rules in the Prudential Rulebook.
2.2.5. Compliance Officer
The Compliance Officer function is carried out by an individual who is a Director, Partner or Senior Manager of an Authorised Person who has responsibility for compliance matters in relation to the Authorised Person's Regulated Activities.
2.2.5-1. Money Laundering Reporting Officer
The Money Laundering Reporting Officer function must be carried out by an individual who is a Director, Partner or Senior Manager of an Authorised Person and who has responsibility for the implementation of an Authorised Person's anti‐money laundering policies, procedures, systems and controls and day to day oversight of its compliance with the Rules in AML and any relevant anti‐money laundering Rules.
2.2.6. Application for Approved Individual status
An Authorised Person may apply for its officer or Employee or future officer or Employee to be granted Approved Individual status by:
- (a) completing the form prescribed in Schedule 3 and filing the form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the form;
- (b) providing such further information as the AFSA may require; and
- (c) paying the Fee prescribed in the Fees Rules to the AFSA.
Guidance: criteria for approval of Approved Individual Section 43 of the Framework Regulations provides
(1) The AFSA may only authorise an individual to carry on a Controlled Function if it is satisfied that the individual is fit and proper to be an Approved Individual.
(2) In making this assessment, the AFSA must have regard to:
- (a) the individual's integrity; and
- (b) the individual's competence and capability; and
- (c) the individual's financial soundness; and
- (d) the individual's proposed role within the Authorised Person; and
- (e) any other matters that the AFSA considers to be relevant to the application.
(3) The AFSA will not regard an individual as fit and proper if the individual:
- (a) is bankrupt; or
- (b) has been convicted of a serious criminal offence; or
- (c) is the subject of an administrative or civil finding; or
- (d) is incapable, through mental or physical incapacity, of managing his affairs.
2.2.7. AFSA discretion to waive requirements
An Authorised Person may apply to the AFSA to waive the requirements made pursuant to Section 43(1) of the Framework Regulations in the light of any registration, authorisation or approval the relevant officer or Employee may have in a jurisdiction outside the AIFC.
2.2.8. Modification or withdrawal of an Approved Individual’s registration
An Authorised Person or an Approved Individual may apply to the AFSA to modify or withdraw the Approved Individual’s status by:
2.2.9. Dismissal or resignation of an Approved Individual
In the event of an Approved Individual ceasing to be employed by an Authoised Person to perform a Controlled Function, the Authoised Person must:
- (a) request the withdrawal of the Approved Individual status within seven days of the Approved Individual ceasing to be employed;
- (b) inform the AFSA of any circumstances which lead the Authoised Person to consider that the individual is no longer fit and proper; and
- (c) if the Approved Individual was dismissed or requested to resign, provide the AFSA with a statement of the reason, or reasons, for the dismissal or resignation.
2.3. Designated Functions
2.3.1. Designation of roles as Designated Functions
The functions specified in GEN 2.3.2 to 2.3.6 are Designated Functions.
2.3.2. Senior Manager
The Senior Manager function is carried out by an individual who is responsible either alone or jointly with other individuals for the management, supervision or control of one or more parts of an Authorised Person's Regulated Activities who is:
- (a) an Employee of the Authorised Person; and
- (b) not a Director or Partner of the Authorised Person.
2.3.3. Responsible Officer
The Responsible Officer function is carried out by an individual who:
- (a) has significant responsibility for the management of one or more aspects of an Authorised Person’s affairs; and
- (b) exercises a significant influence on the Authorised Person as a result of (a); but
- (c) is not an Employee of the Authorised Person
2.3.4. Money Laundering Reporting Officer
[intentionally omitted]
2.3.5. Risk Manager
The Risk Manager function is carried out by an individual who is a Director, Partner or Senior Manager of an Authorised Person and who has responsibility for all aspects of the risk management function in relation to the Authorised Person's Regulated Activities.
2.3.6. Internal Audit Manager
The Internal Audit Manager function is carried out by an individual who is a Director, Partner or Senior Manager of an Authorised Person and who has responsibility for all aspects of the internal audit function in relation to the Authorised Person's Regulated Activities.
Guidance: criteria for appointment of Designated Individual
Section 46 of Framework Regulations provides:
(1) Before appointing an individual to carry on a Designated Function, an Authorised Person must take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that the individual is fit and proper to be a Designated Individual.
(2) In making this assessment the Authorised Person must have regard to:
- (a) the individual's integrity; and
- (b) the individual's competence and capability; and
- (c) the individual's financial soundness; and
- (d) the individual's proposed role within the Authorised Person; and
- (e) any other matters that the AFSA may prescribe by Rules.
(3) An Authorised Person may not regard an individual as fit and proper if the individual:
- (a) is bankrupt; or
- (b) has been convicted of a serious criminal offence; or
- (c) is the subject of an administrative or civil finding; or
- (d) is incapable, through mental or physical incapacity, of managing his affairs
2.3.7. Appointment of Designated Individual
In respect of each Designated Individual that it appoints, an Authorised Person must keep records of the assessment process that it has undertaken in accordance with section 46 of the Framework Regulations to satisfy itself that the relevant individual is a fit and proper Person. Such records must be kept for a minimum of six years from the date of the assessment
3. CONTROL OF AUTHORISED PERSONS
3.1. Definitions
3.1.1. Definition of a Controller
A Controller is a Person who, either alone or with any Associate:
- (a) holds 10% or more of the shares in either the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person; or
- (b) is entitled to exercise, or controls the exercise of, 10% or more of the voting rights in either the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person; or
- (c) is able to exercise significant influence over the management of the Authorised Person as a result of holding shares or being able to exercise voting rights in the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person or having a current exercisable right to acquire such shares or voting rights.
3.1.2. Definition of “share” and “holding”
A reference in this chapter to the term:
- (a) “share” means:
(i) in the case of an Authorised Person, or a Holding Company of an Authorised Person, which has a share capital, its allotted shares;
(ii) in the case of an Authorised Person, or a Holding Company of an Authorised Person, with capital but no share capital, rights to a share in its capital; and
(iii) in the case of an Authorised Person, or a Holding Company of an Authorised Person, without capital, any interest conferring a right to share in its profits or losses or any obligation to contribute to a share of its debt or expenses in the event of its winding up; and
(iv) in the case of an Authorised Person, or a Holding Company of an Authorised Person going through a Resolution, a capital instrument or share issued as a result of the Resolution Authority exercising its Conversion Power; and
- (b) “a holding” means, in respect of a Person, shares, voting rights or a right to acquire shares or voting rights in an Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person held by that Person either alone or with any Associate.
3.1.3. Disregarded holdings
For the purposes of determining whether a Person is a Controller, any shares, voting rights or rights to acquire shares or voting rights that a Person holds, either alone or with any Associate, in an Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person are disregarded if:
- (a) they are shares held for the sole purpose of clearing and settling within a short settlement cycle; or
- (b) they are shares held in a custodial or nominee capacity and the voting rights attached to the shares are exercised only in accordance with written instructions given to that Person by another Person; or
- (c) the Person is an Authorised Person or a Regulated Financial Institution and it:
(i) acquires the shares as a result of an underwriting of a share issue or a placement of shares on a firm commitment basis;
(ii) does not exercise the voting rights attaching to the shares or otherwise intervene in the management of the issuer; and
(iii) retains the shares for a period less than one year.
3.2. Approval process
3.2.1. Threshold for approval requirement
For the purposes of section 48(b) of the Framework Regulations, the thresholds at which the prior written approval of the AFSA is required are when the relevant holding is increased:
- (a) from below 30% to 30% or more; or
- (b) from below 50% to 50% or more.
3.2.2. Approval process
(1) A Person who is required to obtain the prior written approval of the AFSA pursuant to section 48 of the Framework Regulations must make an application to the AFSA using the form prescribed in Schedule 3.
(2) Where the AFSA proposes to approve a proposed change of control, it will:
- (a) do so as soon as practicable and in any event within 30 days of the receipt of a duly completed application, unless a different period is considered appropriate by the AFSA and notified to the applicant in writing; and
- (b) issue to the applicant, and where appropriate to the Authorised Person, an approval notice as soon as practicable after making that decision.
(3) Where the AFSA proposes to object to or grant a conditional approval to a proposed change of control, it will follow the procedures in Schedule 1 to the Framework Regulations
3.2.3. Effect of AFSA approval or conditional approval
(1) An approval, including a conditional approval granted by the AFSA pursuant to GEN 3.2.1, is valid for a period of one year from the date of the approval, unless an extension is granted by the AFSA in writing.
(2) A Person who has been approved by the AFSA as a Controller of an Authorised Person subject to any conditions must comply with the relevant conditions of approval.
3.3. Notification requirements
3.3.1. Notification for decrease in the level of control of Authorised Person incorporated in the AIFC
A Controller of an Authorised Person which is incorporated in the AIFC must submit, using the form prescribed in Schedule 3, a written notification to the AFSA where that Person:
- (a) proposes to cease being a Controller; or
- (b) proposes to decrease that Person’s holding from more than 50% to 50% or less.
3.3.2. Notification of changes relating to control of Branches
(1) In the case of an Authorised Person which is a Branch, a written notification to the AFSA must be submitted by a Controller or a Person proposing to become a Controller of that Authorised Person in accordance with (3) in respect of any one of the events specified in (2).
(2) For the purposes of (1), a notification to the AFSA is required when:
- (a) a Person becomes a Controller;
- (b) an existing Controller proposes to cease being a Controller; or
- (c) an existing Controller’s holding is:
(i) increased from below 30% to 30% or more;
(ii) increased from below 50% to 50% or more; or
(iii) decreased from more than 50% to 50% or less.
(3) The notification required under (1) must be made by a Controller or Person proposing to become a Controller of a Branch using the Form prescribed in Schedule 3 as soon as possible, and in any event, before making the relevant acquisition or disposal.
3.4. Obligations of Authorised Persons
3.4.1. Obligations of Authorised Person relating to its Controllers
(1) An Authorised Person must have adequate systems and controls to monitor:
- (a) any change or proposed change of its Controllers; and
- (b) any significant changes in the conduct or circumstances of existing Controllers which might reasonably be considered to impact on the fitness and propriety of the Authorised Person or its ability to conduct business soundly and prudently.
(2) An Authorised Person must, subject to (3), notify the AFSA in writing of any event specified in (1) as soon as possible after becoming aware of that event.
(3) An Authorised Person need not comply with the requirement in (2) if it is satisfied on reasonable grounds that a proposed or existing Controller has either already obtained the prior approval of the AFSA or notified the event to the AFSA as applicable.
3.4.2. Annual report
(1) An Authorised Person must submit to the AFSA an annual report on its Controllers within four months of its financial year end.
(2) The Authorised Person’s annual report on its Controllers must include:
- (a) the name of each Controller; and
- (b) the current holding of each Controller, expressed as a percentage.
4. CORE PRINCIPLES
4.1. Application
4.1.1. Application of the Principles for Authorised Persons
The Principles for Authorised Persons set out in Section 4.2 apply to Authorised Persons in respect of Regulated Activities and Market Activities.
4.1.2. Application of the Principles for Approved Individuals and Designated Individuals
The Principles for Approved Individuals and Designated Individuals set out in Section 4.3 apply to Approved Individuals and Designated Individuals in respect of Controlled Functions and Designated Functions.
4.2. Principles for Authorised Persons
4.2.1. Principle 1 ‐ Integrity
An Authorised Person must observe high standards of integrity and fair dealing.
4.2.2. Principle 2 ‐ Due skill, care and diligence
In conducting its business activities, an Authorised Person must act with due skill, care and diligence.
4.2.3. Principle 3 ‐ Management
An Authorised Person must ensure that its affairs are managed effectively and responsibly by its senior management.
4.2.4. Principle 4 ‐ Systems and controls
An Authorised Person must have adequate systems and controls to ensure, as far as is reasonably practical, that it complies with all relevant Regulations and Rules.
4.2.5. Principle 5 ‐ Resources
An Authorised Person must maintain and be able to demonstrate the existence of adequate resources to conduct and manage its affairs. These include adequate financial and system resources as well as adequate and competent human resources.
4.2.6. Principle 6 ‐ Market conduct
An Authorised Person must observe proper standards of conduct in financial markets.
4.2.7. Principle 7 ‐ Information and interests
An Authorised Person must pay due regard to the interests of its Clients and communicate information to them in a way which is clear, fair and not misleading.
4.2.8. Principle 8 ‐ Conflicts of interest
An Authorised Person must take all reasonable steps to ensure that conflicts of interest between itself and its Clients, between its Employees and Clients and between one Client and another are identified and then prevented or managed, or disclosed, in such a way that the interests of a Client are not adversely affected.
4.2.9. Principle 9 ‐ Suitability
An Authorised Person must take reasonable care to ensure the suitability of its Advice and discretionary decisions for Clients who are entitled to rely upon its judgment.
4.2.10. Principle 10 ‐ Client assets and money
Where an Authorised Person has control of or is otherwise responsible for assets or money belonging to a Client which it is required to safeguard, it must arrange proper protection for them in accordance with the responsibility it has accepted.
4.2.11. Principle 11 ‐ Relations with the AFSA
An Authorised Person must deal with the AFSA in an open and co‐operative manner and keep the AFSA promptly informed of significant events or anything else relating to the Authorised Person of which the AFSA would reasonably expect to be notified.
4.2.12. Principle 12 ‐ Compliance with high standards of corporate governance
An Authorised Person must have a corporate governance framework as appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its business and structure, which is adequate to promote the sound and prudent management and oversight of the Authorised Person's business and to protect the interests of its Clients and stakeholders.
4.2.13. Principle 13 ‐ Remuneration practices
An Authorised Person must have a Remuneration structure and strategies which are well aligned with the long-term interests of the Authorised Person, and are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its business.
4.3. Principles for Approved Individuals and Designated Individuals
4.3.1. Principle 1 ‐ Integrity
Each Approved Individual and Designated Individual must observe high standards of integrity and fair dealing in carrying out every Controlled Function or Designated Function.
4.3.2. Principle 2 ‐ Due skill, care and diligence
Each Approved Individual and Designated Individual must act with due skill, care and diligence in carrying out every Controlled Function or Designated Function.
4.3.3. Principle 3 ‐ Market conduct
Each Approved Individual and Designated Individual must observe proper standards of conduct in financial markets in carrying out every Controlled Function or Designated Function.
4.3.4. Principle 4 ‐ Relations with the AFSA
Each Approved Individual and Designated Individual must deal with the AFSA in an open and co‐operative manner and must disclose appropriately any information of which the AFSA would reasonably be expected to be notified.
4.3.5. Principle 5 ‐ Management, systems and control
Each Approved Individual and Designated Individual who has significant responsibility must take reasonable care to ensure that the business of the Authorised Person for which he is responsible is organised so that it can be managed and controlled effectively.
4.3.6. Principle 6 ‐ Compliance
Each Approved Individual and Designated Individual who has significant responsibility must take reasonable care to ensure that the business of the Authorised Person for which he is responsible complies with any Regulations or Rules.
5. SYSTEMS AND CONTROLS
5.1. General requirements
5.1.1. Requirement to maintain systems and controls
An Authorised Person must establish and maintain systems and controls, including but not limited to financial and risk systems and controls that ensure that its affairs are managed effectively and responsibly by its senior management.
5.1.2. Review of systems and controls
An Authorised Person must undertake regular reviews of its systems and controls.
5.1.3. Business plan and strategy
(1) An Authorised Person must produce a business plan which enables it, amongst other things, to manage the risks to which it and its Clients are exposed.
(2) The business plan must take into account the Authorised Person's current business activities and the business activities forecast for the next twelve months.
(3) The business plan must be documented and updated as appropriate to take account of changes in the business environment and to reflect changes in and the complexities of the business of the Authorised Person.
5.1.4. Prevention of market abuse, financial crime and other illegal conduct
An Authorised Person must establish and maintain systems and controls that ensure, as far as reasonably practical, that the Authorised Person and its Employees do not engage in conduct, or facilitate others to engage in conduct, which may constitute:
- (a) Market Abuse, wherever committed;
- (b) a Financial Crime under any applicable laws; or
- (c) a contravention of applicable Regulations or Rules.
5.2. Outsourcing
5.2.1. Responsibility for compliance
An Authorised Person which outsources any of its functions or activities directly related to Regulated Activities or Market Activities to a service provider (including a service provider within its Group) is not relieved of its regulatory obligations and remains responsible for compliance with the Framework Regulations and Rules.
5.2.2. Outsourced function deemed to be carried on by Authorised Person
The outsourced function under GEN 5.2.1 shall be deemed to be carried out by the Authorised Person itself.
5.2.3. Due diligence and supervision
An Authorised Person which uses a service provider as referred to in GEN 5.2.1 must ensure that it:
- (a) has undertaken due diligence in choosing a suitable service provider;
- (b) effectively supervises the outsourced functions or activities; and
- (c) deals effectively with any act or failure to act by the service provider that leads, or might lead, to a breach of any Regulations or Rules.
5.2.4. Notification of AFSA of material outsourcing arrangements
An Authorised Person must inform the AFSA about any material outsourcing arrangements.
Guidance: material outsourcing arrangement An outsourcing arrangement will be considered to be material if it is a service of such importance that weakness or failure of that service would cast serious doubt on the Authorised Person's continuing ability to remain fit and proper or to comply with the Framework Regulations and Rules administered by the AFSA.
5.2.5. Material outsourcing arrangements
An Authorised Person which has a material outsourcing arrangement must:
- (a) establish and maintain comprehensive outsourcing policies, contingency plans and outsourcing risk management programmes;
- (b) enter into an appropriate and written outsourcing contract; and
- (c) ensure that the outsourcing arrangements neither reduce its ability to fulfil its obligations to Clients and the AFSA, nor hinder supervision of the Authorised Person by the AFSA.
5.2.6. Terms of outsourcing contracts
An Authorised Person must ensure that the terms of its outsourcing contract with each service provider under a material outsourcing arrangement require the service provider to:
- (a) provide information and documents where required by the AFSA under section 96 of the Framework Regulations; and
- (b) deal in an open and co‐operative way with the AFSA.
5.3. Corporate governance
5.3.1. Governing Body
An Authorised Person must have a Governing Body that meets the requirements of GEN 5.3.2 (membership), 5.3.3 (responsibilities) and 5.3.4 (competence, training and access to information).
5.3.2. Governing Body – membership
An Authorised Person’s Governing Body must comply with the requirements set out below:
- (a) the composition of the Governing Body of an Authorised Person must reflect an adequately broad range of experience;
- (b) the Governing Body must possess adequate collective knowledge, skills and experience in order to understand the Authorised Person’s activities and risks; and
- (c) members of the Governing Body must:
(i) commit sufficient time to perform their functions on the Governing Body; and
(ii) act with honesty, integrity and independence of mind; and
(iii) effectively assess and challenge, where necessary, the decisions of the senior management, and oversee and monitor decision making.
5.3.3. Governing Body – responsibilities
The Governing Body of an Authorised Person must:
- (a) define and oversee the implementation of governance arrangements that ensure the effective and prudent management of the Authorised Person in a manner which promotes the integrity of the market, which at least must include: the segregation of duties in the organisation; and the prevention of conflicts of interest in its operation;
- (b) monitor and periodically assess the effectiveness of the Authorised Person’s governance arrangements; and
- (c) take appropriate steps to address any deficiencies found as a result of the monitoring under sub-paragraph (b).
5.3.4. Governing Body – competence, training and access to information
An Authorised Person must:
- (a) devote adequate human and financial resources to the induction and training of members of the Governing Body;
- (b) ensure that the Governing Body has access to the information and documents it requires to oversee and monitor management decision-making; and
- (c) engage a broad set of qualities and competences when recruiting Persons to the Governing Body, and for that purpose have a policy promoting diversity on the management body; and
- (d) notify the AFSA of the identity of all the members of its Governing Body.
5.3.5. Senior management
An Authorised Person must ensure that the senior management of the Authorised Person have clear responsibility for the day‐to‐day management of the Authorised Person's business in accordance with the business objectives and strategies approved or set by the Governing Body.
5.3.6. Management information
An Authorised Person must establish and maintain arrangements to provide its Governing Body and senior management with the information necessary to organise, monitor and control its activities, to comply with all relevant Regulations and Rules and to manage risks. The information must be relevant, accurate, comprehensive, timely and reliable.
5.3.7. Remuneration structure and strategy
The Governing Body of an Authorised Person must ensure that the Remuneration structure and strategy of that Authorised Person:
- (a) are consistent with the business objectives and strategies and the identified risk parameters within which the Authorised Person's business is to be conducted;
- (b) provide for effective alignment of risk outcomes and the roles and functions of the Employees, taking account of:
(i) the nature of the roles and functions of the relevant Employees; and
(ii) whether the actions of the Employees may expose the Authorised Person to unacceptable financial, reputational and other risks;
- (c) at a minimum, include the members of its Governing Body, the senior management, Approved Individuals and any Designated Individuals; and
- (d) are implemented and monitored to ensure that they operate, on an on‐going basis, effectively and as intended.
5.4. Compliance
5.4.1. Requirement to maintain compliance arrangements
An Authorised Person must establish and maintain compliance arrangements, including processes and procedures that ensure and evidence, as far as reasonably practicable, that the Authorised Person complies with all relevant Regulations and Rules.
5.4.2. Documentation of compliance arrangements
An Authorised Person must document the organisation, responsibilities and procedures of the compliance function.
5.4.3. Compliance Officer – sufficient resources
An Authorised Person must ensure that the Compliance Officer has access to sufficient resources, including an adequate number of competent staff, to perform his duties objectively and independently of operational and business functions.
5.4.4. Compliance Officer – access to records and management
An Authorised Person must ensure that the Compliance Officer has unrestricted access to relevant records and to the Authorised Person’s Governing Body and senior management.
5.4.5. Monitoring and reporting arrangements
An Authorised Person must establish and maintain monitoring and reporting processes and procedures to ensure that any compliance breaches are readily identified, reported and promptly acted upon.
5.4.6. Documentation of monitoring and reporting arrangements and breaches
An Authorised Person must document the monitoring and reporting processes and procedures as well as keep records of breaches of any relevant Regulations or Rules.
5.5. Internal audit
5.5.1. Requirement to maintain internal audit function
An Authorised Person must establish and maintain an internal audit function with responsibility for monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls.
5.5.2. Independence of internal audit function
An Authorised Person must ensure that its internal audit function is independent from operational and business functions.
5.5.3. Access to records and resources
An Authorised Person must ensure that its internal audit function has unrestricted access to all relevant records and recourse when needed to the Authorised Person's Governing Body or the relevant committee, established by its Governing Body for this purpose.
5.5.4. Documentation of organisation, responsibilities and procedures
An Authorised Person must document the organisation, responsibilities and procedures of the internal audit function.
5.6. Conflicts of interest
5.6.1. Identification of conflicts of interest
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must take all reasonable steps to identify conflicts of interest that may arise between:
- (a) the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, including its managers and Employees, and the Clients of the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, or any Person directly or indirectly linked to the Ancillary Service Provider by control; or
- (b) one Client of the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Providerand another Client, in the course of the Authorised Person carrying on any Regulated Activity or Market Activity, or Ancillary Service Provider carrying on Ancillary Services.
5.6.2. Factors relevant to the existence of a conflict of interest in the provision of a service
For the purposes of identifying the types of conflict of interest that arise, or may arise, in the course of providing a service and whose existence may entail a material risk of damage to the interests of a Client, an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must take into account, as a minimum, whether the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, or a Person directly or indirectly linked by control to the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider:
- (a) is likely to make a financial gain, or avoid a financial loss, at the expense of the Client; or
- (b) has an interest in the outcome of a service provided to the Client or of a transaction carried out on behalf of the Client, which is distinct from the Client's interest in that outcome; or
- (c) has a financial or other incentive to favour the interest of another Client or group of Clients over the interests of the Client; or
- (d) carries on the same business as the Client; or
- (e) receives or will receive from a Person other than the Client an inducement in relation to a service provided to the Client, in the form of monies, goods or services, other than the standard commission or fee for that service.
5.6.3. Management of conflicts of interest
If arrangements made by an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider to manage conflicts of interest are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a Client will be prevented, the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must clearly disclose the general nature and/or sources of conflicts of interest to the Client before undertaking business for the Client.
5.6.4. Disclosure of conflicts of interest
The disclosure in GEN 5.6.3 must:
5.7. Information barriers
5.7.1. Establishment of information barriers
When an Authorised Person establishes and maintains an information barrier (that is, an arrangement that requires information held by an Authorised Person in the course of carrying on one part of the business to be withheld from, or not to be used for, Persons with or for whom it acts in the course of carrying on another part of its business) it may:
- (a) withhold or not use the information held; and
- (b) for that purpose, permit Employees in the first part of its business to withhold the information held from Employees in the other part of the business, but only to the extent that the business of one of those parts involves the carrying on of Regulated Activities or Market Activities.
5.7.2. Information barriers with a group
Information may also be withheld or not used by an Authorised Person when this is required by an established arrangement maintained between different parts of the business (of any kind) in the same group.
5.7.3. Relevance of information barrier to Market Abuse
Acting in conformity with GEN 5.7.1 and 5.7.2 does not amount to Market Abuse.
5.7.4. Effect of information barrier
When an Authorised Person manages a conflict of interest using the arrangements in GEN 5.7.1 and 5.7.2 which take the form of an information barrier, individuals on the other side of the information barrier will not be regarded as being in possession of knowledge denied to them as a result of the information barrier.
5.8. Management of risks
5.8.1. Operational risk
An Authorised Person must establish a robust operational risk management framework with appropriate systems and controls to identify, monitor and manage operational risks that key participants, other Authorised Persons, service providers (including outsources) and utility providers might pose to itself.
5.8.2. Legal risk
An Authorised Person must have a well‐founded, clear, transparent, and enforceable legal basis for each material aspect of its activities in all relevant jurisdictions.
5.8.3. Fraud risk
An Authorised Person must establish and maintain effective systems and controls to:
- (a) deter and prevent suspected fraud against the Authorised Person; and
- (b) report suspected fraud and other financial crimes to the AFSA and other relevant authorities.
5.8.4. Business continuity plan
An Authorised Person must have a business continuity plan, which is subjected to periodic review and scenario testing, that addresses events posing a significant risk of disrupting operations, including events that could cause a widespread or major disruption.
5.9. Recordkeeping
5.9.1. Record keeping obligation
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must make and retain records of matters and dealings, including Accounting Records and corporate governance practices which are the subject of requirements and standards under the Framework Regulations and Rules.
5.9.2. Retrieval of records
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must ensure that records stored pursuant to GEN 5.9.1 are capable of reproduction on paper within a reasonable period not exceeding five Business Days.
6. SUPERVISION
Guidance: supervisory powers of the AFSA The supervisory powers of the AFSA are set out in sections 96 to 101 of the Framework
Regulations and include:
Section 96: Power to gather information
Section 97: Power to require the production of a report
Section 98: Power to restrict, withdraw or suspend a Licence
Section 99: Power to impose a prohibition
Section 100: Power to impose a requirement
Section 101: Power to enter into an enforceable arrangement
Section 95(1) of the Framework Regulations provides that the AFSA may exercise any of the above powers “at any time where it considers it necessary or desirable to do so in accordance with its Regulatory Objectives.”
Guidance: Exercise of supervisory powers by the AFSA
The AFSA is likely to exercise the supervisory powers in sections 96 to 101 of the Framework Regulations in the following circumstances:
- (a) an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the criteria referred to in sections 34 or 37 or 41 of the Framework Regulations as appropriate (Criteria for the grant of a Licence); or
- (b) an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to carry on a Regulated Activity or Market Activity or Ancillary Service Provider for which it has a Licence; or
- (c) it is desirable to take such steps to exercise such power in order to protect the interests of clients or customers of an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider or the financial system; or
- (d) an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider is in breach of, or has been, in breach of one or more conditions, restrictions or requirements applicable to its Licence; or
- (e) an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider is (or has been) otherwise in breach of the AIFC Constitutional Statute, the Framework Regulations or any Rules or other relevant legislation; or
- (f) an Authorised Person is in breach of a requirement under section 48 of the FrameworkRegulations (Requirement for AFSA approval to change in control); or
- (g) a request has been received from a Financial Services Regulator; or
- (h) there is a reasonable likelihood that an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider will contravene a requirement of any Regulations or Rules; or
- (i) an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider has contravened a relevant requirement and there is a reasonable likelihood that the contravention will continue or be repeated; or
- (j) there is loss, risk of loss, or other adverse effect on an Authorised Person’s Clients; or
- (k) an investigation is being carried out in relation to an act or omission by an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider that constitutes or may constitute a Contravention of any applicable Regulation or Rule; or
- (l) an enforcement action has commenced against an Authorised Person for a Contravention of any applicable Regulation or Rule or Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (m) civil proceedings have commenced against an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (n) an Authorised Person or any of its Employees may be or has been engaged in Market Abuse; or
- (o) an Authorised Person is subject to a merger; or
- (p) a meeting has been called to consider a resolution for an Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's Winding‐ Up; or
- (q) an application has been made for the commencement of any insolvency proceedings, resolution action or the appointment of any receiver, administrator or provisional liquidator under the law of any country, territory or jurisdiction outside the AIFC for an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (r) there is a notification to dissolve an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, or strike it from the register maintained by the Registrar of Companies, or a comparable register in another jurisdiction; or
- (s) there is information to suggest that an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider is involved in Financial Crime; or
- (t) the AFSA considers that the exercise of the power is necessary or desirable to ensure Clients, Authorised Persons, or the financial system, are not adversely affected.
6.1. Power to require the production of a report
6.1.1. Notification of requirement to produce a report
Where the AFSA requires an Authorised Person to provide it with a report under section 97 of the Framework Regulations (Power to require the production of a report) it will give written notification to the Authorised Person of:
- (a) the purpose of its report, and
- (b) its scope, and
- (c) the timetable for completion and
- (d) any other relevant matters.
6.1.2. Nomination or approval of Skilled Person
- (a) The Person appointed to produce a report shall be referred to as the “Skilled Person”.
- (b) Where the AFSA nominates the Skilled Person, the Authorised Person must appoint the Person so nominated.
- (c) Where the AFSA invites the Authorised Person to nominate a Skilled Person, the Authorised Person must provide the AFSA with the details of an appropriately qualified Person within such period as the AFSA may direct. The AFSA will confirm within a reasonable period where it approves the appointment of the Person so nominated. If the AFSA does not approve the Person so nominated, it may require the Authorised Person to nominate another Person or itself nominate a Person.
6.1.3. Obligations of Skilled Person
When an Authorised Person appoints a Skilled Person, it must enter into a written contract with the Skilled Person whose terms:
- (a) require and permit the Skilled Person to co‐operate with the AFSA in relation to the Authorised Person and to communicate to the ASFA information on, or his opinion on, matters of which he has, or had, become aware in his capacity as a Skilled Person reporting on the Authorised Person in the following circumstances:
(i) the Skilled Person reasonably believes that, as regards the Authorised Person concerned:
(A) there is or has been, or may be or may have been, a contravention of any requirement that applies to the Authorised Person concerned; and
(B) that the contravention may be of material significance to the AFSA in determining whether to exercise, in relation to the Authorised Person concerned, any powers conferred on the AFSA under any provision of the Framework Regulations;
(ii) the Skilled Person reasonably believes that the information on, or his opinion on, those matters may be of material significance to the AFSA in determining whether the Authorised Person concerned satisfies and will continue to satisfy the fit and proper requirements; or
(iii) the Skilled Person reasonably believes that the Authorised Person is not, may not be, or may cease to be, a going concern;
- (b) require the Skilled Person to prepare a report within the time specified by the AFSA; and
- (c) waive any duty of confidentiality owed by the Skilled Person to the Authorised Person which might limit the provision of information or opinion by that Skilled Person to the AFSA in accordance with (a) or (b).
6.1.4. Contract with Skilled Person
An Authorised Person must ensure that the contract required under GEN 6.1.2:
- (a) is governed by the law of the AIFC; and
- (b) expressly provides that the AFSA has a right to enforce the provisions included in the contract under GEN 6.1.2; and
- (c) expressly provides that, in proceedings brought by the AFSA for the enforcement of those provisions, the skilled Person is not to have available by way of defence, set‐off or counter claim any matter that is not relevant to those provisions; and
- (d) if the contract includes an arbitration agreement, expressly provides that the AFSA is not, in exercising the right in (b) to be treated as a party to, or bound by, the arbitration agreement; and
- (e) provides that the provisions included in the contract under GEN 6.1.2 are irrevocable and may not be varied or rescinded without the AFSA's consent.
6.2. Obligation of disclosure to the AFSA
6.2.1. Core information
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must provide the AFSA with reasonable advance notice of a change in:
- (a) the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's name; or
- (b) any business or trading name under which the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider carries on a Regulated Activity or Market Activity;
- or Ancillary Service; or
- (c) the address of the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's principal place of business in the AIFC; or
- (d) in the case of a Branch, its registered office or head office address; or
- (e) its legal structure; or
- (f) an Approved Individual’s name or any material matters relating to his fitness and propriety.
6.2.2. Branches
An Authorised Person which is incorporated in the AIFC must provide the AFSA with reasonable advance notice of the establishment or closure of a branch office anywhere in the world from which it carries on financial services.
6.2.3. Regulatory impact
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must advise the AFSA immediately if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that any of the following matters may have occurred or may be about to occur:
- (a) the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's failure to satisfy the fit and proper requirements; or
- (b) any matter which could have a significant adverse effect on the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's reputation; or
- (c) any matter in relation to the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider which could result in serious adverse financial consequences to the financial system or to other Authorised Persons or Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (d) a significant breach of a Rule by the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, or any of its Employees; or
- (e) a breach by the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, or any of its Employees of any requirement imposed by any applicable law by the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, or any of its Employees; or
- (f) any proposed restructuring, merger, acquisition, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's risk profile or resources; or
- (g) any significant failure in the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's systems or controls, including a failure reported to the Authorised Person by the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's Auditor; or
- (h) any action that would result in a material change in the capital adequacy or solvency of the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (i) non-compliance with Rules due to an emergency outside the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's control and the steps being taken by the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider.
6.2.4. Major Acquisitions
(1) A Bank as defined in BBR Rules, which makes or proposes to make a Major Acquisition as defined in (2) must:
- (a) if it is incorporated in the AIFC, comply with the requirements in Rule 6.2.4 (4) of GEN rules; and
- (b) if it is a Branch, comply with the requirements in Rule 6.2.4 (7) of GEN rules.
(2) Subject to (3), a Major Acquisition is an acquisition in which the relevant Bank acquires or proposes to acquire, directly or indirectly, a shareholding in a Body Corporate where that acquisition:
- (a) is of a value (whether by one acquisition or a series of acquisitions) of 10% or more of:
- (i) the Bank’s Capital, as defined in BBR Rules; or
(ii) the capital resources of the Bank calculated in accordance with the requirements of the Financial Services Regulator in its home jurisdiction, if it is operating as a Branch in the AIFC; or
- (b) even if it does not exceed the 10% threshold referred to in (a), it is reasonably likely to have a significant regulatory impact on the Bank’s activities.
(3) An acquisition is not a Major Acquisition for the purposes of (2) if it is an investment made by a Bank:
- (a) in accordance with the terms of a contract entered into by the Bank as an incidental part of its ordinary business; or
- (b) as a routine transaction for managing the Bank’s own investment portfolio and therefore can reasonably be regarded as made for a purpose other than acquiring management or control of a Body Corporate either directly or indirectly.
Guidance
(1) Examples of the kind of investments referred to in Rule 6.2.4(2)(b) include an acquisition of a stake in a small specialised trading firm that engages in high risk trades or other activities that could pose a reputational risk to the Bank.
(2) The onus is on a Bank proposing to make an acquisition to consider whether it qualifies as a Major Acquisition under Rule 6.2.4(2)(b). Generally, in the case of a Bank that is operating as a Branch in the AIFC), the significant regulatory impact referred to in Rule 6.2.4 (2) (b) should be prudential risk to the Bank as a whole. If a Bank is uncertain about whether or not a proposed acquisition qualifies as a Major Acquisition under Rule 6.2.4 (2)(b), the Bank may seek guidance from the AFSA.
(3) Examples of contractual arrangements of the kind referred to in Rule 6.2.4 (3)(a) include enforcement of a security interest in the securities of the investee Body Corporate or a loan workout pursuant to a loan agreement entered into between a bank and its client.
(4) Examples of the kind of investments referred to in Rule 6.2.4(3)(b) include temporary investments, such as investments included in the Bank’s trading book or which are intended to be disposed of within a short term (e.g. within 12 months).
(4) A Bank which is an Authorised Firm incorporated in the AIFC must:
- (a) before making a Major Acquisition:
- (i) notify the AFSA in writing of the proposed Major Acquisition at least 45 days prior to the proposed date for effecting the Major Acquisition; and
(ii) provide the AFSA with all the relevant information relating to that Major Acquisition to enable the AFSA to assess the regulatory impact of the proposed Major Acquisition on the Bank; and
- (b) not effect the proposed Major Acquisition unless:
- (i) it has either received written advice from the AFSA that it has no objection to that Major Acquisition or has not received any written objection or request for additional information from the AFSA within 45 days after the date of the notification; and
(ii) if the AFSA has imposed any conditions relating to the proposed Major Acquisition, it has complied with, and has the on-going ability to comply with, the relevant conditions.
(5) The AFSA may only object to a proposed Major Acquisition if it is of the view that the proposed Major Acquisition is reasonably likely to have a material adverse impact on the Bank’s ability to comply with its applicable regulatory requirements or on the financial services industry in the AIFC as a whole. The AFSA may also impose any conditions it considers appropriate to address any concerns it may have in relation to the proposed Major Acquisition.
(6) Without limiting the generality of its powers, the factors that the AFSA may take into account for the purposes of (2) include:
- (a) the financial and other resources available to the Bank to carry out the proposed Major Acquisition;
- (b) the possible impact of the proposed Major Acquisition upon the Bank’s resources, including its capital, both at the time of the acquisition and on an on-going basis;
- (c) the managerial capacity of the Bank to ensure that the activities of the investee Body Corporate are conducted in a prudent and reputable manner;
- (d) the place of incorporation or domicile of the investee Body Corporate and whether or not the laws applicable to that entity are consistent with the laws applicable to the Bank. In particular, whether there are any restrictions in relation to exchange of confidential regulatory information that are likely to pose challenges to the AFSA in carrying out its supervisory duties including those relating to consolidated supervision where applicable; and
- (e) any other undue risks to the Bank or the financial services industry in the AIFC as a whole arising from the proposed Major Acquisition. Guidance Factors which the AFSA may take into account in assessing whether there are any undue risks arising from the proposed Major Acquisition include the size and nature of the business of the investee Body Corporate, its reputation and standing, its present and proposed management structure and the quality of management, the reporting lines and other monitoring and control mechanisms available to the Bank and the past records of the Bank relating to acquisitions of a similar nature.
(7) A Bank which operates as a branch in the AIFC:
- (a) notify the AFSA in writing of any Major Acquisition in accordance with the notification requirement applying to the Bank under the requirements of the Financial Services Regulator in its home jurisdiction (the home regulator); and
- (b) if there is no notification requirement applying to the Bank under (a), comply with the requirements in Rule 6.2.4 (4) as if it were a Bank incorporated in the AIFC. The AFSA must follow the same procedures, and shall have the same powers, as set out in Rule
6.2.4 (6) in relation to such a notification.
(8) A Bank which gives to the AFSA a notification under (7)(a) must:
- (a) notify the AFSA of the Major Acquisition at the same time as it notifies the home regulator;
- (b) provide to the AFSA the same information as it is required to provide to the home regulator; and
- (c) provide to the AFSA copies of any communications it receives from the home regulator relating to the notification it has provided to the home regulator as soon as practicable upon receipt.
(9) The AFSA may, for the purposes of the requirements in this section, require from the Bank any additional information relating to the Major Acquisition as it may consider appropriate. A Bank must provide any such additional information to the AFSA promptly.
(10) The AFSA may, where it considers appropriate, withdraw its no objection position or modify or vary any condition it has imposed or any remedial action it has required under the Rules in this section. Guidance The AFSA will generally not withdraw a no objection position it has conveyed to a Bank, except in very limited circumstances. An example of such a situation is where the Bank is found to have provided to the AFSA inaccurate or incomplete information and that commission or omission has a material impact on the AFSA’s no objection decision.
(11) The procedures in Section 11 of the AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations apply to a decision of the AFSA under this Rule 6.2.4, to object to an acquisition or to impose or vary conditions.
(12) If the AFSA decides to exercise its power under this Rule to object to an acquisition or to impose or vary conditions, the Authorised Firm may appeal to the AIFC Court for a review of the decision.
6.2.5. Suspected Market Abuse
(1) An Authorised Person must notify the AFSA immediately if it:
- (a) receives an order from a Client, or arranges or executes a transaction with or for a Client; and
- (b) has reasonable grounds to suspect that the order or transaction may constitute Market Abuse.
(2) The notification under (1) must specify:
- (a) sufficient details of the order or transaction; and
- (b) the reasons for the Authorised Person suspecting that the order or transaction may constitute Market Abuse.
(3) An Authorised Person must not inform the Client, or any other Person involved in the order or transaction, of a notification under this Rule.
6.2.6. Fraud and errors
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must notify the AFSA immediately if one of the following events arises in relation to its activities:
- (a) it becomes aware that an Employee may have committed a fraud against one of its or another Person’s Clients; or
- (b) a fraud has been committed against it; or
- (c) it has reason to believe that a Person is acting with intent to commit a serious fraud against it; or
- (d) it identifies significant irregularities in its accounting or other records, whether or not there is evidence of fraud; or
- (e) it suspects that one of its Employees who is connected with the Authorised Person’s or Ancillary Service Provider's Regulated Activities or Market Activities may be guilty of serious misconduct.
6.2.7. Other regulators
An Authorised Person must advise the AFSA immediately of:
- (a) the granting or refusal of any application for or revocation of authorisation to carry on financial services in any jurisdiction; or
- (b) the granting, withdrawal or refusal of an application for, or revocation of, membership of the Authorised Person of any regulated exchange or clearing house; or
- (c) the Authorised Person becoming aware that a Financial Services Regulator or another enforcement or regulatory agency has started an investigation into the affairs of the Authorised Person; or
- (d) the appointment of inspectors, howsoever named, by a Financial Services Regulator or another enforcement or regulatory agency to investigate the affairs of the Authorised Person; or
- (e) the imposition of disciplinary measures or disciplinary sanctions on the Authorised Person in relation to its financial services or governance by any Financial Services Regulator or any regulated exchange or clearing house.
6.2.8. Action against an Authorised Person
An Authorised Person must notify the AFSA immediately if:
- (a) civil proceedings are brought against the Authorised Person and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the Authorised Person’s financial resources or its reputation; or
- (b) the Authorised Person is prosecuted for, or convicted of, any offence involving fraud or dishonesty, or any penalties are imposed on it for tax evasion.
6.2.9. Winding up, bankruptcy, insolvency and resolution
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must notify the AFSA immediately on:
- (a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (b) an application to dissolve the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider, or to strike it from the register maintained by the AIFC Registrar of Companies, or a comparable register in another jurisdiction; or
- (c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider;or
- (d) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with creditors of the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider; or
- (e) the application of any Person against the Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider for the commencement of any insolvency proceedings, resolution action, appointment of any receiver, administrator or provisional liquidator under the law of any country.
6.2.10. Information relating to corporate governance and remuneration
An Authorised Person must provide to the AFSA notice as soon as practicable of any significant changes to its corporate governance framework or the remuneration structure or strategy that affect its Regulated Activities or Market Activities.
6.2.11. Accuracy of information
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information that it provides to the AFSA in accordance with any applicable legislation is:
- (a) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgements, fairly and properly based; and
- (b) complete, in that it should include anything of which the AFSA would reasonably expect to be notified.
6.2.12. Correction of inaccurate information
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider must notify the AFSA immediately it becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests, that it:
- (a) has or may have provided the AFSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate; or
- (b) has or may have changed in a material particular.
6.3. Accounting / Auditing
6.3.1. Financial statements
An Authorised Person must prepare financial statements in accordance with the International Financial Reporting Standards ("IFRS") for each financial year of the Authorised Person.
6.3.2. Approval of financial statements
The financial statements of an Authorised Person must be approved by the Directors and signed on its behalf by at least one of the Directors.
6.3.3. Accounting records and regulatory returns
An Authorised Person must keep Accounting Records which are sufficient to show and explain transactions are such as to:
- (a) be capable of disclosing the financial position of the Authorised Person on an ongoing basis;
- (b) record the financial position of the Authorised Person as at its financial year end; and
- (c) ensure that any financial statements prepared by the Authorised Person comply with the Framework Regulations and Rules.
6.3.4. Retention of and access to records
An Authorised Person must ensure that its Accounting Records are:
- (a) retained by the Authorised Person for at least six years from the date to which they relate;
- (b) at all reasonable times, open to inspection by the AFSA or the Auditor of the Authorised Person; and
- (c) if requested by the AFSA capable of reproduction, within a reasonable period not exceeding five Business Days, in hard copy and in English.
6.3.5. Financial year end
An Authorised Person must not change its financial year end without the prior consent of the AFSA.
6.3.6. Appointment and termination of Auditors
An Authorised Person must:
- (a) notify the AFSA of the appointment of an Auditor using the form prescribed in Schedule 3;
- (b) prior to the appointment of the Auditor, take reasonable steps to ensure that the Auditor has the required skills, resources and experience to audit the business of the Authorised Person for which the Auditor has been appointed;
- (c) notify the AFSA immediately if the appointment of the Auditor is or is about to be terminated, or on the resignation of its Auditor, using the form prescribed in Schedule 3;
- (d) appoint an Auditor to fill any vacancy in the office of Auditor and ensure that the replacement Auditor can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as reasonably practicable; and
- (e) comply with any request by the AFSA to replace an Auditor previously appointed by that Authorised Person.
6.3.7. Independence of the Auditor
An Authorised Person must:
- (a) take reasonable steps to ensure that the Auditor and the relevant audit staff of the Auditor are independent of and not subject to any conflict of interest with respect to the Authorised Person; and
- (b) notify the AFSA if it becomes aware, or has reason to believe, that the Auditor or the relevant audit staff of the Auditor are no longer independent of the Authorised Person, or have a conflict of interest which may affect their judgement in respect of the Authorised Person.
6.3.8. Co‐operation with Auditors
An Authorised Person must take reasonable steps to ensure that it and its Employees:
- (a) provide any information to its Auditor that its Auditor reasonably requires, or is entitled to receive as Auditor;
- (b) give the Auditor right of access at all reasonable times to relevant records and information within its possession;
- (c) allow the Auditor to make copies of any records or information referred to in (b);
- (d) do not interfere with the Auditor's ability to discharge its duties;
- (e) report to the Auditor any matter which may significantly affect the financial position of the Authorised Person; and
- (f) provide such other assistance as the Auditor may reasonably request it to provide.
6.3.9. Audit reports
An Authorised Person must:
- (a) require, in writing, its Auditor to:
- (i) conduct an audit of and produce a report on the Authorised Person’s financial statements in accordance with the International Standards on Auditing; and
- (ii) such other reports as the AFSA may require; and
- (b) submit any reports so produced to the AFSA within four months of the Authorised Person’s year end.
SCHEDULE 1: REGULATED ACTIVITIES
1. Dealing in Investments as Principal
Dealing in Investments as Principal means buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting any Investment as principal.
2. Dealing in Investments as Agent
Dealing in Investments as Agent means buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting any Investment as agent.
3. Managing Investments
Managing Investments means managing on a discretionary basis assets belonging to another Person where the assets include any Investment.
4. Managing a Collective Investment Scheme
(1) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme means establishing, managing or otherwise operating or winding up a Collective Investment Scheme.
(2) To the extent that any activity under (1) constitutes Managing Assets, Providing Fund Administration, Dealing as Agent, Dealing as Principal, Arranging Deals in Investments, or Providing Custody, such a Regulated Activity is taken to be incorporated within Managing a Collective Investment Scheme.
5. Providing Custody
Providing Custody means one or more of the following activities:
- (a) safeguarding and administering Investments belonging to another Person;
- (b) in the case of a Fund, safeguarding and administering Fund Property; or
- (c) safeguarding and administering Digital Assets belonging to another Person.
6. Arranging Custody
Arranging Custody means arranging for one or more Persons to carry on the Regulated Activity of Providing Custody.
7. Providing Trust Services
Providing Trust Services means:
- (a) the provision of services with respect to the creation of an express trust;
- (b) arranging for any Person to act as a trustee in respect of any express trust;
- (c) acting as trustee in respect of an express trust; or
- (d) acting as protector or enforcer in respect of an express trust.
8. Providing Fund Administration
Providing Fund Administration means providing one or more of the following services in relation to a Fund:
- (a) processing dealing instructions including subscriptions, redemptions, stock transfers and arranging settlements;
- (b) valuing of assets and performing net asset value calculations;
- (c) maintaining the share register and Unitholder registration details;
- (d) performing anti money laundering requirements;
- (e) undertaking transaction monitoring and reconciliation functions;
- (f) performing administrative activities in relation to banking, cash management, treasury and foreign exchange;
- (g) producing financial statements, other than as the Fund’s registered auditor; or
- (h) communicating with participants, the Fund, the Fund Manager, and investment managers, the prime brokers, the Regulators and any other parties in relation to the administration of the Fund.
9. Acting as the Trustee of a Fund
(1) Acting as the Trustee of a Fund means holding the assets of a Fund on trust for the Unitholders where the Fund is in the form of an Investment Trust.
(2) To the extent that any activity under (1) constitutes Providing Fund Administration or Providing Custody, such a Financial Service is taken to be incorporated within Acting as the Trustee of a Fund.
10. Advising on Investments
(1) Advising on Investments means giving advice to a Person in his capacity as an investor or potential investor, or in his capacity as agent for an investor or a potential investor, on the merits of his buying, selling, holding, subscribing for or underwriting a particular Investment (whether as principal or agent).
(2) In sub‐paragraph (1), "advice" includes a statement, opinion or report:
- (a) where the intention is to influence a Person, in making a decision, to select a particular Investment or an interest in a particular Investment; or
- (b) which could reasonably be regarded as being intended to have such an influence.
11. Arranging Deals in Investments
Arranging Deals in Investments means making arrangements with a view to another Person buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting an Investment (whether that other Person is acting as principal or agent).
12. Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account
Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account means managing an account or portfolio which is a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account (RPSIA).
13. Islamic Banking Business
Islamic Banking Business means providing financing or making Investments by entering as principal or agent into any Islamic Financial Contract while raising funds for those activities through either or both of the following:
- (a) raising, accepting and managing funds or money placements;
- (b) managing Unrestricted Profit Sharing Investment Accounts (UPSIA); provided that all such activities are carried out in a Shari’ah-compliant manner.
14. Providing Islamic Financing
Providing Islamic Financing means providing financing in a Shari’ah-compliant manner by entering into any Islamic Financial Contract.
15. Insurance Intermediation
(1) Insurance Intermediation means:
- (a) advising on a Contract of Insurance;
- (b) acting as agent for another Person in relation to the buying or selling of a Contract of Insurance for that other Person; or
- (c) making arrangements with a view to another Person, whether as principal or agent, buying a Contract of Insurance.
(2) In (1)(a), ‘advising’ means giving advice to a Person in his capacity as a Policyholder, or in his capacity as agent for a Policyholder on the merits of his entering into a Contract of Insurance whether as principal or agent.
(3) In (2), ‘advice’ includes a statement, opinion or report:
- (a) where the intention is to influence a Person, in making a decision, to select a Contract of Insurance or insurance cover; or
- (b) which could reasonably be regarded as being intended to have such influence.
(4) The arrangements in (1)(c) include arrangements which do not bring about the transaction.
(5) The arrangements in (1)(c) do not include the mere provision of information about:
- (a) a Contract of Insurance, insurer, insurance intermediary or insurance manager to a Policyholder; or
- (b) a Policyholder to an insurer, insurance intermediary or insurance manager, if the Person providing that information does not take any further steps to assist in concluding the Contract of Insurance.
16. Operating a Representative Office
(1) Operating a Representative Office means the marketing, from an establishment in the AIFC, of one or more financial services or investments which are offered in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC.
(2) For the purposes of this paragraph, "marketing" means:
- (a) providing information on one or more investments or financial services;
- (b) engaging in promotions in relation to such information provision; or
- (c) making introductions or referrals in connection with the offer of financial services or investments; provided that such activities do not constitute:
- (d) advising on Investments; or
- (e) receiving and transmitting orders in relation to an Investment.
(3) An Authorised Person which is authorised to Operate a Representative Office may not have a Licence to carry on any other Regulated Activity.
(4) An Authorised Person which does not have a Licence to Operate a Representative Office does not Operate a Representative Office if it undertakes any activities of the kind described in sub‐paragraph (2) that constitute marketing.
(5) Any communication which amounts to marketing in respect of a Financial Service or Investment, which is issued by or on behalf of a Government or non‐commercial governmental entity, does not constitute marketing for the purposes of sub‐paragraph (2).
17. Accepting Deposits
(1) Accepting Deposits means accepting money or funds received as a Deposit if that money or funds are:
- (a) lent to other Persons; or
- (b) used to finance wholly, or partly, any other activity of the Person accepting the Deposit.
(2) To the extent that any activity constitutes Opening and Operating Bank Accounts, such a Regulated Activity is taken to be incorporated within Accepting Deposits.
18. Providing Credit
(1) Providing Credit means providing a Credit Facility to another Person.
(2) A Person does not carry on the Regulated Activity of Providing Credit if the Credit Facility is to be provided by the Authorised Person in the course of carrying on one or more of the following activities:
- (a) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
- (b) Arranging Deals in Investments;
- (c) Managing Investments;
- (d) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme;
- (e) Providing Custody.
19. Advising on a Credit Facility
(1) Advising on a Credit Facility means giving advice to a Person in his capacity as a borrower or a potential borrower, or as an agent for a borrower or a potential borrower, on the merits of his entering into a particular Credit Facility.
(2) In sub‐paragraph (1), "advice" includes a statement, opinion or report:
- (a) where the intention is to influence a Person, in making a decision, to enter into a particular Credit Facility; or
- (b) which could reasonably be regarded as being intended to have such an influence.
20. Arranging a Credit Facility
(1) Arranging a Credit Facility means making arrangements for the provision of a Credit Facility by one or more Persons.
(2) A Person does not carry on the Regulated Activity of Arranging a Credit Facility if
- (a) he is to be a party to the Provision of Credit Facilities in question; or
- (b) he merely provides the means by which a Person providing a Credit Facility communicates with the Person to whom the Credit Facility is or is to be provided.
(3) A Person does not carry on the Regulated Activity of Arranging a Credit Facility if it:
- (a) is carried on in the course of Providing Legal Services or Providing Accountancy Services, which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of Financial Services;
- (b) may reasonably be regarded as a necessary part of any other services provided in the course of Providing Legal Services or Providing Accountancy Services; and
- (c) is not remunerated separately from the other services.
21. Providing Money Services
(1) Providing Money Services includes, without limitation:
- (a) providing currency exchange;
- (b) selling or issuing payment instruments;
- (c) selling or issuing stored value;
- (d) Execution of payment transactions, including transfers of funds on a settlement account, including a bank account, with the user's payment service provider or with another payment service provider:
- (i) execution of direct debits, including one-off direct debits;
(ii) execution of payment transactions through a payment card or a similar device; and
- (e) Execution of payment transactions where the funds are covered by a credit line for a payment service user:
- (i) execution of direct debits, including one-off direct debits;
(ii) execution of payment transactions through a payment card or a similar device; and
- (f) Money remittance; and
- (g) Execution of payment transactions where the consent of the payer to execute a payment transaction is given by means of any telecommunication, digital or IT device and the payment is made to the telecommunication, IT system or network operator, acting only as an intermediary between the payment service user and the supplier of the goods and services.
(2) An Authorised Person does not provide Money Services, if it does so in relation to the carrying on of another Regulated Activity where providing Money Services is in connection with and a necessary part of that other Regulated Activity.
22. Effecting Contracts of Insurance
Effecting Contracts of Insurance means effecting Contracts of Insurance as Principal.
23. Carrying on Contracts of Insurance
Carrying on Contracts of Insurance means carrying on Contracts of Insurance as Principal.
24. Insurance Management
(1) Insurance Management means:
- (a) performing underwriting or administration functions for or on behalf of an insurer or Captive, for the purposes of that insurer effecting or carrying out a Contract of Insurance as principal; or
- (b) arranging reinsurance for and on behalf of an insurer or Captive for whom it is underwriting;
- (c) performing underwriting or administration functions for or on behalf of a Takaful Operator or a Captive Takaful Operator, for the purposes of that Takaful Operator effecting or carrying out a Takaful Contract as principal; or
- (d) arranging Retakaful for and on behalf of a Takaful Operator or Captive for whom it is underwriting.
(2) In (1):
- (a) “administration” includes, without limitation, one or more of the following activities:
- (i) processing applications for, and endorsements on, Contracts of Insurance;
(ii) collecting and processing premiums or Takaful contributions;
(iii) negotiating terms of settlement of claims; or
(iv) settling claims; and
- (b) “underwriting” includes, without limitation, one or more of the following activities:
- (i) assessing underwriting risks;
(ii) negotiating and settling terms of Contracts of Insurance or terms of Takaful Contracts, including exclusions;
(iii) negotiating and settling premiums or Takaful contributions;
(iv) negotiating commissions; or
- (v) countersigning, stamping and issuing Contracts of Insurance or Takaful Contracts.
(3) In this Rule, a reference to an “insurer” is a reference to:
(4) In this Rule, a reference to a “Takaful Operator” is a reference to:
- (a) a Takaful Operator; or
- (b) a Non-AIFC Takaful Operator.
25. Takaful Business
Takaful Business means the business of conducting either or both of the following activities:
- (a) effecting Takaful Contracts as Principal;
- (b) carrying on Takaful Contracts as Principal.
26. Opening and Operating Bank Accounts
Opening and Operating Bank Accounts means one or more of the following activities:
- (a) Opening and operating Bank Accounts;
- (b) Services enabling funds to be placed on a Bank Account as well as all the operations required for operating a bank account; and
- (c) Services enabling funds withdrawals from a Bank Account as well as all the operations required for operating a Bank Account.
27. Operation of a Payment System
Operation of a Payment System means operation of funds transfer system with formal and standardised arrangements and common rules for the processing, clearing and/or settlement of payment transactions.
28. Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility
Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility or ‘MTF’, where MTF means a system which brings together multiple third parties buying and selling Investments, rights or interests in Investments, in accordance with its non-discretionary rules, in a way that results in a contract in respect of such Investments.
29. Operating an Organised Trading Facility
Operating an Organised Trading Facility or ‘OTF’, where OTF means a system which brings together multiple third parties buying and selling Investments, rights or interests in Investments, in accordance with its discretionary rules, in a way that results in a contract in respect of such Investments.
30. Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility
Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility means operating a facility which functions regularly and brings together multiple parties (whether as principal or agent) with a view to the entering into of contracts:
(a) to buy, sell or exchange Digital Assets for a Fiat currency; and/or
(b) to exchange one Digital Asset for another Digital Asset, in its Facility, in accordance with its non-discretionary rules.; and/or
(c) to buy, sell or exchange Digital Assets for a commodity.
SCHEDULE 2: ANCILLARY SERVICES
1. Providing Legal Services
Providing Legal Services means the application of legal principles or judgement, including but not limited to:
- (a) giving legal advice or counsel; or
- (b) drafting or completion of legal documents or agreements; or
- (c) representation in court proceedings or in an administrative adjudicative procedure in which legal pleadings are filed or a record is established as the basis for judicial review; or
- (d) negotiation of legal rights or responsibilities; but excluding acting as a lay representative authorised by an administrative agency or tribunal, serving as a judge, mediator, arbitrator, conciliator or facilitator; and participation in employment negotiations, arbitrations or conciliations.
2. Providing Audit Services
Providing Audit Services means:
- (a) performing audit, examination, verification, investigation, certification, presentation or review of financial transactions and accounting records; and
- (b) preparing or certifying reports on audits or examinations of books or records of account, balance sheets, and other financial, accounting and related documents.
3. Providing Accountancy Services
Providing Accountancy Services means the application of accounting principles or judgement, including but not limited to advising on matters relating to accounting procedure and the recording, presentation or certification of financial information or data, including financial information or data required by any law for the time being in force in the AIFC.
4. Providing Consulting Services
Performing Consultancy Services means providing expert knowledge or advice on a particular topic. Consultancy Services may include the activity of Company service providers.
5. Providing Credit Rating Services
Providing Credit Rating Services means:
- (a) analysis or evaluation of information carried on with a view to issuing or reviewing a Credit Rating; or
- (b) issuing or reviewing a Credit Rating.
SCHEDULE 3: FORMS
Purpose | Relevant Section or Rule | Form |
Application for a Licence to carry on Regulated Activities | ||
Application to modify or withdraw a Licence to carry on Regulated Activities | ||
Application for a Licence to carry on Market Activities | ||
Application to modify or withdraw a Licence to carry on Market Activities | ||
Application for a Licence to carry on Ancillary Services | ||
Application to modify or withdraw a Licence to carry on Ancillary Services | ||
Application for Approved Individual status | ||
Application to modify or withdraw an Approved Individual’s registration | ||
Application for approval to a change of control | FSFR section 48; GEN 3.2.2 | |
Notification of proposed decrease in level of control | ||
Notification of appointment, termination or resignation of Auditor |
_
SCHEDULE 4: MARKET ACTIVITIES
1. Operating an Exchange
(1) Operating an Exchange means operating a facility which functions regularly and brings together multiple third party buying and selling interests in Investments, in accordance with its non discretionary rules, in a way that can result in a contract in respect of Investments admitted to trading or traded on the facility.
(2) The facility referred to in (1) may be organised on a temporary or permanent basis and can be an order driven system, a quote driven system or a hybrid of such systems that enables the market to operate electronic trading or trading by other means.
2. Operating a Clearing House
This section was added on 17 January 2020.
3. [intentionally omitted]
[intentionally omitted]
4. Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform
(1) Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform means:
- (a) operating an electronic platform that facilitates the bringing together of potential lenders and Borrowers; and
- (b) administering a loan agreement that results from operating the electronic platform.
(2) Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform also includes making arrangements for a lender to transfer his or her rights and obligations under a loan agreement referred to in (3).
(3) In (1)(b), “administering a loan agreement” means:
- (a) providing information or performing other duties under a loan agreement on behalf of the Borrower or the lender;
- (b) taking steps to obtain the repayment of a loan; or
- (c) exercising rights or performing obligations under a loan agreement on behalf of the Borrower or the lender. Administering a loan agreement includes where a Person (A) performs a function described in (3)(a), (3)(b) or (3)(c) itself and where another Person appointed by A performs such functions, pursuant to an arrangement with A or at A’s direction.
(4) In paragraph (1)(a), an "electronic platform" means a website or other form of electronic media.
(5) Where another Person appointed by A performs functions as described in paragraph (3), A shall:
- (a) notify AFSA that the other Person is being appointed by A and provide details of the functions for which they are being appointed;
- (b) provide AFSA with the other Person's details including their name and registered address;
- (c) require the other Person to notify Borrowers or lenders that they are appointed by and acting on behalf of A and provide details of the functions for which they have been appointed in a way that is clear and not misleading; and
- (d) assume responsibility at all times for the actions of the other Person in performing the function for which it has been appointed.
5. Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform
(1) Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform means:
- (a) operating an electronic platform that facilitates the bringing together of potential Investors and Issuers who wish to obtain funding for a business or project, resulting in an Investor obtaining an Investment from the Issuer seeking funding; and
- (b) administering an Investment that results from operating the electronic platform.
(2) Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform also includes making arrangements for an Investor to sell his or her Investment referred to in (1).
(3) In (1) and (2), “administering an Investment” means:
- (a) providing information or performing other duties relating to Investments on behalf of the Issuer or the investor;
- (b) taking steps to obtain the payment of any amount payable by the Issuer to an investor; and/or
- (c) exercising rights or performing obligations relating to an Investment on behalf of the Issuer or the Investor.
Administering an Investment includes where a Person (A) performs a function described in (3)(a), (3)(b) or (3)(c) itself and where another Person appointed by A performs such functions, pursuant to an arrangement with A or at A’s direction;
(4) In paragraph (1)(a), an "electronic platform" means a website or other form of electronic media.
(5) Where another Person appointed by A performs functions as described in paragraph (3), A shall:
- (a) notify AFSA that the other Person is being appointed by A and provide details of the functions for which they are being appointed;
- (b) provide AFSA with the other Person's details including their name and registered address;
- (c) require the other Person to notify Borrowers or lenders that they are appointed by and acting on behalf of A and provide details of the functions for which they have been appointed in a way that is clear and not misleading; and
- (d) assume responsibility at all times for the actions of the other Person in performing the function for which it has been appointed.”
Guidance: Right to operate several types of crowdfunding platforms
(1) A Person may hold Licences to operate a Loan Crowdfunding Platform and an Investment Crowdfunding Platform simultaneously.
(2) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must ensure that it does not provide both regulated and unregulated crowdfunding services.
(3) Unregulated crowdfunding services mean operating a Donation-Based, Pre-Sale-Based (or Reward Based) Crowdfunding Platform, which do not require the AFSA authorisation and, therefore, can be performed as non-regulated activities
(4) A Donation-Based Crowdfunding Platform is a platform whereupon the Person operates an electronic platform that facilitates the bringing together of donors and organisations which are registered or recognised as charities by public authorities, whether in the Republic of Kazakhstan or elsewhere.
A Pre-Sale (or Reward-Based) Crowdfunding Platforms is a platform whereupon the Person operates an electronic platform that facilitates the bringing together of persons providing funds to entities and/or persons in return for a reward, service or product (such as event tickets).
6. Operating a Private Financing Platform
(1) Operating a Private Financing Platform means operating an electronic platform which brings together multiple third parties directly or indirectly buying an instrument acknowledging or creating indebtedness arising from the supply of goods or the delivery of services.
(2) Operating an Operating a Private Financing Platform also includes:
- (a)entering into an arrangement with a party for the purpose facilitating the activity described in (1) whether through an intermediary investment vehicle or otherwise;
- (b)facilitating an arrangement described in (2)(a); and/or
- (c)holding or controlling Client Money or Arranging Custody in connection with an arrangement described in (1), (2)(a), or (2)(b) above.
CONDUCT OF BUSINESS RULES
Conduct of Business
Guidance: Purpose of this rulebook
The purpose of this rulebook, “COB”, is to ensure that financial services firms operating in the AIFC meet the standards of conduct expected of such firms, particularly with regard to the treatment of their clients, but also in their dealings with counterparties and other market participants. COB also includes rules to ensure that the behaviour of firms operating in the AIFC contributes to fostering and maintaining the integrity of financial markets in the AIFC. COB also includes certain requirements applicable to Ancillary Services Providers.
This will assist the AFSA to meet the regulatory objectives specified in the Financial Services Framework Regulations (the "Framework Regulations"), including the AFSA's objectives of:
·protecting the interests of investors and users of financial services;
·ensuring that the AIFC's financial markets are fair, efficient, transparent and orderly; and
·fostering and maintaining confidence in the AIFC's financial system and regulatory regime.
Chapter 1 (Application) states that the requirements in the COB rulebook generally apply to Authorised Firms licensed to carry on a Regulated Activity. Some requirements may be modified or disapplied altogether depending on the type of Authorised Firm involved, the nature of its activities, and/or the classification of the Client to whom the Authorised Firm provides services.
In particular, the majority of the COB rules do not apply to Insurance Intermediaries, Trust Service Providers, or Ancillary Service Providers, which are instead required to comply with the requirements set out in Chapters 11, 12 or 13 of COB respectively.
For the avoidance of doubt, COB does not apply to Representative Offices or Authorised Market Institutions, unless otherwise provided under Rules made by the AFSA.
Chapter 2 (Client classification) requires an Authorised Firm to classify each of its Clients as either a Retail Client, Professional Client, or Market Counterparty, depending on the Client's financial resources and knowledge and experience of Financial Services. The Authorised Firm must inform the Client of its classification. The purpose of this classification is to ensure that the COB rules are applied in a risk-sensitive manner in proportion to the risks faced by a Client and the level of protection which that Client requires. In particular, the COB rules seek to ensure that the Client receives an adequate level of protection based on its resources and understanding of the Financial Products and Financial Services involved. For example, a Retail Client is assumed to need more protection than a Market Counterparty, so an Authorised Firm dealing with a Retail Client will be required to comply with more stringent requirements in COB.
Chapter 3 (Communications with Clients and Financial Promotions) imposes a general duty on Authorised Firms to ensure that their communications with Clients are fair, clear and not misleading. In addition, there are specific requirements for the handling of Financial Promotions (that is, marketing materials directed at potential investors). This is to ensure the protection of Clients, including potential clients.
Chapter 4 (Key information and client agreement) provides the key information to be provided by Authorised Firms to their Clients, and the requirement to enter into a client agreement with their Clients. The purpose of this requirement is to ensure that Clients receive the information which they need in order to come to an informed decision about the Financial Products and Financial Services being offered, and to ensure that there is a binding contract containing the rights and obligations of both parties.
Chapter 5 (Conduct of Investment Business) states that an Authorised Firm that is Advising on Investments or Managing Investments for a Client must assess whether the Financial Product or Financial Service being offered is "suitable" for that Client. If the Authorised Firm is Dealing in Investments or receiving and transmitting orders for a Client, the Authorised Person must assess whether the Financial Product or Financial Service is "appropriate" for the Client. The respective nature of assessments of suitability or appropriateness are described in detail in COB 5. It also contains additional detailed disclosure requirements in respect of Life Policies and Family Takaful Policies.
Chapter 6 (Order execution and order handling) sets out the obligation for an Authorised Firm, when executing an order on behalf of a Client, to obtain the best possible result for the Client. The Authorised Firm is required to handle orders according to a specified order allocation policy.
Chapter 7 (Conflicts of interest) builds on the requirement in GEN that an Authorised Firm must identify a conflict of interest between itself and a Client, or between one Client and another Client, and where appropriate manage such conflicts. COB 7 provides further detail on how such conflicts should be managed and disclosed to the Client. COB 7 is also intended to prevent a third party making payments or providing other benefits to an Authorised Firm in a way that may damage the Client's interests.
Chapter 8 (Client assets) is intended to ensure that, where an Authorised Firm holds or controls Money or Investments belonging to a Client, such Money or Investments will be protected in the event of that Authorised Firm's insolvency.
Chapter 9 (Reporting to clients) states the requirements on an Authorised Firm to report to the Client. COB 9 is intended to ensure that the Authorised Firm provides the Client with post-trade confirmation of the Client's purchases and sales of Investments as well as regular periodic statements on the value of the Investments held by the Authorised Firm on behalf of the Client.
Chapter 10 (Investment research) sets out requirements in relation to the production of investment research by an Authorised Firm. This is intended to prevent any conflict of interest from acting to the detriment of the Client.
Chapter 11 (Insurance intermediaries) deals with specific conduct of business rules that apply to insurance intermediaries.
Chapter 12 (Trust Service Providers) sets out the conduct of business requirements that apply to Trust Service Providers.
Chapter 13 (Ancillary Service Providers) sets out high-level principles that apply to Ancillary Service Providers.
Chapter 14 (Credit Rating Agencies) sets out high-level principles that apply to Credit Rating Agencies.
Chapter 15 (Complaints handling and dispute resolution) contains high-level requirements setting out how a Client may issue a complaint against an Authorised Firm and how this may be escalated in the event of a dispute.
Chapter 16 (Record keeping) sets out how records must be maintained by an Authorised Firm.
Chapter 17 (Operators of a Digital Asset Business) sets out the conduct of business requirements that apply to Operators of a Digital Asset Business.
Chapter 18 (Banks) sets out the conduct of business requirements that apply to Banks.
Chapter 19 (Insurance Business) sets out the conduct of business requirements that apply to Insurers. These requirements relate to the cancellation of Contracts of Insurance and the handling of claims under Contracts of Insurance.
Chapter 20 (Insurance Management) contains provisions which apply to Insurance Managers. These include restrictions upon the services that Insurance Managers are permitted to provide, disclosures that they are required to make and requirements which apply where Insurance Managers handle claims under Contracts of Insurance.
1. APPLICATION
1.1. General application rule
The requirements in COB apply to an Authorised Firm with respect to any Regulated Activity carried on by an Authorised Firm operating within the jurisdiction of the AIFC as specified in Part 1 of the Framework Regulations.
1.2. Modifications and exclusions
1.2.1. Modifications and exclusions stated in a COB rule
The general application rule in COB 1.1 may be modified or excluded to the extent stated in the relevant provision in COB, depending on the type of Authorised Firm involved, the nature of its activities, and/or the classification of the Client to whom it provides services.
1.2.2. Exclusions in relation to certain categories of Centre Participant
For the avoidance of doubt, the requirements in COB do not apply to:
(a) a Representative Office;
(b) unless otherwise provided under Rules made by the AFSA, an Authorised Market Institution (other than an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform), except for COB 3 (Communications with Clients and Financial Promotions), unless otherwise provided under Rules made by the AFSA;
(c) an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform, except for COB 3 (Communications with Clients and Financial Promotions), COB 4 (Key Information and Client Agreement);
(d) intentionally omitted
(e) unless otherwise provided under Rules made by the AFSA, a MTF Operator and an OTF Operator, except for COB 15 (Complaints Handling and Dispute Resolution).
For the purposes of 1.2.2(c), references in COB 3, COB 4, COB 7, COB 8 and COB Schedule
2 to:
(a) "Authorised Firms" shall be read as if it were a reference to "an Authorised Crowdfunding Platforms";
(b) "Regulated Activities" shall be read as if it were a reference to "Market Activities";
(c) references to "Professional Client" or a "Market Counterparty" shall be read as if they were a reference to "Accredited Lender or Accredited Investor"; and
(d) references to "Retail Client" shall be read as if they were a reference to "Retail Lender or Retail Investor".
For the purposes of 1.2.2(e), references in COB 15 to "Retail Client" shall be read as if they were a reference to "Member, who is a natural person with Direct Electronic Access".
Guidance: Other applicable requirements
Although the Centre Participants listed in COB 1.2.2 are not generally subject to the requirements in COB, they will be subject to requirements in other Rules, which may include but are not limited to requirements in REP, AMI and GEN as applicable.
1.2.3. Application in respect of Insurance Intermediaries
The requirements in COB do not apply to Insurance Intermediaries, with the exception of COB 3 (Communications with Clients and Financial Promotions), COB 4 (Key Information and Client Agreement), COB 8.5 (Client money: Insurance Intermediation and Insurance Management) and COB 11</a> (Insurance Intermediaries).
Guidance: Insurance Intermediaries
Given the different nature of their activities compared with other Authorised Firms, Insurance Intermediaries are subject to specific conduct of business requirements that are set out in COB 11.
1.2.4. Application in respect of Trust Service Providers
The requirements in COB do not generally apply to Trust Service Providers, with the exception of COB 3 (Communications with Clients and Financial Promotions), COB 4 (Key Information and Client Agreement), COB 5.2 (Suitability Assessments), COB 7 (Conflicts of Interest), COB 12 (Trust Service Providers), and COB 15 (Record Keeping).
Guidance: Trust Service Providers
Trust Service Providers provide services that are distinct from those provided by other Authorised Firms, so they are not required to comply with all of the COB rules. COB 12 imposes a specific framework on Trust Service Providers that takes into account the nature of their activities and the risk profile that they represent compared with other Authorised Firms.
1.2.5. Application in respect of Ancillary Service Providers
The requirements in COB do not apply to Ancillary Service Providers, with the exception of COB 13 (Ancillary Service Providers).
Guidance: Ancillary Service Providers
Ancillary Service Providers may already be subject to professional standards, regulation by professional bodies, and/or codes of conduct. As a result, they are not required to comply with most of the requirements in COB. Instead, they are subject to duties and obligations under COB 13, which sets out high-level principles applicable to these firms.
1.2.6. Application in respect of Credit Rating Agencies
The requirements in COB do not apply to Credit Rating Agencies, with the exception of COB 14 (Credit Rating Agencies).
Guidance: Credit Rating Agencies
In order to ensure that Credit Rating Agencies provide independent analyses and opinions, COB 14 requires Credit Rating Agencies to comply with high-level principles that are based on international standards promoted by the International Organisation of Securities Commissions.
1.2.7. Table summarising modifications and exclusions
The general application rule in COB 1.1 is modified or excluded to the extent stated in this table in COB 1.2.7 by reference to the category of Client receiving services from the Authorised Firm ("who?") and/or the nature of the activity ("what?").
Part 1: Who? Modifications and exclusions from the general application rule according to the category of Client who is receiving services from the Authorised Firm | |
A: The following provisions do not apply in respect of Market Counterparty Business: | |
Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotions | |
COB 4.2.1(b) | Requirement to enter into a client agreement |
Suitability and appropriateness | |
Order execution and order handling, except for COB 6.2.9 (see COB 6.1.1(a)) | |
COB 11.2. 11.3.2, 11.3.3, 11.4, 11.5, 11.6, 11.7.3-11.7.6 | Insurance Intermediaries (see COB 11.1.2) |
Complaints handling and dispute resolution | |
B: The following provisions are modified in respect of Market Counterparty Business: | |
Financial Promotions (see COB 3.3.3(a)) | |
COB 4.2.1(a) | Requirement to provide key information (see COB 4.4) |
Client Money Rules (see COB 8.2.2) | |
Reporting to clients: Trade confirmations (see COB 9.1.4) | |
С: The following provisions do not apply in respect of business carried on with Professional Clients: | |
Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotions | |
COB 4.2.1(b) | Requirement to enter into a written client agreement |
COB 11.2.2, 11.5.2, 11.6.2 | Insurance Intermediaries (see COB 11.1.2) |
D: The following provisions are modified in respect of business carried on with Professional Clients: | |
Financial Promotions (see COB 3.3.3(a)) | |
COB 4.2.1(a) | Requirement to provide key information (see COB 4.4) |
COB 5.2.2 | Nature of suitability assessment (see COB 5.2.7) |
Nature of appropriateness assessment (see COB 5.3.6) | |
Client Money Rules (see COB 8.2.2) | |
Reporting to clients: Trade confirmations (see COB 9.1.4) | |
Part 2: What? Modifications and exclusions from the general application rule according to the nature of the activity | |
A: The following provisions do not apply in respect of an Authorised Firm carrying out the Regulated Activity of providing financing using Shari'ah-compliant contracts | |
COB 4 | Key Information and Client Agreement |
B: The following provisions do not apply in respect of a Fund Manager offering the Units of a Fund it manages | |
COB 4 | Key Information and Client Agreement |
C: The following provisions do not apply in respect of an Authorised Firm that executes a Transaction in the course of Managing Investments for a Client | |
COB 9.1 | Reporting to clients: Trade confirmations |
2. CLIENT CLASSIFICATION
2.1. General requirements
2.1.1. Obligation to classify Clients
An Authorised Firm providing any Financial Products or Financial Services to any Person must classify that Person as one of the following categories of Client:
- (a) a Retail Client;
- (b) a Professional Client; or
- (c) a Market Counterparty
2.1.2. Obligation to notify classification to Clients
An Authorised Firm must notify a new Client of its classification as a Retail Client, Professional Client, or Market Counterparty in accordance with COB 2.1.1 in respect of the Financial Product or Financial Service being provided to that Client.
2.1.3. Person may be classified as more than one category of Client
An Authorised Firm may classify a Person as belonging to different categories of Client in respect of:
- (a) a specific Financial Product, Financial Service, or Transaction; or
- (b) different types of Financial Product or Transaction, which are to be provided to, or carried out on behalf of, that Person.
2.2. Retail Clients
2.2.1. Classification as a Retail Client
An Authorised Firm must classify as a Retail Client any Client that is not a Professional Client or a Market Counterparty.
2.2.2. Authorised Firm may choose to treat any Person as a Retail Client
An Authorised Firm may choose to provide Financial Products or Financial Services to any Person as a Retail Client simply by classifying that Person as a Retail Client. If the Authorised Firm classifies the Person as a Retail Client in this way, it will not be required to assess whether that Person would otherwise be classified as a Professional Client or a Market Counterparty.
2.3. Professional Clients
2.3.1. Classification as a Professional Client
An Authorised Firm may classify a Person as a Professional Client if that Person:
- (a) meets the requirements to be a Deemed Professional Client; or
- (b) meets the requirements to be an Assessed Professional Client, in accordance with COB 2.5.1 or 2.5.5, provided that Person has not been classified as a Retail Client in accordance with COB 2.6.
2.4. Deemed Professional Clients
2.4.1. Requirements to be a Deemed Professional Client
For the purposes of COB 2.3.1, each of the following entities is a Deemed Professional Client unless it is a Market Counterparty or is given a different classification under COB 2:
- (a) a national or regional government;
- (b) a public body that manages public debt;
- (c) a central bank;
- (d) an international or supranational institution (such as the World Bank, the International
Monetary Fund, or the European Investment Bank) or other similar international organisation;
- (e) an Authorised Firm, or any other authorised or regulated financial institution, including a bank, securities firm or insurance company;
- (f) an Authorised Market Institution, or any other authorised or regulated exchange, trading facility, central securities depository, or clearing house;
- (g) a Collective Investment Scheme or its management company, or any other authorised or regulated collective investment undertaking or the management company of such an undertaking;
- (h) a pension fund or the management company of a pension fund;
- (i) a commodity dealer or a commodity derivatives dealer;
- (j) a Large Undertaking as specified in COB 2.4.2;
- (k) a Body Corporate whose shares are listed or admitted to trading on any exchange of an IOSCO member country;
- (l) a trustee of a trust which has, or had during the previous 12 months, assets of at least USD 10 million; or
- (m) any other institutional investor whose main activity is to invest in financial instruments, including an entity dedicated to the securitisation of assets or other financial transactions.
2.4.2. Large Undertakings
A Person is a Large Undertaking for the purposes of COB 2.4.1(j) if it met, as at the date of its most recent financial statements, at least two of the following requirements:
- (a) it has total assets of at least USD 20 million on its balance sheet;
- (b) it has a net annual turnover of at least USD 40 million; or
- (c) it has own funds of at least USD 2 million.
2.5. Assessed Professional Clients
2.5.1. Assessed Professional Clients: Individual Clients
For the purposes of COB 2.3.1, an Authorised Firm may treat an individual Client as an Assessed Professional Client if:
- (a) the Client has net assets of at least USD 100,000; and
- (b) either:
(i) the Authorised Firm assesses the Client, on reasonable grounds, to have sufficient experience and understanding of relevant Financial Products, Financial Services, Transactions and any associated risks; or
(ii) the Client works or has worked in the previous two years in an Authorised Firm or any other authorised or regulated financial institution, including a bank, securities firm or insurance company, in a position that requires knowledge of the type of Financial Products, Financial Services or Transactions envisaged; and
- (c) the following procedure is followed:
(i) the Client must confirm in writing to the Authorised Firm that it wishes to be treated as a Professional Client either:
(1) generally;
2) in respect of a specific Financial Product, Financial Service, or Transaction; or
(3) in respect of a type of Financial Product, Financial Service, or Transaction;
(ii) the Authorised Firm must give the Client a clear warning in writing setting out the protections that the Client may lose as a result of giving up its classification as a Retail Client; and
(iii) the Client must confirm in writing, in a separate document from the client agreement or other contract, that it is aware of the consequences of losing such protections.
Guidance: Meaning of an "individual"
For the purposes of COB 2.5.1, an "individual" means a Person who is a natural person and not an Undertaking.
2.5.2. Calculation of an individual's net assets
For the purposes of COB 2.5.1(a), the calculation of an individual Client's net assets:
2.5.3. Assessment of experience and understanding
For the purposes of the assessment required under COB 2.5.1(b)(i) and 2.5.6(a), an Authorised Firm must, where applicable, consider the following matters:
- (a) the Person’s knowledge and understanding of:
(i) the relevant Financial Products, Financial Services, and Transactions; and
(ii) any associated risks, either generally or in relation to a specific Financial Product, Financial Service, or Transaction;
- (b) the length of time during which the Person has participated in financial market activity;
- (c) the frequency with which the Person has carried out Transactions;
- (d) the extent to which the Person has previously relied on professional financial advice;
- (e) the size and nature of Transactions that have been undertaken by, or on behalf of, the Person in financial markets;
- (f) the Person’s relevant qualifications or training;
- (g) the composition and size of the Person’s portfolio of Investments;
- (h) in the case of insurance Transactions, relevant experience in relation to similar Transactions to be able to understand the risks associated with such Transactions; and
- (i) any other matters which the Authorised Firm considers relevant.
2.5.4. Legal structures or vehicles containing an individual's investment portfolio
An Authorised Firm may classify as an Assessed Professional Client a legal structure or vehicle, including an Undertaking, trust or foundation, that is set up solely for the purpose of managing the investment portfolio of an individual where that individual has been assessed as meeting the requirements in COB 2.5.1.
2.5.5. Individual joint account holders
An Authorised Firm may classify as a Professional Client an individual (the “joint account holder”) who has a joint account with an individual assessed as meeting the requirements in COB 2.5.1 (the “primary account holder”) if:
- (a) the joint account holder is a Family Member of the primary account holder;
- (b) the account is used for the purposes of managing Investments for the primary account holder and the joint account holder;
- (c) the following procedure is followed:
(i) the joint account holder must confirm in writing to the Authorised Firm that investment decisions relating to the joint account are generally made for, or on behalf of, him by the primary account holder;
(ii) the joint account holder must confirm in writing to the Authorised Firm that he wishes to be treated as a Professional Client either:
(1) generally;
(2) in respect of a specific Financial Product, Financial Service or Transaction; or
(3) in respect of a type of Financial Product or Transaction;
(ii) the Authorised Firm must give the joint account holder a clear warning in writing setting out the protections that the joint account holder may lose as a result of giving up his classification as a Retail Client; and
(iii) the joint account holder must confirm in writing, in a separate document from the client agreement or other contract, that he is aware of the consequences of losing such protections.
2.5.6. Assessed Professional Clients: Undertakings
For the purposes of COB 2.3.1, an Authorised Firm may treat an Undertaking as an Assessed Professional Client if:
- (a) the Authorised Firm assesses the Undertaking (which may involve assessing an individual or individuals authorised to make investment decisions on behalf of the Undertaking), on reasonable grounds, to have sufficient experience and understanding of the relevant Financial Products, Financial Services or Transactions and any associated risks; and
- (b) the Undertaking has own funds of at least USD 1 million.
2.5.7. Other types of Undertaking
An Authorised Firm may also classify an Undertaking as an Assessed Professional Client if the Undertaking has:
- (a) a Controller;
- (b) a Holding Company;
- (c) a Subsidiary (whether direct or indirect); or
- (d) a joint venture partner,
that meets the requirements in COB 2.5.6 to be classified as an Assessed Professional Client.
2.5.8. Client no longer meeting the requirements to be a Professional Client
If an Authorised Firm becomes aware that a Client no longer meets the requirements to be classified as a Professional Client, the Authorised Firm must, as soon as possible, inform the Client that this is the case and, where appropriate, discuss with the Client the steps that the Authorised Firm and the Client may take to address the situation, which may include the Authorised Firm notifying the Client of its reclassification.
2.6. Reclassification of a Professional Client as a Retail Client
2.6.1. Obligation to notify Professional Client of right to be treated as a Retail Client
If an Authorised Firm provides services to Retail Clients and Professional Clients, it must, when first establishing a relationship with a Person as a Professional Client, notify that Person in writing of:
- (a) that Person’s right to be classified as a Retail Client;
- (b) the higher level of protection available to Retail Clients; and
- (c) the period of time within which the Person may choose to be classified as a Retail Client.
If the Person does not choose to be classified as a Retail Client within the time specified by the Authorised Firm, the Authorised Firm may classify that Person as a Professional Client.
2.6.2. Authorised Firm not providing services to Retail Clients
If an Authorised Firm does not provide services to Retail Clients, it must inform its Clients of this fact and any relevant consequences.
2.6.3. Professional Client that asks to be treated as a Retail Client
If a Professional Client makes a request to the Authorised Firm to be treated as a Retail Client, the Authorised Firm must classify it as a Retail Client, unless the Authorised Firm does not provide services to Retail Clients.
Guidance: Request to an Authorised Firm that does not provide services to Retail Clients
An Authorised Firm that does not provide services to Retail Clients may receive a request from a Professional Client asking to be classified as a Retail Client. If the nature of the Client or the level of protection that it requires are such that it no longer meets the requirements to be a Professional Client, then the Authorised Firm should cease providing services to that Client.
2.7. Market Counterparties
2.7.1. Classification as a Market Counterparty
An Authorised Firm may classify a Person as a Market Counterparty, unless and to the extent that Person is given a different classification under this chapter COB 2, if that Person meets the requirements to be:
- (a) a Deemed Professional Client; or
- (b) an Assessed Professional Client and is the subsidiary of a Holding Company that is a Deemed Professional Client by virtue of being a Large Undertaking falling within COB 2.4.1(j), provided that the arrangement meets the conditions in COB 2.7.2.
2.7.2. Requirement for confirmation by the Client
In order for an Authorised Firm to classify a Person as a Market Counterparty, the Authorised Firm must ensure that:
- (a) the Person has been given prior written notification of its classification as a Market Counterparty; and
- (b) the Person has not requested to be classified other than as a Market Counterparty within the time specified in the notification.
2.8. Trusts and Funds
2.8.1. Trusts
If an Authorised Firm intends to provide Financial Products or Financial Services to a trust, it must, unless otherwise provided in COB, treat the trustee of the trust, and not the beneficiaries of the trust, as its Client.
2.8.2. Funds
If an Authorised Firm provides a Financial Product or Financial Service to a Fund that does not have a separate legal personality, that Fund will be the Client of the Authorised Firm.
2.9. Agent as Client
2.9.1. General application of the "agent as client" rule
Subject to COB 2.9.2, if an Authorised Firm is aware that a Person (the "agent"), with or for whom it is intending to provide a service is acting as an agent for another Person (the "underlying client") in relation to that service, then the Authorised Firm must treat the agent as its Client in respect of the service.
2.9.2. Exclusion from the "agent as client" rule
The underlying client is treated, for the purposes of these Rules, as the Client of the Authorised Firm in respect of the service, if:
- (a) the Authorised Firm has agreed with the agent in writing to treat the underlying client as its Client; or
- (b) the agent is neither:
(1) another Authorised Firm; or
(2) an Authorised Market Institution, and the main purpose of the arrangements between the parties is the avoidance of duties that the Authorised Firm would otherwise have to the underlying client.
2.9.3. Agreement in relation to more than one underlying client
If an Authorised Firm makes an agreement with the agent under COB 2.9.2(a) in relation to more than one underlying client, the Authorised Firm may rely upon the agent to act as a single point of contact for all communications between the Authorised Firm and all of the underlying clients for which the agent is acting. Accordingly, where the Authorised Firm communicates with the underlying clients, the Authorised Firm may send to, or receive from, the agent a single communication covering all of the underlying clients, without having to notify or obtain consent from each underlying client. However, where the Authorised Firm is required to provide any communications to any single underlying client, relating to matters specific to that underlying client, the Authorised Firm will still be required to provide to the agent the information specific to that underlying client, including the following:
2.10. Record keeping
2.10.1. Requirement to keep records
An Authorised Firm must keep records of:
2.10.2. Length of recordkeeping requirement
The records in COB 2.10.1 must be kept for at least six years from the date on which the business relationship with a Client ended.
2.10.3. Date on which the business relationship ended
For the purposes of COB 2.10.2, an Authorised Firm may, if the date on which the business relationship with the Client ended is unclear, treat the date of the completion of the last transaction with the Client as the date on which the business relationship ended.
2.10.4. Obligation to provide access to the AFSA
An Authorised Firm must ensure that the AFSA has access to all of the records required under COB 2.10.1, including any records maintained by or at its head office or any other branch of the same legal entity, or a member of its Group. An Authorised Firm must notify the AFSA immediately if, for any reason, it is no longer able to provide access to these records.
3. COMMUNICATIONS WITH CLIENTS AND FINANCIAL PROMOTIONS
3.1. Application
3.1.1. General requirement
COB 3 applies to:
- (a) an Authorised Firm communicating with a Client in relation to a Regulated Activity; and/or
- (b) an Authorised Firm communicating or approving a Financial Promotion.
3.1.2. Territorial scope
This chapter COB 3 applies to:
- (a) any communications of an Authorised Firm to a Client; and/or
- (b) any Financial Promotions communicated or approved by an Authorised Firm, in relation to a Regulated Activity carried on by an Authorised Firm operating within the jurisdiction of the AIFC as specified in Part 1 of the Framework Regulations.
3.2. Communications to be fair, clear and not misleading
3.2.1. General requirement
An Authorised Firm must ensure that:
- (a) any communication with a Client in relation to a Financial Product or Financial Service; or
- (b) any Financial Promotion that it communicates or approves, is fair, clear and not misleading.
3.2.2. No avoidance of regulatory liability
Any communication by an Authorised Firm with a Client, or any Financial Promotion that it communicates or approves, must not attempt to limit or avoid any duty or liability it may have to that Client or any other Person under any applicable AIFC Rules or Regulations.
3.2.3. Information to be communicated directly to Client
Where a Rule in COB requires information to be provided to a Client, the Authorised Firm must provide that information directly to the Client and not to another Person, unless it is on the written instructions of the Client.
Guidance: Meaning of "communication"
For the purposes of COB 3, a communication includes, but is not limited to, a Financial Promotion, a client agreement, terms of business, Financial Product terms and conditions, a mandate, power of attorney entered into for the purposes of a Financial Product or Financial Service and any other communication which relates in whole or in part to the provision of a Financial Product or Financial Service.
3.3. Financial Promotions
3.3.1. Prohibition on Financial Promotions
A Person must not make a Financial Promotion in relation to a Regulated Activity carried on an Authorised Firm licensed by the AFSA unless:
- (a) the Person is an Authorised Firm;
- (b) the content of the Financial Promotion is approved by an Authorised Firm; or
- (c) the Financial Promotion is exempt under COB 3.3.3.
Persons who make a Financial Promotion falling within (a), (b) or (c) above shall be "Authorised Promoters" for the purposes of this COB 3.
3.3.2. Financial Promotion by a Representative Office
A Representative Office may make a Financial Promotion only in relation to a Financial Product or Financial Service offered both:
- (a) in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC; and
- (b) by a related party of the Representative Office.
3.3.3. Exempt Financial Promotions
For the purposes of COB 3.3.1(c), a communication is an exempt Financial Promotion if it is:
- (a) directed at and capable of acceptance exclusively by a Person who is believed by the Person making the Financial Promotion, on reasonable grounds, to be a Professional Client or Market Counterparty;
- (b) made to a Person as a result of an unsolicited request by that Person to receive the Financial Promotion;
- (c) made or issued by or on behalf of a government or non-commercial government entity, including a central bank;
- (d) made by a Person in the course of providing legal or accountancy services and may reasonably be regarded as incidental to and a necessary part of the provision of such services;
- (e) included in a Prospectus approved by the AFSA in accordance with MAR; or
- (f) included in any document required or permitted to be published under the Listing Rules.
3.3.4. Other exclusions from the Financial Promotions Prohibition
A Person does not breach the Financial Promotions Prohibition if:
- (a) the Person acts as a mere conduit for the making of the Financial Promotion, such as:
(i) a newspaper or magazine;
(ii) a website carrying third-party banner advertisements;
(iii) a postman or courier;
(iv) a person paid to hand out promotional material to the public and an event venue, unless in each case that Person created the Financial Promotion; or
- (b) the Financial Promotion is not made for a commercial or business purpose.
3.3.5. Content of a Financial Promotion
An Authorised Promoter must ensure that any Financial Promotion that it communicates or approves contains the information in Schedule 5.
3.3.6. Financial Promotions included in other communications
If an Authorised Promoter communicates information to a Client (whether in a document required by these Rules or otherwise), the Person must not include or embed a Financial Promotion in the communication in a way that obscures:
- (a) the objectives or purpose of the communication; or
- (b) the nature or purpose of the Financial Promotion.
3.3.7. Withdrawal of a financial promotion
If an Authorised Promoter becomes aware that a Financial Promotion that it has previously communicated or approved does not comply or no longer complies with this Rule, it must ensure that the Financial Promotion is withdrawn as soon as practicable by either:
- (a) ceasing to make the Financial Promotion and telling any other Person known to be relying on it that the promotion is withdrawn; or
- (b) withdrawing its approval and telling any Person known to be relying on it that the promotion is withdrawn.
3.3.8. Restriction on communicating Financial Promotions
An Authorised Promoter that communicates or approves a Financial Promotion must ensure that:
- (a) the Financial Promotion complies with any applicable AIFC laws, Rules or Regulations;
- (b) any material statements of fact in the Financial Promotion are accurate and up to date;
- (c) it does not distribute a Financial Promotion if it becomes aware that the Financial Product or Financial Service that is the subject of the Financial Promotion is in breach of legal or regulatory requirements;
- (d) any Financial Promotion intended for Professional Clients and/or Market Counterparties is not communicated to any persons who are not Professional Clients and/or Market Counterparties, as appropriate;
- (e) no person communicates or otherwise uses the Financial Promotion on behalf of the Authorised Firm in a manner that amounts to a breach of the requirements in this Rule; and
- (f) the Financial Promotion does not mention an approval or authorisation of the AFSA that has not been given in writing by the AFSA.
3.3.9. Financial promotions for Retail Clients
Before an Authorised Promoter makes or approves a Financial Promotion directed at Retail Clients, it must ensure that the Financial Promotion:
- (a) is accurate and does not emphasise any potential benefits of a specified Financial Product without also giving a fair and prominent indication of any relevant risks;
- (b) is sufficient for the needs of, and presented in a way that is likely to be understood by, the average member of the group to whom it is addressed or by whom it is likely to be received; and
- (c) does not disguise, diminish or obscure important items, statements or warnings.
3.3.10. Comparisons and contrasts
If an Authorised Promoter makes or approves a Financial Promotion that contains a comparison or contrast, it must ensure that:
- (a) the comparison is meaningful and presented in an objective and balanced way;
- (b) the sources of the information used for the comparison are stated; and
- (c) the key facts and assumptions used to make the comparison are included.
3.3.11. Past performance and forecasts
An Authorised Promoter must ensure that any information or representation in a Financial Promotion relating to past performance, or any future forecast based on past performance or other assumptions, which is provided to or targeted at Retail Clients:
- (a) presents a fair and balanced view of the Financial Products or Financial Services to which the information or representation relates;
- (b) identifies, in an easy to understand manner, the source of information from which the past performance is derived and any key facts and assumptions used in that context are drawn; and
- (c) contains a prominent warning that past performance is not necessarily a reliable indicator of future results.
3.4. Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotions
3.4.1. Application
COB 3.4 applies to an Authorised Promoter in relation to the communication to a Retail Client of an Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion.
Guidance: Non-application to Professional Clients and Market Counterparties The restrictions on Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion in COB 3.4 do not apply to Professional Clients or Market Counterparties because it is expected that these categories of Client are better able to assess the risks of a Financial Product or Financial Service, including when engaging in interactive dialogue with a representative of an Authorised Firm.
3.4.2. Meaning of an Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion
A Financial Promotion is considered to be an Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion if it is made by way of interactive dialogue:
- (a) which:
(i) was not initiated by the recipient of the Financial Promotion; and
(ii) does not take place in response to an express request from the recipient of the Financial Promotion; or
- (b) in relation to which it was not clear from all the circumstances when the dialogue was initiated or requested, that during the course of the dialogue, communications would be made concerning the kind of controlled activities and controlled investments to which the communications in fact made relate.
Guidance: Examples of Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotions An Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion would normally be expected to involve or require an immediate response from the recipient, such as a personal visit, interactive voice communication (including a telephone conversation), or other interactive dialogue. Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotions are considered to present higher risks to Retail Clients and therefore require additional safeguards compared with solicited and/or non-real time Financial Promotions. Non-real time Financial Promotions include a letter, email, publication, website, television advertisement, or radio broadcast, which generally lack the interactive element and immediacy of a real time Financial Promotion.
3.4.3. No express request for a real time Financial Promotion
For these purposes, a Person is not to be treated as expressly requesting a real time Financial Promotion:
- (a) because he omits to indicate that he does not wish to engage in any or any further dialogue; or
- (b) because he agrees to standard terms that state that such dialogue will take place, unless he has signified clearly that, in addition to agreeing to the terms, he is willing for them to take place. If the dialogue is initiated or requested by a recipient (R), it is treated as also having been initiated or requested by any other person to whom it is made at the same time as it is made to R if that other recipient is a Family Member of R or expected to engage in any investment activity jointly with R.
3.4.4. Exemption for image advertising
COB 3.4 does not apply if the Financial Promotion consists only of:
- (a) the name of the Authorised Promoter;
- (b) a logo or other image associated with the Authorised Promoter;
- (c) a contact point; and
- (d) a reference to the types of Financial Product or Financial Service provided by the Authorised Promoter, or to its fees.
3.4.5. Restriction on Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotions
An Authorised Promoter must not make an Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion unless the recipient is an existing Client of the Authorised Promoter and the relationship is such that the Authorised Promoter reasonably believes that:
- (a) the recipient understands the risks associated with the relevant Investment; and
- (b) the recipient would expect to be contacted by the Authorised Promoter for the purpose of communicating Financial Promotions in real time; and
3.4.6. Restriction on nature of Investments
An Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion must only relate to an Investment that is:
- (a) a government Security; or
- (b) a listed Security that is regularly traded on an Authorised Investment Exchange or other authorised and regulated exchange, except that it is not permitted to communicate a Financial Promotion in real time in relation to Warrants or any Security that embeds a derivative.
3.4.7. Procedure for Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotions
An Authorised Promoter must not communicate an Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion to a Client who is not at the Authorised Promoter's premises, unless the Person communicating it:
- (a) only does so at an appropriate time of the day;
- (b) identifies himself and the firm he represents at the outset and makes clear the purpose of the communication;
- (c) clarifies if the Client would like to continue with or terminate the communication, and terminates the communication at any time that the Client requests it; and
- (d) gives a contact point to any Client with whom he arranges an appointment.
3.5. Record keeping
3.5.1. Record keeping requirement
An Authorised Promoter must keep a record of each Financial Promotion that it makes or approves.
3.5.2. Content of records
The record must include at least the following detail:
- (a) the name of the senior Employee who reviewed the Financial Promotion;
- (b) the date the Financial Promotion was made or approved;
- (c) if the Financial Promotion was in writing, a copy of the Financial Promotion; and
- (d) if the Financial Promotion was not in writing, details of the Financial Promotion and its outcome, including a note stating if the Client requested the termination of a real time Financial Promotion. The Authorised Promoter must keep the records for at least 6 years after the Financial Promotion is no longer made.
4. KEY INFORMATION AND CLIENT AGREEMENT
4.1. Application
This chapter applies to an Authorised Firm intending to carry out Regulated Activities with or for a Client. The obligation in this section to enter into a written client agreement does not apply to an Authorised Firm when it is carrying on a Regulated Activity with or for a Professional Client or Market Counterparty, but the Authorised Firm must still provide specified key information to a Professional Client or Market Counterparty, in accordance with this chapter, before providing services. This chapter does not apply to an Authorised Firm when it is:
- (a) carrying out the Regulated Activity of providing financing using Shari'ah- compliant Financial Contracts; or
- (b) a Fund Manager offering the Units of a Fund it manages.
Guidance: Other information requirements Other information requirements will apply to the provision of Shari'ah-compliant Financial Contracts, which are in the AIFC IFR Rules. Similarly, specific disclosure requirements apply to the Offering Materials provided in relation to Units in a Fund, as set out in the AIFC CIS Rules.
4.2. Client agreement
4.2.1. Requirement to enter into a client agreement
Subject to COB 4.2.3, an Authorised Firm must not carry on a Regulated Activity with or for a Person unless:
- (a) the Authorised Firm has provided to that Person the key information specified in Schedule 2 in good time before the service is provided to enable the Person to make an informed decision relating to the relevant Regulated Activity; and
- (b) if the Person is classified as a Retail Client, there is a written client agreement entered into between the Authorised Firm and that Person.
Guidance: Meaning of "key information"
In this COB 4.2, "key information" means the information specified in Schedule 2.
4.2.2. Relationship between key information and client agreement
An Authorised Firm may either:
- (a) provide a person with a copy of the proposed client agreement containing the key information; or
- (b) provide the key information separately from the client agreement.
4.2.3. Where it is impracticable to provide key information or enter into a client agreement
An Authorised Firm may provide a Financial Product or Financial Service to a Retail Client or Professional Client without having to provide key information and/or enter into a client agreement in accordance with COB 4.2.1 where it is impracticable to do so, provided that the Authorised Firm:
- (a) first explains to the Client why it is impracticable to enter into a client agreement; and
- (b) enters into a client agreement as soon as practicable thereafter.
Guidance: Example of where it may be impracticable
It may be impracticable to provide the key information or enter into a client agreement if a Client requests the Authorised Firm to execute a transaction on a time-critical basis.
4.2.4. Records of explanation to the Client
Where an Authorised Firm has given the explanation referred to in COB 4.2.3(a) verbally, it should maintain sufficient records to enable the Authorised Firm to demonstrate to the AFSA that it has provided that explanation to the Client.
4.3. Content of client agreement
If the Authorised Firm is required to enter into a written client agreement with the Client, the agreement must set out the essential rights and obligations of both parties.
4.4. Content of key information
Schedule 2 sets out:
- (a) the core key information that must be included in every client agreement, or otherwise provided to a Client in accordance with COB 4.2.2 (and specifies that, more information is to be disclosed to Retail Clients than to Professional Clients or Market Counterparties); and
- (c) additional key information that must be included in any client agreement or otherwise provided to a Client in relation to certain activities.
4.5. Record keeping
The Authorised Firm should retain a copy of the client agreement for a period of six years from the date on which the relationship with the relevant Client has terminated.
4.6. Provision of key features document relating to Investment Tokens and Qualified Investment Tokens
(1) An Authorised Firm must not provide a Financial Service to which this section applies to a Person unless it has provided that Person with a key features document containing the information in (2).
(2) The key features document must contain the following information in respect of each Investment Token or Quilified Investment Token relevant to the Financial Services that the Authorised Firm will provide to the Person:
(a) the risks associated with and essential characteristics of the Issuer, other Person responsible for discharging the obligations associated with the rights conferred (if different to the Issuer) and guarantor if any, of the Investment Token or Qualified Investment Token, including their assets, liabilities and financial position;
(b) the risks associated with and essential characteristics of the Investment Token or Qualified Investment Token, including the rights and obligations conferred and the type or types of Investment which it constitutes;
(c) whether the Investment Token or Qualified Investment Token is or will be admitted to trading and, if so, the details relating to such admission, including details of the facility and whether the facility is within the AIFC;
(d) whether the Client can directly access the trading facility, or whether access is only through an intermediary, and the process for accessing the facility;
(e) risks associated with the use of DLT, particularly those relating to Digital wallets and the susceptibility of private cryptographic keys to misappropriation;
(f) whether the Client, the Authorised Firm or a third party is responsible for providing a Digital wallet service in respect of the Investment Token or Qualified Investment Token, and any related risks (for example, at whose risk the Client’s Investment Tokens or Qualified Investment Token are held in the Digital wallet, whether it is accessible online or stored offline, what happens if keys to the Digital wallet are lost and what procedures can be followed in such an event);
(g) how the Client may exercise any rights conferred by the Investment Tokens or Qualified Investment Tokens such as voting or participation in shareholder actions; and
(h) any other information relevant to the particular Investment Token or Qualified Investment Token that would reasonably assist the Client to understand the product and technology better and to make informed decisions in respect of it.
(3) The key features document must be provided in good time before the relevant Financial Service is provided to the Person, to enable that Person to make an informed decision about whether to use the relevant Financial Service.
(4) The key features document does not need to be provided to a Person to whom the Authorised Firm has previously provided that information, if there has been no significant change since the information was previously provided.
5. CONDUCT OF INVESTMENT BUSINESS
5.1. Application
5.1.1. Application of requirement to assess suitability
COB 5.2 applies where an Authorised Firm:
- (a) Advises on Investments;
- (b) Manages Investments; or
- (c) Provides Trust Services (subject to COB 5.2.8)
5.1.2. Application of requirement to assess appropriateness
COB 5.3 applies where an Authorised Firm is:
- (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
- (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent, or
- (c) receiving and transmitting orders for a Client, and is not Advising on Investments or Managing Investments.
Guidance: Receiving and transmitting orders An Authorised Firm carries on this activity of "receiving and transmitting orders" if it both receives an order from a Client for a transaction in an Investment and transmits it to another party, such as a broker, for execution or for onward transmission to the executing broker or venue.
5.1.3. Market Counterparties
COB 5 does not apply where the Authorised Firm provides a Financial Service to a Market Counterparty.
5.2. Suitability assessment
5.2.1. Requirement to assess suitability
When Advising on Investments or Managing Investments for a Client or Providing Trust Services, an Authorised Firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that any recommendation of a service or recommendation or decision to trade on behalf of a Client is suitable for the Client.
5.2.2. Nature of suitability assessment
When making its recommendation of a service or recommendation or decision to trade on behalf of a Client, the Authorised Firm must assess the Client's:
- (a) investment or other objectives;
- (b) financial situation; and
- (c) knowledge and experience in relation to the type of Investment or Investment Service concerned, so as to ensure that the recommendation or decision to trade is suitable for that particular Client.
5.2.3. Investment objectives
The Authorised Firm must assess the Client's investment objectives by, where appropriate, considering the length of time for which the Client intends to hold Investments, and taking into account the Client's risk profile and tolerance for risk, and the purpose of the relevant Investment.
5.2.4. Financial situation
The Authorised Firm must assess the Client's financial situation by, where appropriate, requesting information on the source and extent of the Client's income, assets, Investments, Real Property, and any regular financial commitments or liabilities.
5.2.5. Knowledge and experience
The Authorised Firm must consider the Client's knowledge and experience by taking into account, to the extent appropriate for the circumstances:
- (a) the types of Investment, Investment Service and Transaction with which the Client is familiar;
- (b) the nature, volume, and frequency of the Client’s Transactions in Investments and the period over which they have been carried out;
- (c) the level of education, and profession or relevant former profession of the Client; and
- (d) the Client's knowledge and understanding of any associated risks.
5.2.6. Insufficient information
If an Authorised Firm does not obtain sufficient information to assess suitability for the purposes of COB 5.2.2, the Authorised Firm must not recommend an Investment or Investment Service, or make a decision to trade.
5.2.7. Professional Clients
An Authorised Firm may assume, when making a recommendation, or decision to trade, for or on behalf of a Professional Client, that:
5.2.8. Firms providing trust services
An Authorised Firm Providing Trust Services does not have to assess the Client's knowledge and experience or risk tolerance when assessing the suitability of the service to a particular Client, because these considerations are not considered to be relevant to the Regulated Activity of Providing Trust Services.
5.2.9. Suitability reports
When Advising on Investments for a Retail Client, an Authorised Firm must provide the Client with a suitability report that must include:
- (a) an outline of the advice given;
- (b) an explanation of why the recommendation is suitable, including how it meets the client's objectives and personal circumstances; and
- (c) a statement bringing to the client's attention the need for periodic review of suitability (where relevant).
5.3. Appropriateness assessment
5.3.1. Requirement to assess appropriateness
When Dealing in Investments as Principal, Dealing in Investments as Agent, or receiving and transmitting orders for a Client, an Authorised Firm must ask for information about the Client's knowledge and experience in relation to the type of Investment or Investment Service concerned to assess whether the Investment or Investment Service are appropriate for that Client.
Guidance: Client engaged in a course of dealings If a Client engages in a course of dealings involving a specific type of Investment or Investment Service through the services of an Authorised Firm, the Authorised Firm is not required to make a new assessment on the occasion of each separate Transaction. An Authorised Firm complies with COB 5.3 provided that it makes the necessary appropriateness assessment before providing the relevant service.
5.3.2. Exemption from requirement to assess appropriateness
An Authorised Firm is not required to assess appropriateness if:
- (a) the service provided to the Client:
(i) only consists of the execution and/or the reception and transmission of orders;
(ii) relates to the Investments specified in COB 5.3.3 below; and
(iii) is provided at the initiative of the Client;
- (b) the Client has been clearly informed that in the provision of this service the Authorised Firm is not required to assess the appropriateness of the Investment or Investment Service provided or offered and that therefore he does not benefit from the protection of the rules on assessing appropriateness; and
- (c) the Authorised Firm complies with its obligations in relation to conflicts of interest.
5.3.3. Exempt Investments for the purposes of COB 5.3.2
The Investments that are exempted in accordance with COB 5.3.2(a)(ii) are:
- (a) Shares admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange or other authorised and regulated exchange; or
- (b) bonds or other forms of securitised debt (excluding those bonds or securitised debt that embed a Derivative); or
- (c) other non-complex Investments.
Guidance: Non-complex Investments An Investment is non-complex if it satisfies the following criteria:
- (a) it is not a Derivative or a Security giving the right to acquire or sell a transferable security or giving rise to a cash settlement determined by reference to transferable Securities, currencies, interest rates or yields, commodities or other indices or measures;
- (b) there are frequent opportunities to dispose of, redeem, or otherwise realise the Investment at prices that are publicly available to the market participants and that are either market prices or prices made available, or validated, by valuation systems independent of the issuer;
- (c) it does not involve any actual or potential liability for the client that exceeds the cost of acquiring the Investment; and
- (d) adequately comprehensive information on its characteristics is publicly available and is likely to be readily understood so as to enable the average Retail Client to make an informed judgment as to whether to enter into a Transaction in that Investment.
5.3.4. Nature of appropriateness assessment
The Authorised Firm must assess whether the Client has the necessary knowledge and experience in order to understand the risks involved in relation to the relevant Investment or Investment Service.
5.3.5. Client's knowledge and experience
When assessing the appropriateness of the Investment or Investment Service for the Client, the Authorised Firm must consider the Client's knowledge and experience by taking into account, to the extent appropriate for the circumstances:
- (a) the types of Investment Service, Investment and Transaction with which the Client is familiar;
- (b) the nature, volume, and frequency of the Client’s Transactions in Investments and the period over which they have been carried out;
- (c) the level of education, and profession or relevant former profession of the Client; and
- (d) the Client's knowledge and understanding of any associated risks.
5.3.6. Professional Clients
An Authorised Firm may assume that a Professional Client has the necessary knowledge and experience for the purposes of COB 5.3.4.
5.3.7. Warning the Client
If an Authorised Firm considers that the Investment Service, Investment or Transaction is not appropriate for the Client, it must issue a warning to the Client that it is not considered to be appropriate.
5.4. Information about the Client
An Authorised Firm must take reasonable steps to ensure the information it holds about a Client is at all times accurate, complete and up to date.
5.5. Record keeping
The Authorised Firm must keep a record of its suitability reports for a minimum of six years. It is not required to keep a record of the suitability report if the Client does not proceed with the recommendation.
5.6. Packaged products—additional disclosure
5.6.1. Product disclosure document—preparation
An Authorised Firm must prepare a Product Disclosure Document for each Packaged Product it produces.
5.6.2. Product disclosure document—provision requirement
(1) An Authorised Firm (the selling firm) must not sell, or arrange for the sale of, a Packaged Product to a Retail Client unless it has given the Client, not later than a reasonable time before the Client becomes contractually bound in relation to the sale of the Packaged Product:
- (a) a Product Disclosure Document for the Packaged Product; or
- (b) if the Packaged Product was produced by another Authorised Firm—a Product Disclosure Document that complies with subrule (2); or
- (c) if the Packaged Product was produced by a person in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC—disclosure documentation that complies with subrule (3).
(2) If the Packaged Product was produced by another Authorised Firm, the Product Disclosure Document given to the Retail Client under subrule (1) (b):
- (a) must be the Product Disclosure Document prepared by the other Authorised Firm; but
- (b) must prominently display each of the following:
- (i) the name of the selling firm;
(ii) either the address of the selling firm or a contact point from which the address is available;
(iii) the selling firm’s regulatory status
(3) If the Packaged Product was produced by a person in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC, the disclosure documentation given to the Retail Client under subrule (1) (c) complies with this subrule if:
- (a) the selling firm is satisfied on reasonable grounds that:
- (i) the disclosure documentation was prepared by the person in accordance with the requirements of the law of the other jurisdiction; and
(ii) those requirements are broadly equivalent to the requirements of this division; and
- (b) the disclosure documentation prominently displays:
- (i) the information mentioned in subrule (2) (b) (i) to (iii); and
(ii) if the Packaged Product is a Life Policy or a Family Takaful Contract:
(A) a statement to the effect that the person who produced the Packaged Product (the insurer or the Takaful Operator) is not authorised or regulated by the AFSA; and
(B) an explanation of any differences between the cancellation rights (if any) applying in relation to the Packaged Product (including the length of any period to exercise the rights) and those that would be provided under these rules if the insurer or the Takaful Operator as the case may be, were an Authorised Firm; and
(C) a warning to the effect that the claims handling procedures applying in relation to the Packaged Product may differ from those provided under these rules.
(4) If a Life Policy or a Family Takaful Contract sold by an Authorised Firm to a Retail Client is varied and, because of the variation, the Client has a right to cancel the relevant Life Policy or the Family Takaful Contract as the case may be, under COB 19.2.2 (Variations of Life Policies or Family Takaful Contract —right to cancel), the firm must:
- (a) update the document that it gave the Client under subrule (1) in relation to the Life Policy or the Family Takaful Contract to reflect the variation; and
- (b) give a copy of the updated document to the Client. Guidance for COB 5.6.2 (2) and (3)
1 An Authorised Firm may comply with COB 5.6.2 (2) (b) or (3) (b) by including the required information in a sticker or wrapper attached to the Product Disclosure Document or disclosure documentation.
2 The purpose of COB 5.6.2 (3) is to allow an Authorised Firm to give disclosure documentation that meets the disclosure objectives of a Product Disclosure Document, even if the form or content is different in matters of detail from that required by this division. For example, an Authorised Firm could provide a disclosure document that uses a projection or illustration prepared in accordance with rules prescribed by an overseas regulator, if these ensure a fair projection based on objective and reasonable assumptions.
5.6.3. Product disclosure document—form
An Authorised Firm must ensure that a Product Disclosure Document given by it to a Retail Client for a Packaged Product:
- (a) is produced and presented to at least the same quality and standard as the sales or marketing material used by it to promote the Packaged Product; and
- (b) is separate from any other material given to the Client; and
- (c) displays the product provider’s brand at least as prominently as any other brand displayed; and
- (d) does not disguise, diminish or obscure important items, statements or warnings.
5.6.4. Product disclosure document—content
(1) An Authorised Firm must ensure that a Product Disclosure Document prepared by it for a Packaged Product includes each of the following:
- (a) the firm’s name;
- (b) either the address of the firm or a contact point from which the address is available;
- (c) the firm’s regulatory status;
- (d) the following statement prominently displayed:
‘The Astana Financial Services Authority is the independent financial services regulator for the Astana International Financial Centre. It requires us, [insert Authorised Firm’s name], to give you this important information to help you to decide whether this [insert ‘product’ or product name] is right for you. You should read this document carefully so that you understand what you are buying, and then keep it safely for future reference.’;
- (e) a description, appropriate for the Packaged Product’s complexity, of its nature, its particular characteristics, how it works, and any limitations or minimum standards that apply;
- (f) enough information about the material benefits and risks of buying the product for a Retail Client to be able to make an informed decision about whether to buy;
- (g) the availability of the firm’s internal complaint-handling procedures and how a complaint may be made to the firm;
- (h) whether there is a right to cancel and, if there is a right to cancel, the consequences of exercising this right, and enough details to enable the right to be exercised by a Retail Client.
(2) An Authorised Firm must not, in a Product Disclosure Document prepared by it, do or say (or fail to do or say) anything that might reasonably lead a Retail Client to be mistaken about the product provider’s identity.
5.6.5. Life policies and Family Takaful Contracts —additional content
(1) An Authorised Firm must ensure that a Product Disclosure Document prepared by it for a Life Policy or for a Family Takaful Contract, intended to be sold to a Retail Client includes the following:
- (a) a definition of each benefit and option;
- (b) the term of the contract;
- (c) details of how the contract may be terminated;
- (d) how and when premiums are payable;
- (e) details of how bonuses are calculated and distributed, including the following information:
- (i) how profits that are allocated for the payment of bonuses are distributed;
(ii) whether increased benefits resulting from bonuses are payable (subject to any adjustments) even if the contract is terminated early by either party to the contract;
(iii) if bonuses increase benefits—whether increases are likely to be made each year or only when the policy amounts become payable to the policyholder;
(iv) the basis on which bonuses are distributed to policyholders;
- (v) whether policies share equitably in the allocation of all the profits of the long-term fund, or only certain elements of the profits;
- (f) an illustration prepared in accordance with COB 5.6.6 (Life policies or Family Takaful Contracts —illustrations), except if the benefits of the Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract do not depend on future investment returns;
- (g) information about charges and expenses that, subject to subrule (2), includes:
- (i) a description of the nature of the charges and expenses the Retail Client will, or may be expected to, pay; and
(ii) 2 tables (one for the lower projection, and the other for the higher projection, calculated on the basis of a rate of return mentioned in COB 5.6.6 (2)), each prepared in accordance with COB 5.6.7 (Life policies— effect of charges and expenses table) illustrating the effect of charges and expenses on the policy;
- (h) information on premiums or Takaful Contributions for each benefit, including, if appropriate, both main benefits and supplementary benefits;
- (i) if the Retail Client has been charged for rider benefits or increased underwriting benefits—the amount of premiums charged for those benefits;
- (j) if the policy is a unit-linked policy—a definition of the units to which benefits are linked and the nature of the underlying assets.
(2) If the Authorised Firm is exempt from including an illustration mentioned in rule (1) (f) because the benefits of the Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract do not depend on future investment returns, the Product Disclosure Document prepared by it for the Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract must include:
- (a) an indication of guaranteed benefits, surrender benefits, paid-up values and any other benefits (whichever are applicable) under the policy; and
- (b) the likely amount, and a general description, of the charges and expenses the Retail Client will, or may be expected to, pay under the policy.
5.6.6. Life policies or Family Takaful Contract —illustrations
(1) For COB 5.6.5 (1) (f), the illustration must indicate how the main terms of the Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract, as the case may be, apply to the Retail Client and contain projections of the final surrender value of the policy calculated in accordance with COB 5.6.8 (Life policies or Family Takaful Contract —projection calculation rules).
(2) The illustration must contain at least 2 projections, with:
- (a) a lower projection calculated on the basis of a rate of return to be set at no more than 5%; and
- (b) a higher projection calculated on the basis of a rate of return that the Authorised
Firm reasonably expects the Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract to achieve, but that, in any event, must be no more than 9%.
5.6.7. Life policies or Family Takaful Contracts —effect of charges and expenses tables
(1) For COB 5.6.5(1) (g), each table illustrating the effect of charges and expenses on the policy must include the contents of the following table (The Effects of Charges and Expenses Table).
The Effects of Charges and Expenses Table
WARNING—if you cash in early you could get back less than you have paid in |
This table illustrates what you would get back from your investment if it grew at x% (insert rate of return) a year. These figures are not guaranteed and are only intended to demonstrate the effect of charges and expenses on your investment based on different assumptions on the growth of your investments. |
At end of Year | Total paid in to date | Effect of charges and expenses to date | What you might get back |
KZT | KZT | KZT | |
1 | |||
2 | |||
3 | |||
4 | |||
5 | |||
10 | |||
15 |
(2) An Authorised Firm may change the Effects of Charges and Expenses Table so far as necessary to reflect the nature and effect of the charges and expenses inherent in the particular product.
(3) In completing the Effects of Charges and Expenses Table, the Authorised Firm must:
- (a) include figures for the first 5 years of the Life Policy or the Family Takaful Contract; and
- (b) if the policy is a whole-Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract or the illustration covers more than 25 years—include figures for the 10th and every subsequent 10th year of the policy’s term; and
- (c) if the policy is neither a whole-Life Policy nor a Family Takaful Contract and the illustration covers 25 years or less—include figures for the 10th and every subsequent 5th year of the policy’s term; and
- (d) include:
- (i) the final year of the policy; or
(ii) for a whole-Life Policy or a single premium Life Policy without a fixed term—an appropriate end date for the policy; and
- (e) if there is discontinuity in the trend of surrender values—include the appropriate intervening years; and
- (f) in the ‘Total paid in to date’ column, show cumulative totals of contributions paid to the end of each relevant year; and
- (g) in the ‘Effect of charges and expenses to date’ column, show the figure calculated by taking the accumulated value of the fund without taking charges and expenses into account and then subtracting from that figure the figure in the ‘What you might get back’ column for the same year; and
- (h) in the ‘What you might get back’ column, show the projection of the surrender value for the policy calculated in accordance with COB 5.6.8 (Life policies— projection calculation rules) and accumulated at the rate of return selected by the firm for the lower or higher projection mentioned in COB 5.6.6 (2) (Life policies— illustrations), as the case requires; and
- (i) if the Retail Client is entitled to exercise, and has chosen or expressed the intention to exercise, the right to make partial surrenders include a column headed ‘Withdrawals’ showing the cumulative total of the withdrawals.
(4) The Authorised Firm must include a statement at the bottom of the table expressing the effect of charges and expenses on the Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract in terms of a reduction in the rate of return.
Guidance
The reduction in the rate of return (A) may be calculated as follows:
A = B – C
where:
B is the rate of return selected by the firm for the lower or higher projection mentioned in COB 5.6.6(2), as the case requires.
C is the annual rate of return worked out by:
- (a) carrying out a projection using B; and
- (b) then calculating the annual rate of return (rounded to the nearest tenth of 1%) required to achieve the same projection value if charges and expenses were not taken into account.
5.6.8. Life policies or Family Takaful Contract —projection calculation rules
(1) For COB 5.6.6 (Life policies—illustrations) and COB 5.6.7 (Life policies—effect of charges and expenses table), any projection of the surrender value of a Life Policy or Family Takaful Contract used in an illustration or an Effects of Charges and Expenses Table must be calculated in accordance with a methodology and set of assumptions prepared and approved by the Approved Actuary of the AIFC Insurer preparing the Product Disclosure Document.
(2) In preparing the methodology and assumptions mentioned in subrule (1), the Approved Actuary must have regard to relevant professional standards and any requirements of this division.
(3) A projection must be specific to the Retail Client and be calculated on the basis of the Client’s age and sex, the amount assured, the premium and other factors material to the Life Policy or the Family Takaful Contract.
(4) However, if a projection is calculated for the purposes of a financial promotion or in relation to a single premium Life Policy, it must be calculated on the basis of factors that represent the average member of the group to whom it is directed or by whom it is likely to be received.
(5) In calculating the projection, contributions must be net of any rider benefits and extra premiums charged for increased underwriting benefits.
5.6.9. Life policies or Family Takaful Contracts —provision of policy document
If an Authorised Firm finalises a Life Policy or a Family Takaful Contract with or for a Client, the firm must, immediately after finalising the policy, give the Client, in a durable medium, a policy document containing all the terms of the policy.
5.6.10. Life policies or Family Takaful Contracts —recordkeeping
(1) An Authorised Firm must ensure that a copy of a Product Disclosure Document given by it to a Retail Client in relation to a Life Policy or a Family Takaful Contract is made and kept for at least 6 years, unless the Client does not take out the policy.
(2) An Authorised Firm must ensure that a copy of any other disclosure documentation given by it to a Retail Client in relation to a Life Policy or a Family Takaful Contract is made and kept for at least 6 years, unless the Client does not take out the policy.
(3) An Authorised Firm must ensure that a record of the methodology and set of assumptions prepared and approved by the Approved Actuary for COB 5.6.8 (1) for the firm is made and kept for at least 6 years after the day the methodology or set of assumptions is replaced by a new methodology or set of assumptions.
(4) An Authorised Firm must ensure that a copy of each policy document given to a Client for a Life Policy or a Family Takaful Contract under COB 5.6.9 is kept for at least 6 years after the day the policy ends.
5.6.11. Takaful Contracts – Specific Disclosure requirements
(1) A Takaful Operator or an Insurance Intermediary or an Insurance Manager making a comparison between a Takaful Contract and conventional Contract of Insurance, in the course of offering a policy to their Client, must highlight the principal differences between these products as part of their marketing communications or promotional materials. These differences may relate to the following aspects, but are not limited to:
- (a) presence of contractual right to claims or benefits or whether these are discretionary on the part of the firm;
- (b) the basis on which benefits and surpluses are allocated to, and between policyholders or participants, as the case may be; and
- (c) whether there is any future liability for policyholders or participants, either individually or collectively, to meet deficits in the policyholders’ or participants' funds.
(2) Takaful Operators must ensure that, the participants in the Takaful funds operated by them are provided with clear information about the performance of the funds. The disclosures to meet this requirement must comply with relevant AAOIFI standards, in particular Standard 13 (Disclosure of Bases for Determining and Allocating Surplus or Deficit in Islamic Insurance Companies) and 12 (General Presentation and Disclosure in the Financial Statements of Islamic Insurance Companies).
(3) Takaful Operators must disclose to the participants in the Takaful Funds operated by them, the amount of Wakala fee and Mudaraba share of profits paid by the Takaful fund to the Takaful Operator, as well as the methodology for determining such amounts. In the case of Takaful Operators adopting Takaful models employing contracts other than Wakala or Mudaraba, the compensation paid by the Takaful Funds to the Takaful Operator and the relevant methodologies must be disclosed.
6. ORDER EXECUTION AND ORDER HANDLING
6.1. Best execution
6.1.1. Application
COB 6 applies to an Authorised Firm that executes orders for or on behalf of a Client. The Rules in COB 6 do not apply to an Authorised Firm with respect to any transaction which:
- (a) it undertakes with a Market Counterparty, except for COB 6.2.9;
- (b) it carries out for the purposes of managing a Fund of which it is the Fund Manager; or
- (c) is an Execution-Only Transaction. Where an Authorised Firm executes an Execution-Only Transaction with or for a Client, the Authorised Firm is not relieved from providing best execution in respect of any aspect of that transaction which lies outside the Client’s specific instructions.
6.1.2. Best execution obligation
Subject to COB 6.1.3, when an Authorised Firm executes any transaction with or for a Client in an Investment, it must take all sufficient steps to obtain the best possible result for the Client taking into account the information available, including the following factors:
- (a) price;
- (b) costs;
- (c) speed;
- (d) likelihood of execution and settlement;
- (e) size;
- (f) nature; and
- (g) any other consideration relevant to execution
6.1.3. Best execution with or for Retail Clients
When an Authorised Firm executes a transaction in an Investment for a Retail Client, the best possible result will be determined by reference to the price and other costs, including execution venue fees, clearing and settlement fees and any other fees paid to third parties involved in the execution of the order.
6.1.4. Specific instructions
When an Authorised Firm executes a transaction in accordance with specific instructions from the Client, it should be treated as having met its best execution obligation in relation to that part of the order covered by those instructions.
6.2. Client order handling
6.2.1. Application
The Rules in COB 6.2 do not apply to an Authorised Firm with respect to any transaction which:
- (a) it undertakes with a Market Counterparty; or
- (b) it carries out for the purposes of managing a Fund of which it is the Fund Manager.
6.2.2. General requirement
An Authorised Firm that executes orders on behalf of Clients must ensure that it has in place procedures that provide for the prompt, fair and expeditious execution of orders for a Client, relative to orders for itself or for other Clients.
6.2.3. General obligation in relation to orders for a Client
An Authorised Firm must satisfy the following conditions when executing orders for a Client:
- (a) orders executed for Clients must be promptly and accurately recorded and allocated;
- (b) comparable orders for Clients must be executed sequentially and promptly unless the characteristics of the order or prevailing market conditions make this impracticable, or the interests of the Client require otherwise;
- (c) a Retail Client must be informed of any material difficulty relevant to the proper execution of orders promptly when the Authorised Firm becomes aware of the difficulty; and
- (d) make and maintain a record of:
(i) the date and time of the allocation;
(ii) the relevant Investments;
(iii) the identity of each Client concerned; and
(iv) the amount allocated to each Client and to the Authorised Firm recorded against the intended allocation as required by (a).
6.2.4. Aggregation of orders
An Authorised Firm may aggregate an order for a Client with an order for other Clients or with an order for its own account only where:
- (a) it is unlikely that the aggregation will operate to the disadvantage of any Client whose orders have been aggregated;
- (b) the Authorised Firm has disclosed in writing to the Client that his order may be aggregated and that the effect of the aggregation may be to his disadvantage;
- (c) the Authorised Firm has made a record of the intended basis of allocation and the identity of each Client before the order is effected; and
- (d) the Authorised Firm has in place written standards and policies on aggregation and allocation which are consistently applied and should include the policy that will be adopted when only part of the aggregated order has been filled.
6.2.5. Allocation of Investments
Where an Authorised Firm has aggregated a Client order with an order for other Clients or with an order for its own account, and part or all of the aggregated order has been filled, it must:
- (a) promptly allocate the Investments concerned;
- (b) allocate the Investments in accordance with the stated intention; and
- (c) ensure the allocation is done fairly and uniformly by not giving undue preference to itself or to any of those for whom it dealt
6.2.6. Churning
An Authorised Firm must not execute a transaction for a Client in its discretion or advise any Client to transact with a frequency or in amounts to the extent that those transactions might be deemed to be excessive. The onus will be on the Authorised Firm to ensure that such Transactions were fair and reasonable at the time they were entered into.
6.2.7. Timely execution
Once an Authorised Firm has agreed or decided to enter into a transaction for a Client, it must do so as soon as reasonably practical. An Authorised Firm may postpone the execution of a transaction if it has taken reasonable steps to ensure that it is in the best interests of the Client.
6.2.8. Averaging of prices
An Authorised Firm may execute a series of transactions on behalf of a Client within the same trading day or within such other period as may be agreed in writing by the Client, to achieve one investment decision or objective, or to meet transactions which it has aggregated. If the Authorised Firm does so, it may determine a uniform price for the transactions executed during the period, calculated as the weighted average of the various prices of the transactions in the series.
6.2.9. Records of orders and transactions
When an Authorised Firm:
6.3. Voice and electronic communications
6.3.1. General requirement
An Authorised Firm must, subject to COB 6.3.4, take reasonable steps to ensure that it makes and retains:
- (a) recordings of voice communications, including telephone conversations, other than communications where both parties are physically present; and
- (b) copies of electronic communications, when such communications are with a Client or with another Person in relation to a Transaction, including the receiving or transmitting of related instructions.
6.3.2. Notification to Clients
The Authorised Firm must notify new and existing Clients that relevant voice communications between the Authorised Firm and its Clients in relation to a Transaction will be recorded. The Authorised Firm is only required to inform its Clients once, prior to the provision of any Investment Service to a new Client or when this obligation applies for the first time in relation to an existing Client.
6.3.3. Privately owned equipment
An Authorised Firm must take all reasonable steps to prevent an Employee or contractor from making, sending, or receiving relevant voice and electronic communications on privately owned equipment which the Authorised Firm is unable to record or copy.
6.3.4. Exemption for non-specific communications
The obligation in COB 6.3.1 does not apply in relation to relevant voice and electronic communications which are not intended to lead to the conclusion of a specific Transaction and are general conversations or communications about market conditions.
6.3.5. Record keeping
The records retained under COB 6.3.1 must be:
- (a) kept accessible, such that the Authorised Firm is able to demonstrate that all relevant records are capable of being promptly accessed;
- (b) maintained in comprehensible form or capable of being promptly reproduced; and
- (c) protected from unauthorised alteration.
6.3.6. Length of retention period
Recordings of relevant voice communications and copies of electronic communication recordings must be retained for a minimum of six months.
6.4. Direct Electronic Access
Where an Authorised Firm provides a Client (including a Market Counterparty) with direct electronic access to an Authorised Market Institution, the Authorised Firm must:
- (a) establish and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls to limit or prevent a Client from placing an order that would result in the position limits or credit limits being exceeded; and
- (b) ensure that such policies, procedures, systems and controls remain appropriate and effective on an on-going basis.
7. CONFLICTS OF INTEREST
7.1. The general obligation
In accordance with Principle 8 of the Principles for Authorised Persons in GEN, an Authorised Firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that conflicts of interest between itself and its Clients, between its Employees and Clients and between one Client and another are identified and then prevented or managed, or disclosed, in such a way that the interests of a Client are not adversely affected.
7.2. Identifying a conflict of interest
In order to identify the conflicts of interest that may arise in the course of its business, an Authorised Firm must consider whether it or a Person linked to the firm:
- (a) is likely to make a financial gain, or avoid a financial loss, at the expense of a Client;
- (b) has an interest in the outcome of a service or a transaction carried out for the Client, which is different from the Client's interest;
- (c) has arranged for one part of its business or a business line to provide a service or carry out a transaction for a Client that has a favourable or beneficial impact on another part or business line of the same Authorised Firm or Person linked to the firm;
- (d) has any incentive to favour one Client over another Client;
- (e) carries on the same business or activities as the Client; or
- (f) receives an inducement from a third party in relation to a service provided to a Client.
7.3. Managing a conflict of interest
Where an Authorised Firm is aware of a conflict or potential conflict of interest, it must take all reasonable steps to prevent that conflict of interest from adversely affecting the Client by using the following arrangements as appropriate:
- (a) establishing and maintaining effective organisational arrangements to prevent or manage conflicts, including information barriers to restrict the communication of the relevant information; and
- (b) disclosing the conflict of interest to the Client in writing either generally or in relation to a specific transaction, the risks resulting from that conflict, and the steps taken to address the conflict.
If an Authorised Firm is unable to prevent or manage a conflict or potential conflict of interest, it must decline to act for that Client.
Guidance: Information barriers
An information barrier, also known as a "Chinese wall", is an arrangement that requires a Person involved in one part of an Authorised Firm's business to withhold information from Persons involved in another part of the business.
7.4. Inducements
7.4.1. General requirement
An Authorised Firm must have policies and procedures in place to ensure that it, or its Employee or Associate, does not offer, give, solicit or accept any inducement from a third party, such as a fee, commissions or other direct or indirect benefit, where the inducement is reasonably likely to conflict with any duty that the Authorised Firm owes to its Clients.
7.4.2. Introductions
In circumstances where an Authorised Firm introduces a Client to a third party and receives a fee, commission or other benefit in respect of that introduction, such fee, commission or other benefit received in respect of such a referral would not be a prohibited inducement under this Rule, provided that the Authorised Firm has acted in the best interests of the Client.
7.4.3. Requirement to disclose inducements
An Authorised Firm must, before providing a Financial Product or Financial Service to a Client, disclose to that Client any inducement which it, or any Associate or Employee of it, has received or may or will receive as a result of providing the Financial Product or Financial Service.
7.4.4. Disclosure in summary form
An Authorised Firm may provide the information required by COB 7.4.3 in summary form, provided it informs the client that more detailed information will be provided to the client upon request and complies with such a request.
7.4.5. Record keeping
An Authorised Firm shall maintain record of inducements disclosed under COB 7.4.3 for a period of six years after such inducement was disclosed.
7.5. Personal Transactions
7.5.1. Conditions for Personal Transactions
An Authorised Firm must establish and maintain adequate policies and procedures so as to ensure that:
- (a) an Employee does not undertake a Personal Transaction unless:
(i) the Authorised Firm has, in a written notice, drawn to the attention of the Employee the conditions upon which the Employee may undertake Personal Transactions and that the contents of such a notice are made a term of his contract of employment or services;
(ii) the Authorised Firm has given its written permission to that Employee for that transaction or to transactions generally in Investments of that kind; and
(iii) the transaction will not conflict with the Authorised Firm’s duties to its Clients;
- (b) it receives prompt notification or is otherwise aware of each Employee’s Personal Transactions; and
- (c) if an Employee’s Personal Transactions are conducted with the Authorised Firm, each Employee’s account must be clearly identified and distinguishable from other Clients’ accounts.
7.5.2. Content of written notice
The written notice in COB 7.5.1(a)(i) must make it explicit that, if an Employee is prohibited from undertaking a Personal Transaction, he must not, except in the proper course of his employment:
- (a) procure another Person to enter into such a Transaction; or
- (b) communicate any information or opinion to another Person if he knows, or ought to know, that the Person will as a result, enter into such a Transaction or procure some other Person to do so.Where an Authorised Firm has taken reasonable steps to ensure that an Employee will not be involved to any material extent in, or have access to information about, the Authorised Firm’s Regulated Activities, then the Authorised Firm need not comply with the requirements in COB 7.5.1 in respect of that Employee.
8. CLIENT ASSETS
8.1. Application
8.1.1. Purpose of COB 8
The purpose of this section is providing protection for the Client, in the event that an Authorised Firm becomes insolvent or is otherwise unable to fulfil its obligations, in relation to any Money or Investments that are held by the Authorised Firm for that Client.
8.1.2. Application of COB 8
This section applies to an Authorised Firm which:
- (a) receives Money from, or holds or controls Money for or on behalf of, a Client in the course of, or in connection with, the carrying on of Investment Business in or from the AIFC;
- (b) holds or controls Instruments belonging to a Client in the course of, or in connection with, the carrying on of Investment Business in or from the AIFC; or
- (c) Provides Custody in or from the AIFC.
8.1.3. Meaning of "hold" and "control"
Client Assets are held or controlled by an Authorised Firm if they are:
- (a) directly held by the Authorised Firm;
- (b) held in an account in the name of the Authorised Firm;
- (c) held by a Person, or in an account in the name of a Person, controlled by the Authorised Firm; or
- (d) held in the Client’s own name, but the Authorised Firm has a mandate from the Client to manage those assets on a discretionary basis.
Guidance: Examples of Client Assets controlled by an Authorised Firm
For the purposes of COB 8.1.3, the AFSA would consider:
(i) a Person to be controlled by an Authorised Firm if that Person is inclined to act in accordance with the instructions of the Authorised Firm;
(ii) an account to be controlled by an Authorised Firm if that account is operated in accordance with the instructions of the Authorised Firm; and
(iii) if an Authorised Firm has a discretionary portfolio mandate from a Client, even though the assets are to be held in the name of the Client (for example, under a power of attorney arrangement), the Authorised Firm controls those assets as it can execute transactions relating to those assets, within the parameters set out in the mandate, in which situation the rules on mandates in COB 8.4 shall apply.
8.1.4. General requirements
An Authorised Firm which receives Money from, or holds Money for or on behalf of, a Client in the course of, or in connection with, the carrying on of Investment Business in or from the AIFC must comply with COB 8.2.
An Authorised Firm which holds Investments belonging to a Client in the course of, or in connection with, the carrying on of Investment Business in or from the AIFC or Provides Custody in or from the AIFC must comply with COB 8.3. A Client whose Investments or Money is required to be held in compliance with either COB 8.2 or COB 8.3 is a "Segregated Client". An Authorised Firm which controls Money or Investments belonging to a Client under a Mandate but does not receive or hold that Money or those Investments itself must comply with COB 8.4.
8.1.5. Arranging Custody
An Authorised Firm which Arranges Custody must comply with the requirements in COB 8.3.7 (on assessing the suitability of Third Party Account Providers), COB 8.3.13 (on disclosure), COB 8.3.14(2) (on client reporting) and COB 8.3.15 (on record keeping).
8.2. Client Money: Investment Business
The rules in this COB 8.2 are the Client Money Rules.
8.2.1. Meaning of "Client Money"
All Money received or held on behalf of a Client in the course of, or in connection with, the carrying on of Investment Business in or from the AIFC is Client Money, except Money which is:
- (a) (where the Authorised Firm is a Bank) held as a deposit by the Authorised Firm;
- (b) due and payable by the Client to the Authorised Firm for the account of the Authorised Firm. Examples of situations where Money is due and payable to an Authorised Firm includes Money which is payable to the Authorised Firm in respect of its charges or a Client purchase or in settlement of a margin payment;
- (c) belongs to another Person within the Authorised Firm’s Group (unless that Person notified the Authorised Firm in writing that the beneficial owner of the Money is a Person who is not part of the Authorised Firm’s Group and has requested that the Client Money Rules should apply to such Money);
- (d) in an account in the Client’s name over which the Authorised Firm has a Mandate or similar authority and which is subject to COB 8.4;
- (e) received in the form of a cheque, or other payable order, made payable to a third party other than a Person or account controlled by the Authorised Firm, provided the cheque or other payable order is intended to be forwarded to the third party within one business day of receipt; or
- (f) Fund Property of a Fund.Where the Authorised Firm is a Bank and holds the Client's Money as a Deposit in accordance with (a) above, it must prior to providing the Investment Business in respect of that Money notify the Client in writing that:
- (a) the Money held by the Authorised Firm is held as a Deposit and will not be subject to the Client Money Rules; and
- (b) in the event that the Authorised Firm fails, the Client Money Distribution Rules will not apply.
8.2.2. Exclusion of the Client Money Rules
Where the Client is a Market Counterparty or a Professional Client, the Authorised Firm and the Client may agree to exclude the application of the Client Money Rules. Any such agreement with the Client must be in writing and must be entered into before the Authorised Firm provides Investment Business in respect of that Money.
Where the Authorised Firm proposes to exclude the application of the Client Money Rules under this COB 8.2.2, it must prior to obtaining the Client's agreement disclose to the Client in writing that the Money held by the Authorised Firm will not be subject to the protections conferred by the Client Money Rules.
8.2.3. General requirements
An Authorised Firm which receives or holds Client Money for a Segregated Client must:
- (a) comply with the Client Money Rules in relation to that Client Money; and
- (b) have systems and controls in place to be able to evidence its compliance with the Client Money Rules.
8.2.4. Client Money Accounts
A Client Money Account in relation to Client Money is an account which:
- (a) is held with a Third Party Account Provider;
- (b) is established for the purpose of holding Client Money;
- (c) is maintained in the name of the Authorised Firm or a Nominee Company controlled by the Authorised Firm; and
- (d) includes the words 'Client Account' in its title.
8.2.5. Requirement to pay Client Money into Client Money Account
Where an Authorised Firm receives or holds Client Money it must ensure (except where otherwise provided in COB 8.2.8) that the Client Money is paid into one or more Client Money Accounts within one day of receipt.
Where an Authorised Firm deposits any Money into a Client Money Account, such Money is Client Money until the Money is withdrawn from the Client Money Account in accordance with the Client Money Rules.
8.2.6. Client Money held for Segregated Clients in a Client Money Account
An Authorised Firm may hold Client Money belonging to a Segregated Client:
- (a) in a Client Money Account solely for that Client; or
- (b) in a Client Money Account containing the pooled Client Money of more than one Segregated Client.
8.2.7. Client Money Account to contain Client Money only
An Authorised Firm must:
- (a) not deposit its own Money into a Client Money Account, other than where:
(i) a minimum sum is required to open the Client Money Account, or to keep it open;
(ii) the Money is received by way of mixed remittance (provided the Authorised Firm transfers out that part of the payment which is not Client Money within one day of the day on which the Authorised Firm would normally expect the remittance to be cleared);
(iii) interest credited to the account exceeds the amount payable to Segregated Clients (provided that the Money is removed within twenty-five days); or
(iv) it is to meet a shortfall in Client Money;
- (b) maintain systems and controls for identifying Money which must not be in a Client Money Account and for transferring it without delay;
- (c) not use Client Money belonging to one Client to satisfy an obligation of another Client; and
- (d) ensure that no off-setting or debit balances occur on Client Money Accounts.
8.2.8. Exceptions to Holding Client Money in Client Money Accounts
The requirement for an Authorised Firm to pay Client Money into a Client Money Account does not apply with respect to Client Money:
- (a) received in the form of cheque, or other payable order, until the Authorised Firm, or a Person or account controlled by the Authorised Firm, is in receipt of the proceeds of that cheque;
- (b) temporarily held by an Authorised Firm before forwarding to a Person nominated by the Client; or
- (c) in connection with a Delivery Versus Payment Transaction where:
(i) in respect of a purchase by the Client, the Client Money will be due to the Authorised Firm within one day following the Authorised Firm's fulfilment of its delivery obligation to the Client; or
(ii) in respect of a sale by the Client, the Client Money will be due to the Client within one day following the Client's fulfilment of its delivery obligation to the Authorised Firm. Where (b) or (c) apply, the Authorised Firm must pay the Client Money into a Client Money
Account where it has not fulfilled its delivery or payment obligation within three days of receipt of the Money or Investments, except where the circumstances in (c)(ii) apply and the Authorised Firm instead safeguards Client Investments of a value at least equal to the value of such Client Money.
An Authorised Firm must maintain adequate records of all cheques and payment orders received in accordance with (a) above including, in respect of each payment, the date of receipt, the name of the Client for whom payment is to be credited and the date on which the cheque or payment order was presented to the Authorised Firm's Third Party Account Provider. The records must be kept for a minimum of six years.
8.2.9. Conditions for use of Third Party Account Providers
Save as provided in this COB 8.2.9, an Authorised Firm may only pass, or permit to be passed, Client Money to a Third Party Account Provider if:
- (a) the Client Money is to be used in respect of a Transaction or series or Transactions for that Client;
- (b) the Client Money is to be used to meet an obligation of that Client;
- (c) the Third Party Account Provider is a Bank or a Regulated Financial Institution which is authorised to accept or take Deposits; or
- (d) the Client Money is put into a Shari'ah product that is offered by a Third Party Account
Provider and that has been approved by the AFSA as being suitable for the holding of Client Money.
In respect of (a) and (b) above, an Authorised Firm must not hold the Client Money with the Third Party Account Provider longer than necessary to effect a Transaction or satisfy the Client's obligation.
8.2.10. Holding Client Money with Third Party Account Providers
An Authorised Firm may only pay, or permit to be paid, Client Money to a Third Party Account Provider pursuant to COB 8.2.9 (c) or (d) above where it has:
- (a) undertaken appropriate due diligence on the Third Party Account Provider and concluded on reasonable grounds that the Third Party Account Provider is suitable to hold that Client Money; and
- (b) confirmed that the laws and regulations of both:
(i) the jurisdiction in which the Client Money will be held; and
(ii) the jurisdiction in which the relevant Bank or Regulated Financial Institution is legally established (if different), recognise that Client Money belongs beneficially to the Client and will not be available to satisfy any debts of the Bank or Regulated Financial Institution.
8.2.11. Due diligence on Third Party Account Providers
When undertaking due diligence on a Third Party Account Provider, an Authorised Firm should have regard to the following:
- (a) the following characteristics of the Third Party Account Provider:
(i) its expertise and market reputation;
(ii) its credit rating;
(iii) its capital and financial resources;
(iv) the amount of Client Money placed, as a proportion of its overall capital and deposits;
(v) the extent to which the Client Money would be protected under a deposit guarantee protection scheme;
(vi) where such information is available, the level of risk in the investment and loan activities undertaken by it or members of its Group;
(vii) its use of agents and service providers; and
(viii) the financial position of its Group; and
- (b) (without prejudice to the obligation under (a) above) any legal requirements or market practices in the jurisdiction in which it is located (including the insolvency regime in that jurisdiction) which may adversely affect the protections available in respect of any Client Money placed with the Third Party Account Provider.
When assessing the suitability of the Third Party Account Provider, the Authorised Firm must ensure that the Third Party Account Provider will provide protections equivalent to the protections conferred by the Client Money Rules.
An Authorised Firm must have systems and controls in place to ensure that the Third Party Account Provider remains suitable to hold Client Money for its Segregated Clients. This includes undertaking appropriate due diligence, in the manner described above, on an ongoing basis.
An Authorised Firm must be able to demonstrate to the AIFC's satisfaction the grounds upon which the Authorised Firm considers the Third Party Account Provider to be suitable to hold that Client Money.
8.2.12. Obtaining written acknowledgments from Third Party Account Providers
When an Authorised Firm opens a Client Money Account with a Third Party Account Provider it must obtain a written acknowledgement from the Third Party Account Provider stating that:
- (a) the Third Party Account Provider is under an obligation to keep its own Money separate from the Money it holds for its Clients;
- (b) all Money standing to the credit of the account is held by the Authorised Firm as agent and that the Third Party Account Provider is not entitled to combine the account with any other account or to exercise any charge, mortgage, lien, right of set-off or counterclaim against Money in that account in respect of any sum owed to it on any other account of the Authorised Firm; and
- (c) the title of the account is, or will be, sufficient to distinguish that account from any account containing Money that belongs to the Authorised Firm. The Authorised Firm must obtain the written acknowledgement referred to above prior to placing any Client Money into an account with the Third Party Account Provider.
8.2.13. Payments of Client Money from Client Money Accounts
Client Money must remain in a Client Money Account until it is:
- (a) due and payable to the Authorised Firm;
- (b) paid to the Client on whose behalf the Client Money is held or to a duly authorised representative of such Client;
- (c) paid in accordance with an instruction from the Client on whose behalf the Client Money is held;
- (d) required to meet the payment obligations of the Client on whose behalf the Client Money is held; or
- (e) paid out in circumstances that are otherwise authorised by the AIFC.
Money paid out by way of cheque or other payable order under this Rule must remain in a Client Money Account until the cheque or payable order is presented to the Client's bank and cleared by the paying agent
8.2.14. Client Money arising from Client Investments
Money arising from, or in connection with, the holding of Client Investments and which is due to a Client must be treated as Client Money in accordance with the Client Money Rules.
8.2.15. Distribution Event
Following a Distribution Event, an Authorised Firm must comply with the Client Money Distribution Rules and all Client Money will be subject to such Rules.
8.2.16. Client Money Distribution Rules (Investment Business)
(1) The requirements in this COB 8.2.16 are the Client Money Distribution Rules (Investment Business) and to the extent that these Rules are inconsistent with the AIFC Insolvency Regulations, these Rules will prevail.
(2) Following a Distribution Event, the Authorised Firm must distribute Money in the following order of priorities:
- (a) firstly, in relation to Client Money held in a Client Account on behalf of Segregated Clients, claims relating to that Money must be paid to each Segregated Client in full or, where insufficient funds are held in a Client Account, proportionately, in accordance with each Segregated Client’s valid claim over that Money;
- (b) secondly, where the amount of Client Money in a Client Account is insufficient to satisfy the claims of Segregated Clients in respect of that Money, or not being immediately available to satisfy such claims, all other Money held by the Authorised Firm must be used to satisfy any outstanding amounts remaining payable to Segregated Clients in respect of their Client Assets but not satisfied from the application of (a) above;
- (c) thirdly, upon resolution of claims in relation to Segregated Clients, any Money remaining with the Authorised Firm must be paid to each Client in full or, where insufficient funds are held by the Authorised Firm, proportionately, in accordance with each Client’s valid claim over that Money; and
- (d) fourthly, upon satisfaction of all claims in (a), (b) and (c) above, in the event of:
- (i) the appointment of a liquidator, receiver or administrator, or trustee in bankruptcy over the Authorised Firm or the Nominee Company, payment must be made in accordance with the AIFC Insolvency Regulations; or
(ii) all other Distribution Events, payment must be made in accordance with the direction of the AFSA.
8.2.17. Procedures relating to Client Money Accounts
An Authorised Firm must have procedures for identifying Client Money received by the Authorised Firm (by whatever means they are received) and for promptly recording the receipt of the Money either in the books of account or a register for later posting to the Client cash book and ledger accounts.
An Authorised Firm must have procedures for ensuring all withdrawals from a Client Money Account are authorised and carried out in accordance with this COB 8.2.17.
8.2.18. Client disclosures
An Authorised Firm that holds Client Money belonging to a Client in must in good time before it provides the relevant Investment Business disclose the following information to the Client:
- (a) that the Client is subject to the protection conferred by the Client Money Rules and, as a consequence:
(i) this Money will be held separate from Money belonging to the Authorised Firm; and
(ii) in the event of the Authorised Firm's insolvency, winding up or other Distribution Event stipulated by the AIFC, the Client's Money will be subject to the Client Money Distribution Rules;
- (b) whether the Client Money of that Client may be held by a third party on behalf of the Authorised Firm, and if so, what degree of responsibility the Authorised Firm has for any acts or omissions of the third party; and what the likely consequences are for the Client of the insolvency of the third party;
- (c) whether interest is payable to the Client and, if so, on what terms;
- (d) if applicable, that the Client Money may be held in a jurisdiction outside the AIFC and the market practices, insolvency and legal regime applicable in that jurisdiction may differ from the regime applicable in the AIFC;
- (e) if applicable, details about how any Client Money arising out of Islamic Financial Business are to be held; and
- (f) details of any rights which the Authorised Firm may have to realise Client Money held on behalf of the Client in satisfaction of a default by the Client or otherwise.
8.2.19. Client reporting
In relation to each Client for whom it receives or holds Client Money, an Authorised Firm must provide at least once a year a statement of the Client Money unless such a statement has been provided in a periodic statement in accordance with COB 9.
8.2.20. Record keeping
An Authorised Firm must maintain records which enable it to determine promptly the total amount of Client Money that it holds for each of its Clients.An Authorised Firm must maintain records:
- (a) which enable the Authorised Firm to demonstrate compliance with the Client Money Rules; and
- (b) which enable the Authorised Firm to demonstrate and explain all entries of Money held in accordance with the Client Money Rules. Records must be kept for a minimum of six years.
8.2.21. Reconciliations
An Authorised Firm must maintain a system to ensure that accurate reconciliations of the Client Accounts are carried out at least once in every calendar month.
8.2.22. Nature of reconciliation
The reconciliation must include:
- (a) a full list of individual Segregated Client credit ledger balances, as recorded by the Authorised Firm;
- (b) a full list of individual Segregated Client debit ledger balances, as recorded by the Authorised Firm;
- (c) a full list of unpresented cheques and outstanding lodgements;
- (d) a full list of Client Account cash book balances; and
- (e) formal statements from Third Party Account Providers showing account balances as at the date of reconciliation.
8.2.23. Requirements for reconciliation
An Authorised Firm must:
- (a) reconcile the individual credit ledger balances, Client Account cash book balances, and the Third Party Account Provider Client Account balances;
- (b) check that the balance in the Client Accounts as at the close of business on the previous day was at least equal to the aggregate balance of individual credit ledger balances as at the close of business on the previous day; and
- (c) ensure that all shortfalls, excess balances and unresolved differences, other than differences arising solely as a result of timing differences between the accounting systems of the Third Party Account Provider and the Authorised Firm, are investigated and, where applicable, corrective action taken as soon as possible. An Authorised Firm must perform the reconciliations in the preceding paragraph within 10 days of the date to which the reconciliation relates. An Authorised Firm must ensure that the process of reconciliation does not give rise to a conflict of interest.
8.2.24. Review of reconciliation
When performing reconciliations in accordance with COB 8.2.21, an Authorised Firm should:
- (a) maintain a clear separation of duties to ensure that an employee with responsibility for operating Client Accounts, or an employee that has the authority to make payments, does not perform the reconciliations; and
- (b) ensure that the reconciliations are reviewed by a member of the Authorised Firm who has adequate seniority. The member in question must provide a written statement confirming the reconciliation has been undertaken in accordance with the requirements of COB 8.3.21- 8.2.23.
Guidance: Material discrepancies The Authorised Firm should notify the AFSA where there has been a material discrepancy with the reconciliation which has not been rectified. A material discrepancy includes discrepancies which have the cumulative effect of being material, such as longstanding discrepancies.
8.3. Client Investments Rules
The rules in COB 8.3 are the Client Investments Rules.
8.3.1. Meaning of Client Investments
A Client Investment is an Investment held by an Authorised Firm on behalf of a Client in the course of, or in connection with, the carrying on of Investment Business by the Authorised Firm.
8.3.2. Exceptions to the Client Investments Rules
The Client Investments Rules do not apply to Client Investments held as Collateral in accordance with the provisions of this COB 8.3.2. Before an Authorised Firm holds Collateral from a Client it must disclose to that Client:
- (a) the terms governing the arrangement under which the Collateral will be held, including any rights which the Authorised Firm may have to realise the Collateral and the terms governing the termination of the arrangement;
- (b) if applicable, that the Collateral will not be registered in that Client’s own name;
- (c) if applicable, that the Authorised Firm proposes to return to the Client Collateral other than the original Collateral, or original type of Collateral; and
- (d) that in the event of the insolvency, winding up or other Distribution Event stipulated by the AFSA, any excess Collateral will be sold and the resulting Client Money shall be distributed in accordance with the Client Money Distribution Rules. An Authorised Firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that the Collateral is properly safeguarded. Before an Authorised Firm deposits a Client’s Collateral with a Third Party Account Provider it must notify the Third Party Account Provider that:
- (a) the Collateral does not belong to the Authorised Firm and must be held by the Third Party Account Provider in a segregated Client Investment Account in a name that clearly identifies it as belonging to the Authorised Firm’s Clients; and
- (b) the Third Party Account Provider is not entitled to claim any lien or right of retention or sale over the Collateral except to cover the obligations owed to the third party which gave rise to that deposit, pledge, charge or security arrangement or any charges relating to the administration or safekeeping of the Collateral. Notwithstanding that the Client Investments Rules do not apply to Collateral held by an Authorised Firm in accordance with this COB 8.3.2, the Authorised Firm must carry out appropriate due diligence in relation to the Third Party Account Provider to at least the standards specified in COB 8.3.7. An Authorised Firm must withdraw the Collateral from the third party where the Collateral is not being properly safeguarded unless the Client has indicated otherwise in writing.
8.3.3. Safeguarding Client Investments
An Authorised Firm which holds Client Investments must have systems and controls in place to ensure the proper safeguarding of Client Investments.
An Authorised Firm which Provides Custody or holds Client Investments must ensure that Client Investments are recorded, registered and held in an appropriate manner to safeguard and control such property.
8.3.4. Client Investment Accounts
A Client Investment Account is an account which:
- (a) is held with a Third Party Account Provider or by an Authorised Firm which is authorised under its Licence to Provide Custody;
- (b) is established for the purpose of holding Client Investments;
- (c) when held by a Third Party Account Provider, is maintained in the name of the Authorised Firm or a Nominee Company controlled by the Authorised Firm; and
- (d) includes the words 'Client Account' in its title.
8.3.5. Registration and recording of Client Investments
An Authorised Firm which Provides Custody or holds Client Investments must register or record all Client Investments in the name of:
- (a) the Client;
- (b) a Nominee Company that is controlled by the Authorised Firm; or
- (c) the Authorised Firm where, due to the nature of the law or market practice, it is not feasible to do otherwise.
Save as provided in (c) above, an Authorised Firm which Provides Custody or holds or controls Client Investments must record, register and hold Client Investments separately from its own Investments.
8.3.6. Registration and recording of Client Investments
An Authorised Firm may record, register or hold a Client Investment in:
- (a) a Client Investment Account solely for that Client; or
- (b) a Client Investment Account containing the pooled Investments of more than one Client.
8.3.7. Holding Client Investments with Third Party Account Providers
An Authorised Firm may only hold a Client Investment with a Third Party Account Provider where it has:
- (a) undertaken appropriate due diligence on the Third Party Account Provider and concluded on reasonable grounds that the Third Party Account Provider is suitable to hold those Client Investments; and
- (b) confirmed that the laws and regulations of both:
(i) the jurisdiction in which the Client Investments will be held; and
(ii) the jurisdiction in which the relevant Bank or Regulated Financial Institution is legally established (if different), recognise that Client Investments belong beneficially to the Client and will not be available to satisfy any debts of the Bank or Regulated Financial Institution.
8.3.8. Due diligence on Third Party Account Providers
When undertaking due diligence on a Third Party Account Provider, an Authorised Firm should have regard to the following:
- (a) the following characteristics of the Third Party Account Provider:
(i) its expertise and market reputation;
(ii) its credit rating;
(iii) its capital and financial resources;
(iv) the value of the Client Investments held, as a proportion of its overall capital and deposits;
(v) the extent to which the Client Investments would be protected under a deposit guarantee protection scheme;
(vi) where such information is available, the level of risk in the investment and loan activities undertaken by it or members of its Group;
(vii) its use of agents and service providers; and
(viii) the financial position of its Group; and
- (b) (without prejudice to the obligation under (a) above) any legal requirements or market practices in the jurisdiction in which it is located (including the insolvency regime in that jurisdiction) which may adversely affect the protections available in respect of any Client Investments placed with the Third Party Account Provider. When assessing the suitability of the Third Party Account Provider, the Authorised Firm must ensure that the Third Party Account Provider will provide protections equivalent to the protections conferred by the Client Investments Rules. An Authorised Firm must have systems and controls in place to ensure that the Third Party Account Provider remains suitable to hold Client Investments for its Segregated Clients. This includes undertaking appropriate due diligence, in the manner described above, on an ongoing basis. An Authorised Firm must be able to demonstrate to the AIFC's satisfaction the grounds upon which the Authorised Firm considers the Third Party Account Provider to be suitable to hold Client Investments.
8.3.9. Entering into written agreements with Third Party Account Providers
Before an Authorised Firm passes, or permits to be passed, Client Investments to a Third Party Account Provider, it must enter into a written agreement with the Third Party Account Provider under which the Third Party Account Provider agrees that:
- (a) it shall keep the Client Investments separately from assets belonging to the Third Party Account Provider;
- (b) all Investments standing to the credit of the account are held by the Authorised Firm as agent and that the Third Party Account Provider is not entitled to combine the account with any other account or to exercise any charge, mortgage, lien, right of set-off or counterclaim against Investments in that account in respect of any sum owed to it on any other account of the Authorised Firm;
- (c) the title of the account is, or will be, sufficient to distinguish that account from any account containing Investments that belong to the Authorised Firm or the Third Party Account Provider; and
- (d) it shall provide a written statement on at least a monthly basis identifying all of the Client Investments that it holds for the Authorised Firm.
8.3.10. Contents of agreements with Third Party Account Providers
The written agreement between the Authorised Firm and the Third Party Provider must also address the following:
- (a) the procedures for the passing of instructions to or by the Authorised Firm;
- (b) the procedures for dealing with dividends, interest payments and other entitlements accruing to the Client in connection with the Client Investments that are held by the Third Party Account Provider; and
- (c) the extent to which the Third Party Account Provider is liable in the event of loss of a Client Investment caused by the acts or omissions of the Third Party Account Provider or any agent of the Third Party Account Provider.
8.3.11. Use of Client Investments for the purposes of the Authorised Firm or another Person
An Authorised Firm must not use a Client Investment for its own purpose or that of another Person without the prior written permission of the relevant Client. An Authorised Firm which intends to use a Client Investment for its own purpose or that of another Person, must have systems and controls in place to ensure that:
- (a) it obtains the prior written permission of the relevant Client to the use of the Client Investment;
- (b) adequate records are maintained to protect Client Investments which are applied as collateral or used for stock lending activities;
- (c) the equivalent Investments are returned to the Client Investment Account of the Client; and
- (d) the Client is not disadvantaged by the use of its Client Investments.
8.3.12. Procedures relating to Client Investment Accounts
An Authorised Firm must have procedures for ensuring that Client Investments are promptly identified and held in accordance with the provisions of this COB 8.3.
8.3.13. Client disclosure
An Authorised Firm that holds Client Investments belonging to a Segregated Client must disclose the following information to the Client:
- (a) that the Client is subject to the protections conferred by the Client Investments Rules;
- (b) the arrangements for recording and registering Client Investments, claiming and receiving dividends and other entitlements and interest and the giving and receiving instructions relating to those Client Investments (including, if applicable, a statement that the Authorised Firm intends to mix the Client Investments of the Client with those of other Clients);
- (c) whether the Client Investments of that Client may be held by a third party on behalf of the Authorised Firm, and if so, what degree of responsibility the Authorised Firm has for any acts or omissions of the third party; and what the likely consequences are for the Client of the insolvency of the third party;
- (d) if applicable, that the Client Investments may be held in a jurisdiction outside the AIFC and the market practices, insolvency and legal regime applicable in that jurisdiction may differ from the regime applicable in the AIFC;
- (e) details of any rights which the Authorised Firm may have to realise Client Investments held on behalf of the Client in satisfaction of a default by the Client or otherwise; and
- (f) the method and frequency upon which the Authorised Firm will report to the Client in relation to its Client Investments.
8.3.14. Client reporting
(1)In relation to each Client for whom it receives or holds Client Investments, an Authorised Firm must provide at least once a year a statement of the Client Investments unless such a statement has been provided in a periodic statement in accordance with (2) or COB 9.
(2)An Authorised Person which Provides Custody for safeguarding and administering Digital Assets belonging to a Retail Client must send a statement to its Retail Clients at least monthly. The statement must include the list, description and amount of each Digital Asset held by the Authorised Person as at the date of reporting.
8.3.15. Record keeping
An Authorised Firm must maintain records:
- (a) which enable the Authorised Firm to demonstrate compliance with the Client Investments Rules; and
- (b) which enable the Authorised Firm at any time and without delay to distinguish Client Investments held for one Client from those held for another Client and from the Authorised Firm's own assets; and
- (c) of all agreements entered into with Third Party Account Providers pursuant to COB 8.3.7 and any instructions given by the Authorised Firm to the Third Party Account Provider under the terms of such agreements. Records must be kept for a minimum of six years.
8.3.16. Reconciliations
An Authorised Firm must:
(a) at least once every calendar month, reconcile its records of Client Accounts held with Third Party Account Providers with monthly statements received from those Third Party Account Providers;
(b) at least every six months, count all Client Investments physically held by the Authorised Firm, or its Nominee Company, and reconcile the result of that count to the records of the Authorised Firm; and
(c) at least every six months, reconcile individual Client ledger balances with the Authorised Firm’s records of Client Investment balances held in Client Accounts.
An Authorised Firm must ensure that the process of reconciliation does not give rise to a conflict of interest.
Where Authorised Persons Provide Custody for safeguarding and administering Digital Assets belonging to another Person, all reconciliations required under COB 8.3.16 shall be conducted at least every week.
8.3.17. Review of reconciliation
When performing reconciliations in accordance with COB 8.3.16, an Authorised Firm should:
- (a) maintain a clear separation of duties to ensure that an employee with responsibility for operating Client Accounts, or an employee that has the authority to make payments, does not perform the reconciliations; and
- (b) ensure that the reconciliations are reviewed by a member of the Authorised Firm who has adequate seniority. The member in question must provide a written statement confirming the reconciliation has been undertaken in accordance with the requirements of COB 8.3.16.
Guidance: Material discrepancies The Authorised Firm should notify the AFSA where there has been a material discrepancy with the reconciliation which has not been rectified. A material discrepancy includes discrepancies which have the cumulative effect of being material, such as longstanding discrepancies.
8.4. Mandates
Where an Authorised Firm holds a Mandate, it must establish adequate records and systems and controls in respect of its use of the Mandates. Where an Authorised Firm holds Mandates, it must:
- (a) maintain an up-to-date list of all such Mandates, including any conditions placed by the Client or by the Authorised Firm on the use of the Mandate and details of the procedures and authorities for the giving and receiving of instructions under the Mandate;
- (b) maintain a record of each Transaction entered into under each Mandate; and
- (c) ensure that all Transactions entered into using such a Mandate are are within the scope of the authority of the Employee and the Authorised Firm entering into such Transactions.
8.5. Client money: Insurance Intermediation and Insurance Management
8.5.1. Application
COB 8.5 applies to an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager that receives or holds Money for, or on behalf of, a Client in the course of carrying on Insurance Intermediation or Insurance Management. This section also applies to an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager that carries on Insurance Intermediation or Insurance Management for a Takaful Operator.
Guidance: Application to Takaful Business
All provisions in this section 8.5 of AIFC COB rules apply to Insurance Intermediation or Insurance Management activities carried out for a Takaful Operator or for a Takaful Business. All references to Insurance Contract include references to Takaful Contract.
8.5.2. Meaning of “Segregated Client”
A Client whose Money is required to be held in compliance with COB 8.5 is a "Segregated Client". Guidance: Nature of Client Money in context of Insurance Intermediation and Insurance Management Client Money in this context may include the following to the extent that they are received or held by the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager:
- (a) premiums, additional premiums and return premiums of all kinds;
- (b) claims and other payments due under Contracts of Insurance;
- (c) refunds;
- (d) fees, charges, taxes and similar fiscal levies relating to Contracts of Insurance; or
- (e) discounts, commissions and brokerage
- (f) monies received from or on behalf of a Client of an Insurance Manager, in relation to his Insurance Management business.
8.5.3. Exception
COB 8.5 does not apply to an Authorised Firm that receives or holds Client Money in accordance with the Rules in COB 8.2 (Client Money: Investment Business).
8.5.4. Client Money
All Money received or held on behalf of a Client in the course of, or in connection with, carrying on Insurance Intermediation or Insurance Management in or from the AIFC is Client Money, except Money which is:
- (a) due and payable by the Client to the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager:
- (i) for its own account; or
(ii) in its capacity as agent of an insurer where the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager acts in accordance with COB 8.5.5 (Holding money as agent of an insurer);
- (b) otherwise received by the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager under an arrangement made between an insurer and another Person that has authority to underwrite risks, settle claims, or handle refunds of premiums on behalf of that insurer outside the AIFC and where the Money relates to that business.
8.5.5. Holding money as agent of an insurer
Money received or held by an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager is not Client Money for the purposes of this COB 8.5 where there is a written agreement in place between the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager and the insurer to whom the relevant money is to be paid (or from whom they have been received) under which the insurer agrees that:
- (a) the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager holds as agent for the insurer all money received by it in connection with Contracts of Insurance effected or to be effected by the insurer;
- (b) insurance cover is maintained for the Client once the money is received by the Insurance Intermediary; and
- (c) the insurer's obligation to make a payment to the Client is not discharged until actual receipt of the relevant money by the Client.
8.5.6. Duty to segregate Client Money
An Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager when dealing with Client Money must hold Client Money separate from its money. The Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must segregate the Client Money by either:
8.5.7. Money due to a Client from an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager
If an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager is liable to pay Money to a Client, it must as soon as possible:
8.5.8. Use of a Client Money Account
An Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must not hold Money other than Client Money in a Client Money Account, other than:
- (a) a minimum sum required to open the Client Money Account, or to keep it open;
- (b) Money withdrawn as commission from the Client Money Account (where the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager has received a premium from a Client or on behalf of the Client in accordance with its terms of business with that Client and the relevant insurer, and the commission is withdrawn before onward payment of that premium to the insurer);
- (c) Money received by way of mixed remittance (that is, part Client Money and part other Money) (provided the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager pays the full amount into the Client Money Account, and transfers out that part of the payment which is not Client Money not later than 25 days after the day on which the remittance is cleared);
- (c) interest credited to the account which exceeds the amount payable to Clients as interest.
8.5.9. Client Money Account
An Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must:
- (a) ensure that Client Money is held in one or more Client Money Accounts with one or more Third Party Account Providers;
- (b) take reasonable steps before opening a Client Money Account, and as often as is appropriate on a continuing basis (and no less than once in each financial year), to ensure that the Third Party Account Provider is appropriate for that purpose;
- (c) prior to operating a Client Money Account, give written notice to, and request written confirmation from, the Third Party Account Provider that the bank is not entitled to combine the Client Money Account with any other account unless that account is itself an Client Money Account held by the Authorised Firm, or to any charge, encumbrance, lien, right of set-off, compensation or retention against monies standing to the credit of the Client Money Account; and
- (d) ensure that each Client Money Account contains in its title the name of the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager, together with the designation "Client Account". Guidance: Due diligence When assessing a Third Party Account Provider, an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager should consider taking into account, among other matters:
- (a) the capital of the Third Party Account Provider;
- (b) the amount of Client Money placed, as a proportion of its overall capital and deposits;
- (c) the credit rating of the Third Party Account Provider (if available);
- (d) where such information is available, the level of risk in the investment and loan activities undertaken by it or members of its Group.
8.5.10. No confirmation from Third Party Account Provider
If a Third Party Account Provider has not provided the written confirmation referred to in COB 8.5.9(c) within 40 business days after the Authorised Firm made the request, the Authorised Firm must as soon as possible withdraw the Client Money held in the Client Money Account with that Third Party Account Provider and deposit them in a Client Money Account with another Third Party Account Provider.
8.5.11. Derivatives in management of Client Money
An Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager may not use derivatives in the management of Client Money except for the prudent management of foreign exchange risks
8.5.12. Untraceable clients
An Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager that has a credit balance for a Client who cannot be traced should not take credit for such an amount except where:
8.5.13. Record keeping
(1) An Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must keep a copy of any agreement entered into between an insurer and that Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager acting as agent pursuant to COB 8.5.5 (Holding money as agent of an insurer) for at least six years from the date on which that agreement is terminated.
(2) An Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must keep records of all sums withdrawn from the Insurance Bank Account as a result of credit taken under COB 8.5.12 (Untraceable clients) for at least six years from the date of withdrawal or realisation.
8.5.14. Distribution Event
Following a Distribution Event, an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must comply with the Client Money Distribution Rules and all Client Money will be subject to such Rules.
8.5.15. Client Money Distribution Rules (Insurance Intermediation and Insurance Management)
(1) The requirements in this COB 8.5.15 are the Client Money Distribution Rules (Insurance Intermediation and Insurance Management) and to the extent that these Rules are inconsistent with the AIFC Insolvency Regulations, these Rules will prevail.
(2) Following a Distribution Event, the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must distribute Money in the following order of priorities:
- (a) firstly, in relation to Client Money held in a Client Account on behalf of Segregated Clients, claims relating to that Money must be paid to each Segregated Client in full or, where insufficient funds are held in a Client Account, proportionately, in accordance with each Segregated Client’s valid claim over that Money;
- (b) secondly, where the amount of Client Money in a Client Account is insufficient to satisfy the claims of Segregated Clients in respect of that Money, or not being immediately available to satisfy such claims, all other Money held by the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must be used to satisfy any outstanding amounts remaining payable to Segregated Clients but not satisfied from the application of (a) above;
- (c) thirdly, upon resolution of claims in relation to Segregated Clients, any Money remaining with the Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must be paid to each Client in full or, where insufficient funds are held by the Insurance Intermediary, proportionately, in accordance with each Client’s valid claim over that Money; and
- (d) fourthly, upon satisfaction of all claims in (a), (b) and (c) above, in the event of:
- (i) the appointment of a liquidator, receiver or administrator, or trustee in bankruptcy over the Insurance Intermediary, payment must be made accordance with the AIFC Insolvency Regulations; or
(ii) all other Distribution Events, payment must be made in accordance with the direction of the AFSA.
8.5.16. Client reporting
In relation to each Client for whom it receives or holds Client Money, an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager must provide at least once a year a statement of the Client Money.
9. REPORTING TO CLIENTS
9.1. Trade confirmations
9.1.1. Application
COB 9.1 does not apply to an Authorised Firm that executes a transaction in the course of Managing Investments for a Client.
9.1.2. Providing trade confirmations
When an Authorised Firm executes a transaction in an Investment for a Client, it must provide a confirmation note to the Client as soon as possible and in any case no later than 2 business days following the date of execution of the transaction.
9.1.3. Content of trade confirmations
The confirmation note must include the details of the transaction in accordance with Schedule 3.
9.1.4. Market Counterparties
An Authorised Firm may agree with a Professional Client or Market Counterparty to provide reporting on transactions differently from the requirements in COB 9.1 in relation to content and timing.
9.1.5. Record keeping
An Authorised Firm must retain a copy of each confirmation note sent to a Client and retain it for a minimum of six years from the date of despatch.
9.2. Periodic statements
9.2.1. Requirement to provide periodic statements
When an Authorised Firm:
- (a) Manages Investments for a Client; or
- (b) operates an account containing uncovered open positions in a Contingent Liability Investment, it must promptly and at suitable intervals provide the Client with a written statement (“a periodic statement”) containing the matters referred to in Schedule 4.
Guidance For these purposes, a “suitable interval” is:
- (a) every three months;
- (b) monthly, if the Client’s portfolio includes an uncovered open position in Contingent Liability Investments; or
- (c) at any alternative interval that a Client has on his own initiative agreed with the Authorised Firm but in any case at least annually.
9.2.2. Record keeping
An Authorised Firm must make a copy of any periodic statement provided to a Client and retain it for a minimum of six years from the date on which it was provided.
10. INVESTMENT RESEARCH
10.1. Application
This section applies to an Authorised Firm preparing or publishing Investment Research that is intended to be distributed to Clients of the Authorised Firm or to the public.
10.2. Conflicts of interest
An Authorised Firm that prepares and publishes Investment Research must have adequate procedures and controls in place to ensure that the Rules in COB 7 in respect of conflicts of interest are properly implemented in order to manage or prevent any conflicts arising in respect of Investment Research.
10.3. Restrictions on transactions
10.3.1. Restrictions on investment analysts
An Authorised Firm must have arrangements in place to ensure that an investment analyst does not undertake a Personal Transaction in an Investment if the investment analyst is preparing Investment Research:
- (a) on that Investment or its Issuer; or
- (b) on a related Investment, or its Issuer;
until the Investment Research has been made available to its intended recipients, and those recipients have had a reasonable opportunity to act upon it.
10.3.2. Restrictions on own account transactions
An Authorised Firm or its Associate must not knowingly execute a transaction on its own account in an Investment or related Investments, which is the subject of Investment Research, prepared either by the Authorised Firm or its Associate, until the Investment Research has been made available to its intended recipients, and those recipients have had a reasonable opportunity to act upon it. This restriction does not apply if:
- (a) the Authorised Firm or its Associate is following a Market Making Strategy in the relevant Investment;
- (b) it is not expected to materially affect the price of the Investment.
10.4. Physical separation
The Authorised Firm must put in place:
- (a) a physical separation between the investment analysts preparing Investment Research and other Employees whose interests may conflict with those of the intended recipients of the Investment Research; or
- (b) if physical separation is not appropriate to the nature and size of the Authorised Firm's business, such information barriers as are required to manage or prevent any conflicts of interest.
10.5. Key information
When an Authorised Firm publishes Investment Research, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the Investment Research:
- (a) states the identity, job title, and relevant financial regulator of the person providing the
Investment Research;
- (b) identifies the types of Clients for whom it is principally intended;
- (c) specifies the date when it was first published;
- (d) distinguishes fact from opinion or estimates;
- (e) includes references to sources of data and the extent of their reliability;
- (f) labels all projections, forecasts, and price targets, together with any assumptions supporting them;
- (g) summarises the basis for the valuation or methodology and any underlying assumptions;
- (h) indicates where detailed information on the valuation or methodology can be accessed;
- (i) contains a clear and unambiguous explanation of the rating or recommendation system used, such as "buy", "sell", or "hold";
- (j) specifies the recommended period for the Investment;
- (k) explains the related risk including a sensitivity analysis of the assumptions;
- (l) states the planned frequency of updates to the recommendation;
- (m) includes a distribution of the different ratings or recommendations, in percentage terms:
- (i) for all Investments;
- (ii) for Investments in each sector covered; and
- (iii) for Investments, if any, where the Authorised Firm has undertaken corporate finance business with or for the Issuer over the past 12 months; and
- (n) if intended for use only by a Professional Client or Market Counterparty, contains a clear warning that it should not be relied upon by or distributed to Retail Clients;
- (o) where the recommendation differs from a previous recommendation concerning the same Investment or Issuer that has been disseminated in the preceding 12-month period, the change(s) and date of the previous recommendation;
- (p) a list of all recommendations relating to the relevant instrument or issuer from the previous 12 months, along with the date of dissemination, price target, the price at the time of the recommendation, the direction of the recommendation, the recommended time period of the recommended investment, and the price target, along with the identity of the person(s) who made the recommendation; and
- (s) disclosure of any interests or conflicts of interest in accordance with COB 10.6.
10.6. Disclosure of conflicts of interests
For the purposes of this section, an Authorised Firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that when it publishes Investment Research, and in the case where a representative of the Authorised Firm makes a Public Appearance, disclosure is made of the following matters:
- (a) any financial interest or material interest that the Investment Analyst or a Family Member of the analyst has, which relates to the Investment;
- (b) the reporting lines for Investment Analysts and their remuneration arrangements where such matters give rise to any conflicts of interest which may reasonably be likely to impair the impartiality of the Investment Research;
- (c) any shareholding by the Authorised Firm or its Associate of 1 per cent or more of the total issued share capital of the Issuer;
- (d) if the Authorised Firm or its Associate acts as corporate broker for the Issuer;
- (e) any material shareholding by the Issuer in the Authorised Firm;
- (f) any corporate finance business undertaken by the Authorised Firm with or for the Issuer over the past 12 months, and any future relevant corporate finance business initiatives; and
- (g) that the Authorised Firm is a Market Maker in the Investment, if that is the case.
10.7. Restrictions on publication during public offer
If an Authorised Firm acts as a manager or co-manager of an initial public offering or a secondary offering, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that:
- (a) it does not publish Investment Research relating to the Investment during a Quiet Period; and
- (b) an Investment Analyst from the Authorised Firm does not make a Public Appearance relating to that Investment during a Quiet Period.
10.8. Offers of securities
10.8.1. General requirement
When an Authorised Firm carries out a mandate to manage an Offer of Securities or an Offer of Units, it must implement adequate internal arrangements to manage any conflicts of interest that may arise as a result of the Authorised Firm’s duty to two distinct sets of Clients namely the corporate finance Client and the investment Client.
10.8.2. Disclosure
For the purposes of COB 10.8.1, when an Authorised Firm accepts a mandate to manage an Offer, it must take reasonable steps to disclose to its corporate finance Client:
- (a) the process the Authorised Firm proposes to adopt in order to determine what recommendations it will make about allocations for the Offer;
- (b) details of how the target investor group, to whom it is planned to Offer the Securities or Units in a Listed Fund, will be identified;
- (c) the process through which recommendations are prepared and by whom; and
- (d) (if relevant) that it may recommend placing Securities or Units in a Listed Fund with a Client of the Authorised Firm for whom the Authorised Firm provides other services, with the Authorised Firm’s own proprietary book, or with an Associate, and that this represents a potential conflict of interest.
11. INSURANCE INTERMEDIARIES
11.1. Application
11.1.1. General application
Subject to COB 11.1.2, an Insurance Intermediary licensed by the AFSA to provide Insurance Intermediation must comply with the Rules in this COB 11, in respect of both Contracts of Insurance and Takaful Contracts.
11.1.2. Professional Clients and Market Counterparties
An Insurance Intermediary providing Insurance Intermediation for a Market Counterparty is only required to comply with COB 8.5 and 11.3.1, 11.7.1, 11.7.2.
An Insurance Intermediary providing Insurance Intermediation for a Professional Client is required to comply with COB 8.5 and 11.2.1, 11.3., 11.4, 11.5.1, 11.5.3, 11.6.1, 11.7.
An Insurance Intermediary may propose both Contracts of Insurance and Takaful Contracts to its Clients, as long as they provide clear information to enable their Clients to make informed choices.
11.2. Disclosure requirements
11.2.1. General disclosure obligation
Prior to providing Insurance Intermediation to a Client, an Insurance Intermediary must disclose to that Client:
- (a) its name and address;
- (b) its regulatory status;
- (c) the name and address of the insurer or insurers effecting the Contract of Insurance;
- (d) if it has a direct or indirect holding representing 10% or more of the voting rights or capital in an insurer; or
- (e) if an insurer, or its parent undertaking, has a direct or indirect holding representing 10% or more of the voting rights or capital in the Insurance Intermediary;
- (f) contact details for notifying a claim under the Contract of Insurance; and
- (g) details of its complaints-handling procedure.
11.2.2. Disclosure of basis of advice
An Insurance Intermediary must, before providing Insurance Intermediation to a Retail Client, disclose whether:
- (a) it gives advice on the basis of a fair analysis of the market;
- (b) it has a contractual agreement with a particular insurer or insurers to offer only their
Contracts of Insurance to Clients; or
- (c) even if there are no contractual agreements of the type referred to in (b), it does not give advice on the basis of a fair analysis of the market.
If (b) or (c) applies, the Insurance Intermediary must be prepared to provide a Retail Client on request with a list of insurers with whom it deals and may deal in relation to the relevant Contracts of Insurance.
11.3. Disclosure of costs and remuneration
11.3.1. Disclosure of costs
An Insurance Intermediary must provide details of the costs of each Contract of Insurance or Insurance Intermediation service offered to a Client.
11.3.2. Disclosure of new costs
An Insurance Intermediary must ensure that it does not impose any new costs, fees or charges without first disclosing the amount and the purpose of such costs, fees, or charges to the Client.
11.3.3. Disclosure of commissions and other benefits
An Insurance Intermediary must, at the request of any Client, disclose to that Client any commissions or other benefits that it receives in connection with its Insurance Intermediation for that Client.
11.4. Obligation on Client to disclose material facts
An Insurance Intermediary must explain to a Client:
11.5. Statement of demands and needs
11.5.1. Providing a statement of demands and needs
Prior to the conclusion of a Contract of Insurance, an Insurance Intermediary must provide the Client with a statement of the demands and the needs of that Client, which may be in summary form, as well as the underlying reasons for any advice given to the Client in relation to that Contract of Insurance.
Guidance: Nature of statement of demands and needs The statement should be provided in writing, but may be provided verbally where the Client requests it, or where immediate cover is necessary.
11.5.2. Ensuring suitability based on demands and needs
An Insurance Intermediary must only make a recommendation to a Retail Client to enter into a Contract of Insurance that is General Insurance where it has taken reasonable steps to ensure that the recommended Contract of Insurance is suitable in light of the Client's demands and needs.
11.5.3. Written confirmation of instructions
Where an Insurance Intermediary is instructed to obtain insurance, which is contrary to the advice that it has given to a Client, the Insurance Intermediary must obtain from the Client written confirmation of the Client's instructions before arranging or buying the relevant insurance.
11.6. Information about Contract of Insurance or Takaful Contract
11.6.1. Adequate information
An Insurance Intermediary must provide adequate information in good time and in a comprehensible form to enable a Client to make an informed decision about whether or not to enter a Contract of Insurance or a Takaful Contract proposed by the Insurance Intermediary.
11.6.2. Policy summary
An Insurance Intermediary must provide a Retail Client with a policy summary explaining the terms of the Contract of Insurance or the Takaful Contract:
- (a) the name of the insurer;
- (b) type of insurance and cover;
- (c) significant features and benefits;
- (d) significant or unusual exclusions or limitations;
- (e) applicable period of cover;
- (f) a statement, where relevant, that the consumer may need to review and update the cover periodically to ensure it remains adequate;
- (g) the procedure for handling complaints; and
- (h) contact details for notifying a claim
11.7. Other requirements
11.7.1. Quotations
When giving a quotation, an Insurance Intermediary must take due care to ensure the accuracy of the quotation and its ability to obtain the insurance at the quoted terms.
11.7.2. Confirmation of cover
Where a Client concludes a Contract of Insurance or a Takaful Contract, an Insurance Intermediary must, as soon as reasonably practicable, provide that Client with:
- (a) written confirmation and details of the insurance, including any changes to an existing Contract of Insurance; and
- (b) the full policy documentation.
11.7.3. Amendments
An Insurance Intermediary must:
- (a) respond promptly if a Client requests an amendment to its insurance policy;
- (b) provide the Client with details of any additional premium or charges that may need to be paid or which may be returned; and
- (c) provide the Client with written confirmation of any amendment and return any premium or charges due to the Client promptly.
11.7.4. Advance notification
If the insurance cover of a Client is due to expire or needs to be renewed, the Insurance Intermediary must give sufficient advance notification to the Client to allow that Client to consider whether it wishes to enter into a new policy or renew its existing policy.
11.7.5. Documentation on expiry or cancellation
When the insurance expires or is cancelled, an Insurance Intermediary must on request provide the Client with the documentation and information to which that Client is entitled.
11.7.6. Claims—general requirements
Where an Insurance Intermediary handles claims it must:
- (a) handle claims promptly and fairly;
- (b) provide its Client with reasonable guidance on making a claim, and update it on the progress of its claim;
- (c) not unreasonably reject a claim (including by terminating or avoiding a policy); and
- (d) settle claims promptly once settlement terms are agreed.
11.7.7. Claims handling—recordkeeping
(1) An Insurance Intermediary must make a record of the following information in relation to each claim made against a policy handled by it:
- (a) details of the claim;
- (b) the date the claim was settled or rejected;
- (c) details of settlement or rejection, including information relevant to the basis for the settlement or rejection.
(2) The Insurance Intermediary must keep the record for at least 3 years after the day the claim is settled or rejected.
12. TRUST SERVICE PROVIDERS
12.1. Application
COB 12 applies to a Trust Service Provider that is licensed to Provide Trust Services by the AFSA. Guidance: Examples of Clients of a Trust Service Provider The Client of a Trust Service Provider may be a settlor, trustee or named beneficiary of a trust.
12.2. Obligations of the Trust Service Provider
A Trust Service Provider must maintain proper standards of governance and professionalism and must comply with all applicable AIFC laws, Rules and Regulations relevant to Providing Trust Services.
12.3. Exercise of discretion
Where a Trust Service Provider is responsible for exercising discretion for, or in relation to, its Clients, it must exercise its discretion or other powers in a proper manner and for a proper purpose.
12.4. Delegation of duties or powers
Any delegation of duties or powers by a Trust Service Provider must be for a proper purpose, subject to appropriate oversight, and comply with all applicable AIFC laws, Rules and Regulations.
12.5. Professional indemnity insurance
A Trust Service Provider must at all times hold adequate professional indemnity insurance appropriate to the nature and size of its business. It must:
- (a) provide the AFSA with a copy of its professional indemnity insurance cover; and
- (b) notify the AFSA of:
(i) any changes to the cover including termination and renewal;
(ii) any claims in excess of USD 10,000.
12.6. Internal reporting
A Trust Service Provider must have arrangements for internal reporting to ensure that the directors or the partners receive sufficient information on the running of the business and the treatment of Clients.
12.7. Use of third parties
Where the Trust Service Provider appoints a third party in connection with a Client’s affairs, for example to advise on or manage investments, the Trust Service Provider must carry out due diligence on that third party and continue to monitor its performance on an ongoing basis.
12.8. Qualification and experience
Staff employed or Persons recommended by the Trust Service Provider must have appropriate qualifications and experience.
12.9. Books and records
The books and records of a Trust Service Provider must be sufficient to demonstrate adequate and orderly management of Clients’ affairs.
12.10. Due diligence
A Trust Service Provider must, at all times, have verified documentary evidence of the settlors, trustees (in addition to the Trust Service Provider itself) and principal named beneficiaries of trusts for which it Provides Trust Services.
In the case of discretionary trusts with the capacity for the trustee to add further beneficiaries, a Trust Service Provider must also have verified, where reasonably possible, documentary evidence of any Person who receives a distribution from the trust and any other Person who is named in a memorandum or letter of wishes as being a likely recipient of a distribution from a trust.
A Trust Service Provider must demonstrate that it has knowledge of the source of funds that have been settled into trusts or have been used to provide capital to companies, or have been used in transactions with which the Trust Service Provider has an involvement.
12.11. Fitness and Propriety of Persons acting as trustees
Where a Trust Service Provider arranges for a Person who is not an employee of the Trust Service Provider to act as trustee for a Client of the Trust Service Provider, the Trust Service Provider must ensure that such Person is fit and proper. A Trust Service Provider must notify the AFSA:
13. ANCILLARY SERVICE PROVIDERS
13.1. Application
The Principles for Ancillary Service Providers set out in COB 13.2 apply to Ancillary Service Providers in respect of their provision of Ancillary Services.
13.2. Principles for Ancillary Service Providers
13.2.1. Principle 1 ‐ Integrity
An Ancillary Service Provider must observe high standards of integrity and fair dealing.
13.2.2. Principle 2 ‐ Independence
An Ancillary Service Provider must not allow its independence to be compromised.
13.2.3. Principle 3 ‐ Good faith
An Ancillary Service Provider must act in good faith in its dealings with its Clients and the AFSA and other Financial Services Regulators.
13.2.4. Principle 4 ‐ Best Interests
An Ancillary Service Provider must act in the best interests of its Clients.
13.2.5. Principle 5 ‐ Service
An Ancillary Service Provider must provide a proper standard of service to its clients.
13.2.6. Principle 6 ‐ Legal and regulatory obligations
An Ancillary Service Provider must comply with its legal and regulatory obligations and deal with the AFSA and other Financial Services Regulators in an open, timely and co-operative manner.
13.2.7. Principle 7 ‐ Governance
An Ancillary Service Provider must maintain sound governance arrangements and observe appropriate financial and risk management principles.
13.2.8. Principle 8 ‐ Client Money and Client Assets
An Ancillary Service Provider must protect Client Money and Client Assets that it holds on behalf of Clients.
13.2.9. Principle 9 ‐ Conflicts of interest
An Ancillary Service Provider must take all reasonable steps to ensure that conflicts of interest between itself and its Clients, between its Employees and Clients and between one Client and another are identified and then prevented or managed, or disclosed, in such a way that the interests of a Client are not adversely affected.
13.2.10. Principle 10 – Complaints
An Ancillary Service Provider must take all reasonable steps to ensure that Complaints made against it by Clients are handled fairly, consistently and promptly.
14. CREDIT RATING AGENCIES
14.1. Application
The Principles set out in COB 14.2 apply to Credit Rating Agencies.
14.2. Principles for Credit Rating Agencies
14.2.1. Principle 1 ‐ Quality and integrity of the rating process
Credit Rating Agencies should endeavour to issue opinions that help to reduce the asymmetry of information among borrowers and lenders and Centre Participants more generally.
Guidance: Processes to ensure quality and integrity When issuing opinions, a Credit Rating Agency should consider adopting the following processes:
- (a) Credit Rating Agencies should adopt and implement written procedures and methodologies to ensure that the opinions they issue are based on a fair and thorough analysis of all relevant information available to the Credit Rating Agency, and that their analysts perform their duties with integrity. Credit Rating Agency rating methodologies should be rigorous, systematic, and Credit Rating Agency ratings should be subject to some form of validation based on historical experience.
- (b) Credit Rating Agencies should monitor on an ongoing basis and regularly update an analysis and rating once a rating is issued whenever new information becomes available that causes the Credit Rating Agency to revise or terminate its opinion.
- (c) Credit Rating Agencies should maintain internal records to support their ratings.
- (d) Credit Rating Agencies should have sufficient resources to carry out high-quality credit assessments.
- (e) They should have sufficient personnel to properly assess the entities they rate, seek out information they need in order to make an assessment, and analyse all the information relevant to their decision-making processes.
- (f) Analysts employed by Credit Rating Agencies should use the methodologies established by the Credit Rating Agency and be professional, competent, and of high integrity.
14.2.2. Principle 2 – Independence and conflicts of interests
Credit Rating Agency ratings decisions should be independent and free from political or economic pressures and from conflicts of interests arising due to the Credit Rating Agency's ownership structure, business or financial activities, or the financial interests of the Credit Rating Agency's employees. Credit Rating Agencies should, as far as possible, avoid activities, procedures or relationships that may compromise or appear to compromise the independence and objectivity of the credit rating operations.
Guidance: Processes to ensure independence and reduce conflicts of interest A Credit Rating Agency should consider adopting the following processes:
- (a) Credit Rating Agencies should adopt written internal procedures and mechanisms to
(1) identify, and (2) eliminate, or manage and disclose, as appropriate, any actual or potential conflicts of interest that may influence the opinions and analyses Credit Rating Agencies make or the judgment and analyses of the individuals the Credit Rating Agencies employ who have an influence on ratings decisions. Credit Rating Agencies are encouraged to disclose such conflict avoidance and management measures.
- (b) The credit rating a Credit Rating Agency assigns to an issuer should not be affected by the existence of or potential for a business relationship between the Credit Rating Agency (or its affiliates) and the issuer or any other party.
- (c) Credit Rating Agencies and Credit Rating Agency staff should not engage in any securities or derivatives trading presenting inherent conflicts of interest with the Credit Rating Agencies' ratings activities.
- (d) Reporting lines for Credit Rating Agency staff and their compensation arrangements should be structured to eliminate or effectively manage actual and potential conflicts of interest. A Credit Rating Agency analyst should not be compensated or evaluated on the basis of the amount of revenue that a Credit Rating Agency derives from issuers that the analyst rates or with which the analyst regularly interacts.
- (e) The determination of a credit rating should be influenced only by factors relevant to the credit assessment.
- (f) Credit Rating Agencies should disclose the nature of the compensation arrangement that exists with an issuer that the Credit Rating Agency rates.
14.2.3. Principle 3 – Transparency and timeliness of ratings disclosure
Credit Rating Agencies should make disclosure and transparency an objective in their ratings activities. Guidance: Processes to ensure transparency and timeliness
A Credit Rating Agency should consider adopting the following processes:
- (a) Credit Rating Agencies should distribute in a timely manner their ratings decisions regarding publicly issued fixed-income securities or issuers of publicly traded fixedincome securities.
- (b) Credit Rating Agencies should disclose to the public, on a non-selective basis, any rating regarding publicly issued fixed income securities as well as any subsequent decisions to discontinue such a rating if the rating is based in whole or in part on material non public information.
- (c) Credit Rating Agencies should publish sufficient information about their procedures and methodologies so that outside parties can understand how a rating was arrived at by the Credit Rating Agency. This information should include (but not be limited to) the meaning of each rating category and the definition of default and the time horizon the Credit Rating Agency used when making a rating decision.
- (d) Credit Rating Agencies should publish sufficient information about the historical default rates of Credit Rating Agency rating categories and whether the default rates of these categories have changed over time, so that interested parties can understand the historical performance of each category and if and how ratings categories have changed.
- (e) Credit Rating Agencies should disclose if a rating is unsolicited.
14.2.4. Principle 4 – Confidential information
Credit Rating Agencies should maintain in confidence all non-public information communicated to them by any issuer, or its agents, under the terms of a confidentiality agreement or otherwise under a mutual understanding that the information is shared confidentially. Guidance: Processes to ensure confidentiality A Credit Rating Agency should consider adopting the following processes:
- (a) Credit Rating Agencies should adopt procedures and mechanisms to protect the nonpublic nature of information shared with them by issuers under the terms of a confidentiality agreement or otherwise under a mutual understanding that the information is shared confidentially.
- (b) Credit Rating Agencies should use non-public information only for purposes related to their rating activities or otherwise in accordance with their confidentiality agreements with the issuer.
15. COMPLAINTS HANDLING AND DISPUTE RESOLUTION
15.1. Application
This chapter applies to an Authorised Firm, other than a Representative Office, that is licensed by the AFSA to carry on a Regulated Activity, in relation to Retail Clients and Professional Clients only.
15.2. Complaints handling
15.2.1. General requirement
An Authorised Firm must have arrangements in place for the handling of Complaints made against it by Clients. The policies and procedures for handling Complaints must be in writing and ensure that Complaints are handled fairly, consistently and promptly.
15.2.2. Procedures available on request
An Authorised Firm must ensure that a copy of its Complaints handling procedures is available free of charge to any Client on request.
15.2.3. Proportionality
In establishing adequate Complaints handling policies and procedures, an Authorised Firm should have regard to:
- (a) the nature, scale and complexity of its business; and
- (b) its size and organisational structure.
Guidance: Period for resolving complaints
The AFSA considers 60 days from the receipt of a Complaint to be an appropriate period in which an Authorised Firm should be able to resolve most Complaints.
15.2.4. Receiving a Complaint
On receipt of a Complaint, an Authorised Firm must:
- (a) acknowledge the Complaint promptly in writing;
- (b) provide the complainant with:
(i) the contact details of any individual responsible for handling the Complaint;
(ii) details of the Authorised Firm’s Complaints handling procedures; and
(iii) a statement that a copy of the procedures is available free of charge upon request; and
- (c) investigate the Complaint.
Where appropriate, an Authorised Firm must update the complainant on the progress of the handling of the Complaint.
Guidance: Period for acknowledging complaints
The AFSA considers 7 days to be an adequate period in which an Authorised Firm should be able to acknowledge most Complaints.
The AFSA expects an update to be provided to the complainant in circumstances where the resolution of the Complaint is taking longer than 30 days.
15.2.5. Resolving a Complaint
When the Authorised Firm has completed its investigation of a Complaint, it must promptly:
- (a) advise the complainant in writing of the outcome;
- (b) provide the complainant with the proposed redress, if applicable; and
- (c) provide redress if accepted by the complainant.
If the complainant is not satisfied with the redress offered by the Authorised Firm, it must inform the complainant of other means of resolving the Complaint and provide him with the appropriate contact details upon request.
Guidance: Other means
Other means for resolving a Complaint may include arbitration or the AIFC Courts.
15.2.6. Employees handling complaints
As far as possible, an Authorised Firm must ensure that any individual handling the Complaint was not involved in the conduct of the Financial Service about which the Complaint has been made, and is able to handle the Complaint in a fair and impartial manner.
An Authorised Firm must ensure that any individual responsible for handling the Complaint has sufficient authority to resolve the Complaint or has access to individuals with the necessary authority.
15.3. Referrals
15.3.1. Complaints involving other entities
If an Authorised Firm considers that another Centre Participant or any other Regulated Financial Institution is entirely or partly responsible for the subject matter of a Complaint, it may refer the Complaint, or the relevant part of it, to the other Centre Participant or any other authorised or regulated financial institution in accordance with COB 15.3.2.
15.3.2. Referral to other entities
To refer a Complaint, an Authorised Firm must:
- (a) inform the complainant promptly and in writing that it would like to refer the Complaint, and obtain the written consent of the complainant to do so;
- (b) if the complainant consents, refer the Complaint to the other Authorised Firm or Regulated Financial Institution promptly and in writing;
- (c) inform the complainant promptly and in writing that the Complaint has been referred and provide contact details; and
- (d) continue to handle any part of the Complaint not referred to the other Authorised Firm or Regulated Financial Institution.
15.4. Record keeping
15.4.1. General requirement
An Authorised Firm must maintain a record of all Complaints made against it for a minimum period of six years from the date of receipt of a Complaint.
15.4.2. Content of records
The record in COB 15.4.1 must contain the name of the complainant, the substance of the Complaint, a record of the Authorised Firm’s response, and any other relevant correspondence or records, and the action taken by the Authorised Firm to resolve each Complaint.
16. RECORD KEEPING AND INTERNAL AUDIT
16.1. Record keeping requirements
An Authorised Firm must, for a minimum of six years, maintain sufficient records in relation to each activity and function of the Authorised Firm. These must include, where applicable, the records kept in accordance with the rules in COB as summarised in the table in COB 16.2.
16.2. Table summarising record keeping requirements
COB reference | Nature of record | Length of record keeping requirement | Date from which record must be kept |
Record of Client classification | Six years | Date on which the business relationship with a Client ended | |
Financial Promotion issued by, or on behalf of, the Authorised Firm | Six years | Date on which the Financial Promotion ceases to be made | |
A record of each Client Agreement including any subsequent amendments to it as agreed with the Client | Six years | From the date the Client ceases to be a Client of the Authorised Firm | |
Suitability report | Six years | From the date the Client ceases to be a Client of the Authorised Firm | |
Records of orders and transactions | Six years | From date of order or transaction | |
Record of inducements disclosed | Six years | From the date on which the inducement was disclosed | |
Record of Client Money received in the form of cheque, or other payable order | Six years | From date of receipt | |
Records which enable an Authorised Firm to determine promptly the total amount of Client Money that it holds for each of its Clients | Six years | From the date the Client ceases to be a Client of the Authorised Firm | |
Records in respect of Client Investments | Six years | From the date the Client ceases to be a Client of the Authorised Firm | |
A copy of each confirmation note sent to a Client | Six years | From the date of despatch | |
A copy of any periodic statement provided to a Client | Six years | From the date on which it was provided | |
A copy of any agreement entered into between an insurer and that Insurance Intermediary acting as agent | Six years | From the date on which that agreement is terminated | |
Records of all sums withdrawn from the Insurance Bank Account | Six years | From the date of withdrawal or realisation | |
Record of all Complaints made against the Authorised Firm for a minimum period of six years | Six years | From the date of receipt of a Complaint |
16.3. Internal Audit of Client Statements
At least annually, a sample of Client statements provided by an Authorised Firm under any of COB 8.2.19, 8.3.14, 9.2 or 8.5.16 must be reviewed by the internal audit function of the Authorised Firm established under GEN 5.5. The sample must be significant and stratified.
Guidance: Significant and Stratified Sample
A sample will be considered “significant” if it includes ≥5% of the total number of Client statements provided during the review period. A sample will be considered “stratified” if it is drawn proportionately from a range of different Client types based on appropriate factors in light of the business of the Authorised Firm, which may include, for example: status (Retail Clients versus Professional Clients), business type, assets, income, geography and types of products held with the Authorised Firm. The results of the internal audit review must be made available to the AFSA upon request.
17. [intentionally omitted]
17.1. [intentionally omitted]
This chapter applies to an Authorised Person engaged in the activity of Operating a Digital Asset Business.
Guidance
The following activities do not constitute Operating a Digital AssetBusiness:
trading of Digital Assets for the Person’s own investment purpose;
the issuance of Digital Assets by a Person and their administration (including sale, redemption);
any other activity or arrangement that is deemed by the AFSA to not constitute Operating a Digital Asset Business, where necessary and appropriate in order for the AFSA to pursue its objectives.
17.2. [intentionally omitted]
In addition to all requirements applicable to Authorised Persons in these rules, GEN, and AML, an Authorised Person carrying on the Market Activity of Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility must comply with the applicable requirements set out in the AMI, unless the requirements in this chapter expressly provide otherwise.
17.3. [intentionally omitted]
An Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility may grant admission of Digital Assets to trading only where it is satisfied that such admission is in accordance with the AMI and an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility’s Admission to Trading Rules.
An Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility must not permit trading of Digital Assets on its facilities unless those Digital Assets are admitted to, and not suspended from, trading by the Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility pursuant to Chapter 6 of AMI.
17.4. [intentionally omitted]
Prior to entering into an initial transaction for, on behalf of, or with a Client, an Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business shall disclose in a clear, fair and not misleading manner:
- (a)all terms, conditions and risks relating to the Digital Assets that have been admitted to trading and/or is the subject of the transaction;
- (b)all material risks associated with its products, services and activities; and
- (c)all details on the amount and the purpose of any premiums, fees, charges or taxes payable by the Client, whether or not these are payable to the Operating a Digital Asset Business.
17.5. [intentionally omitted]
The risks to be disclosed pursuant to COB 17.4. include, but are not limited to, the following:
- (a)Digital Assets not being legal tender or backed by a government;
- (b)the value, or process for valuation, of Digital Assets, including the risk of a Digital Assets having no value;
- (c)the volatility and unpredictability of the price of Digital Assets relative to Fiat Currencies;
- (d)that trading in Digital Assets is susceptible to irrational market forces;
- (e)that the nature of Digital Assets may lead to an increased risk of Financial Crime;
- (f)that the nature of Digital Assets may lead to an increased risk of cyber-attack;
- (g)there being limited or, in some cases, no mechanism for the recovery of lost or stolen Digital Assets;
- (h)the risks of Digital Assets with regard to anonymity, irreversibility of transactions, accidental transactions, transaction recording, and settlement;
- (i)that there is no assurance that a Person who accepts a Digital Asset as payment today will continue to do so in the future;
- (j)that the nature of Digital Assets means that technological difficulties experienced by the Authorised Person may prevent the access or use of a Client’s Digital Assets;
- (k)any links to Digital Assets related activity outside the AIFC, which may be unregulated or subject to limited regulation; and
- (l)any regulatory changes or actions by the AFSA or Non-AIFC Regulator that may adversely affect the use, transfer, exchange, and value of a Digital Asset.
17.6. [intentionally omitted]
An Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business shall establish and maintain written policies and procedures to fairly and timely resolve complaints made against it or other parties (including members).
An Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business must provide, in a clear and conspicuous manner: on its website or websites; in all physical locations; and in any other location as the AFSA may prescribe, the following disclosures:
- (a)the mailing address, email address, and telephone number for the receipt of complaints;
- (b)a statement that the complainant may also bring his or her complaint to the attention of the AFSA;
- (c)the AFSA’s mailing address, website, and telephone number; and
- (d)such other information as the AFSA may require.
An Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business shall report to the AFSA any change in its complaint policies or procedures within ten days.
An Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business must maintain a record of any complaint made against it or other parties (including members) for a minimum period of six years from the date of receipt of the complaint.
17.7. [intentionally omitted]
An Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business shall report to the AFSA details of transactions in Digital Assets traded on its facility which are executed, or reported, through its systems.
The AFSA may, by written notice or Guidance, specify:
- (a)the information to be included in reports made under the preceding paragraph; and
- (b)the manner in which such reports are to be made.
17.8. [intentionally omitted]
The AFSA may prohibit an Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business from:
- (a)entering into certain specified transactions or types of transactions; or
- (b)outsourcing any of its functions or activities to a third party.
The AFSA may, by written notice or guidance, set fees payable by an Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Business to the AFSA on certain specified transactions or types of transactions.
18. BANKS
18.1. Application
This chapter applies to an Authorised Firm that is licensed by the AFSA to conduct the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits and/or Opening and Operating Bank Accounts. An Authorised Firm that is licensed to conduct the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits and/or Opening and Operating Bank Accounts is defined as a Bank in BBR 1.5.
18.2. Accepting Deposits
A Bank, in the course of Accepting Deposits, must not accept Deposits from Retail Clients.
18.3. Terms of business for Accepting Deposits — general requirements
(1) A Bank accepting a Deposit from a Client must give the Client its terms of business, before the acceptance of the first Deposit from that Client.
(2) This rule does not apply if the activity of Accepting Deposits is carried on after the termination of the terms of business and the Bank is acting only for the purposes of fulfilling any obligations that remain outstanding under the terms of business.
18.4. Terms of business for Accepting Deposits — contract
(1) A Bank must ensure that its terms of business for accepting a Deposit from a Client contain, in adequate detail, the basis on which it will accept the Deposit from that Client.
(2) Without limiting (1), the Bank must ensure that the terms of business contain the information as specified by the rules in this chapter (Minimum content of terms of business— Accepting Deposits).
(3) A Bank is not required to include information in the terms of business if the information is, by its nature, unavailable when the terms of business are given to the Client. If such information becomes available after the terms of business are given to the Client, the Bank must give the information to the Client as soon as practicable after it becomes available to the Bank.
18.5. Terms of business for Accepting Deposits — multiple documents
A Bank’s terms of business for a Client for the activity of Accepting Deposits may consist of one or more documents if it is made clear to the Client that collectively they make up the terms of business.
18.6. Terms of business for Accepting Deposits — amendment
If the terms of business of a Bank for a Client for the activity of Accepting Deposits allow the Bank to amend the terms of business without the Client’s agreement, the Bank must not conduct business with or for the Client on the basis of an amendment of the terms of business unless the Bank has given the Client written notice of the amendment:
- (a) at least 10 business days before the amendment is to take effect; or
- (b) if it is impractical to give that notice, as early as is practicable.
18.7. Terms of business for Accepting Deposits — recordkeeping
A Bank must keep a copy of a terms of business that it gives a Client under this chapter, and of each amendment of the terms of business, for at least 6 years after the day the Bank ceases to conduct business with or for the Client under the terms of business
18.8. Terms of business for Accepting Deposits — minimum content
(1) Commencement of the terms of business – when and how the terms come into force.
(2) Regulatory status of the Bank as required by the GEN Rules.
(3) The services to be provided by the Bank, including, if applicable, the provision of credit, cheque clearing and provision of statements.
(4) The Bank’s fee payment terms, including, if appropriate
- (a) how fees are calculated; and
- (b) how fees are to be paid and collected; and
- (c) how frequently fees are to be paid; and
- (d) whether any other payment is receivable by the Bank (or to its knowledge by any members of its Group) instead of fees in relation to a transaction executed by the Bank with or for the Client.
(5) The Bank’s terms relating to interest, including, if appropriate
- (a) how interest is calculated for both debit and credit balances; and
- (b) how interest is paid or collected depending on whether the account is having debit or credit balances; and
- (c) how frequently interest is charged and paid.
(6) The Bank’s approach to dealing with any applicable conflicts of interest and material interests.
(7) Information about the Bank’s internal complaint handling procedures, including information about how a complaint may be made to the Bank.
(8) The details of the arrangement for the Client to provide instructions to the Bank and for the Bank to acknowledge such instructions.
(9) Method of terminating account relationships, either by the bank or by the Client and the consequences of termination in either case.
19. CONDUCT OF INSURANCE AND TAKAFUL BUSINESS
19.1. Insurance and Takaful business—general
19.1.1. Application
(1) This chapter applies to Insurers and Takaful Operators.
(2) All references to Insurers in this chapter should be read as referring also to Takaful Operators. All the provisions of this chapter are applicable to Takaful Business conducted by Takaful Operators, except in the case of provisions which are specifically exempt for Takaful Operators.
(3) All references to Life Policies in this chapter must be read as referring also to Family Takaful Contracts. The regulatory obligations specified by the provisions in this chapter to Life Policies are also applicable to Family Takaful Contracts and all related aspects of Family Takaful Business.
(4) All references to Insurance Contracts in this chapter must be read as referring also to Takaful Contracts. The regulatory obligations specified by the provisions in this chapter to Insurance Contracts are also applicable to Takaful Contracts and all related aspects of Takaful Business.
19.1.2. General Requirements
(5) The use of the terms Takaful, Retakaful, General Takaful and Family Takaful may only be used to describe the products of Authorised Firms that are licensed by the AFSA to carry out the Regulated Activity of Takaful Business.
(6) For the purposes of this AIFC COB Rules, all references to Takaful shall be taken as including Takaful, Retakaful, General Takaful and Family Takaful.
(7) The term 'Islamic insurance' may only be used by Authorised Firms licensed by the AFSA to carry out the Regulated Activity of Takaful Business.
19.2. Cancelling Life Policies—Retail Clients
19.2.1. New Life Policies—right to cancel
Subject to COB 19.2.3 and 19.2.4, a Retail Client has a right to cancel a new Life Policy effected by an Insurer. Guidance An Insurer may voluntarily provide additional cancellation rights, or rights exercisable during a longer period than allowed under COB 19.2, but, if it does so, these should be on terms similar to those in COB 19.2.
19.2.2. Variations of Life Policies—right to cancel
(1) Subject to COB 19.2.3 and 19.2.4, a Retail Client has a right to cancel an existing Life
Policy effected by an Insurer if the policy is varied and the variation has the effect of:
- (a) increasing regular premiums or payments, or a single premium or payment, by more than 25% on the original premium or payment (or the previous highest agreed premium or payment); or
- (b) introducing fresh policy terms; or
- (c) imposing on the Client additional or increased obligations under the policy; or
- (d) reducing, or otherwise materially altering, the Client’s benefits under the policy.
(2) This rule does not apply to the variation of a Life Policy if:
- (a) the variation is the result of a pre-selected option; or
- (b) the variation arises out of the settlement of a claim for damages or compensation connected with a previous contract.
19.2.3. Life policies—when cancellation right can be exercised
(1) A Retail Client may exercise a cancellation right in relation to a Life Policy effected by an Insurer with the Client only during the cancellation period for the investment.
(2) For a new Life Policy, the cancellation period:
- (a) starts on the day the Insurer, or relevant Insurance Intermediary, gives the Retail Client a policy document containing all the terms of the policy under COB 5.6.9
(Life policies—provision of policy document); and
- (b) ends at the end of 30 days after that day.
(3) For an existing Life Policy that is varied, the cancellation period:
- (a) starts on the later of the following:
- (i) the day the Insurer, or relevant Insurance Intermediary, tells the Retail Client that the variation has taken effect;
(ii) the day the Insurer, or relevant Insurance Intermediary, gives the Retail Client a written copy of the variation;
(iii) the day the Insurer, or relevant Insurance Intermediary, gives the Retail Client the Product Disclosure Document or disclosure documentation required by COB 5.6.2 (Product disclosure document—provision requirement) for the variation; and
- (b) ends at the end of the 30 days after that day.
19.2.4. Life policies—exercising cancellation right
(1) This rule applies if a Retail Client has a right under COB 19.2.1 (New Life Policies—right to cancel) or COB 19.2.2 (Variations of Life Policies—right to cancel) to cancel a Life Policy effected by an Insurer with the Client.
(2) The Retail Client may exercise the cancellation right by giving notice of the exercise of the right to the Insurer in a durable medium.
(3) Without limiting subrule (2), if the Retail Client exercises the right in accordance with information given to the Client by the Insurer, the Client is taken to have complied with the subrule.
(4) The notice need not use any particular form of words and it is sufficient if the intention to exercise the right is reasonably clear from the notice or the notice and the surrounding circumstances.
(5) The notice need not give reasons for the exercise of the right.
(6) If the Retail Client exercises the cancellation right by sending notice to the Insurer at the address given to the Client by the firm for the exercise of the right and the notice is in a durable form accessible to the firm, the notice is taken to have been given to the firm when it is sent to the firm at that address.
19.2.5. Life policies—consequences of cancellation
(1) This rule applies if a Retail Client exercises a right under COB 19.2.1 or COB 19.2.2 to cancel a Life Policy effected by an Insurer with the Client.
(2) The Life Policy is terminated.
(3) For a new Life Policy, the Insurer must pay the Retail Client an amount equal to the total of the amounts paid by the Client in relation to the Life Policy.
(4) The amount must be paid to the Retail Client without delay and no later than 30 days after the day the cancellation right is exercised.
(5) For a new Life Policy, the Retail Client must, if required by the Insurer, pay the firm an amount of no more than the total of:
- (a) amounts received, and the value of property or services received, by the Client in relation to the Life Policy; and
- (b) losses incurred by the firm because of market movements in relation to relevant contracts if the losses are incurred on or before the day the cancellation right is exercised.
(6) Subrule (5) only applies if the Insurer can demonstrate that the Retail Client was given, under COB 5.6.2 (Product disclosure document—provision requirement), details of the amount that the Client may be required to pay if the Client cancelled the contract.
(7) However, subrule (5) (b) does not apply in relation to a contract established on a regular or recurring premium or payment basis.
(8) An amount payable by the Retail Client under subrule (5) must be paid to the Insurer without delay and no later than 21 days after the day the Client receives written notice from the firm requiring payment of the amount.
(9) For an existing Life Policy, the Insurer must pay the Retail Client an amount equal to the cash surrender value (if any) of the policy.
(10) The amount must be paid to the Retail Client without delay and no later than 30 days after the day the cancellation right is exercised.
(11) Any amounts payable under this rule are simple contract debts and, for a new Life Policy, the amounts payable may be set off against each other.
19.3. Cancelling Non-Investment Insurance Contracts
19.3.1. Non-Investment Insurance Contracts —right to cancel
(1) Subject to COB 19.3</a>.2 and 19.3.3, a Retail Client has a right to cancel a Non-Investment Insurance Contract effected by an Insurer.
(2) This rule does not apply to the following contracts:
- (a) a Non-Investment Insurance Contract that provides cover for less than 1 month;
- (b) a Non-Investment Insurance Contract that has been fully performed by both parties at the Retail Client’s express request before the Client purports to exercise the right to cancel;
- (c) a Non-Investment Insurance Contract that is a Pure Protection Contract with a term of 6 months or less.
(3) To remove any doubt, a Retail Client has a right to cancel a Non-Investment Insurance Contract when the contract is initially entered into and on each renewal of the contract. Guidance
1 An Insurer may voluntarily provide additional cancellation rights, or rights exercisable during a longer period than allowed under COB 19.3</a>, but, if it does so, these should be on terms similar to those in COB 19.3.
2 For COB 19.3.1 (2) (b):
- (a) a contract is not fully performed only because an event has happened that allows a claim to be made under the contract; and
- (b) a contract is fully performed if a claim has been made that leads to the contract being terminated.
3 Cancellation under this part applies only during the initial period of cover. It does not refer to mid-term cancellation that an Insurer may choose to offer its Clients.
4 The cancellation rights described in this part apply to all renewals and not just those where there have been significant changes.
19.3.2. Non-Investment Insurance Contracts—when cancellation right can be exercised
(1) A Retail Client may exercise a cancellation right under COB 19.3.1 in relation to a NonInvestment Insurance Contract only during the cancellation period for the contract.
(2) For a Non-Investment Insurance Contract that is a Pure Protection Contract, the cancellation period:
- (a) starts on the day the Insurer, or relevant Insurance Intermediary, gives the Retail Client the policy document and information required by COB 11.7.2 (Confirmation of cover); and
- (b) ends at the end of 30 days after that day.
(3) For a Non-Investment Insurance Contract that is a General Insurance Contract, the cancellation period:
- (a) starts on the day the Insurer, or relevant Insurance Intermediary, gives the Retail Client the policy document and information required by COB 11.7.2 (Confirmation of cover); and
- (b) ends at the end of 14 days after that day.
(4) If a Non-Investment Insurance Contract is a mixed contract, that is, it has elements of both a Pure Protection Contract and a General Insurance Contract, subrule (2) applies to the contract and subrule (3) does not apply to the contract.
19.3.3. Non-Investment Insurance Contracts—exercising cancellation right
(1) This rule applies if a Retail Client has a right under COB 19.3.1 to cancel a NonInvestment Insurance Contract effected by an Insurer.
(2) The Retail Client may exercise the cancellation right by giving notice of the exercise of the right to:
(3) Without limiting subrule (2), if the Retail Client exercises the right in accordance with information given to the Client in accordance with COB 11.7.2 (Confirmation of cover),the Client is taken to have complied with the subrule.
(4) The notice may be given orally.
(5) The notice need not use any particular form of words and it is sufficient if the intention to exercise the right is reasonably clear from the notice or the notice and the surrounding circumstances.
(6) The notice need not give reasons for the exercise of the right.
(7) If the Retail Client exercises the cancellation right by sending notice to the Authorised Firm at the address given to the Client by the firm for the exercise of the right and the notice is in a durable form accessible to the firm, the notice is taken to have been given to the firm when it is sent to the firm at that address.
19.3.4. Non-Investment Insurance Contracts—consequences of cancellation
(1) This rule applies if a Retail Client exercises a right under COB 19.3.1 to cancel a NonInvestment Insurance Contract effected by an Insurer.
(2) The Contract of Insurance is terminated.
(3) The Insurer must pay to the Retail Client an amount equal to the total of the amounts paid by the Client for the Contract of Insurance.
(4) The amount must be paid to the Retail Client without delay and not later than 21 days
after the day the cancellation right is exercised.
(5) If the Contract of Insurance is a General Insurance Contract, the Retail Client must, if required by the Insurer, pay the firm an amount of no more than the total of:
- (a) the value of the services the firm actually provided to the Client in relation to the Contract of Insurance; and
- (b) amounts received, and the value of property or services received, by the Client in relation to the Contract of Insurance.
(6) However, the Insurer may only require the Retail Client to pay an amount under subrule
(5) if:
- (a) the performance of the Contract of Insurance started before the end of the cancellation period at the Client’s request; and
- (b) the Insurer can demonstrate that the Client was, under COB 11.7.2 (Confirmation of cover), given details of the amount that the Client may be required to pay if the Client cancelled the contract.
(7) The Insurer must not require the Retail Client to pay an amount under subrule (5) that could be taken to be a penalty or that exceeds the sum of:
- (a) the costs (other than costs for the cover provided under the insurance policy) actually incurred by the Insurer in relation to the insurance policy; and
- (b) the cost to the Insurer of the cover actually provided to the Client under the insurance policy. Guidance for COB 19.3.4 (7) and (8)
1 The amount calculated under COB 19.3.4 (7) may include:
- (a) an amount for the cover provided; and
- (b) a proportion of the commission paid to another Authorised Firm sufficient to cover that firm’s costs; and
- (c) a proportion of any fees charged by the Authorised Firm that, when totalled with any commission to be repaid, would be sufficient to cover the firm’s costs.
2 The AFSA would expect the proportion of the Contract of Insurance’s exposure that relates to the time on risk to be a proportional apportionment. But, if there is material unevenness in the incidence of risk, the Insurer could employ a more accurate method, which may result in a lower or higher charge to the Retail Client.
(8) An amount that the Insurer requires the Retail Client to pay under subrule (5) must not take into account or include an amount received, or the value of any property or services received, by the Client in relation to a claim under the insurance policy.
(9) An amount payable by the Retail Client under subrule (5) must be paid to the Insurer without delay and no later than 30 days after the day the Client receives written notice from the firm requiring payment of the amount.
(10) Any amounts payable under this rule are simple contract debts and may be set off against each other.
19.4. Cancelling Contracts of Insurance—recordkeeping
19.4.1. Contracts of Insurance cancellation—recordkeeping
(1) An Insurer must make appropriate records about the exercise of a right to cancel under COB 19.2 (Cancelling Life Policies—Retail Clients) or COB 19.3 (Cancelling NonInvestment Insurance Contracts).
(2) The records must be kept for at least 6 years after the day the right is exercised.
19.5. Claims handling
19.5.1. Claims handling—general requirements
An Insurer must:
- (a) handle claims promptly and fairly;
- (b) provide its Client with reasonable guidance on making a claim, and update it on the progress of its claim;
- (c) (including by terminating or avoiding a policy); and
- (d) settle claims promptly once settlement terms are agreed.
19.5.2. Claims handling—recordkeeping
(1) An Insurer must make a record of the following information in relation to each claim made against a policy issued by it or handled by it:
- (a) details of the claim;
- (b) the date the claim was settled or rejected;
- (c) details of settlement or rejection, including information relevant to the basis for the settlement or rejection.
(2) The Insurer must keep the record for at least 3 years after the day the claim is settled or rejected.
20. INSURANCE MANAGEMENT
Guidance: Outsourcing to Insurance Managers An Insurer or a Takaful Operator may outsource functions or activities directly related to the Regulated Activities of Effecting or Carrying on Contracts of Insurance to a service provider or those related to the Regulated Activity of Takaful Business, including an Insurance Manager, subject to the provisions of GEN 5.2 (Outsourcing).
In addition to the obligations placed directly upon Insurance Managers in this Chapter, where an Insurer or a Takaful Operator outsources functions to an Insurance Manager, the Insurer or Takaful Operator remains responsible for the compliance of the Insurance Manager with the Framework Regulations and Rules (pursuant to GEN 5.2.1) and the outsourced function is deemed to be carried out by the Insurer or Takaful Operator itself (pursuant to GEN 5.2.2).
20.1. Application
20.1.1. General application
This chapter applies to an Insurance Manager – i.e. Authorised Firm that is licensed by the AFSA to conduct the Regulated Activity of Insurance Management.
20.2. General
20.2.1. Provision of Insurance Management services
(1) Subject to (2), an Insurance Manager may provide Insurance Management services to AIFC-Incorporated Insurers, AIFC-incorporated Takaful Operators and their Branches. An Insurance Manager may also provide Insurance Management services to Non-AIFC insurers and Non-AIFC Takaful Operators (i.e. insurers or Takaful Operators operating entirely outside the AIFC).
(2) An Insurance Manager must not underwrite on behalf of a Non-AIFC Insurer or Non-AIFC Takaful Operator in relation to a Contract of Insurance or a Takaful Contract with or for a Retail Client, unless the Insurance Manager has obtained the prior written approval of the AFSA in respect of that insurer or Takaful Operator. Guidance: AFSA approval of underwriting on behalf of Non-AIFaC Insurer For the purposes of COB 20.2.1(2), an Insurance Manager should submit to the AFSA sufficient information to establish that the Non AIFC Insurer or the Non-AIFC Takaful Operator for which it proposes to act is fit and proper and is subject to adequate regulation in its home jurisdiction.
20.2.2. Meaning of Client
For the purposes of this Chapter, the Client of an Insurance Manager is any Policyholder or potential Policyholder with whom the Insurance Manager interacts when carrying on its Insurance Management activities.
20.3. Disclosure requirements
20.3.1. General disclosure obligation
Prior to providing Insurance Management services to a Client, an Insurance Manager must disclose to that Client:
- (a) its name and address;
- (b) its regulatory status; and
- (c) details of its complaints-handling procedure.
20.3.2. Disclosure of costs
An Insurance Manager must provide details of the costs of Insurance Management service offered to a Client.
20.3.3. Disclosure of new costs
An Insurance Manager must ensure that it does not impose any new costs, fees or charges without first disclosing the amount and the purpose of such costs, fees, or charges to the Client.
20.4. Claims handling
20.4.1. Claims handling—general requirements
Where an Insurance Manager handles claims it must:
- (a) handle claims promptly and fairly;
- (b) provide its Client with reasonable guidance on making a claim, and update it on the progress of its claim;
- (c) not unreasonably reject a claim (including by terminating or avoiding a policy); and
- (d) settle claims promptly once settlement terms are agreed.
20.4.2. Claims handling—recordkeeping
(1) An Insurance Manager must make a record of the following information in relation to each claim made against a policy handled by it:
- (a) details of the claim;
- (b) the date the claim was settled or rejected;
- (c) details of settlement or rejection, including information relevant to the basis for the settlement or rejection.
(2) The Insurance Manager must keep the record for at least 3 years after the day the claim is settled or rejected.
SCHEDULE 1: TRANSACTION RECORDS
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MINIMUM CONTENTS OF TRANSACTION RECORDS |
1. |
RECEIPT OF CLIENT ORDER OR DISCRETIONARY DECISION TO TRANSACT |
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An Authorised Firm must, pursuant to COB 6.2.9(a), make a record of the following: |
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(a) the identity and account number of the Client |
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(b) the date and time in the jurisdiction in which the instructions were received or the decision was taken by the Authorised Firm to deal |
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(c) the identity of the Employee who received the instructions or made the decision to deal |
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(d) the Investment, including the number of or its value and any price limit |
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(e) whether the instruction relates to a purchase or sale |
2. |
EXECUTING A TRANSACTION |
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An Authorised Firm must, pursuant to COB 6.2.9(b), make a record of the following |
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(a) the identity and account number of the Client for whom the Transaction was Executed, or an indication that the Transaction was an Own Account Transaction |
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(b) the name of the counterparty |
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(c) the date and time in the jurisdiction in which the Transaction was Executed |
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(d) the identity of the Employee executing the Transaction |
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(e) the Investment, including the number of or its value and price |
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(f) whether the Transaction was a purchase or a sale |
3. |
PASSING A CLIENT ORDER TO ANOTHER PERSON FOR EXECUTION |
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An Authorised Firm must, pursuant to COB 6.2.9(c), make a record of the following |
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(a) the identity of the Person instructed |
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(b) the terms of the instruction |
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(c) the date and time that the instruction was given |
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SCHEDULE 2: KEY INFORMATION AND CONTENT OF CLIENT AGREEMENT
SCHEDULE 2: KEY INFORMATION AND CONTENT OF CLIENT AGREEMENT The key information which an Authorised Firm or an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform is required to provide to a Client and include in the Client Agreement with that Client pursuant to COB 4 must include:
- (a) the core information set out below; and
- (b) where relevant, the additional information required for Investment Business and for Investment Management, for Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform or for Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform.
1. |
CORE INFORMATION |
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In the case of a Retail Client, the core information is: |
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(a) The name and address of the Authorised Firm, and if it is a Subsidiary, the name and address of the ultimate Holding Company |
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(b) The regulatory status of the Authorised Firm |
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(c) when and how the Client Agreement is to come into force and how the agreement may be amended or terminated |
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(d) Sufficient details of the service that the Authorised Firm will provide, including where relevant, information about any Financial Product or other restrictions applying to the Authorised Firm in the provision of its services and how such restrictions impact on the service offered by the Authorised Firm. If there are no such restrictions, a statement to that effect |
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(e) Details of fees, costs and other charges and the basis upon which the Authorised Firm will impose those fees, costs and other charges |
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(f) Details of any conflicts of interests for the purposes of disclosure |
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(g) Key particulars of the Authorised Firm’s Complaints handling procedures and a statement that a copy of the procedures is available free of charge upon request |
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In the case of a Professional Client, the core information is the information referred to in (a), (b), (c) and (e) above. |
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In the case of a Market Counterparty, the core information is the information referred to in (a) and (b) above. |
2. |
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION FOR INVESTMENT BUSINESS |
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The additional information required for Investment Business is: |
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(a) the arrangements for giving instructions to the Authorised Firm and acknowledging those instructions |
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(b) information about any agreed investment parameters |
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(c) the arrangements for notifying the Client of any Transaction Executed on his behalf |
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(d) if the Authorised Firm may act as principal in a Transaction, when it will do so |
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(e) the frequency of any periodic statements and whether those statements will include some measure of performance, and if so, what the basis of that measurement will be |
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(f) when the obligation to provide best execution can be and is to be waived, a statement that the Authorised Firm does not owe a duty of best execution or the circumstances in which it does not owe such a duty |
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(g) where applicable, the basis on which assets comprised in the portfolio are to be valued |
3. |
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION FOR INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT ACTIVITIES |
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The additional information required where an Authorised Firm acts as an Investment Manager is: |
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(a) the initial value of the managed portfolio |
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(b) the initial composition of the managed portfolio |
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(c) the period of account for which periodic statements of the portfolio |
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(d) in the case of discretionary investment management activities:(i) the extent of the discretion to be exercised by the Authorised Firm, including any restrictions on the value of any one Investment or the proportion of the portfolio which any one Investment or any particular kind of Investment may constitute; or that there are no such restrictions;(ii) whether the Authorised Firm may commit the Client to supplement the funds in the portfolio, and if it may include borrowing on his behalf:(A) the circumstances in which the Authorised Firm may do so;(B) whether there are any limits on the extent to which the Authorised Firm may do so and, if so, what those limits are;(C) any circumstances in which such limits may be exceeded; and(D) any margin lending arrangements and terms of those arrangements;(iii) that the Authorised Firm may enter into Transactions for the Client, either generally or subject to specified limitation; and(iv) where the Authorised Firm may commit the Client to any obligation to underwrite or sub-underwrite any issue or offer for sale of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund:(A) whether there are any restrictions on the categories of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund which may be underwritten and, if so, what these restrictions are; and(B) whether there are any financial limits on the extent of the underwriting and, if so, what these limits are. |
4. |
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION FOR SERVICES OFFERED BY AUTHORISED CROWDFUNDING PLATFORMS |
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The following terms must be included in a client agreement between an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform and a Client that is a lender or an Investor: |
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(a) the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform's obligations to administer the loan or Investment, including:(i) how payments made by the Borrower or Issuer will be transferred to the lender or Investor; and(ii) steps that will be taken if payments by a Borrower or an Issuer are overdue, or the Borrower or Issuer is in default. |
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(b) if the Client is a Retail Client, the steps that will be taken by an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform and lender or Investor to ensure that the lender or Investor complies with any applicable limits relating to the amounts of loans or investments that may be made using the platform. |
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(c) if the Client is a Retail Client, that the Client agrees to sign a risk acknowledgment form each time before each loan, Debenture or Investment (as applicable) that it makes using the platform; and |
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(d) the contingency arrangements that an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform will put in place to deal with a platform failure or if an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform ceases to carry on its business. |
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The following terms must be included in a client agreement between an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform and Client that is a Borrower or an Issuer: |
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(a) a restriction on the Borrower or Issuer using any other crowdfunding service to raise funds during the Commitment Period. |
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(b) a restriction on the Borrower or Issuer or any Related Person lending or financing, or arranging lending or finance for a lender or Investor using the service offered by the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform. |
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(c) a restriction on the Borrower or Issuer advertising its proposal or soliciting potential lenders or Investors outside the platform during the Commitment Period. |
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(d) a requirement on the Borrower or Issuer to give reasonable advance notice to an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform of any material change affecting the Borrower or Issuer, its business or the carrying out of its proposal and the obligations of the Borrower or Issuer if there is any material change after the funds have been provided as per requirements of AMI 7.3.10. |
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(e) an obligation on the Borrower or Issuer to produce financial statements at least annually. |
5. |
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION FOR DIGITAL ASSET TRADING FACILITY OPERATORS AND DIGITAL ASSET SERVICE PROVIDERS PROVIDING CUSTODY |
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The additional information required where an Authorised Firm Provides Custody in relation to Digital Assets: |
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a breakdown of all fees and charges payable for a transfer of Digital Assets (a “transfer”) and when they are charged; |
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the information required to carry out a transfer; |
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the form and procedures for giving consent to a transfer; |
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an indication of the time it will normally take to carry out a transfer; |
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details of when a transfer will be considered to be complete; |
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how, and in what form, information and communications relating to transfer services will be provided to the Client, including the timing and frequency of communications and the language used and technical requirements for the Client’s equipment and software to receive the communications; |
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clear policies and procedures relating to unauthorised or incorrectly executed transfers, including when the Client is and is not entitled to redress; |
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clear policies and procedures relating to situations where the holding or transfer of Digital Assets may have been compromised, such as if there has been hacking, theft or fraud; and |
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details of the procedures the Digital Asset will follow to contact the Client if there has been suspected or actual hacking, theft or fraud. |
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SCHEDULE 3: TRADE CONFIRMATION
1. | GENERAL INFORMATION |
An Authorised Firm must include the following general information in a trade confirmation: (a) the Authorised Firm’s name and address; (b) whether the Authorised Firm Executed the Transaction as principal or agent; (c) the Client’s name, account number or other identifier; (d) a description of the Investment or Fund, including the amount invested or number of units involved; (e) whether the Transaction is a sale or purchase; (f) the price or Unit price at which the Transaction was Executed; (g) if applicable, a statement that the Transaction was Executed on an Execution-Only basis; (h) the date and time of the Transaction; (i) the total amount payable and the date on which it is due; (j) the amount of the Authorised Firms charges in connection with the Transaction, including Commission charges and the amount of any Mark-up or Mark-down, Fees, taxes or duties; (k) the amount or basis of any charges shared with another Person or statement that this will be made available on request; and (l) for Collective Investment Funds, at statement that the price at which the Transaction has been Executed is on a Historic Price or Forward Price basis, as the case may be. | |
An Authorised Firm may combine items (f) and (j) in respect of a Transaction where the Client has requested a note showing a single price combining both of these items. | |
2. | ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: DERIVATIVES |
In relation to Transactions in Derivatives, an Authorised Firm must include the following additional information: | |
(a) the maturity, delivery or expiry date of the Derivative; (b) in the case of an Option, the date of exercise or a reference to the last exercise date; (c) whether the exercise creates a sale or purchase in the underlying asset; (d) the strike price of the Option; and (e) if the Transaction closes out an open Futures position, all essential details required in respect of each contract comprised in the open position and each contract by which it was closed out and the profit or loss to the Client arising out of closing out that position (a difference account). |
SCHEDULE 4: PERIODIC STATEMENTS
CONTENT OF PERIODIC STATEMENTS: INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT | |
1. | GENERAL INFORMATION |
A periodic statement, as at the end of the period covered, must contain the following general information: (a) the number, description and value of each Investment; (b) the amount of cash held; (c) the total value of the portfolio; and (d) a statement of the basis on which the value of each Investment has been calculated. | |
2. | ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: DISCRETIONARY INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT ACTIVITIES |
Where an Authorised Firm acts as an Investment Manager on a discretionary basis, the periodic statement must also include the following additional information: (a) a statement of which Investments, if any, were at the closing date loaned to any third party and which Investments, if any, were at that date charged to secure borrowings made on behalf of the portfolio; (b) the aggregate of any interest payments made and income received during the account period in respect of loans or borrowings made during that period; (c) details of each Transaction which have been entered into for the portfolio during the period; (d) the aggregate of Money and details of all Investments transferred into and out of the portfolio during the period; (e) the aggregate of any interest payments, including the dates of their application and dividends or other benefits received by the Authorised Firm for the portfolio during that period; (f) a statement of the aggregate Charges of the Authorised Firm and its Associates; and (g) a statement of the amount of any Remuneration received by the Authorised Firm or its Associates or both from a third party. | |
3. | ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: CONTINGENT LIABILITY INVESTMENTS |
In the case where Contingent Liability Investments are involved, an Authorised Firm must also include the following additional information: (a) the aggregate of Money transferred into and out of the portfolio during the valuation period; (b) in relation to each open position in the account at the end of the account period, the unrealised profit or loss to the Client (before deducting or adding any Commission which would be payable on closing out); (c) in relation to each Transaction Executed during the account period to close out a Client’s position, the resulting profit or loss to the Client after deducting or adding any Commission; (d) the aggregate of each of the following in, or relating to, the Client’s portfolio at the close of business on the valuation date: (i) cash; (ii) Collateral value; (iii) management fees; and (iv) commissions; and (e) Option account valuations in respect of each open Option contained in the account on the valuation date stating: (i) the Share, Future, index or other Investment involved; (ii) the trade price and date for the opening Transaction, unless the valuation statement follows the statement for the period in which the Option was opened; and (iii) the market price of the contract; and (f) the exercise price of the contract. |
SCHEDULE 5: FINANCIAL PROMOTIONS
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A Financial Promotion must contain the information specified in this table: |
1. |
The name of the Authorised Firm communicating the Financial Promotion or on whose behalf the Financial promotion is being communicated. This may be a trading name or shortened version of the legal name of the Authorised Firm, provided that the Client can identify the Authorised Firm from it. |
2. |
If the Financial Promotion has been made for an Authorised Firm by another person, the name of the other Person. |
3. |
The Authorised Firm's regulatory status. |
4. |
The address of the Authorised Firm making the Financial Promotion or a contact point (for example, a web site) from which the address is available. |
5. |
The date of issue and, if applicable, the expiry date of the Financial Promotion. |
6. |
A statement such that the Financial Promotion is clearly identifiable as a Financial Promotion. |
7. |
If the Financial Service or Financial Product places the Client’s capital at risk, a clear statement to that effect. |
8. |
If the Financial Service or Financial Product has a complex charging structure or in relation to which the Authorised Firm will receive two or more elements of remuneration, a clear explanation of the charging or remuneration structure. |
9. |
The intended audience of the Financial Promotion and, if the Financial Promotion is intended only for Professional Clients or Market Counterparties, a clear statement to that effect and that no other person should act upon it. |
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ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING AND COUNTER-TERRORIST FINANCING AND SANCTIONS RULES
Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing and Sanctions
1. INTRODUCTION
1.1. Overview of the AML Rules
- (a) The Anti-Money Laundering Rules (the "AML Rules") are made in recognition of the application of the Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan No 191-IV dated 28 August 2009 on counteracting legalisation (laundering) of proceeds obtained through criminal means and financing of terrorism (the "AML Law"), the Criminal Code of the Republic of Kazakhstan No 226-V dated 3 July 2014 (the "Criminal Code") and international conventions and treaties ratified by the Republic of Kazakhstan.
- (b) In these Rules, a reference to ‘money laundering’ also includes a reference to terrorist financing and financing the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
1.2. Purpose of AML Rules
- (a) The AML Rules have been designed to provide a single reference point for all persons and entities (collectively called Relevant Persons) who are supervised by the AFSA for anti-money laundering ("AML"), countering the financing of terrorism ("CFT"), and sanctions compliance. This means that they apply to Authorised Firms, Authorised Market Institutions, Designated Non-Financial Businesses and Professions ("DNFBPs"), and Registered Auditors.
- (b) The AML Rules must not be read in isolation. Relevant Persons must also be aware of the provisions of the Kazakhstan criminal law referred to in Chapter 3 and developments in international policy and best practice. This is particularly relevant when considering United Nations Security Council ("UNSC") resolutions and unilateral sanctions imposed by other jurisdictions which may apply to a Relevant Person depending on the Relevant Person's jurisdiction of origin, its business and/or customer base.
1.3. [Intentionally omitted]
[Intentionally omitted]
1.4. Financial Action Task Force
- (a) The FATF means the Financial Action Task Force, the inter-governmental body that sets standards, develops and promotes policies, to combat money laundering, and includes any successor entity.
- (b) The AFSA has had regard to the FATF Recommendations in making these Rules. A Relevant Person is referred to the FATF Recommendations and interpretive notes to assist it in complying with these Rules. However, if a FATF Recommendation or interpretive note conflicts with a Rule, the relevant Rule takes precedence.
- (c) A Relevant Person may also wish to refer to the FATF typology reports which provide information on money laundering methods. These can be found on the FATF website www.fatf-gafi.org. Some international groupings, official or informal, publish material that may be useful as context and background in informing the approach adopted by Relevant Persons to AML and CFT. These groupings include Transparency International (www.transparency.org.uk) and the Wolfsberg Group (www.wolfsbergprinciples.com).
- (d) The Republic of Kazakhstan, as a member of the United Nations, is required to comply with sanctions issued and passed by the UNSC. These Rules contain specific obligations requiring Relevant Persons to establish and maintain effective systems and controls to comply with UNSC resolutions and sanctions (See Chapter 12).
- (e) The FATF has issued guidance on a number of specific UNSC resolutions and sanctions regarding the countering of the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. Such guidance has been issued to assist in implementing the targeted financial sanctions and activity based financial prohibitions. This guidance can be found on the FATF website www.fatf-gafi.org.
- (f) In relation to unilateral sanctions imposed in specific jurisdictions such as the European Union, the United Kingdom (HM Treasury) and the United States of America (Office of Foreign Assets Control of the Department of the Treasury), a Relevant Person must consider and take positive steps to ensure compliance where required or appropriate.
1.5. Structure of the AML Rules
(a) Chapter 2 sets out the application of the AML Rules.
(b) Chapter 3 sets out guidance on relevant Kazakhstan criminal law.
(c) Chapter 4 explains the meaning of the risk-based approach ("RBA"), which must be applied when complying with these Rules.
(d) Chapter 5 explains the concept of customer risk assessments.
(e) Chapter 6 establishes the Rules for Customer Due Diligence ("CDD") and Chapters 7 and 8 set out the different measures that may be appropriate for higher and lower risk customers - Enhanced Due Diligence ("EDD") and Simplified Due Diligence ("SDD").
(f) Chapter 9 sets out when and how a Relevant Person may rely on a third party to undertake all or some of its CDD obligations. Reliance on a third-party CDD reduces the need to duplicate CDD already performed in respect of a customer. Alternatively, a Relevant Person may outsource some or all of its CDD obligations to a service provider.
(g) Chapter 10 sets out certain obligations in relation to correspondent banking and Chapter 11 sets out obligations relating to wire transfers.
(h) Chapter 12 sets out a Relevant Person's obligations in relation to UNSC resolutions and sanctions, and government, regulatory and international findings in relation to AML, CFT, and the financing of weapons of mass destruction.
(i) Chapter 13 sets out the obligation for a Relevant Person to appoint a Money Laundering Reporting Officer ("MLRO") and the responsibilities of this role. It also sets out requirements regarding Suspicious Transaction Reports ("STRs") that are required to be made under the AML Law and explains the concept of "tipping off".
(j) Chapter 14 sets out general obligations, including requirements for AML training, policies, and recordkeeping.
1.6. Interpretation
Words and expressions used in these Rules that require defining are set out in the AIFC Glossary.
2. APPLICATION
2.1. Application
(a)The AML Rules apply to:
- (i)every Relevant Person in respect of all its AFSA regulated or supervised activities except an Authorised Firm licenced to operate a Representative Office; and
- (ii)the persons specified in AML 2.2 as being responsible for a Relevant Person's compliance with these Rules.
(b) For the purposes of these Rules, a Relevant Person means:
- (i)an Authorised Firm;
- (ii)an Authorised Market Institution;
- (iii)a DNFBP; or
- (iv)a Registered Auditor.
Guidance
Only a Centre Participant may be one of the Relevant Persons above. A natural person cannot be a Centre Participant.
2.2. Responsibility for compliance with the AML Rules
- (a) Responsibility for a Relevant Person's compliance with these Rules lies with every member of its senior management. Senior management must be fully engaged in the decision-making processes and must take ownership of the RBA set out in Chapter 4.
- (b) In carrying out their responsibilities under these Rules every member of a Relevant Person's senior management must exercise due skill, care and diligence.
- (c) Nothing in these Rules precludes the AFSA from imposing disciplinary sanctions, taking enforcement action and any other regulatory action deemed necessary against any person including any one or more of the following persons in respect of a contravention of any AML Rule:
- (i) a Relevant Person;
- (ii) members of a Relevant Person's senior management; or
- (iii) an employee of a Relevant Person.
- (d) In these Rules “senior management” means:
- In relation to a Relevant Person every member of the Relevant Person’s executive management and includes:
- (i) for a AIFC entity, every member of the Relevant Person’s Governing Body;
- (ii) for a branch, the person or persons who control the day-to-day operations of the Relevant Person in the AIFC and would include, at a minimum, the senior executive officer or equivalent officer, such as the managing director; and
- In relation to a customer that is a body corporate, every member of the body corporate’s Governing Body and the person or persons who control the day-to-day operations of the body corporate, including its senior executive officer, chief operating officer and chief financial officer.
2.3. AFSA supervision powers in respect of DNFBPs
The AFSA may conduct reviews of DNFBPs to perform its AML and CFT responsibilities, including as part of its RBA to supervision.
The AFSA may conduct inspections of DNFBPs as part of its RBA to supervising DNFBPs for AML and CFT.
Guidance on AML and CFT supervision
The AFSA receives an annual AML Return from a DNFBP (AML Rule 13.7) which will assist the AFSA in its supervision of DNFBPs.
Additionally, the AFSA may decide to undertake periodic reviews of one or more DNFBPs as part of its RBA to supervision. The AFSA may also provide further guidance on its approach to AML and CFT supervision of DNFBPs.
The AFSA’s reviews may cover matters such as reviewing the firm’s systems and controls for conducting a money laundering risk assessment, CDD and complying with applicable UNSC resolutions and sanctions.
Reviews may involve interviews with senior management and a review of relevant records.
3. GUIDANCE ON KAZAKHSTAN CRIMINAL LAW
3.1. Kazakhstan criminal law
- (a) Kazakhstan criminal law applies to all Centre Participants and therefore Relevant Persons must be aware of their obligations in respect of the criminal law as well as these Rules. Relevant Kazakhstan criminal law includes the AML Law and the Criminal Code.
4. THE RISK BASED APPROACH
4.1. Obligations of the Risk-Based Approach
4.1.1. General Duty
A Relevant Person must take appropriate steps to identify and assess the risks of money laundering to which its business is exposed, and must establish and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls to mitigateand manage the risks identified.
A Relevant Person must take appropriate steps to manage and mitigate country-wide risks, including those relevant for the Republic of Kazakhstan identified in the published reports and guidance given by the Financial Intelligence Unit of the Republic of Kazakhstan (the "FIU") regarding the FATF mutual evaluations and follow-up reports, and implement enhanced measures where higher risks are identified.
4.1.2. Nature and size of business
In deciding what steps are appropriate under AML 4.1.1, a Relevant Person must consider the size (as measured by the number of its employees, revenue, or market capitalisation, as appropriate) and nature of its business and the complexity of its activities.
4.1.3. Obligation to assess, manage and mitigate business and customer risks
In order to identify and assess the risks of money laundering a Relevant Person must conduct a business risk assessment and must also conduct customer risk assessments in accordance with Chapter 5 and keep these assessments up to date.
The risks of money laundering that may arise in relation to the development of new products and new business practices, including new delivery mechanisms, and the use of new or developing technologies for both new and pre-existing products must be identified and assessed by a Relevant Person prior to the launch or use of such products, practices and technologies.
A Relevant Person must take appropriate measures to manage and mitigate the risks identified in its risk assessments.
4.2. Business Risk Assessment by Relevant Persons
4.2.1. Risk factors to be considered for business risk assessment
In carrying out a business risk assessment as required under AML 4.1.1 a Relevant Person must take into account risk factors including:
- (a) its customers;
- (b) the countries or geographic areas in which it operates;
- (c) its products or services;
- (d) its transactions;
- (e) its delivery mechanisms, channels and partners;
- (f) the development of new products and new business practices, including new delivery mechanisms, channels and partners; and
- (g) the use of new or developing technologies for both new and pre-existing products.
4.2.2. Use of the business risk assessment
A Relevant Person must use the information obtained from its business risk assessment to:
- (a) develop and maintain the policies, procedures, systems and controls required by AML 4.1.1;
- (b) ensure that its policies, procedures, systems and controls adequately mitigate the risks identified;
- (c) assess the effectiveness of its policies, procedures, systems and controls ;
- (d) assist in allocation and prioritisation of AML resources; and
- (e) assist in the carrying out of customer risk assessments under Chapter 5.
4.3. Internal policies, procedures, systems and controls
4.3.1. Requirements of policies, procedures, systems and controls
The policies, procedures, systems and controls adopted by a Relevant Person under AML 4.1.1 must be:
- (a) proportionate to the nature, scale, complexity and money laundering risks of the activities of the Relevant Person’s business;
- (b) comprised of, at minimum, organisation of the development and maintenance of the policies, procedures, systems and controls required by AML 4.1.1:
- (i)risk management;
- (ii)customer identification;
- (iii)transaction monitoring and reviewing;
- (iv)employees training and awareness programme;
- (v)appropriate representation of compliance function in the management;
- (vi)adequate screening procedures to ensure high standards when hiring employees; and
- (vii)independent audit function to test the system.
- (c) approved by its senior management; and
- (d) monitored, reviewed and updated regularly.
4.3.2. Purpose of policies, procedures, systems and controls
The policies, procedures, systems and controls must provide for the identification and scrutiny of:
- (a) complex or unusually large transactions, or an unusual pattern of transactions;
- (b) transactions which have no apparent economic or legal purpose; and
- (c) other activity which the Relevant Person regards as particularly likely by its nature to be related to money laundering.
4.3.3. Record of policies, procedures, systems and controls
A Relevant Person must maintain a written record of the policies, procedures, systems and controls established under AML 4.1.1. The Rules regarding record-keeping for the purposes of these Rules are in AML 14.5.
Guidance on the risk based approach
- (a) AML 4.1.1 requires a Relevant Person to adopt an approach to AML which is proportionate to the risks inherent in its business. This is illustrated in Figure 1 below. The AFSA expects the RBA to be a key part of the Relevant Person's AML compliance culture and to cascade down from the senior management to the rest of the organisation. It requires the full commitment and support of senior management, and the active cooperation of all employees. Embedding the RBA within its business allows a Relevant Person to make decisions and allocate AML resources in the most efficient and effective way.
- (b) No system of checks will detect and prevent all money laundering. A RBA will, however, balance the cost burden placed on Relevant Persons and their customers, against a realistic assessment of the threat of the Relevant Person’s business being used in connection with money laundering. It will focus the effort where it is needed and will have most impact.
- (c) In implementing the RBA, a Relevant Person is expected to have in place processes to identify and assess money laundering risks. After the risk assessment, the Relevant Person is expected to monitor, manage and mitigate the risks in a way that is proportionate to the Relevant Person's exposure to those money laundering risks. The general principle is that where there are higher risks of money laundering, a Relevant Person is required to take enhanced measures to manage and mitigate those risks, and that, correspondingly, when the risks are lower, simplified measures are permitted.
- (d) The RBA discourages a "tick-box" approach to AML. Instead, a Relevant Person is required to assess relevant money laundering risks and adopt a proportionate response to such risks.
- (e) Unless a Relevant Person understands the money laundering risks to which it is exposed, it cannot take appropriate steps to prevent its business being used for the purposes of money laundering. Money laundering risks vary from business to business depending on the nature of the business, the type of customers a business has, and the nature of the products and services sold.
- (f) Relevant Persons that do not offer complex products or services and that have limited international exposure may not need an overly complex or sophisticated business risk assessment.
- (g) Using the RBA, a Relevant Person assesses its own vulnerabilities to money laundering and takes all reasonable steps to eliminate or manage such risks. The results of this assessment will also feed into the Relevant Person’s risk assessment of its customers (see Chapter 6).
- (h) Risk management is a continuous process, carried out on a dynamic basis. A money laundering risk assessment is not a one-time exercise. The AFSA expects a Relevant Person's risk management processes for managing money laundering risks are kept under regular review and that any changes made to policies, procedures, systems and controls are recorded.
5. CUSTOMER RISK ASSESSMENT
5.1. Assessing customer money laundering risks
5.1.1. Requirement to conduct a customer risk assessment
A Relevant Person must:
- (a) undertake a risk-based assessment of every customer; and
- (b) assign the customer a risk rating proportionate to the customer's money laundering risks.
5.1.2. Timing of the customer risk assessment
The customer risk assessment in AML 5.1.1 must be completed prior to conducting CDD for new customers, and where, for an existing customer, there is a material change in circumstances.
5.1.3. Conduct of the customer risk assessment
When undertaking a risk-based assessment of a customer under AML 5.1.1 a Relevant Person must:
- (a) identify the customer, any beneficial owner(s) and any person acting on behalf of a customer;
- (b) obtain information on the purpose and intended nature of the business relationship;
- (c) consider the type of customer, its ownership and control structure, and its beneficial ownership (if any);
- (d) consider the nature of the customer's business relationship with the Relevant Person;
- (e) consider the customer's country of origin, residence, nationality, place of incorporation or place of business;
- (f) consider the relevant product, service or transaction;
- (g) consider the beneficiary of a life insurance policy, where applicable; and
- (h) consider the outputs of the business risk assessment under Chapter 4.
5.1.4. Identification of Politically Exposed Persons
The policies, procedures, systems and controls adopted by the Relevant Person in accordance with AML 5.1.1 must enable it to determine whether a customer or a beneficial owner is a Politically Exposed Person ("PEP").
5.1.5. Identification of control structure
A Relevant Person must not establish a business relationship with a customer which is a legalperson if the ownership or control structure of the customer prevents the Relevant Person from identifying all of the customer's beneficial owners.
A Relevant Person must not establish a business relationship with a customer which is a legal person if the ownership or control structure of the customer prevents the Relevant Person from identifying all of the customer's beneficial owners.
5.1.6. Prohibition on relationships with Shell Banks
A Relevant Person must not establish or maintain a business relationship with a Shell Bank.
Guidance on customer risk assessments
- (a) The findings of the customer risk assessment will assist the Relevant Person in determining the level of CDD that should be applied in respect of each customer and beneficial owner.
- (b) In assessing the nature of a customer, a Relevant Person should consider such factors as the legal structure of the customer, the customer's business or occupation, the location of the customer's business and the commercial rationale for the customer's business model.
- (c) In assessing the customer business relationship, a Relevant Person should consider how the customer is introduced to the Relevant Person and how the customer is serviced by the Relevant Person, including for example, whether the Person will be a private banking customer, will open a bank or trading account, or whether the business relationship will be purely advisory.
- (d) The risk assessment of a customer, which is illustrated in Figure 2 below, requires a Relevant Person to allocate an appropriate risk rating to every customer. Risk ratings areto be described as "low", "medium" or "high", on a sliding numeric scale with 1 to 3 as "low" risk, 4 to 7 as "medium" risk, and 8 to 10 as "high" risk. Depending on the outcome of a Relevant Person's assessment of its customer's money laundering risk, a Relevant Person should decide what degree of CDD will need to be conducted.
- (e) In AML 5.1.5, ownership arrangements which may prevent the Relevant Person from identifying one or more beneficial owners include bearer shares, nominee shareholder arrangements, and other negotiable instruments in which ownership is determined by possession.
Guidance on the term "customer"
- (a) The point at which a person becomes a customer will vary from business to business. However, the AFSA considers that it would usually occur at or prior to the business relationship being formalised, for example, by the signing of a customer agreement or the acceptance of terms of business.
- (b) A person would not normally be a customer of a Relevant Person merely because such person receives marketing information from a Relevant Person or where a Relevant Person refers a person who is not a customer to a third party (including a Group member).
- (c) A counterparty would generally be a "customer" for the purposes of these Rules and would therefore require a Relevant Person to conduct CDD on such a person. However, this would not include a counterparty in a transaction undertaken on a Regulated Exchange. Nor would it include suppliers of ordinary business services, to the Relevant Person such as cleaning, catering, stationery, IT or other similar services.
Guidance on high risk customers
- (a) In complying with AML 5.1.1, a Relevant Person should consider the following customer risk factors which may indicate that a customer poses a higher risk of money laundering:
- (i) the business relationship is conducted in unusual circumstances;
- (ii) the customer is resident in a geographical area considered by FATF to be an area of high risk;
- (iii) the customer is a legal person or arrangement that is a vehicle for holding personal assets;
- (iv) the customer is a company that has nominee shareholders or shares in bearer form;
- (v) the customer is a cash-intensive business;
- (vi) the corporate structure of the customer is unusual or excessively complex given the nature of the company’s business; and
- (vii) the customer has been subject to adverse press or public information related to potential money laundering activities.
- (b) In complying with AML 5.1.1 a Relevant Person should also consider the following product, service, transaction or delivery channel risk factors:
- (i) the product involves private banking;
- (ii) the product or transaction is one which might favour anonymity;
- (iii) the situation involves non-face-to-face business relationships and/or transactions, without certain safeguards, such as electronic signatures;
- (iv) payments will be received from third parties who are unknown to the Relevant Person;
- (v) new products and new business practices are involved, including new delivery mechanisms, and the use of new or developing technologies for new and existing products;
- (vi) the service provides nominee directors, nominee shareholders or shadow directors for hire, or offers the formation of companies in third countries; and
- (vii) the service involves undocumented or verbal agreements with counterparties or customers.
- (c) In complying with AML 5.1.1 a Relevant Person should also consider the following geographical risk factors:
- (i) countries identified by credible sources, such as FATF mutual evaluations, detailed assessment reports or published follow-up reports, as not having effective systems to counter money laundering and terrorist financing; and
- (ii) countries subject to sanctions, embargos or similar measures issued by, for example, the United Nations Security Council or identified by credible sources as having significant levels of corruption or other criminal activity and countries or geographic areas identified by credible sources as providing funding or support for terrorism.
Guidance on low risk customers
- (a) In complying with AML 5.1.1 the following types of customers may pose a lower risk of money laundering:
- (i) a governmental entity, or a publicly-owned enterprise;
- (ii) an individual resident in a geographical area of lower risk which has AML regulations which are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations;
- (iii) Customers with a long-term and active business relationship with the Relevant Person;
- (iv) a regulated Financial Institution whose entire operations are subject to regulation and supervision, including AML regulation and supervision, in a jurisdiction with AML regulations which are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations; or
- (v) a company whose Securities are listed on a Regulated Market in a jurisdiction which has AML regulations which are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations;
- (b) In complying with AML 5.1.1 the following types of product, service, transaction or delivery channel risk factors may pose a lower risk of money laundering:
- (i) a contract of insurance which is non-life insurance;
- (ii) a contract of insurance which is a life insurance product which does not provide for an early surrender option, and cannot be used as collateral;
- (iii) a contract of insurance which is life insurance for which the annual premium is low by comparison with prevailing market standards;
- (iv) a contract of insurance for the purposes of a pension scheme where the contract contains no surrender clause and cannot be used as collateral;
- (v) a pension, superannuation or similar scheme which provides retirement benefits to employees, where contributions are made by an employer or by way of deduction from an employee's wages and the scheme rules do not permit the assignment of a member's interest under the scheme; or
- (vi) arbitration, litigation, or advice on litigation prospects.
- (c) The assignment of a low risk customer AML rating should not be automatic and should be applied only after an assessment of a customer's actual AML risk as required in AML 5.1.1. In conducting this assessment, however, Relevant Persons should make use of, and build upon, the business risk assessment(s) it has undertaken in accordance with Chapter 4.
Guidance on Shell Banks
- (a) AML 5.1.6 prohibits a Relevant Person from establishing or maintaining a business relationship with a Shell Bank.
- (b) The presence of a local agent or administrative staff would not constitute a physical presence in the country in which the customer is incorporated or licensed.
6. CUSTOMER DUE DILIGENCE
6.1. Conducting Customer Due Diligence
6.1.1. Obligation to conduct Customer Due Diligence
A Relevant Person must:
(a) conduct CDD under AML 6.3.1 for each of its customers including when the customer is carrying out occasional transactions the value of which singularly or in several linked operations (whether at the time or later), equal or exceed USD 15,000; and
(a-a) conduct CDD under AML 6.3.1 for each of its customers including when the customer is
carrying out occasional transactions with Digital Assets the value of which singularly or in several linked operations (whether at the time or later), equal or exceed USD 1,000; and
(b) in addition to (a) and (a-a), conduct EDD under AML 7.1.1 in respect of:
(i) each customer it has assigned as high risk;
(ii) business relationships and transactions with persons from countries with high geographical risk factors.
6.1.2. Conducting Simplified Due Diligence
(a)A Relevant Person may conduct SDD in accordance with AML 8.1.1 by modifying the CDD under AML 6.3.1 for any customer it has assigned as low risk. A Relevant Person must not conduct SDD measures in specific high-risk scenarios or when there is a suspicion of money laundering;
(b)A Relevant Person must ensure that assignment of low risk is based on an adequate risk analysis and SDD is commensurate with the risk level identified.
Guidance on Customer Due Diligence
(a)A Relevant Person should conduct CDD in a manner proportionate to the customer's money laundering risks identified under Chapter 6. When the money laundering risks are identified as high, a Relevant Person must conduct EDD under Chapter 7.
(b)This means that all customers are subject to CDD under AML 6.3.1. However, for high risk customers, additional EDD measures should also be conducted under AML 7.1.1.
(c)The broad objective is that the Relevant Person should know at the outset of the relationship who its customers (and, where relevant, beneficial owners) are, where they operate, what they do and their expected level of activity. In addition to AML 6.1.1(a), a Relevant Person must obtain documents on the legal form and the powers that regulate and bind the legal person or arrangement. The Relevant Person must then consider how the profile of the customer’s financial behaviour builds up over time, allowing the Relevant Person to identify transactions or activity that may be suspicious.
6.2. Timing of Customer Due Diligence
6.2.1. Establishment of business relationship
A Relevant Person must conduct CDD measures:
- (a) when it is establishing a business relationship with a customer; and
- (b) after establishing a business relationship with a customer.
6.2.2. After the establishment of a business relationship
A Relevant Person must also conduct appropriate CDD if, at any time:
- (a) in relation to an existing customer, it doubts the veracity or adequacy of documents, data or information obtained for the purposes of CDD;
- (b) it suspects money laundering; or
- (c) there is a change in the risk rating applied by the Relevant Person to an existing customer, or it is otherwise warranted by a change in circumstances of the customer
6.2.3. Establishing a business relationship before Customer Due Diligence is complete
A Relevant Person may establish or retain a business relationship with a customer before completing the verification required by AML 6.3.1 if the following conditions are met:
- (a) deferral of the verification of the customer or beneficial owner is necessary in order not to interrupt the normal conduct of a business relationship;
- (b) risk management procedures concerning the conditions under which a customer may utilise the business relationship prior to verification have been adopted and are in place; and there is little risk of money laundering occurring and any such risks identified can be effectively managed by the Relevant Person;
- (c) in relation to a bank account opening, there are adequate safeguards in place to ensure that the account is not closed and transactions are not carried out by or on behalf of the account holder (including any payment from the account to the account holder) before verification has been completed; and
- (d) subject to (c), the relevant verification is completed as soon as reasonably practicable before or during the establishment of a business relationship and when transactions for occasional customers are being conducted; and in any event, no later than 30 days after the establishment of a business relationship.
6.2.4. Inability to complete Customer Due Diligence within 30 days
Where a Relevant Person is not reasonably able to comply with the 30-day requirement in AML 6.2.3(d), it must, prior to the end of the 30-day period:
- (a) document the reason for its non-compliance;
- (b) complete the verification in AML 6.2.3 as soon as possible; and
- (c) record the non-compliance event.
6.2.5. Cessation of business
The AFSA may specify a period within which a Relevant Person must complete the verification required by AML 6.2.3 failing which the AFSA may direct the Relevant Person to cease any business relationship with the customer.
Guidance on timing of Customer Due Diligence
- (a) For the purposes of AML 6.2.2(a), examples of situations which might lead a Relevant Person to have doubts about the veracity or adequacy of documents, data or information previously obtained could be where there is a suspicion of money laundering in relation to that customer, where there is a material change in the way that the customer's account is operated, which is not consistent with the customer's business profile, or where it appears to the Relevant Person that a person other than the customer is the real customer.
- (b) In AML 6.2.3, situations that the Relevant Person may take into account include, for example, accepting subscription monies during a short offer period; executing a timecritical transaction, which if not executed immediately, would or may cause a customer to incur a financial loss due to price movement or loss of opportunity; and when a customer seeks immediate insurance cover.
- (c) When complying with AML 6.2.1, a Relevant Person should also, where appropriate, consider AML 6.6.1 regarding failure to conduct or complete CDD and Chapter 13 regarding STRs and tipping off.
6.3. Conducting Customer Due Diligence
6.3.1. Obligation to verify and understand
In conducting CDD required by AML 6.1.1,a Relevant Person must:
- (a) verify the identity of the customer and any person acting on behalf of the customer, including his authorisation to so act, based on original or properly certified documents, data or information issued by or obtained from a reliable and independent source;
- (a-a) verify the identity of any beneficial owner(s) of the customer;
- (b)obtain information on and understand the purpose and intended nature of the business relationship;
- (c)understand the customer's sources of funds;
- (d)understand the customer's sources of wealth; and
- (e)conduct on-goingdue diligence of the customer business relationship under AML 6.4.1.
6.3.2. Customer obligation for life insurance
In complying with AML 6.3.1 for life insurance or other similar policies, a Relevant Person must:
- (a)verify the identity of customers as soon as reasonably practicable before or during the establishment of a business relationship and when transactions for occasional customers are being conducted;
- (a-a) verify the identity of any named beneficiaries of the insurance policy at the time of pay-out;
- (b)verify the identity of the persons in any class of beneficiary, or where these are not identifiable, ensure that it obtains sufficient information to be able to verify the identity of such persons at the time of pay-out;
- (c)if a beneficiary of the insurance policy who is a legal person or a legal arrangement presents a higher risk, take enhanced measures which should include reasonable measures to identify and verify the identity of the beneficial owner of the beneficiary, at the time of pay-out;
- (d)take reasonable measures to determine whether the beneficiaries of the insurance policy and/or, where required, the beneficial owner of the beneficiary, are PEPs, at the latest at the time of the pay-out, and, in cases of higher risks, inform senior management before the pay-out of the policy proceeds, conduct enhanced scrutiny on the whole business relationship with the policyholder, and consider making a STR; and
- (e)include the beneficiary of a life insurance policy as a relevant risk factor in determining whether enhanced CDD measures are applicable.
6.3.3. Customer is a Politically Exposed Person
Where a customer, or a beneficial owner of the customer, is a PEP, a Relevant Person must ensure that, in addition to AML 6.3.1 it also:
- (a) increases the degree and nature of monitoring of the business relationship, in order to determine whether the customer's transactions or activities appear unusual or suspicious; and
- (b) obtains the approval of senior management to commence a business relationship with the customer.
Guidance on undertaking Customer Due Diligence
- (a) A Relevant Person should, in complying with AML 6.3.1(a), and adopting the RBA, obtain, verify and record, for every customer who is a natural person, the following identification information:
- (i) full name (including any alias);
- (ii) date of birth;
- (iii) nationality;
- (iv) legal domicile; and
- (v) current residential address (not a P.O. box).
- (b) Items (i) to (iii) above should be obtained from a current valid passport or, where a customer does not possess a passport, an official identification document which includes a photograph. The concept of domicile generally refers to the place which a person regards as his permanent home and with which he has the closest ties or which is his place of origin.
- (c) A Relevant Person should, in complying with AML 6.3.1(a), and adopting the RBA, obtain, verify and record, for every customer which is a legal person, the following identification information:
- (i) full business name and any trading name;
- (ii) registered or business address;
- (iii) date of incorporation or registration;
- (iv) place of incorporation or registration;
- (v) a copy of the certificate of incorporation or registration;
- (vi) a valid commercial or professional licence;
- (vii) the identity of the directors, partners, trustees or equivalent persons with executive authority of the legal person or who holds the position of senior managing official; and
- (viii) for a trust, a certified copy of the trust deed to ascertain the nature and purpose of the trust and documentary evidence of the appointment of the current trustees.
- (d) In complying with AML 6.3.1(a), it may not always be possible to obtain original documents. Where identification documents cannot be obtained in original form, for example, because a Relevant Person has no physical contact with the customer, the Relevant Person should obtain a copy certified as a true copy by a person of good standing such as a registered lawyer or notary, a chartered accountant, a bank manager, a police officer, an employee of the person's embassy or consulate, or other similar person. Downloading publicly available information from an official source (such as a regulator or government website) is sufficient to satisfy the requirements of AML 6.3.1(a) CDD information and research obtained from a reputable company or informationreporting agency may also be acceptable as a reliable and independent source, as would banking references and, for lower risk customers, information obtained from researching reliable and independent public information found on the internet or on commercial databases.
- (e) For higher risk situations, identification information is to be independently verified, using both public and non-public sources.
- (f) In complying with AML 6.3.1(b) a Relevant Person is required to "understand" a customer's source of funds. This means understanding where the funds for a particular service or transaction will come from (e.g. a specific bank or trading account held with a specific financial institution) and whether that funding is consistent with the customer's source of wealth. The best way of understanding the source of funds is by obtaining information directly from the customer, which will usually be obtained during the onboarding process. The Relevant Person should keep appropriate evidence of how they were able to understand the source of funds, for example, a copy of the customer account opening form, customer questionnaire or a memo of a call with the relationship manager at a financial institution.
- (g) In complying with AML 6.3.1(c) a Relevant Person is required to "understand" a customer's source of wealth. For a natural person, this might include questions about the source of wealth in an application form or customer questionnaire. The understanding may also be gained through interactions with the relationship manager at a financial institution. It could also be gained by obtaining information from a reliable and independent publicly available source, for example, from published accounts or a reputable news source. The understanding need not be a dollar for dollar account of the customer's global wealth, but it should provide sufficient detail to give the Relevant Person comfort that the customer's wealth is legitimate and also to provide a basis for subsequent on-going due diligence. The understanding of the customer's source of wealth should be clearly documented.
- (h) Understanding a customer's sources of funds and wealth is also important for the purposes of undertaking on-going due diligence under AML 6.3.1(d) Initial funding of an account or investments from an unknown or unexpected source may pose a money laundering risk. Similarly, a sound understanding of the customer's source of funds and wealth also provides useful information for a Relevant Person's transaction monitoring programme.
- (i) An insurance policy which is similar to a life policy would include life-related protection, or a pension, or investment product which pays out to the policy holder or beneficiary upon a particular event occurring or upon redemption.
Guidance on identification and verification of beneficial owners
- (a) In determining whether an individual meets the definition of a beneficial owner or controller, regard should be had to all the circumstances of the case.
- (b) When identifying beneficial owners, a Relevant Person is expected to adopt a substantive (as opposed to form over substance) approach to CDD for legal persons. Adopting a substantive approach means focusing on the money laundering risks of the customer and the product/service and avoiding an approach which focusses purely on the legal form of an arrangement or sets fixed percentages at which beneficial owners are identified (or not).
- (c) A Relevant Person should take all reasonable steps to establish and understand a corporate customer's legal ownership and control and to identify the beneficial owner. There are no explicit ownership or control thresholds in defining the beneficial owner because the applicable threshold to adopt will ultimately depend on the risks associated with the customer, and so a Relevant Person must adopt the RBA and pursue on reasonable grounds an approach which is proportionate to the risks identified. A Relevant Person should not set fixed thresholds for identifying the beneficial owner without objective and documented justification. An overly formal approach to defining the beneficial owner may result in a criminal "gaming" the system by always keeping his financial interest below the relevant threshold.
- (d) In some circumstances no threshold should be used when identifying beneficial owners because it may be important to identify all underlying beneficial owners to ensure that they are not associated or connected in some way. This may be appropriate where there are a small number of investors in an account or fund, each with a significant financial holding and the customer-specific risks are higher. However, where the customer-specific risks are lower, a threshold can be appropriate. For example, for a low-risk corporate customer which, combined with a lower-risk product or service, a percentage threshold may be appropriate for identifying "control" of the legal person for the purposes of the definition of a beneficial owner.
- (e) For a retail investment fund, which is widely-held and where the investors invest via pension contributions, the manager of the fund is not expected to look through to underlying investors where there are none with any material control or ownership levels in the fund. However, for a closely-held fund with a small number of investors, each with a large shareholding or other interest, a Relevant Person should identify and verify each of the beneficial owners, depending on the risks identified as part of its risk-based assessment of the customer.
- (f) Where a Relevant Person carries out identification and verification in respect of actual and potential beneficial owners of a trust, this should include the trustee, settlor, the protector, the enforcer, beneficiaries, other persons with power to appoint or remove a trustee and any person entitled to receive a distribution, whether or not such person is a named beneficiary.
- (g) Where no natural person is identified as a beneficial owner, the relevant natural person who holds the position of senior managing official should be identified as such and verified.
Guidance on Politically Exposed Persons
- (a) Individuals who have, or have had, a high political profile, or hold, or have held, public office, can pose a higher money laundering risk to a Relevant Person as their position may make them vulnerable to corruption. This risk also extends to members of their families and to their close associates. PEP status itself does not incriminate individuals or entities. It does, however, put the customer into a higher risk category.
- (b) Generally, a foreign PEP presents a higher risk of money laundering because there is a greater risk that such person, if he/she was committing money laundering, would attempt to place his/her money offshore where the customer is less likely to be recognised as a PEP and where it would be more difficult for law enforcement agencies in his/her home jurisdiction to confiscate or freeze his/her criminal property.
- (c) Corruption-related money laundering risk increases when a Relevant Person deals with PEPs. Corruption may involve serious crimes and has become the subject of increasing global concern. Customer relationships with family members or close associates of PEPs involve similar risks to those associated with PEPs themselves.
- (d) After leaving office PEPs may remain a higher risk for money laundering if they continue to exert political influence, directly or indirectly, or otherwise pose a risk of corruption.
6.3.4. Existing customer becoming a Politically Exposed Person
A Relevant Person must not continue its business relationship with an existing customer if the customer (or a beneficial owner of the customer) becomes a PEP, unless the Relevant Person obtains the approval of its senior management.
Guidance on conducting Customer Due Diligence
- (a)A Relevant Person should, in complying with AML 6.3.1(a),and adopting the RBA, obtain, verify and record, for every customer who is a natural person, the following identification information:
- (i)full name (including any alias);
- (ii)date of birth;
- (iii)nationality;
- (iv)legal domicile; and
- (v)current residential address (not a P.O. box).
- (b)Items (i) to (iii) above should be obtained from a current valid passport or, where a customer does not possess a passport, an official identification document which includes a photograph. The concept of domicile generally refers to the place which a person regards as his permanent home and with which he has the closest ties or which is his place of origin.
- (c)A Relevant Person should, in complying with AML 6.3.1(a),and adopting the RBA, obtain, verify and record, for every customer which is a legal person, the following identification information:
- (i)full business name and any trading name;
- (ii)registered or business address;
- (iii)date of incorporation or registration;
- (iv)place of incorporation or registration;
- (v)a copy of the certificate of incorporation or registration;
- (vi)a valid commercial or professional licence;
- (vii)the identity of the directors, partners, trustees or equivalent persons with executive authority of the legal person or the relevant natural person who is a member of senior management; and
- (viii)for a trust, a certified copy of the trust deed to ascertain the nature and purpose of the trust and documentary evidence of the appointment of the current trustees.
- (d)In complying with AML 6.3.1(a),it may not always be possible to obtain original documents. Where identification documents cannot be obtained in original form, for example, because a Relevant Person has no physical contact with the customer, the Relevant Person should obtain a copy certified as a true copy by a person of good standing such as a registered lawyer or notary, a chartered accountant, a bank manager, a police officer, an employee of the person's embassy or consulate, or other similar person. Downloading publicly-available information from an official source (such as a regulator or government website) is sufficient to satisfy the requirements of AML 6.3.1(a) CDD information and research obtained from a reputable company or information- reporting agency may also be acceptable as a reliable and independent source, as would banking references and, for lower risk customers, information obtained from researching reliable and independent public information found on the internet or on commercial databases.
- (e)For higher risk situations, identification information is to be independently verified, using both public and non-public sources.
- (f)In complying with AML 6.3.1(c)a Relevant Person is required to "understand" a customer's source of funds. This means understanding where the funds for a particular service or transaction will come from (e.g. a specific bank or trading account held with a specific financial institution) and whether that funding is consistent with the customer's source of wealth. The best way of understanding the source of funds is by obtaining information directly from the customer, which will usually be obtained during the on-boarding process. The Relevant Person should keep appropriate evidence of how they were able to understand the source of funds, for example, a copy of the customer account opening form, customer questionnaire or a memo of a call with the relationship manager at a financial institution.
- (g)In complying with AML 6.3.1(d)a Relevant Person is required to "understand" a customer's source of wealth. For a natural person, this might include questions about the source of wealth in an application form or customer questionnaire. The understanding may also be gained through interactions with the relationship manager at a financial institution. It could also be gained by obtaining information from a reliable and independent publicly available source, for example, from published accounts or a reputable news source. The understanding need not be a dollar for dollar account of the customer's global wealth, but it should provide sufficient detail to give the Relevant Person comfort that the customer's wealth is legitimate and also to provide a basis for subsequent on-going due diligence. The understanding of the customer's source of wealth should be clearly documented.
- (h)Understanding a customer's sources of funds and wealth is also important for the purposes of conducting on-going due diligence under AML 6.3.1(e) Initial funding of an account or investments from an unknown or unexpected source may pose a money laundering risk. Similarly, a sound understanding of the customer's source of funds and wealth also provides useful information for a Relevant Person's transaction monitoring programme.
- (i)An insurance policy which is similar to a life policy would include life-related protection, or a pension, or investment product which pays out to the policy holder or beneficiary upon a particular event occurring or upon redemption.
Guidance on identification and verification of beneficial owners
- (a)In determining whether an individual meets the definition of a beneficial owner or controller, regard should be had to all the circumstances of the case.
- (b)When identifying beneficial owners, a Relevant Person is expected to adopt a substantive (as opposed to form over substance) approach to CDD for legal persons. Adopting a substantive approach means focusing on the money laundering risks of the customer and the product/service and avoiding an approach which focusses purely on the legal form of an arrangement or sets fixed percentages at which beneficial owners are identified (or not).
- (c)A Relevant Person should take all reasonable steps to establish and understand a corporate customer's legal ownership and control and to identify the beneficial owner. An approach based only on defined thresholds without regard to the relevant risks in defining the beneficial owner may result in inadequate determination of beneficial ownership, for example, a criminal "gaming" the system by always keeping his financial interest below the relevant threshold.
- A Relevant Person must consider a customer’s risk rating and the source of funds when reviewing transactions as required by AML 6.4.1.
- (d)In some circumstances no threshold should be used when identifying beneficial owners because it may be important to identify all underlying beneficial owners to ensure that they are not associated or connected in some way. This may be appropriate where there area small number of investors in an account or fund, each with a significant financial holding and the customer-specific risks are higher. However, where the customer-specific risks are lower, a threshold can be appropriate. For example, for a low-riskcorporate customer which, combined with a lower-risk product or service, a percentage threshold may be appropriate for identifying "control" of the legal person for the purposes of the definition of a beneficial owner.
- (e)For a retail investment fund, which is widely-held and where the investors invest via pension contributions, the manager of the fund is not expected to look through to underlying investors where there are none with any material control or ownership levels in the fund. However, for a closely-held fund with a small number of investors, each with a large shareholding or other interest, a Relevant Person should identify and verify each of the beneficial owners, depending on the risks identified as part of its risk-based assessment of the customer.
- (f)Where a Relevant Person carries out identification and verification in respect of actual and potential beneficial owners of a trust, the identification and verification should include the trustee, settlor, the protector, the enforcer, beneficiaries, other persons with power to appoint or remove a trustee and any person entitled to receive a distribution (whether or not such person is a named beneficiary). For legal arrangements other than a trust, the identification and verification should include persons in positions similar to those in a trust exercising ultimate effective control over the legal arrangement (including through a chain of control or ownership) and entitled to receive a distribution (whether or not such person is a named beneficiary).
- (g)A Relevant Person should identify and take reasonable measures to verify the identity of the natural person(s) (if any) who ultimately has a controlling ownership interest in a legal person to the extent that there is doubt under verification as to whether the person(s) with the controlling ownership interest is the beneficial owner(s). If no natural person exerts control through ownership interests, the Relevant Person should identify and take reasonable measures to verify the identity of the natural person(s) (if any) exercising control of the legal person or arrangement through other means.
- (h)Where no natural person is identified as a beneficial owner who ultimately has a controlling ownership interest (or who has control through other means) in a legal person, the relevant natural person who holds the position of a member of senior management should be identified as such and verified.
Guidance on Politically Exposed Persons
- (a)Individuals who have, or have had, a high political profile, or hold, or have held, public office, can pose a higher money laundering risk to a Relevant Person as their position may make them vulnerable to corruption. This risk also extends to members of their families and to their close associates. PEP status itself does not incriminate individuals or entities. It does, however, put the customer into a higher risk category.
- (b)Generally, a PEP presents a higher risk of money laundering because there is a greater risk that such person, if he/she was committing money laundering, would attempt to place his/her money offshore where the customer is less likely to be recognised as a PEP and where it would be more difficult for law enforcement agencies in his/her home jurisdiction to confiscate or freeze his/her criminal property.
- (c)Corruption-related money laundering risk increases when a Relevant Person deals with PEPs. Corruption may involve serious crimes and has become the subject of increasing global concern. Customer relationships with family members or close associates of PEPs involve similar risks to those associated with PEPs themselves.
- (d)After leaving office PEPs may remain a higher risk for money laundering if they continue to exert political influence, directly or indirectly, or otherwise pose a risk of corruption.
6.4. On-going Customer Due Diligence
6.4.1. On-going obligation
When conducting on-goingCDD under AML 6.3.1, a Relevant Person must, using the RBA:
- (a)monitor and review transactions undertaken during the course of its customer relationship to ensure that the transactions are consistent with the Relevant Person’s knowledge of the customer, its business, its risk rating, and its source of funds;
- (b)pay particular attention to any complex or unusually large transactions or unusual patterns of transactions that have no apparent or visible economic or legitimate purpose;
- (c)enquire into the background and purpose of the transactions in (b);
- (d)periodically review the adequacy of the CDD information it holds on customers and beneficial owners to ensure that the information is kept up to date, particularly for customers with a high-riskrating;
- (e)periodically review each customer to ensure that the risk rating assigned to a customer under AML 5.1.1(b)remains appropriate for the customer in light of the money laundering risks; and
- (f)at appropriate times apply CDD to existing customers based on materiality and risk considering whether and when CDD has been previously conducted and the adequacy of the CDD information obtained.
Guidance on on-going Customer Due Diligence
- (a)In complying with AML 6.4.1 a Relevant Person should undertake a periodic review to ensure that non-static customer identity documentation is accurate and up-to-date. Examples of non-static identity documentation include passport number and residential/business address and, for a legal person, its share register or list of partners.
- (b)A Relevant Person should undertake a review under AML 6.4.1(d) particularly when:
- (i)the Relevant Person changes its CDD documentation requirements;
- (ii)an unusual transaction with the customer is expected to take place;
- (iii)there is a material change in the business relationship with the customer; or
- (iv)there is a material change in the nature or ownership of the customer.
- (c)The degree of the on-going due diligence to be conducted will depend on the customer risk assessment carried out under AML 5.1.1.
- (d)A Relevant Person’s transaction monitoring policies, procedures, systems and controls, which may be implemented by manual or automated systems, or a combination of these, are one of the most important aspects of effective CDD. Whether a Relevant Person should undertake the monitoring by means of a manual or computerised system (or both)will depend on a number of factors, including:
- (i)the size and nature of the Relevant Person’s business and customer base; and
- (ii)the complexity and volume of customer transactions.
6.5. Checking sanctions lists
6.5.1. Sanctions list review
A Relevant Person must review its customers, their business and transactions against UNSC sanctions lists and against any other Kazakhstan Sanctions List when complying with AML 6.4.1(d).
6.6. Failure to conduct or complete Customer Due Diligence
6.6.1. Prohibitions
Where, in relation to any customer, a Relevant Person is unable to conduct or complete the requisite CDD in accordance with AML 6.3.1 it must, to the extent relevant:
- (a) not carry out a transaction with or for the customer through a bank account or in cash;
- (b) not open an account or otherwise provide a service;
- (c) not otherwise establish a business relationship or carry out a transaction;
- (d) terminate or suspend any existing business relationship with the customer;
- (e) [intentionally omitted]; and
- (f) consider whether the inability to conduct or complete CDD necessitates the making of a STR (see Chapter 13).
- A Relevant Person is prohibited from knowingly keeping anonymous accounts or accounts in obviously fictitious names.
6.6.2. Exceptions
A Relevant Person is not obliged to comply with AML 6.6.1</a>(a) to (e) if:
- (a) to do so would amount to "tipping off" the customer, in contravention of the AML Law; or
- (b) the FIU directs the Relevant Person to act otherwise.
Guidance on failure to conduct or complete Customer Due Diligence
- (a) Where CDD cannot be completed, it may be appropriate not to carry out a transaction pending completion of CDD. Where CDD cannot be conducted, including where a material part of the CDD, such as identifying and verifying a beneficial owner cannot be conducted, a Relevant Person should not establish a business relationship with the customer.
- (b) A Relevant Person should note that AML 6.6.1 applies to both existing and prospective customers. For new customers, it may be appropriate for a Relevant Person to terminate the business relationship before a product or service is provided. The Relevant Person should be careful not to "tip off" the customer.
- (c) A Relevant Person should adopt the RBA for CDD of existing customers. For example, if a Relevant Person considers that any of its existing customers have not been subject to CDD at an equivalent standard to that required by these Rules, it should adopt the RBA and take remedial action in a manner proportionate to the risks and within a reasonable period of time whilst complying with AML 6.6.1.
7. ENHANCED DUE DILIGENCE
7.1. Conducting Enhanced Due Diligence
7.1.1. Obligation to conduct Enhanced Due Diligence
A Relevant Person must conduct EDD where money laundering risks are higher.
Where a Relevant Person is required to conduct EDD under AML 6.1.1 it must, to the extent applicable to the customer:
- (a) obtain and verify additional:
- (i) identification information on the customer and any beneficial owner;
- (ii)information on the intended nature of the business relationship; and
- (iii)information on the reasons for a transaction;
- (b) update more regularly the CDD information which it holds on the customer and any beneficial owners;
- (c) verify information on:
- (i) the customer's sources of funds;
- (ii)the customer's sources of wealth;
- (d) increase the degree and nature of monitoring of the business relationship, to determine whether the customer's transactions or activities appear unusual or suspicious;
- (e) obtain the approval of senior management to commence a business relationship with a customer; and
- (f) where applicable, require that any first payment made by a customer to open an account with a Relevant Person must be carried out through a bank account in the customer's name with:
- (i) a bank;
- (ii)a regulated Financial Institution whose entire operations are subject to regulation and supervision, including AML regulation and supervision, in a jurisdiction with AML regulations which are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations; or
- (iii)a Subsidiary of a regulated Financial Institution referred to in (ii), if the law that applies to the parent ensures that the Subsidiary also observes the same AML standards as its parent.
Guidance on conducting Enhanced Due Diligence
- (a) EDD measures are only mandatory to the extent that they are applicable to the relevant customer or the circumstances of the business relationship and to the extent that the risks would reasonably require it. Therefore, the extent of additional measures to conduct is a matter for the Relevant Person to determine on a case by case basis.
- (b) For high risk customers, a Relevant Person should, in order to mitigate the perceived and actual risks, exercise a greater degree of diligence throughout the customer relationship and should endeavour to understand the nature of the customer's business and consider whether it is consistent and reasonable.
- (c) A Relevant Person should be satisfied that a customer's use of complex legal structures and/or the use of trust and private investment vehicles, has a genuine and legitimate purpose.
- (d) For EDD, where there is a beneficial owner, verification of the customer's source of funds and wealth may require enquiring into the beneficial owner's source of funds and wealth because the source of the funds would normally be the beneficial owner and not the customer.
- (e) Verification of sources of funds might include obtaining independent corroborating evidence such as proof of dividend payments connected to a shareholding, bank statements, salary/bonus certificates, loan documentation and proof of a transaction which gave rise to the payment into the account.
- (f) A customer should be able to demonstrate and document how the relevant funds are connected to a particular event which gave rise to the payment into the account or to the source of the funds for a transaction.
- (g) Verification of sources of wealth might include obtaining independent corroborating evidence such as share certificates, publicly-available registers of ownership, bank or brokerage account statements, probate documents, audited accounts and financial statements, news items from a reputable source and other similar evidence. For example:
- (i) for a legal person, this might be achieved by obtaining its financial or annual reports published on its website or news articles and press releases that reflect its financial situation or the profitability of its business; and
- (ii) for a natural person, this might include documentary evidence which corroborates answers given to questions on the sources of wealth in an application form or customer questionnaire. For example, if a natural person attributes the source of his wealth to inheritance, he/she may be asked to provide a copy of the relevant will or grant of probate. In other cases, a natural person may be asked to provide sufficient bank or salary statements covering a number of years to draw up a picture of his/her sources of wealth.
- (h) A Relevant Person might commission a third party report to obtain further information on a customer or transaction or to investigate a customer or beneficial owner in very high risk cases. A third party report may be particularly useful where there is little or no publicly available information on a person or on a legal arrangement or where a Relevant Person has difficulty in obtaining and verifying information.
- (i) In AML 7.1.1(f) circumstances where it may be applicable to require the first payment made by a customer in order to open an account with a Relevant Person to be carried out through a bank account in the customer's name with a financial institution specified in AML 7.1.1(f) include:
- (i) where, following the use of other EDD measures, the Relevant Person is not satisfied with the results of due diligence; or
- (ii) as an alternative measure, where one of the measures in AML 6.4.1 cannot be carried out.
8. SIMPLIFIED DUE DILIGENCE
8.1. Conduct of Simplified Due Diligence
8.1.1. Modifications to AML 6.3.1 for Simplified Due Diligence
Where a Relevant Person is permitted to conduct SDD under AML 6.1.2, modification of AML 6.3.1 may include:
- (a) verifying the identity of the customer and identifying any beneficial owners after the establishment of the business relationship;
- (b) deciding to reduce the frequency of, or as appropriate not undertake, customer identification updates;
- (c) deciding not to verify an identified beneficial owner;
- (d) deciding not to verify an identification document other than by requesting a copy;
- (e) not enquiring as to a customer's source of funds or source of wealth;
- (f) reducing the degree of on-going monitoring of transactions, based on a reasonable monetary threshold or on the nature of the transaction; or
- (g) not collecting specific information or carrying out specific measures to understand the purpose and intended nature of the business relationship, but inferring such purpose and nature from the type of transactions or business relationship established.
8.1.2. Proportionality
The modification in AML 8.1.1 must be proportionate to the customer's money laundering risks. Guidance on Simplified Due Diligence
- (a) AML 8.1.1 provides examples of SDD measures. Other measures may also be used by a Relevant Person to modify CDD in accordance with the customer risks.
- (b) A Relevant Person should not use a "one size fits all" approach for all its low risk customers. Notwithstanding that the risks may be low, the degree of CDD conducted needs to be proportionate to the specific risks identified on a case by case basis. For example, for customers where the money laundering risks are very low, a Relevant Person may decide simply to identify the customer and verify such information only to the extent that this is commercially necessary. On the other hand, a low risk customer which is undertaking a complex transaction might require more comprehensive SDD.
- (c) For the avoidance of doubt, a Relevant Person is always required to identify beneficial owners, except for retail investment funds which are widely held, and investment funds where the investor invests via pension contributions. However, a Relevant Person may decide not to verify beneficial owners of a low risk customer.
- (d) An example of circumstances where a Relevant Person might reasonably reduce the frequency of or, as appropriate, eliminate customer identification updates would be where the money laundering risks are low and the service provided does not offer a realistic opportunity for money laundering.
- (e) An example of where a Relevant Person might reasonably reduce the degree of on-going monitoring and scrutinising of transactions, based on a reasonable monetary threshold or on the nature of the transaction, would be where the transaction is a recurring, fixed contribution to a savings scheme, investment portfolio or fund or where the monetary value of the transaction is not material for money laundering purposes given the nature of the customer and the transaction type.
9. RELIANCE AND OUTSOURCING
9.1. Reliance on a third party
9.1.1. Permitted reliance
A Relevant Person may rely on the following third parties to conduct one or more elements of CDD on its behalf:
- (a) an Authorised Person;
- (b) a law firm, notary, or other independent legal business, accounting firm, audit firm or insolvency practitioner or an equivalent person in another jurisdiction;
- (c) a Regulated Financial Institution; or
- (d) a member of the Relevant Person’s Group.
9.1.2. Reliance on information previously obtained
In AML 9.1.1, a Relevant Person may rely on the information previously obtained by a third party which covers one or more elements of CDD.
9.1.3 Extent of reliance
Where a Relevant Person seeks to rely on a person in AML 9.1.1, it may only do so if and to the extent that:
- (a) it immediately obtains the necessary CDD information including customer and beneficial owner identification and verification documents, and information on the purpose and nature of the business relationship or transaction from the third party in AML 9.1.1;
- (a-a) the third parties in AML 9.1.1 have taken necessary measures within the scope of CDD, particularly, customer identification and record keeping;
- (b) it takes adequate steps to satisfy itself that certified copies of the documents used to undertake the relevant elements of CDD will be available from the third party on request without delay. It is deemed sufficient that the third party certifies the customer identification documents as “the true copy of the original”;
- (b-a) regular assurance testing is carried out in respect of the third party arrangements, to ensure that the CDD documents can be retrieved without undue delay and that the documentation received is sufficient;
- (c) the person in AML 9.1.1(b) to (d) is subject to regulation, including AML regulation, by a Financial Services Regulator or other competent authority in a country with AML regulations which are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations and it is supervised for compliance with such regulations;
- (d) the person in AML 9.1.1 has not relied on any exception from the requirement to conduct any relevant elements of CDD which the Relevant Person seeks to rely on; and
- (e) in relation to AML 9.1.2, the information is up to date.
9.1.4. Reliance on Group member
Where a Relevant Person relies on a member of its Group, such Group member need not meet the condition in AML 9.1.3(c) if:
- (a) the Group applies and implements a Group-wide policy on CDD and record keeping which is equivalent to the standards set by the FATF;
- (b) where the effective implementation of those CDD and record keeping requirements and AML programmes are supervised at Group level by a Financial Services Regulator or other competent authority in a country with AML regulations which are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations; and
- (c) the Group’s AML policies adequately mitigate any high geographical risk factors.
9.1.5. Obligation to remedy deficiencies
If a Relevant Person is not reasonably satisfied that a customer or beneficial owner has been identified and verified by a third party in a manner consistent with these Rules, the Relevant Person must immediately perform the CDD itself with respect to any deficiencies identified.
9.1.6. Responsibility for compliance
Notwithstanding the Relevant Person’s reliance on a person in AML 9.1.1, the Relevant Person remains responsible for compliance with, and liable for any failure to meet the CDD requirements in these Rules.
A Relevant Person must ensure that:
(a)a third party in AML 9.1.1 performed all appropriate CDD and record-keeping measures;
(b)the third party has an existing business relationship with the customer and that relationship is independent from the relationship to be formed by the customer with the Relevant Person; and
(c)the information provided by the third party satisfies the Relevant Person’s own CDD requirements.
Guidance on reliance
- (a) [intentionally omitted]
- (b) In complying with AML 9.1.3(a) “immediately obtaining the necessary CDD information" means obtaining all relevant CDD information, and not just basic information such as name and address of the customer or beneficial owner. Compliance can be achieved by having that relevant information sent by fax, email or other appropriate means. For the avoidance of doubt, a Relevant Person is not required automatically to obtain the underlying certified documents used by the third party to conduct its CDD. A Relevant Person must, however, under AML 9.1.3(b) ensure that the certified documents are readily available from the third party on request.
- (c) A Relevant Person, in complying with AML 9.1.5, should fill any gaps in the CDD process as soon as it becomes aware that a customer or beneficial owner has not been identified and verified in a manner consistent with these Rules.
- (d) If a Relevant Person acquires another business, either in whole or in part, the Relevant Person may rely on the CDD conducted by the business it is acquiring but would expect the Relevant Person to have done the following:
- (i) as part of its due diligence for the acquisition, to have taken a reasonable sample of the prospective customers to assess the quality of the CDD conducted; and
- (ii) to conduct CDD on all the customers to cover any deficiencies identified in (i) as soon as possible following the acquisition, prioritising high risk customers.
- (e) Where a jurisdiction’s laws (such as secrecy or data protection legislation) would prevent a Relevant Person from having access to CDD information upon request without delay as referred to in AML 9.1.3(b) the Relevant Person should conduct the relevant CDD itself and should not seek to rely on the relevant third party.
- (f) If a Relevant Person relies on a third party located in a foreign jurisdiction including Kazakhstan to conduct one or more elements of CDD, the Relevant Person must ensure that such other jurisdiction has AML regulations that are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations (see AML 9.1.3(c)).
- (g) When assessing if AML regulations in another jurisdiction are equivalent to FATF standards, a Relevant Person may consider a number of factors including, but not limited to: FATF membership, FATF Mutual Evaluation reports, FATF-style or IMF/World Bank evaluations, membership of an international or regional 'group', contextual factors such as political stability or the level of corruption, evidence of relevant criticism of a jurisdiction including FATF advisory notices or independent and public assessments of the jurisdiction's overall AML regime such as IMF/World Bank or other reports by reputable NGOs or specialised commercial agencies. A Relevant Person should, in making its assessment, rely only on sources that are up-to-date and that include the latest AML developments from a reliable and competent source. The assessment may also consider whether adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the AML regulator in that jurisdiction and the AIFC. A Relevant Person must retain sufficient records of the sources and materials considered when undertaking this AML assessment.
9.2. Outsourcing
9.2.1. Responsibility for service providers
A Relevant Person which outsources any one or more elements of its CDD to a service provider (including within its Group) remains responsible for compliance with, and liable for any failure to meet, such obligations.
Guidance on outsourcing
A Relevant Person should conduct appropriate due diligence to assure itself of the suitability of a service provider and should ensure that the provider’s obligations are clearly documented in a binding agreement.
For general requirements regarding outsourcing refer to GEN 5.2.
10. CORRESPONDENT BANKING
10.1. Application
10.1.1. Limits on application
This Chapter applies only to Authorised Persons.
10.2. Correspondent Banking
10.2.1. Obligations in respect of correspondent banking relationships
An Authorised Firm proposing to have a correspondent banking relationship with a respondent bank must:
- (a) conduct appropriate CDD on the respondent bank;
- (b) as part of (a), gather sufficient information about the respondent bank to understand fully the nature of the business, including making appropriate enquiries on its management, its major business activities and the countries or jurisdictions in which it operates;
- (c) determine from publicly-available information the reputation of the respondent bank and the quality of supervision, including whether it has been subject to a money laundering investigation or relevant regulatory action;
- (d) assess the respondent bank's AML controls and ascertain if they are adequate and effective in light of the FATF Recommendations;
- (e) ensure prior approval of the Authorised Firm’s senior management is obtained before entering into a new correspondent banking relationship;
- (f) understand the respective responsibilities of the parties to the correspondent banking relationship and properly document those responsibilities;
- (g) be satisfied that, in respect of any customers of the respondent bank who have direct access to accounts of the Authorised Firm, the respondent bank:
- (i) has conducted CDD (including on-going CDD) at least equivalent to that in AML 6.3.1 in respect of each customer;
- (ii) will conduct ongoing CDD at least equivalent to that in AML 6.4.1, in respect of each customer; and
- (iii) can provide the relevant CDD information in (i) to the Authorised Firm upon request; and
- (h) document the basis for its satisfaction that the requirements in (a) to (g) are met.
In the process of completing the CDD, prior to establishing a correspondent banking relationship, the Authorised Firm must consider all of the following:
- (a) whether it is regulated and supervised for AML and CFT purposes by a regulatory or governmental authority, body or agency equivalent to the Regulator in each foreign jurisdiction in which it operates;
- (b) whether each foreign jurisdiction in which it operates has an effective AML and CFT regime;
- (c) if the respondent is a subsidiary of another legal person—the following additional matters:
- (i) the other person’s domicile and location (if different);
- (ii) its reputation;
- (iii) whether the other person is regulated and supervised (at least for AML and CFT purposes) by a regulatory or governmental authority, body or agency equivalent to the Regulator in each jurisdiction in which it operates;
- (iv) whether each foreign jurisdiction in which it operates has an effective AML and CFT regime;
- (v) its ownership, control and management structure (including whether it is owned, controlled or managed by a politically exposed person).
If the Authorised Firm establishes a correspondent banking relationship with the respondent, the Authorised Firm must:
- (a) conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of the volume and nature of the transactions conducted under the relationship, and if necessary, obtain and record the information on the source of monies for conducted transactions; and
- (b) conduct ongoing review of the relationship at least on an annual basis.
An Authorised Firm must:
- (i) not enter into a correspondent banking relationship with a Shell Bank; and
- (ii) take appropriate measures to ensure that it does not enter into, or continue a correspondent banking relationship with, a bank which is known to permit its accounts to be used by Shell Banks. Guidance on correspondent banking AML 10.2.1 prohibits an Authorised Firm from entering into a correspondent banking relationship with a Shell Bank or a bank which is known to permit its accounts to be used by Shell Banks.
10.3. Prohibition of Shell Banks
A Shell Bank must not be established in, or operate in or from, the AIFC.
10.4. Pay Through Accounts
10.4.1. Pay Through Accounts
- (a) a Bank (the correspondent) has a correspondent banking relationship with a financial institution (the respondent) in a foreign jurisdiction; and
- (b) under the relationship, a customer of the respondent who is not a customer of the correspondent may have direct access to an account of the correspondent.
(1) The Bank (correspondent) must not allow any of the customers of the respondent to have access to the account of any of its own customers, unless the correspondent is satisfied that the respondent:
- (a) has conducted CDD measures for all of its customers and verified their identity;
- (b) conducts ongoing monitoring for its customers; and
- (c) can provide to the correspondent, on request, the documents, data and information obtained in conducting CDD and ongoing monitoring for any of its customers.
(2) In the event of the correspondent asking the respondent for documents, data or information mentioned in (c) above and the respondent fails to satisfactorily comply with the request, the correspondent must immediately terminate the customer’s access to accounts of the correspondent and consider making a STR to the FIU.
10.5. Payment processing using On-line services
10.5.1. Electronic verification of identification documentation
An Authorised Firm may rely on electronic verification of identification documentation if it complies with the RBA and other requirements of these Rules.
An Authorised Firm must make and keep a record that clearly demonstrates the basis on which it relies on the electronic verification of identification documentation. An Authorised Firm may permit payment processing to take place using on-line services if it ensures that the processing is subject to:
- (a) the same monitoring as its other services; and
- (b) the same risk-based methodology.
11. WIRE TRANSFERS
11.1. Definitions
11.1.1. Defined terms
In this Chapter:
- (a)“beneficiary institution” means the Financial Institution that receives the wire transfer from the ordering institution, whether directly or through an intermediary institution, and makes the funds available to the payee;
- (b)“cover payment” means a wire transfer that combines a payment message sent directly by the ordering institution to the beneficiary institution with the routing of the funding instruction from the ordering institution to the beneficiary institution through one or more intermediary institutions;
- (c)“cross-border wire transfer” means a wire transfer where the ordering institution and the beneficiary institution are located in different jurisdictions and includes any chain of wire transfers in which at least one of the Financial Institutions involved is located in a different jurisdiction;
- (d)“customer identification number” means a number that is different from the unique transaction reference number and:
- (i)uniquely identifies the payer to the ordering institution; and
- (ii)refers to a record held by the ordering institution that contains at least one of the following: the payer’s address, national identity number or date and place of birth;
- (e)“domestic wire transfer” means a wire transfer where the ordering institution and beneficiary institution are located in the same jurisdiction and includes any chain of wire transfers that takes place entirely within a jurisdiction, even if the system used to transfer the payment message is located in another country;
- (f)“intermediary institution” means the Financial Institution in a serial payment or cover payment chain that receives and transmits a wire transfer on behalf of the ordering institution and the beneficiary institution, or another intermediary institution;
- (g)“ordering institution” means the Financial Institution that transfers the funds upon receiving the request for a wire transfer on behalf of the payer;
- (h)“payee” means the natural or legal person or legal arrangement identified by the payer as the recipient of the requested wire transfer;
- (i)“payer” means the account holder or originator who allows/instructs the wire transfer from that account or, if there is no account, the natural or legal person that places the wire transfer order with the ordering institution to perform the wire transfer;
- (j)“serial payment” means a direct sequential chain of payment where the wire transfer and accompanying payment message travel together from the ordering institution to the beneficiary institution, directly or through one or more intermediary institutions;
- (k)“straight-through processing” means payment transactions that are conducted electronically without the need for manual intervention;
- (l)“unique transaction reference number” means a combination of letters, numbers or symbols, determined by the Financial Institution in accordance with the protocols of the payment and settlement system or messaging system used for the wire transfer, and which permits the traceability of the wire transfer; and
- (m)“wire transfer” includes any value transfer process or arrangement.
11.2. Wire transfer requirements
11.2.1. Obligations in respect of wire transfer
An Authorised Person must:
- (a) when it sends or receives funds by wire transfer on behalf of a customer ensure that the wire transfer and any related messages contain payer and payee information;
- (b) monitor wire transfers for the purpose of detecting those wire transfers that do not contain payer and payee information and take appropriate measures to identify any money laundering risks;
- (c) where there is a suspicion of money laundering:
- (i) conduct CDD when carrying out transactions, including occasional transactions, that are wire transfers (cross-border wire transfers and domestic wire transfers, including serial payments, and cover payments); and
- (ii) verify the information pertaining to its customer.
11.2.2. Financial Institutions acting on their own behalf
The requirement in AML 11.2.1 does not apply to Financial Institution-to-Financial Institution transfers and settlements, where both the payer and the payee are Financial Institutions acting on their own behalf.
11.2.3.Wire transfer requirements
- (a) An Authorised Person must ensure that information accompanying all cross-border wire transfers less than USD 1,000 contains:
- (i) the name of the payer:
- (ii) the payer account number where such an account is used to process the transaction (or unique transaction reference number that allows traceability of the transaction if no account exists);
- (iii) the name of the payee; and
- (iv) the payee account number where such an account is used to process the transaction (or unique transaction reference number that allows traceability of the transaction if no account exists).
- (b) For all cross-border wire transfers of USD 1,000 or more an Authorised Person must ensure that, in addition to the information required by AML 11.2.3(a), there is information containing the payer’s address or national identity number (individual identification number or passport number), or customer identification number, or date and place of birth.
- (c) If several individual cross-border wire transfers from a single payer are bundled in a batch file for transmission to payees, then an Authorised Person that is an ordering institution must ensure that:
- (i) the batch file contains the payer information required under (a) and (b);
- (ii) it has verified the payer information referred to in (i); and
- (iii) the batch file contains the payee information required under (a) for each payee and that information is fully traceable in each payee’s jurisdiction.
- (d) For a domestic wire transfer, an Authorised Person that is an ordering institution must either:
- (1) include in the information accompanying the wire transfer the following:
- (i) the name of the payer;
- (ii) the payer’s account number where such an account is used to process the transaction (or unique transaction reference number that allows traceability of the transaction if no account exists); and
- (iii) payer’s address or national identity number (individual identification number or passport number), or customer identification number, or date and place of birth; or
- (2) if the payer information set out in (1) can be given by other means, include the payer’s account number or unique transaction reference number if no account exists, provided that:
- (i) either number will permit the transaction to be traced back to the payer or the payee; and
- (ii) the ordering institution must provide the payer information set out in paragraph (1) within 3 business days of a request for the information by the beneficiary institution or the AFSA or immediately upon request of a law enforcement agency.
- (e) An Authorised Person that is an ordering institution must maintain, in accordance with AML 14.5, a record of the payer and payee information it has collected under this Chapter.
- (f) An Authorised Person that is an ordering institution must not perform a wire transfer if it is unable to comply with the requirements in AML 11.2.3.
Guidance on wire transfers
- (a) [intentionally omitted]
- (b) Concealing or removing in a wire transfer any of the information required by AML 11.2.1 would be a contravention of the requirement to ensure that the wire transfer contains payer and payee information.
- (c) The information required under AML 11.2.3(a) for all cross-border wire transfers less than USD 1,000 need not be verified for accuracy except if the Relevant Person suspects money laundering.
11.2.4. Requirements for intermediary institution
11.2.5. Requirements for beneficiary institution
- (a) An Authorised Person that is a beneficiary institution must take reasonable measures, including post-event monitoring or real-time monitoring where feasible, to identify cross-border wire transfers that lack the required payer or payee information.
- (b) For a cross-border wire transfer of USD 1,000 or more, an Authorised Person that is a beneficiary institution must verify the identity of the payee, if the identity has not been previously verified, and maintain this information in accordance with AML 14.5.
11.2.6. Systems and controls concerning wire transfers
An Authorised Person that acts as an intermediary or beneficiary institution must develop, establish and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls to determine:
- (a) when to perform, reject or suspend a wire transfer that lacks the full payer information or required payee information; and
- (b) when to take an appropriate follow-up action.
11.2.7. Money or value transfer service operator
- (a) An Authorised Person that is a money or value transfer service operator must comply with all of the relevant requirements of AML 11.2 in the jurisdictions in which they operate, directly or through their agents.
- (b) In the case of an Authorised Person that is a money or value transfer service operator that controls both the ordering and the payee side of a wire transfer, an Authorised Person must:
- (i) take into account all the information from both the ordering and payee sides in order to determine whether a STR has to be filed; and
- (ii) file a STR in any country affected by the suspicious wire transfer, and make relevant transaction information available to the FIU.
11-1. TRANSFER OF DIGITIAL ASSETS
11-1.1. Digital Asset transfer
(1) If a Digital Asset Service Provider transfers Digital Assets to another Digital Asset Service Provider:
(a) the originating Digital Asset Service Provider must:
(i) obtain and hold required and accurate originator information and required beneficiary information on the transfer; and
(ii) immediately and securely submit the information in (i) to the beneficiary Digital Asset Service Provider or any other relevant institution as so required by law.
(2) The information in (1) should be stored in a manner such that it cannot be altered and so that it is readily available to AFSA on AFSA’s request.
(3) For the purposes of 1(a), an originating Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that all transfers of Digital Assets with value equal to or more than USD1,000 involving natural persons are accompanied by:
(a) the name of the originator;
(b) the originator’s digital asset wallet address or account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number;
(c) the originator’s physical address, or national identity number, or customer identification, or date and place of birth;
(d) the name of the beneficiary; and
(e) the beneficiary’s digital asset wallet address or account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number.
(4) For the purposes of 1(a), an originating Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that all transfers of Digital Assets with value equal of less than USD 1,000 involving natural persons are accompanied by:
(a) the name of the originator;
(b) the originator’s digital asset wallet address or account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number;
(c) the name of the beneficiary; and
(d) the beneficiary’s digital asset wallet address or account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number.
(5) For the purposes of 1(a), an originating Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that all all transfers of Digital Assets with value equal to or more than USD 1,000 involving Body Corporates are accompanied by:
(a) the registered corporate name or trading name of the originator;
(b) the originator’s digital asset wallet address or account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number;
(c) either of the following:
(i) the customer identification number; or
(ii) the registered office address or primary place of business;
(d) the following beneficiary information:
(i) the name of the beneficiary; and
(ii) beneficiary’s digital asset wallet address account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number.
(6) For the purposes of 1(a), an originating Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that all transfers of Digital Assets with value equal of less than USD 1,000 involving Body Corporates are accompanied by:
(a) the name of the originator;
(b) the originator’s account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number;
(d) the following required beneficiary information;
(i) the name of the beneficiary; and
(ii) beneficiary’s account number or (in the absence of an account) unique transaction reference number.
(7) The Digital Asset Service Provider should not execute a transaction if it does not comply with requirements set out in (3), (4), (5) or (6), as applicable, and should return the relevant amounts back to the originator. The Digital Asset Service Provider should have appropriate risk-based policies and procedures to determine when to execute, reject or suspend a transfer lacking the required information while at all times complying with these requirements.
(8) In determining the value of a transfer, Digital Asset Service Providers must take a reasonable and justified approach. If multiple transfers from the same originator appear to be linked, they will be aggregated for the purpose of calculating the transfer’s value.
(9) An intermediary Digital Asset Service Provider who participates in transfers of Digital Assets must:
(a) take reasonable measures, consistent with current guidance, to identify transfers of Digital Assets that lack the required originator or beneficiary information;
(b) adopt risk-based policies and procedures to determine when to execute, reject or suspend a transfer lacking the required information; and
(c) keep records for at least 6 years after the completion of the transaction to which it relates.
(10) If several transfers from a single originator are bundled in a batch file for transmission to beneficiaries, they may be exempted from the requirements in respect of originator information, provided that they include the originator’s account number or unique transaction reference number, and the batch file contains required and accurate originator information, and full beneficiary information, that is fully traceable within the beneficiary country.
11-1.2. Digital Asset Transfers to or from self-hosted digital wallets
(1) In case of a transfer of a Digital Asset made to or received from a self-hosted digital wallet, the Digital Asset Service Provider of the originator or beneficiary must obtain and hold information referred to in 11-1.1.(3), (4), (5) or (6) from Clients and ensure that the transfer of Digital Assets can be individually identified.
(2) If a Digital Asset transfer exceeds USD 1,000 or there is a suspicion of money laundering or terrorist financing of a transfer to a self-hosted digital wallet, the Digital Asset Service Provider of the originator or beneficiary must take adequate measures on a risk-sensitive basis to mitigate and manage the money laundering and terrorist financing risks associated with the transfer.
Guidance on risk mitigating measures on transfers to or from self-hosted digital wallets
A Digital Asset Service Provider should undertake the following non-exhaustive measures to ensure compliance with AML 11-1.2 (2):
(a) to conduct enhanced monitoring of Digital Asset transfers with self-hosted digital wallets;
(b) to accept Digital Asset transfers from or to self-hosted digital wallets only where the Digital Asset Service Provider has them assessed to be reliable, having regard to the screening results of the Digital Asset transactions and the associated digital wallets and the assessment results on the ownership or control of the self-hosted digital wallet by the originator or beneficiary; and
(c) to impose transaction limits or prohibition.
Note: Chapter 11-1. comes into operation 12 months after the commencement date of the AIFC Rules on Digital Asset Activities.
11-2. DIGITAL ASSET TRANSFER COUNTERPARTY DUE DILIGENCE AND ADDITIONAL MEASURES
11-2.1. General requirements
(1) If a Digital Asset Service Provider conducts a Digital Asset transfer referred to in Chapter 11-1, the Digital Asset Service Provider will be exposed to money laundering and terrorist financing risks associated with the institution which may be the ordering institution, intermediary institution or beneficiary institution involved in the Digital asset transfer (“Digital Asset transfer counterparty”).
(2) To avoid sending or receiving a Digital Asset to or from illicit actors or designated parties that had not been subject to appropriate CDD and screening measures of a Digital Asset transfer counterparty and to ensure compliance with the Travel Rule, a Digital Asset Service Provider must conduct due diligence on the Digital Asset transfer counterparty. A Digital Asset Service Provider should identify and assess the money laundering and terrorist financing risks associated with the Digital Asset transfer to or from the Digital Asset transfer counterparty and apply the appropriate risk-based anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism measures.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must conduct due diligence measures on a Digital Asset transfer counterparty before conducting a Digital Asset transfer or making the transferred Digital Assets available to the recipient.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider does not need to undertake the Digital Asset transfer counterparty due diligence process for every individual Digital Asset transfer when dealing with Digital Asset transfer counterparties that it has already conducted counterparty due diligence on previously, unless there is a suspicion of money laundering and terrorist financing.
(5) A Digital Asset Service Provider must undertake reviews of the Digital Asset transfer counterparty due diligence records on a regular basis or upon trigger events (e.g., when it becomes aware of a suspicious transaction or other information such as negative news from credible media, public information that the counterparty has been subject to any targeted financial sanction, money laundering and terrorist financing investigation or regulatory action).
(6) Based on the Digital Asset transfer counterparty due diligence results, a Digital Asset Service Provider must determine if it should continue to conduct Digital Asset transfers with, and submit the required information to, a Digital Asset transfer counterparty, and the extent of anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism measures that it should apply in relation to a Digital Asset transfer with the Digital Asset transfer counterparty on a risk-sensitive basis.
Guidance
Digital Asset transfer counterparty due diligence may involve the following non-exhaustive procedures:
(a) determining whether a Digital Asset transfer is or will be with a Digital Asset transfer counterparty or a self-hosted digital wallet;
(b) where applicable, identifying the Digital Asset transfer counterparty (e.g., by making a reference to a list of licensed or registered Digital Asset Service Providers or financial institutions in different jurisdictions); and
(c) assessing whether a Digital Asset transfer counterparty is an eligible counterparty to deal with and to send the required information to.
11-2.2. Digital Asset transfer counterparty due diligence measures
A Digital Asset Service Provider must apply the following Digital Asset transfer counterparty due diligence measures before it conducts a Digital Asset transfer with a Digital Asset transfer counterparty:
(a) determining if the respondent entity is licensed or registered;
(b) collecting sufficient information about the Digital Asset transfer counterparty to enable it to understand fully the nature of the Digital Asset transfer counterparty’s business;
(c) understanding the nature and expected volume and value of a Digital Asset transfer with the Digital Asset transfer counterparty;
(d) determining from publicly available information the reputation of the Digital Asset transfer counterparty and the quality and effectiveness of the anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism regulation and supervision over the Digital Asset transfer counterparty by authorities in the relevant jurisdiction;
(e) assessing the anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism controls of a Digital Asset transfer counterparty and ensure that they are adequate and effective;
(f) assessing whether the Digital Asset transfer counterparty is subject to the Travel Rule similar to that imposed under Chapter 11-1 in the jurisdiction in which the Digital Asset transfer counterparty operates or is incorporated;
(g) assessing the adequacy and effectiveness of the anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism controls that the Digital Asset transfer counterparty has put in place for ensuring compliance with the Travel Rule;
(h) assessing whether the Digital Asset transfer counterparty can protect the confidentiality and integrity of personal data (e.g., the required originator and recipient information), taking into account the adequacy and robustness of data privacy and security controls of the Digital Asset transfer counterparty; and
(j) obtaining approval from its senior management.
Guidance:
(1) While a relationship with a Digital Asset transfer counterparty is different from a cross-border correspondent relationship referred to in Chapter 10, there are similarities in the due diligence approach which can be of assistance to a Digital Asset Service Provider. By virtue of this, the Digital Asset Service Provider should conduct due diligence measures in Chapter 10, with reference to the requirements set out in AML 10.2.
(2) When assessing money laundering and terrorist financing risks posed by a Digital Asset transfer counterparty, a Digital Asset Service Provider should take into account the relevant factors that may indicate a higher money laundering and terrorist financing risk. Examples of such risk are where a Digital Asset transfer counterparty:
(i) operates or is incorporated in a jurisdiction posing a higher risk or with a weak anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism regime;
(ii) is not (or yet to be) licensed or registered and supervised for anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism purposes in the jurisdiction in which it operates or is incorporated by the relevant authorities;
(iii) does not have in place adequate and effective anti-money laundering and countering financing terrorism systems, including measures for ensuring compliance with the Travel Rule;
(iv) does not implement adequate measures or safeguards for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of personal data; or
(v) is associated with money laundering and terrorist financing or other illicit activities.
Note: Chapter 11-2. comes into operation 12 months after the commencement date of the AIFC Rules on Digital Asset Activities.
12. SANCTIONS
12.1. Relevant United Nations resolutions and sanctions
12.1.1. Sanctions systems and controls
A Relevant Person must establish and maintain effective systems and controls to ensure that on an on-going basis it is properly informed as to, and takes reasonable measures to comply with, relevant resolutions or sanctions issued by the UNSC or by the Republic of Kazakhstan.
A Relevant Person must comply with prohibitions from conducting transactions with designated persons and entities, in accordance with the obligations set out in the relevant resolutions or sanctions issued by the UNSC or by the Republic of Kazakhstan.
A Relevant Person must freeze without delay and without prior notice, the funds or other assets of designated persons and entities pursuant to relevant resolutions or sanctions issued by the UNSC or by the Republic of Kazakhstan.
12.1.2. Notification obligation
A Relevant Person must report to the FIU any assets frozen or actions taken in compliance with the prohibition requirements of the relevant resolutions or sanctions issued by the UNSC or by the Republic of Kazakhstan, including attempted transactions. A Relevant Person must immediately notify the AFSA when it becomes aware that it is:
- (a) carrying on or about to carry on an activity;
- (b) holding or about to hold money or other assets; or
- (c) undertaking or about to undertake any other business whether or not arising from or in connection with (a) or (b), for or on behalf of a person, where such carrying on, holding or undertaking constitutes or may constitute a contravention of a relevant sanction or resolution issued by the UNSC or by the Republic of Kazakhstan.
12.1.3. Notification requirements
A Relevant Person must ensure that the notification stipulated in AML 12.1.2 above includes the following information:
- (a) a description of the relevant activity in AML 12.1.2; and
- (b) the action proposed to be taken or that has been taken by the Relevant Person regarding the matters specified in the notification.
- Guidance on sanctions
- (a) In AML 12.1.1 taking reasonable measures to comply with a resolution or sanction may mean that a Relevant Person cannot undertake a transaction for or on behalf of a person or that it may need to conduct further due diligence in respect of a person.
- (b) Relevant resolutions or sanctions mentioned in AML 12.1.1 may, among other things, relate to money laundering or otherwise be relevant to the activities carried on by the Relevant Person.
- (c) A Relevant Person should exercise due care to ensure that it does not provide services to, or otherwise conduct business with, a person engaged in money laundering.
- (d) When making a notification to the AFSA in accordance with AML 12.1.2, a Relevant Person should have regard to the requirements of the AML Law in relation to freezing assets and blocking transactions and must also consider whether it is necessary to file a STR.
- (e) An Authorised Market Institution should exercise due care to ensure that it does not facilitate fund raising activities or listings by persons engaged in money laundering.
- (f) Relevant Persons must perform checks on an on-going basis against their customer databases and records for any names appearing in resolutions or sanctions issued by the UNSC as well as to monitor transactions accordingly.
- (g) A Relevant Person may use a database maintained elsewhere for an up-to-date list of resolutions and sanctions, or to perform checks of customers or transactions against that list. For example, it may wish to use a database maintained by its head office or a Group member. However, the Relevant Person retains responsibility for ensuring that its systems and controls are effective to ensure compliance with these Rules.
12.2. Government, Regulatory and International Findings
12.2.1. Compliance with Findings
A Relevant Person must establish and maintain systems and controls to ensure that on an ongoing basis it is properly informed as to, and takes reasonable measures to comply with, any findings, recommendations, guidance, directives, resolutions, sanctions, notices or other conclusions (each of which is referred to in this Rule as a "Finding") issued by:
- (a) the government of the Republic of Kazakhstan;
- (b) the National Bank of Kazakhstan;
- (c) Kazakhstan state agencies;
- (d) the AFSA; and
- (e) the FATF, concerning the matters in AML 12.2.2.
12.2.2. Relevant matters
For the purposes of AML 12.2.1, the relevant matters are:
- (a) arrangements for preventing money laundering, in a particular country or jurisdiction, including any assessment of material deficiency against relevant countries in adopting international standards; and
- (b) the names of persons, groups, organisations or entities or any other body where suspicion of money laundering exists.
12.2.3. Notification obligations
A Relevant Person must immediately notify the AFSA in writing if it becomes aware of noncompliance by a person with a Finding and provide the AFSA with sufficient details of the person concerned and the nature of the non-compliance.
12.2.4. Additional measures
A Relevant Person should be able to independently apply countermeasures that are effective, appropriate and proportionate (including EDD measures) to AML and CFT risks, whether or not called upon to do so for the purposes of AML 12.2.1, including by the FATF.
Guidance on Government, Regulatory and International Findings
- (a)The purpose of these Rules is to ensure that a Relevant Person takes into consideration the broad range of tools used by competent authorities and international organisations to communicate AML and CFT risks to stakeholders.
- (b)A Relevant Person should examine and pay special attention to any transactions or business relationship with persons located in countries or jurisdictions mentioned by the entities in AML 12.2.1(a) to (e).
- (c)Relevant Persons considering transactions or business relationships with persons located in countries or jurisdictions that have been identified as deficient, or against which the Republic of Kazakhstan or the AFSA have outstanding advisories, should be aware of the background against which the assessments, or the specific recommendations have been made. These circumstances should be taken into account in respect of introduced business from such jurisdictions, and when receiving inward payments for existing customers or in respect of inter-bank transactions.
- (d)The Relevant Person’s MLRO is not obliged to report all transactions from these countries or jurisdictions to the Kazakhstan state agencies if they do not qualify as suspicious. See Chapter 13 on STRs.
- (e)Transactions with counterparties located in countries or jurisdictions which have been but are no longer identified as deficient or have been relieved from special scrutiny may nevertheless require attention which is higher than normal.
- (f)In order to assist Relevant Persons, the AFSA will, from time to time, publish findings, guidance, directives, or sanctions made by FATF, the UNSC, or the government of the Republic of Kazakhstan. However, a Relevant Person must take its own steps to acquire relevant information from various available sources. For example, a Relevant Person may obtain relevant information from the FIU, European Union, the United Kingdom (HM Treasury) lists, and the United States of America (Office of Foreign Assets Control of the Department of Treasury).
- (g)In addition, the systems and controls set out in AML 12.1.1 should be established and maintained by a Relevant Person, taking into account the risk assessments under Chapters 5 and 6. In AML 12.1.1, taking reasonable measures to comply with a finding may mean that a Relevant Person cannot undertake a transaction for or on behalf of a person or that it may need to conduct further due diligence in respect of such a person.
- (h)A Relevant Person should be proactive in obtaining and appropriately using available national and international information, for example, suspect lists or databases from credible public or private sources regarding money laundering, including obtaining relevant information from sources mentioned in (f) above. Relevant Persons should perform checks against their customer databases and records for any names appearing on such lists and databases as well as to monitor transactions accordingly. As set out in the Guidance, a Relevant Person may use a database maintained elsewhere for an up-to date list of sanctions or to conduct checks of customers or transactions against the list.
- However, it retains responsibility for ensuring the effectiveness of its systems and controls
- (i)The risk of terrorists entering the financial system can be reduced if Relevant Persons apply effective AML strategies, particularly in respect of CDD. Relevant Persons should assess which countries carry the highest risks and should conduct an analysis of transactions from countries or jurisdictions known to be a source of terrorist financing.
- (j)The AFSA may require Relevant Persons to take any special measures it may prescribe with respect to certain types of transactions or accounts where the AFSA reasonably believes that any of the above may pose a risk of money laundering.
13. MONEY LAUNDERING REPORTING OFFICER, SUSPICIOUS TRANSACTIONS AND TIPPING OFF
13.1. Money Laundering Reporting Officer
13.1.1. Who can act as Money Laundering Reporting Officer
The MLRO function must be carried out by an individual who is a Director, Partner, Principal Representative, or Senior Manager of an Authorised Person and who has responsibility for the implementation and oversight of an Authorised Person's AML policies, procedures, systems and controls.
13.1.2. Appointment of Money Laundering Reporting Officer
A Relevant Person must appoint an individual as MLRO, with responsibility for implementationand oversight of its compliance with the AML Rules, who has an appropriate level of seniority and independence to act in the role.
An Authorised Firm, other than a Representative Office, must appoint an individual to act as a deputy MLRO of the Authorised Firm to fulfil the role of the MLRO in his or her absence.
13.1.3. Residency Requirement
The MLRO must be resident in the Republic of Kazakhstan except in the case of the MLRO for a Registered Auditor.
Guidance on appointment of Money Laundering Reporting Officer
- (a) Under GEN 2.1.2, the MLRO function is a mandatory appointment.
- (b) A Relevant Person other than an Authorised Firm should make adequate arrangements to ensure that it remains in compliance with these Rules in the event that its MLRO is absent. Adequate arrangements would include appointing a temporary MLRO for the period of the MLRO's absence or making sure that the Relevant Person’s AML systems and controls allow it to continue to comply with these Rules when the MLRO is absent.
13.2. [Intentionally omitted]
13.2.1. [Intentionally omitted]
[Intentionally omitted]
13.3. Dealing with the Regulator
13.3.1. Obligation of co-operation
A Relevant Person’s MLRO must deal with the AFSA in an open, responsive, and co-operative manner and must disclose appropriately any information of which the AFSA would reasonably be expected to be notified.
13.4. Outsourcing the role of Money Laundering Reporting Officer
13.4.1. Outsourcing permitted
A Relevant Person may outsource the role of MLRO to an individual outside the Relevant Person if the relevant individual under the outsourcing agreement is and remains suitable to perform the MLRO role.
13.4.2. Responsibility for compliance
Where a Relevant Person outsources specific AML tasks of its MLRO to another individual or a third-party provider, including within a corporate Group, the Relevant Person remains responsible for ensuring compliance with the responsibilities of the MLRO. The Relevant Person should satisfy itself of the suitability of anyone who acts for it.
13.5. Qualities of Money Laundering Reporting Officer
13.5.1. Organisational standing
A Relevant Person must ensure that its MLRO has:
- (a) direct access to its senior management;
- (b) a level of seniority and independence within the Relevant Person to enable him to act on his own authority and to act independently in carrying out his responsibility;
- (c) sufficient resources, including appropriate staff and technology; and
- (d) timely and unrestricted access to information sufficient to enable him to carry out his responsibilities in AML 13.6.1.
Guidance on qualities of Money Laundering Reporting Officer
A Relevant Person will need to consider AML 13.5.1. when appointing an outsourced MLRO. Any external MLRO that is appointed will need to have the actual or effective level of seniority that the role requires.
13.6. Responsibilities of Money Laundering Reporting Officer
13.6.1. Oversight responsibility
A Relevant Person must ensure that its MLRO implements and has oversight of, and is responsible for, the following matters:
- (a) the day-to-day operations for compliance by the Relevant Person with its AML policies, procedures, systems and controls;
- (b) acting as the point of contact to receive notifications from the Relevant Person’s employees under AML 13.7.3;
- (c) taking appropriate action under AML 13.8.1 following the receipt of a notification from an employee;
- (d) making STRs in accordance with applicable Kazakhstan law;
- (e) acting as the point of contact within the Relevant Person for the AFSA, and any other competent authority regarding money laundering issues;
- (f) responding promptly to any request for information made by the AFSA, and any other competent authority;
- (g) receiving and acting upon any relevant findings, recommendations, guidance, directives, resolutions, sanctions, notices or other conclusions described in Chapter 12; and
- (h) establishing and maintaining an appropriate money laundering training programme and adequate awareness arrangements under Chapter 14.
13.7. Reporting
A Relevant Person must complete the AFSA's AML Return form on an annual basis and submit such form to the AFSA within two months after the end of each year.
13.7.1. Defined terms
In this Chapter, a reference to a criminal offence for "money laundering" is as set out in the Kazakhstan criminal law.
13.7.2. Threshold Transactions Controls
A Relevant Person must establish and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls to monitor and detect transactions above defined thresholds and submit threshold transactions reports (“TTRs”) to the FIU in accordance with the AML Law.
13.7.3. Suspicious Activity and Transactions Controls
A Relevant Person must establish and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls to monitor and detect suspicious activity or transactions in relation to potential money laundering.
A Relevant Person must register in the FIU reporting system for submitting TTRs before the commencement of its business activities.
13.7.4. Immunity from liability for disclosure of information relating to money laundering transactions
- (a) The disclosure by a Relevant Person to the competent authorities of information relating to money laundering is not a contravention of any obligation of secrecy or non- disclosure or (where applicable) of any enactment by which that obligation is imposed.
- (b) The sharing by the Authorised Persons where this is required by Chapters 9, 10 and 11 of information relating to money laundering is not a contravention of any obligation of financial institution secrecy laws or non-disclosure or (where applicable) of any enactment by which that obligation is imposed.
13.7.5. Employee reporting to Money Laundering Reporting Officer
A Relevant Person must have policies, procedures, systems and controls to ensure that whenever any employee, acting in the ordinary course of his employment, either:
- (a) knows;
- (b) suspects; or
- (c) has reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting, that a person is engaged in or attempting money laundering or terrorist financing, that employee promptly notifies the Relevant Person’s MLRO and provides the MLRO with all relevant information within the employee's knowledge.
Guidance on Suspicious Transaction Reports
- (a) Circumstances that might give rise to suspicion or reasonable grounds for suspicion include:
- (i) Transactions which have no apparent purpose, which make no obvious economic sense, or which are designed or structured to avoid detection;
- (ii) Transactions requested by a person without reasonable explanation, which are out of the ordinary range of services normally requested or are outside the experience of a Relevant Person in relation to a particular customer;
- (iii) where the size or pattern of transactions, without reasonable explanation, is out of line with any pattern that has previously emerged or are deliberately structured to avoid detection;
- (iv) where a customer refuses to provide the information requested without reasonable explanation;
- (v) where a customer who has newly entered into a business relationship uses the relationship for a single transaction or for only a very short period of time;
- (vi) an extensive use of offshore accounts, companies or structures in circumstances where the customer's economic needs do not support such requirements;
- (vii) unnecessary routing of funds through third party accounts;
- (viii) the proffering of documents that appear fraudulent, unofficial, or are otherwise suspicious; or
- (ix) unusual transactions without an apparently profitable motive.
- (b) The requirement for employees to notify the Relevant Person’s MLRO should include situations when no business relationship was developed because the circumstances were suspicious.
- (c) A Relevant Person may allow its employees to consult with their line managers before sending a report to the MLRO. Such consultation does not prevent the making of a report whenever an employee has stated that he has knowledge, suspicion or reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting that a person may be involved in money laundering. Whether or not an employee consults with his line manager or other employees, the responsibility remains with the employee to decide for himself/herself whether a notification to the MLRO should be made.
- (d) An employee, including the MLRO, who considers that a person is engaged in or engaging in activity that he knows or suspects to be suspicious would not be expected to know the exact nature of the criminal offence or that the particular funds were definitely those arising from the crime of money laundering.
- (e) CDD measures form the basis for recognising suspicious activity. Sufficient guidance must therefore be given to the Relevant Person’s employees to enable them to form a suspicion or to recognise when they have reasonable grounds to suspect that money laundering is taking place. This should involve training that will enable relevant employees to seek and assess the information that is required for them to judge whether a person is involved in suspicious activity related to money laundering.
- (f) A transaction that appears unusual is not necessarily suspicious. Even customers with a stable and predictable transaction profile may have occasional transactions that are unusual for them. Many customers will, for perfectly good reasons, have an erratic pattern of transactions or account activity. Unusual behaviour is, in the first instance, only a basis for further inquiry, which may in turn require judgement as to whether it is suspicious. A transaction or activity may not be suspicious at the time, but if suspicions are raised later, an obligation to report then arises.
- (g) Effective CDD measures may provide the basis for recognising unusual and suspicious activity. Where there is a customer relationship, suspicious activity will often be one that is inconsistent with a customer's known legitimate activity, or with the normal business activities for that type of account or customer. Therefore, the key to recognising 'suspicious activity' is knowing enough about the customer and the customer's normal expected activities to recognise when their activity is abnormal.
- (h) A Relevant Person should implement policies and procedures whereby disciplinary action (including, but not limited to, a requirement of further training) is taken against an employee who fails to notify the Relevant Person’s MLRO.
13.8. Responsibilities of Money Laundering Reporting Officer on receipt of a Suspicious Transaction Report
13.8.1. Activity upon notification
A Relevant Person must ensure that where the Relevant Person's MLRO receives a notification under AML 13.7.3,the MLRO, without delay:
(a) enquires into and documents the circumstances in relation to which the notification made under AML 13.7.3 was made;
(b) determines whether in accordance with the AML Law a STR must be made to the FIU and documents such determination; and
(c) if required, submits a STR to the FIU and promptly notifies the AFSA of such a submission.
13.8.2. Recording reasons for not making a Suspicious Transaction Report
Where, following a notification to the MLRO under AML 13.7.3, no STR is made, a Relevant Person must record the reasons for not making a STR.
13.8.3. Independence of Money Laundering Reporting Officer decision
(a) A Relevan tPerson must ensure that whether the MLRO decides to make or not to make a STR, his/her decision is made independently and is not subject to the consent or approval of any other person.
(b) Where a Relevant Person’s MLRO has a suspicion of money laundering, and reasonably believes that performing the CDD process will tip-off the customer, he/she must not pursue the CDD process, and must submit a STR to the FIU.
Guidance on making Suspicious Transaction Reports
- (a) In most cases, before deciding to make a report, the MLRO is likely to need access to the relevant business information. A Relevant Person must therefore take reasonable steps to give its MLRO access to such information. Relevant business information may include details of:
- (i) the financial circumstances of a customer or beneficial owner, or any person on whose behalf the customer has been or is acting;
- (ii) the features of the transactions, including, where appropriate, the jurisdiction in which the transaction took place; and
- (iii) the underlying CDD information, and copies of the actual source documentation in respect of the customer.
- (b) In addition, the MLRO may wish:
- (i) to consider the level of identity information held on the customer, and any information on his personal circumstances that might be available to the firm; and
- (ii) to review other transaction patterns and volumes through the account or accounts in the same name, the length of the business relationship and identification records held.
- (c) Relevant Persons are reminded that the failure to report suspicions of money laundering may constitute a criminal offence.
- (c-a) The AFSA may provide guidance and recommendations as it considers appropriate in assisting Relevant Persons in the detection and reporting of suspicious transactions to the FIU, in support of the FIU’s objectives under the AML Law.
- (d) STRs should be sent to the FIU in accordance with these Rules and AML Law. In the preparation of a STR, if a Relevant Person knows or assumes that the funds which form the subject of the report do not belong to a customer but to a third party, this fact and the details of the Relevant Person’s proposed course of further action in relation to the case should be included in the report.
- (e) If a Relevant Person has reported a suspicion to the FIU, the FIU may instruct the Relevant Person on how to continue its business relationship, including effecting any transaction with a person. If the customer in question expresses his wish to move the funds before the Relevant Person receives instruction from the FIU on how to proceed, the Relevant Person should immediately contact the FIU for further instructions.
Guidance on tipping-off
- (a) Relevant Persons are reminded that in accordance with the AML Law, Relevant Persons or any of their employees must not tip-off any person, that is, inform any person that he/she is being scrutinised for possible involvement in suspicious activity related to money laundering, or that any other competent authority is investigating his/her possible involvement in suspicious activity relating to money laundering. In addition, the Relevant Persons must not disclose information contained in a STR or the fact that a STR may be or has been filed with the FIU or a suspicious transaction is being investigated.
- (b) If a Relevant Person reasonably believes that conducting CDD measures will tip-off a customer or potential customer, it may choose not to pursue that process and should file a STR. Relevant Persons should ensure that their employees are aware of and sensitive to these issues when considering CDD measures.
14. GENERAL OBLIGATIONS
14.1. Training and Awareness
14.1.1. Training and Other Obligations
A Relevant Person must implement screening procedures to ensure high standards when hiring employees.
A Relevant Person must take appropriate measures to ensure that its employees:
- (a) are made aware of the law relating to money laundering;
- (b) are regularly given training in how to recognise and deal with transactions and other activities which may be related to money laundering;
- (c) understand its policies, procedures, systems and controls related to money laundering and any changes to these;
- (d) understand the types of activity that may constitute suspicious activity in the context of the business in which an employee is engaged and that may warrant a notification to the MLRO under AML 13.7.3;
- (e) understand its arrangements regarding the making of a notification to the MLRO under AML 13.7.3;
- (f) are aware of the prevailing techniques, methods and trends in money laundering relevant to the business of the Relevant Person;
- (g) understand the risk of tipping-off and how to avoid informing a customer or potential customer that it is or may be the subject of a STR;
- (h) understand the roles and responsibilities of employees in combating money laundering, including the identity and responsibility of the Relevant Person’s MLRO and deputy, where applicable; and
- (i) understand the relevant findings, recommendations, guidance, directives, resolutions, sanctions, notices or other conclusions described in Chapter 13.
14.1.2. Appropriate measures
In determining what measures are appropriate under AML 14.1.1 Relevant Person must take account of:
- (a) the nature of its business;
- (b) its size; and
- (c) the nature and extent of the risks of money laundering to which its business is subject. The AFSA may impose additional training requirements in respect of all, or certain, relevant employees of a Relevant Person.
Guidance on training and awareness
- (a) All relevant employees of a Relevant Person be given appropriate AML training as soon as reasonably practicable after commencing employment with the Relevant Person. A relevant employee means a member of the senior management or operational staff, any employee with customer contact, or any employee who handles (or may handle) customer monies or assets, and any other employee who might encounter money laundering in the business.
- (b) Relevant Persons should take a RBA to AML training. AML training should be provided by a Relevant Person to each of its relevant employees at intervals appropriate to the role and responsibilities of the employee. In the case of an Authorised Firm, training should be provided to each relevant employee at least annually.
- (c) AML training provided by a Relevant Person need not be in a formal classroom setting, rather it may be via an online course or any other similarly formal and documented manner.
14.2. Groups, branches and subsidiaries
14.2.1. Application of policies to Group entities
A Relevant Personwhich is a Centre Participant (excluding recognised or registered entities that are branches) must ensure that its policies, procedures, systems and controls required by AML 4.1.1 apply to:
- (a) all of its branches or Subsidiaries established in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC; and
- (b) all of its Group entities that are Centre Participants.
14.2.2. Equality of other jurisdictions
The requirement in AML 14.2.1 does not apply if the Relevant Person can satisfy the AFSA that the relevant branch, Subsidiary or Group entity is subject to regulation, including AML, by a Financial Services Regulator or other competent authority in a country with AML regulations which are equivalent to the standards set out in the FATF Recommendations and is supervised for compliance with such regulations. Where the law of another jurisdiction does not permit the implementation of policies, procedures, systems and controls consistent with those of the Relevant Person, the Relevant Person must:
- (a) inform the AFSA in writing; and
- (b) apply appropriate additional measures to manage the money laundering risks posed by the relevant branch or Subsidiary.
14.2.3. Communication and documentation
In relation to the Group entities referred to in AML 14.2.1, a Relevant Person must:
- (a) communicate the policies and procedures (and RBA where relevant) which it establishes and maintains in accordance with these Rules to its Group entities, branches and Subsidiaries; and
- (b) document the basis for its satisfaction that the requirement in AML 14.1.1(b) is met.
14.2.4. Enforcement
In relation to an Authorised Firm, if the AFSA is not satisfied in respect of AML compliance of its branches and Subsidiaries in a particular jurisdiction, it may take action, including making it a condition on the Authorised Firm’s Licence that it must not operate a branch or Subsidiary in that jurisdiction.
14.3. Group policies
14.3.1. Group policy compliance
A Relevant Person which is part of a Group must ensure that it:
- (a) includes the provisions in policies and procedures of the Group concerning information sharing between Group entities on the Group’s compliance, audit and AML functions. The information that is being shared should include CDD information that had been reviewed for money laundering risk mitigation purposes and analysis (if any) of transactions or activities which appear unusual;
- (a-a) understands the policies and procedures covering the sharing of information between Group entities, particularly when sharing CDD information;
- (b) has in place adequate safeguards on the prevention of tipping-off and the confidentiality and use of information exchanged between Group entities;
- (c) remains aware of the money laundering risks of the Group as a whole and of its exposure to the Group and takes active steps to mitigate such risks;
- (d) contributes to a Group-wide risk assessment to identify and assess money laundering risks for the Group;
- (e) provides its Group-wide compliance, audit and AML functions with customer account and transaction information from branches and subsidiaries for AML purposes; and
- (f) ensures that its branches and majority-owned subsidiaries in host countries implement the requirements of the AIFC, to the extent that host country laws and regulations permit. If the host country does not permit the proper implementation of the measures above, financial groups should apply appropriate additional measures to manage the money laundering risks, and inform the AFSA of such measures.
14.4. Notifications
14.4.1. Notification obligation
A Relevant Person must inform the AFSA in writing as soon as possible if, in relation to its activities carried on as part of the AIFC or in relation to any of its branches or Subsidiaries, it:
- (a) receives a request for information from a regulator or agency responsible for AML, CFT, or sanctions compliance in connection with potential money laundering or sanctions contravention;
- (b) becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that a money laundering event has occurred or may have occurred in or through its business;
- (c) becomes aware of any money laundering or sanctions matter in relation to the Relevant Person or a member of its Group which could result in adverse reputational consequences to the Relevant Person; or
- (d) becomes aware of a significant contravention of these Rules or a contravention of the relevant Kazakhstan legislation by the Relevant Person or any of its employees.
14.5. Record keeping
14.5.1. Obligation to keep records
A Relevant Person must maintain the following records:
- (a) a copy of all documents and information obtained in conducting initial and on-going CDD;
- (b) the supporting records (consisting of the original documents or certified copies) in respect of the customer business relationship, including transactions;
- (c) notifications made under AML 13.7.3;
- (d) STRs and any relevant supporting documents and information, including internal findings and analysis;
- (e) any relevant communications with the FIU; and
- (f) the documents in AML 14.5.2,
- for at least six years from the date on which the notification or report was made, the business relationship ends or the transaction is completed, whichever occurs last.
14.5.2. Documentation obligation
A Relevant Person must document, and provide to the AFSA on request, any of the following:
- (a) the risk assessments of its business undertaken under AML 4.1.1;
- (b) how the assessments in (a) were used for the purposes of complying with AML 5.1.1</a>(a);
- (c) the risk assessments of the customer undertaken under AML 5.1.1; and
- (d) the determinations made under AML 5.1.1.
14.5.3. Location of Records
Where the records referred to in AML 14.5.1 are kept by the Relevant Person in the care of an entity that is not a Centre Participant, a Relevant Person must:
- (a) take reasonable steps to ensure that the records are held in a manner consistent with these Rules;
- (b) ensure that the records are easily accessible to the Relevant Person; and
- (c) upon request by the AFSA, ensure that the records are available for inspection within a reasonable period.
14.5.4. Data protection legislation
A Relevant Person must:
- (a) verify if there is secrecy or data protection legislation that would restrict access withoutdelay to the records referred to in AML 14.5.1 by the Relevant Person, the AFSA, or applicable Kazakhstan law; and
- (b) where such legislation exists, obtain without delay certified copies of the relevant records and keep such copies in a jurisdiction which allows access by those persons identified in (a).
14.5.5.Training records
A Relevant Person must be able to demonstrate that it has complied with the training and awareness requirements in Chapter 14 through appropriate measures, including the maintenance of relevant training records.
Guidance on record keeping
- (a)The records required to be kept under AML 14.5 may be kept in electronic format, if such records are readily accessible and available to respond promptly to any AFSA requests for information. Authorised Persons are reminded of their obligations in GEN 5.9.
- (b)If the date on which the business relationship with a customer has ended remains unclear, it may be taken to have ended on the date of the completion of the last transaction.
- (c)The records maintained by a Relevant Person should be kept in such a manner that:
- (i)the AFSA, or another competent authority are able to assess the Relevant Person’s compliance with legislation applicable in the AIFC;
- (ii)any transaction which was processed by or through the Relevant Person on behalf of a customer or other third party can be reconstructed;
- (iii)any customer or third party can be identified; and
- (iv)the Relevant Personcan satisfy any regulatory enquiry or court order to disclose information within the time indicated in such enquiry or court order.
- (d)In complying with AML 14.5.3, Authorised Persons are reminded of their obligations in GEN 5.9.
- (e)"Appropriate measures" in AML 14.5.5 may include the maintenance of a training log setting out details of:
- (i)the dates when the training was given;
- (ii)the nature of the training; and
- (iii)the names of employees who received the training.
14.6. Audit
14.6.1. Audit obligation
An Authorised Person must ensure that its audit function, established under GEN 5.5.1 includes regular reviews and assessments of the effectiveness of the Authorised Person's AML policies, procedures, systems and controls, and its compliance with its obligations in these Rules. Guidance on audit
- (a) The review and assessment undertaken for the purposes of AML 14.6.1 may be undertaken:
- (i) internally by the Authorised Person's internal audit function; or
- (ii) by a competent firm of independent auditors or compliance professionals.
- (b) The review and assessment undertaken for the purposes of AML 14.6.1 should cover at least the following:
- (i) sample testing of compliance with the Authorised Person's CDD arrangements;
- (ii) an analysis of all notifications made to the MLRO to highlight any area where procedures or training may need to be enhanced; and
- (iii) a review of the nature and frequency of the dialogue between the senior management and the MLRO.
14.7. Communication with the Regulator
14.7.1. Communication obligation
A Relevant Person must:
- (a) be open and cooperative in all its dealings with the Regulator; and
- (b) ensure that any communication with the Regulator is conducted in the English language.
14.8. Employee Disclosures
14.8.1. Protection
A Relevant Person must ensure that it does not prejudice a person who discloses any information on behalf of the Relevant Person regarding money laundering to the AFSA or to any other relevant body involved in the prevention of money laundering.
A Relevant Person and a person, who submits a STR on behalf of the Relevant Person, are not subject to any civil liability or criminal prosecution under the Kazakhstan law resulting from the submission of the STR, even if they did not know precisely what the criminal activity was, and regardless of whether illegal activity actually occurred.
Guidance on Protection for Disclosures
A "relevant body" in AML 14.8.1 would include the FIU.
Figure 1 – The Risk Based Approach
Conducting a Business Risk Assessment Consider risk factors relating to: | ||||||
Customers | Countries and geographic areas of operations | Products or services | Transactions | Delivery mechanisms, channels and partners | Development of new products and new business practices | Use of new or developing technologies for both new and preexisting products and services |
Develop and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls | ||
Proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the business | Approved by senior management | Monitored, reviewed and updated at appropriate intervals |
The Business Risk Assessment informs: | ||
Customer Risk Assessment (Chapter 5) | Customer Due Diligence (Chapter 6) | Training (Chapter 14) |
Figure 2 – Customer Risk Assessment
Conducting a Customer Risk Assessment Consider the following risk factors | ||||
The nature of the customer, its ownership and control structure, and its beneficial ownership | The nature of the business relationship | The customer's origin, residence, nationality, place of incorporation or place of business | The nature of the relevant product, service or transaction | The outcomes of the Business Risk Assessment |
Risk factors indicating that customer may pose a higher risk of money laundering | |||||
The business relationship is conducted in unusual circumstances | The customer is resident in a geographical area considered to be an area of high risk | The customer is a legal person or arrangement that is a vehicle for holding personal assets | The customer is a company that has nominee shareholders or shares in bearer form | The customer is a business that is cash intensive | The corporate structure of the customer is unusual or excessively complex given the nature of the company's business |
Allocation of an appropriate rating to the customer of low, medium or high risk | ||
The Customer Risk Assessment informs the nature and extent of the Customer Due Diligence measures (Chapter 6) |
COLLECTIVE INVESTMENT SCHEME RULES
Collective Investment Scheme
Guidance: Purpose of this rulebook
The purpose of this rulebook, the “Collective Investment Scheme Rules”, is to complement the egulatory framework established by the Financial Services Framework Regulations (“the Framework Regulations”) as follows
● To provide that certain arrangements do not amount to Collective Investment Schemes for the purposes of the Framework Regulations.
● To require the registration of certain Collective Investment Schemes with the AFSA before those Collective Investment Schemes can be established or promoted.
● To make provisions regarding:
o the constitution, management and operation; and
o the investment and borrowing powers; and
o the procedure for registration; and
o the operating duties and responsibilities of Fund Managers; and
o the registration of offering materials and particulars and reporting requirements; and suspension of dealings in and termination of Collective Investment Schemes
Guidance: Listed Funds
Funds Managers of Listed Funds should note that, the AIFC Market Rules (MAR) contains additional rules that apply to Listed Funds. In addition, the Business Rules apply to Listed Funds; such rules include requirements in relation to the constitution, offering materials, governance, disclosure and other applicable provisions of Listed Funds. The Business Rules do not apply to Overseas Listed Funds.
Fund Managers of Listed Funds Units of which are represented as Security Tokens should note that the Rules made by the AFSA in respect of Security Tokens contain additional rules that may apply to such Listed Funds.
1. INTRODUCTION
1.1. Application of these Rules
These Rules apply to:
- (a) a Domestic Fund Manager which manages:
- (i) a Domestic Fund; or
(ii) a Foreign Fund; or
- (b) a Foreign Fund Manager which manages a Domestic Fund; and
- (c) a Centre Participant which markets a Collective Investment Scheme in or from the AIFC.
[deleted]
[deleted]
1.3. Waivers
A Person may apply to the AFSA to waive any specific requirement of these Rules in respect of a Fund Manager or a Fund.
1.4. Interrelationship with the laws of Kazakhstan
The general laws of Kazakhstan will not apply to the management or marketing of a Fund in the AIFC in accordance with these Rules. However, the general laws of Kazakhstan will apply to the management or marketing of a Fund in Kazakhstan outside the AIFC notwithstanding compliance with these Rules in the AIFC.
1.5. Foreign Fund Managers
A Foreign Fund Manager is permitted to manage a Domestic Fund in accordance with these Rules, and if the Units of such Fund are Offered in the AIFC, then it must be an Exempt Fund as defined in Rule 2.2(a).
Guidance
A Foreign Fund Manager is not permitted to manage a Non-Exempt Fund where it offers the Units of a Fund in the AIFC. If a Foreign Fund Manager markets the Units of a Domestic Fund in jurisdictions other than the AIFC, the marketing of that Domestic Fund will be subject to the rules of the relevant non-AIFC jurisdiction.
2. CLASSIFICATION OF FUNDS AND APPLICATION OF THE RULES
2.1. Prohibition on establishment, promotion and marketing of Collective Investment Schemes
- (a) Any Collective Investment Scheme established, promoted or marketed in the AIFC must comply with these Rules.
- (b) A Collective Investment Scheme may only be established, promoted or marketed in the AIFC by a Person which is:
- (i) a Domestic Fund Manager;
- (ii) a Foreign Fund Manager; or
- (iii) another Centre Participant.
2.2. Exempt Funds and Non-Exempt Funds
- (a) An Exempt Fund is a Collective Investment Scheme the Units of which are Offered in the AIFC only by way of a private placement:
- (i) to Persons who are Professional Clients; and
- (ii) in minimum subscription amounts of US$ 50,000.
- (b) A Non-Exempt Fund is any Collective Investment Scheme:
- (i) the Units of which are Offered in the AIFC; and
- (ii) which is not an Exempt Fund.
[deleted]
[deleted]
2.4. Specialist Funds
(a) A Fund (whether a Non-Exempt Fund or an Exempt Fund) may be a Specialist Fund.
(b) The following types of Funds are Specialist Funds:
- (i) an Islamic Investment Fund, which is a Fund whose entire operations are conducted, or held out as being conducted, in a Shari’ah compliant manner;
- (ii) a Private Equity Fund, which is an Exempt Fund that:
(A) is closed-ended (unless otherwise approved by the AFSA); and
(B) primarily invests in unlisted businesses, by means of shares, convertible debt or other equity-related investments;
- (iii) a Venture Capital Fund, which is an Exempt Fund and a Domestic Fund that:
(A) primarily invests in the equity share capital of unlisted businesses which are at an early stage of development;
(B) is closed-ended; and
(C) limits total subscriptions to an amount not to exceed US$100 million (or currency equivalent) or a higher amount approved by the AFSA.
- (iv) a Real Estate Investment Trust (or REIT), which is a Fund which:
(A) invests at least 80% of its assets in investments in income-generating Real Property, with the remainder invested in cash or other securities;
(B) derives at least 50% of its net income from the rental of Real Property; and
(C) distributes to the Unitholders [each year] at least 80% of its audited annual net income; and
- (v) any other Fund which complies with any specific rules or guidelines that may be published by the AFSA from time to time regarding the requirements for specific types of Specialist Funds. Guidance IFR contains the additional requirements that apply to a Domestic Fund by virtue of it being an Islamic Investment Fund.
(c) A Fund which does not comply with any requirements applicable to specific types of Specialist Funds may not describe itself as a Specialist Fund.
Guidance
IFR contains the additional requirements that apply to a Domestic Fund by virtue of it being an Islamic Investment Fund. (c) A Fund which does not comply with any requirements applicable to specific types of Specialist Funds may not describe itself as a Specialist Fund.
2.4-1. Other Specialist Funds
The following types of Funds are considered as other Specialist Funds for purposes of CIS 2.4.(b)(v):
(a) Umbrella Fund, which is a Fund where:
- (i) may be formed as a Protected Cell Company (PCC) and must be an Open-ended Fund if formed as a PCC.
- (ii) contributions of Unitholders in the Fund and the profits or income out of which payments are to be made to the Unitholders are pooled separately in a number of Sub-Funds constituting separate parts of the Fund Property; and
- (iii) a Fund Manager of an Umbrella Fund must ensure that none of its Sub-Funds invests in another of its Sub-Funds.
Guidance:
1. An Umbrella Fund may be constituted as a Protected Cell Company and/or Investment Company; and
2. Unitholders of an Umbrella Fund are entitled to exchange rights they have in one Sub-Fund for rights in another Sub-Fund of the same Umbrella Fund; and
3. A Sub-Fund of an Umbrella Fund is not a feeder fund (a Fund dedicated to investing in the Units or Debentures of a single other fund – master fund) or any other form of a discrete Fund; and
4. A Protected Cell Company (PCC) is a form of Investment Company which needs to be registered as a PCC under the Companies Regulations. An Umbrella Fund using the PCC structure has the benefit of legal segregation of Fund Property forming part of each individual cell. Accordingly, Fund Property of one cell of a PCC is not available to pay any obligations arising in relation to another cell of that PCC.
2. It is not mandatory for an Umbrella Fund to be constituted as a PCC. Instead, such Funds may be formed as a conventional Investment Company or Limited Partnership. However, the legal segregation available to each cell of a PCC is not available to Sub-Funds of Umbrella Funds not formed as a PCC.
(b) A Fund of Funds, which is a Fund where:
- (i) A Fund Manager of a Fund of Funds may not invest in:
- (A) another Fund of Funds; and
- (B) a Feeder Fund; and
- (B) any Fund which is dedicated to investment in a number of Funds; and
- (D) any Fund which is dedicated to investment in a single Fund or in a single investment trusts; and
- (E) any Sub-Fund of an Umbrella Fund or Sub-Fund of any other Fund which is equivalent to a Fund within (A) to (E); and
- (ii) not more than 25% in value of the Fund Property is to consist of Units in any other Fund; and
- (iii) for the purposes of (i) and (ii), each Sub-Fund of an Umbrella Fund and of an equivalent Fund is to be treated as if it were a separate Fund.
Guidance: A Fund of Funds does not cease to be a Fund of Funds merely because it holds some investments in cash or transferable securities to meet its on-going obligations such as for redemption purposes.
(c) A Feeder Fund, which is a Fund where:
- (i) a Fund Manager of a Feeder Fund must ensure that the Fund Property of a Feeder Fund, except where otherwise provided in CIS, only consists of:
- (A) Units or Debentures of a single Master Fund; or
- (B) in the case of a Feeder Fund which is a Public Fund, Units or Debentures of an eligible Master Fund;
- (ii) a Master Fund is eligible for the purposes of (i)(B) only if:
- (A) the borrowing of the Master Fund does not exceed 200% of the net asset value of the Master Fund or the market value of the Units of the Master Fund at the mid-value share price; and
- (B) the Units in or Debentures of the Master Fund are regularly Offered for purchase and sale by at least three market makers who are recognised or registered as members of an Authorised Market Institution or an exchange regulated by a Financial Services Regulator; and
- (C) the Feeder Fund owns not more than 20% of the Units (or of any class of Units in or of the Debentures or of any class of Debentures) of the Master Fund; and
- (D) the Master Fund has no limits on its duration;
- (iii) a Fund Manager of a Feeder Fund must also ensure that the Feeder Fund invests in a Master Fund only if:
- (A) the Fund Manager of the Master Fund is regulated by a Financial Services Regulator; and
- (B) the Master Fund is itself registered or authorised by a Financial Services Regulator and is itself subject to independent oversight; and
- (C) the investment objectives of the Master Fund have been disclosed in detail in the Prospectus of the Feeder Fund;
- (D) it has made available to prospective Unitholders in the Feeder Fund copies of the Prospectus and the last audited annual reports and accounts of the Master Fund; and
- (E) the Fund Manager of the Master Fund has waived any initial charges which it is otherwise entitled to make in relation to the acquisition of Units in its Fund;
- (iv) Where the Feeder Fund invests in a Master Fund managed by the same Fund Manager or by an associated or related company, the Fund Manager of the Feeder Fund must ensure that the Master Fund in which the investment is being made does not charge subscription or redemption fees on account of the investment; and commission or rebates received by the Fund Manager of the Feeder Fund, by virtue of the investment into the Master Fund, must be paid into the property of the Feeder Fund;
- (v) a Fund Manager of a Feeder Fund must ensure that the Fund’s Prospectus discloses:
- (A) a prominent risk warning to alert prospective Unitholders to the fact that they will be subject to higher fees arising from the layered investment structure;
- (B) the fees arising at the level of:
- (1) the Feeder Fund itself; and
- (2) if applicable, the Master Fund of the Feeder Fund; and
- (3) if applicable, any underlying Funds into which the Master Fund invests, to the extent known.
Guidance:
1. A Domestic Feeder Fund may have as its Master Fund a Foreign Fund.
2. A Sub-Fund of an Umbrella Fund is not a Feeder Fund.
(d) A Master Fund, which is a Fund which issues its Units or Debentures only to other Funds which are dedicated to investing in that Master Fund.
Guidance: A Domestic Master Fund may have Foreign Funds as its Feeder Funds.
(e) An ESG Fund, which is a Fund where:
(i) its main investment focus incorporates ESG factors; and
(ii) at least 70 % of net asset value of the Fund Property is invested in accordance with the investment strategy.
2.5. Secondary transactions and excluded Offers
A Person does not market a Collective Investment Scheme in the AIFC for the purposes of these Rules by Offering to sell or transfer a Unit that is owned by that Person if the Offer to sell or transfer is capable of acceptance only by the Person to whom that Offer is made.
Guidance
Rule 2.5 is intended to exclude personal sales or transfers of Units from being subject to the requirements in CIS relating to the marketing of Collective Investment Schemes. As a result, an offer to sell Units that is made by a Unitholder to a sole other Person will not be caught by the rules on requirements (for example, the seller is not required to be a Domestic Fund Manager, Foreign Fund Manager or Centre Participant in accordance with Rule 2.1 merely in order to sell the Units that it owns). However, depending on the nature of the transaction, the seller may be subject to the rules in financial promotion and may need to be licensed for another Regulated Activity, such as Dealing in Investments as Principal.
2.6. [deleted]
[deleted]
3. ARRANGEMENTS NOT AMOUNTING TO A COLLECTIVE INVESTMENT SCHEME
3.1. Application
This chapter sets out arrangements that do not amount to a Collective Investment Scheme in specified circumstances and specific categories of arrangements that do not constitute Collective Investment Schemes.
3.2. Exclusions
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if it falls within one or more of the circumstances or categories of arrangement specified in this chapter.
3.3. Schemes not operated by way of business
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if it is not operated by way of business. Guidance For the purposes of Rule 3.3, a person shall be treated as operating an arrangement by way of business if that person:
- (a) operates the arrangement in a manner which in itself constitutes the carrying on of a business;
- (b) holds himself out as willing and able to engage in the business of operating a Collective Investment Scheme; or
- (c) regularly solicits other persons to engage with him in transactions related to that activity.
3.4. Deposits
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the whole amount of each participant's contribution is a deposit which is accepted by a Person who is licensed to accept deposits.
3.5. Common accounts
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if:
- (a) the rights or interests of each participant in the arrangement are rights or interests in money held in a common account; and
- (b) the money is held in the account on the understanding that an amount representing the contribution of each participant is to be applied in making payments to him or in satisfaction of sums owed by him or in the acquisition of property for him or the provision of services to him.
Guidance
The exclusion in Rule 3.5 is intended to apply to an arrangement where each participant has a right or interest to an amount of money in a common account. For example, this will apply where a firm has a general client account that receives money from the firm's clients that are is used to pay for services or is set off against amounts owed by those clients.
3.6. Commercial activities unrelated to Regulated Activities
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if each of the participants in the arrangement:
- (a) carries on a business which does not involve the carrying on of any Regulated Activity or an activity which would be such an activity were it not for any applicable exclusion; and
- (b) enters into the arrangement for commercial purposes related to that business where that participant carries on that business by virtue of being a participant in the arrangement.
3.7. Group arrangements
- (a) Subject to (b), an arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if each of the participants is a Body Corporate in the same Group as the Person undertaking the Collective Investment Scheme management function in relation to the arrangement.
- (b) Prior to setting up the arrangement, the participants may elect to treat the arrangement as a Collective Investment Scheme by notifying the AFSA of their intention to do so.
3.8. Franchise arrangements
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the arrangement is a franchise arrangement.
3.9. Clearing services
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the purpose of the arrangement is the provision of clearing services and the services are operated by an Authorised Market Institution.
3.10. Certificates or Options
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the rights or interests of the participants in the arrangement are Certificates or Options.
3.11. Time‐share and other 'property‐enjoyment' related arrangements
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme:
- (a) if the rights or interests of each of the participants in the arrangement are time share rights; or
- (b) if:
- (i) the predominant purpose of the arrangement is to enable the participants to share in the use or enjoyment of property or to make its use or enjoyment available gratuitously to others; and
- (ii) the property to which the arrangement relates does not consist of or include Investments of the currency of any country or territory or which would be Investments if not for any applicable exclusion.
3.12. Bodies corporate not undertaking investment management
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the arrangement comprises a closed-ended Body Corporate, unless on reasonable grounds the purpose or effect of such an arrangement appears to be the investment management, in the exercise of discretion for a collective purpose, of investments, for the benefit of the shareholders or partners.
3.13. Debentures and Warrants of a single issuer
(a) An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the rights or interests of the participants in the arrangement are represented by a Debenture or Warrant:
(1) a Body Corporate, it is neither an open‐ended investment company nor a closed‐ended investment company the intent or purpose of which is investment management; or
(2) not a Body Corporate, the rights and interests of the Debenture or Warrant holder are guaranteed by the government of any country or territory; and
- (ii) which, if it is a convertible Security, the underlying Securities to which the Debenture or Warrant holder is entitled are Shares or Debentures issued, or to be issued, by the same issuer as the issuer of the Debenture or Warrant or single other issuer.
(b) An arrangement that is not a Collective Investment Scheme by virtue of Rule 3.13(a) does not become a Collective Investment Scheme merely because one of the participants in the arrangement is a person:
- (i) whose ordinary business involves him engaging in an activity that is a Regulated Activity or that would fall within an applicable exclusion from a Regulated Activity; and
- (ii) whose rights or interests in the arrangement are, or include, rights or interests in a swap arrangement under which he facilitates the making of payments to participants whether in a particular amount or currency or at a particular time or rate of interest or all or any combination of those things in settlement of the rights and interests of the other participants in the arrangement.
3.14. Insurance
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if it is a contract of insurance.
3.15. Profit Sharing Investment Accounts (PSIAs)
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if it is an account or portfolio which is either an Unrestricted or Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account offered by an Authorised Firm licensed by the AFSA to manage such PSIAs.
3.16. Discretionary Portfolio Accounts
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if it is a portfolio or account managed under a discretionary portfolio management agreement.
3.17. Single Family accounts
- (a) Subject to (b), an arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if every participant in the arrangement is a member of a Single Family.
- (b) Prior to setting up the arrangement, the participants may elect to treat the arrangement as a Collective Investment Scheme by notifying the AFSA of their intention to do so.
3.18. Sukuk
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the rights or interests of the participants are evidenced by sukuk certificates where the holders of the certificates are entitled to rely on the credit worthiness of:
- (a) the issuer of the sukuk certificates; or
- (b) any other Person who has assumed obligations under the sukuk certificates, for obtaining their rights and benefits arising under the certificates.
3.19. Employee reward schemes
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if the arrangement is for the purposes of enabling or facilitating the operation of an employee compensation or reward scheme where the arrangement:
- (a) makes securities available only to:
- (i) an Employee or former Employee of the Issuer or of another member of the same Group as the issuer of such securities; or
- (ii) a Close Relative of any such Employee; and
- (b) is operated by the issuer of the securities or by a member of the same Group as the issuer or by a trustee who, in pursuance of the arrangements, holds the securities issued by the issuer for the benefit of any eligible Persons referred to in Rule 3.19(a)(i) or (ii).
3.20. Carried interest vehicles
An arrangement is not a Collective Investment Scheme if it is a carried interest vehicle which is established solely for the purposes of enabling any officers, directors or employees of a Fund Manager or their related persons, to participate in carried interest or similar profit generated by one or more Collective Investment Schemes or other investment management arrangements.
3.21. Other circumstances
The AFSA may determine that a specific form of arrangements is not a Collective Investment Scheme on the application of any Person with an interest in those arrangements. Any such determination by the AFSA may apply in the case of individual arrangements or generally in respect of arrangements that share similar characteristics.
4. REGISTRATION AND NOTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
4.1. Application and requirement for registration and notification
This chapter applies to:
- (a) any Domestic Fund that is managed by a Domestic Fund Manager;
- (b) any Domestic Fund that is managed by a Foreign Fund Manager;
- (c) any Foreign Fund managed by a Domestic Fund Manager; and
- (d) any Centre Participant that wishes to market a Fund in the AIFC.
4.2. Application for registration
(a) The following entities must apply to the AFSA to register the following types of Fund:
- (i) a Domestic Fund Manager that intends to manage a Non-Exempt Fund;
- (ii) a Centre Participant that wishes to market a Non-Exempt Fund in the AIFC; and
- (iii) a Foreign Fund Manager that intends to manage an Exempt Fund.
(b) The Fund Manager or Centre Participant must complete and submit the appropriate registration form or forms to the AFSA (which registration form(s) must be in such form as the AFSA may from time to time prescribe).
(c) The Fund Manager or Centre Participant must specify in the registration form if the Fund is to be registered as a Specialist Fund.
(d) The registration form must be accompanied by:
- (i) copies of the Fund's Constitution and Offering Materials, unless the Fund is a Corporate Treasury Centre Fund; and
- (ii) certification by the Fund Manager that the Constitution and Offering Materials comply with any relevant requirements prescribed under these Rules and any other applicable regulations of the AFSA; and
- (iii) such other information as the AFSA may from time to time request.
(e) If, at any time between the filing of an application for registration and the grant of a registration, the Fund Manager or Centre Participant becomes aware of any material change, error, or omission reasonably likely to be relevant to the application under consideration, it must inform the AFSA in writing of such change without delay.
(f) In assessing an application for registration, the AFSA may:
- (i) make any enquiries which it considers appropriate, including enquiries independent of the relevant Fund Manager or Centre Participant; and
- (ii) require the relevant Fund Manager or Centre Participant to provide further information in support of the application for registration.
4.3. Requirements for registration
The AFSA will register a Fund only if:
- (a) the incorporation or other legal formalities relating to the formation of the Fund are completed; and
- (b) the fund manager is either:
- (i) authorised as a Fund Manager by the AFSA; or
- (ii) a Foreign Fund Manager that is authorised by a Financial Services Regulator:
(1) in a Recognised Jurisdiction; or
(2) in a jurisdiction that is otherwise acceptable to the AFSA pursuant to Schedule 3; and
- (c) the Fund has arrangements satisfactory to the AFSA in relation to the administration of the Fund and custody and valuation of the Fund's property; and
- (d) the Fund has appointed an auditor satisfactory to the AFSA; and
- (e) the name and purpose of the Fund is not, in the opinion of the AFSA, undesirable or misleading and the purpose of the Fund is reasonably capable of being successfully carried into effect; and
- (f) if the Fund Manager is a Foreign Fund Manager, the Foreign Fund Manager has:
- (i) appointed a Fund Administrator and Eligible Custodian in accordance with the requirements of CIS 8;
- (ii) included in its application for registration a declaration stating that it is subject to regulation by a Financial Services Regulator:
(A) in a Recognised Jurisdiction; or
(B) in a jurisdiction that is not recognised by the AFSA; and
- (iii) submitted to the AFSA a copy of its licence to manage funds granted by its home state Financial Services Regulator.
4.4. Rejection of an application
- (a) The AFSA may refuse to grant an application for the registration of a Fund if it is not satisfied that the requirements referred to in these Rules have been met or if it otherwise considers that registration of the Fund is undesirable.
- (b) The AFSA will provide notice of any refusal to register a Collective Investment Scheme to the relevant Fund Manager or Centre Participant.
- (c) A Fund Manager or Centre Participant may refer the refusal to register any Collective Investment Scheme to the AFSA for review.
4.5. Granting registration
(a) The AFSA will provide notice of the grant and effective date of registration of a Fund to the relevant Fund Manager or Centre Participant.
(b) The AFSA will maintain publicly available lists of all Funds which have been registered with the AFSA as:
- (i) Non-Exempt Funds; or
- (ii) Exempt Funds managed by a Foreign Fund Manager.
4.6. Withdrawal of registration
- (a) The AFSA may withdraw the registration of a Fund in the circumstances specified in section 94 of the Framework Regulations.
- (b) The Fund Manager of a registered Fund or relevant Centre Participant may request that the AFSA withdraws the registration of that Fund. The AFSA may withdraw the registration of a Fund if the AFSA is satisfied that to do so would not prejudice the interests of participants in that Fund.
4.7. Requirements for notification
(a) A Fund Manager must notify the AFSA of its intention to manage a Fund as soon as reasonably practicable before launch if that Fund is not required to be registered in accordance with Rule 4.2.
(b) The AFSA may prescribe the form of the notification, which must include the following information:
- (i) the Constitution of the Fund;
- (ii) the Offering Materials relating to the Fund; and
- (iii) such other information as the AFSA may prescribe. Guidance For the purposes of Rule 4.7(a), "as soon as reasonably practicable before launch" will require a minimum of at least seven days' notice before the launch of the Fund.
4-1. RECOGNITION OF FOREIGN FUND MANAGERS
4-1.1. Application procedure
A Foreign Fund Manager may apply to the AFSA for recognition by the AFSA for the purposes of managing a Fund by:
- (a) completing the form prescribed in Schedule 4 and filing the form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the Form;
- (b) providing such further information as the AFSA may require; and
- (c) paying the Fee prescribed in the Fees Rules to the AFSA.
4-1.2. Recognition requirements
An applicant for recognition as a Foreign Fund Manager must satisfy the AFSA that the requirements of CIS 4.3 (b)(ii) and (f) are met.
5. MARKETING REQUIREMENTS
5.1. Application
(a) Rules 5.2(c) and 5.3 (excluding 5.3(b)(i) and (j)) apply to all Funds (whether Exempt or Non-Exempt Funds) that are Offered to investors in the AIFC.
(b) Rules 5.2(b) and 5.3(b)(i) and (j) apply to Exempt Funds only.
(c) Rule 5.2(a) applies to Non-Exempt Funds only.
5.2. General requirements
The following requirements apply:
- (a) In respect of Non-Exempt Funds:
- (i) The Units or other securities of a Non-Exempt Fund may not be Offered prior to the effective date of registration of that Non-Exempt Fund under these Rules.
- (ii) Copies of any Offering Materials relating to a Non-Exempt Fund must be filed with the AFSA prior to their use (including any amendments to those Offering Materials) and must comply with the content requirements for Offering Materials specified by these Rules.
- (b) In respect of Exempt Funds:
- (i) The Units or other securities of an Exempt Fund managed by a Foreign Fund Manager may not be Offered prior to the date of registration of that Exempt Fund to the AFSA under these Rules.
- (ii) A Fund Manager or other Centre Participant which Offers Units or other securities of an Exempt Fund is responsible for ensuring that the requirements of this chapter are complied with in respect of that Fund before commencing the Offering of that Fund and must maintain appropriate written records verifying that compliance which must be made available to the AFSA on request.
- (c) In respect of all Funds (Exempt and Non-Exempt Funds):
- (i) Any person Offering Units or other securities of a Fund must comply with the Rules regarding Financial Promotions.
5.3. Content requirements for Offering Materials
(a) All Offering Materials relating to a Fund must be clear, fair and not misleading.
(b) A Fund Manager (other than the Fund Manager of a Corporate Treasury Fund) must give to a potential investor Offering Materials and other documentation that contain all the information which a person and his professional advisers would reasonably require and expect to be able to make an informed decision to become a Unitholder of the Fund, including the following:
- (i) a description of the investment objective, policy and strategy of the Fund, information on where any master fund is established and where the underlying funds are established if the Fund is a fund of funds, a description of the types of assets in which the Fund may invest, the techniques it may employ and all associated risks, any applicable investment restrictions, the circumstances in which the Fund may use leverage, the types and sources of leverage permitted and the associated risks, any restrictions on the use of leverage and any collateral and asset reuse arrangements, and the maximum level of leverage which the Fund may utilise; and
- (ii) a description of the procedures by which the Fund may change its investment strategy or investment policy, or both; and
- (iii) a description of the main legal implications of the contractual relationship entered into for the purpose of investment, including information on jurisdiction, on the applicable law and on the existence or not of any legal instruments providing for the recognition and enforcement of judgments in the territory where the Fund is established; and
- (iv) the identity of the Fund Manager, custodian or depositary, auditor and any other service providers for the Fund and a description of their duties and Unitholder's rights in respect of those persons; and
- (v) a description of any functions that have been delegated by the Fund Manager and any other of the Fund's service providers, the identification of each such delegate and any conflicts of interest that may arise from such delegations; and
- (vi) a description of the Fund's valuation procedure and of the pricing methodology for valuing assets; and
- (vii) a description of the Fund's liquidity risk management, including the redemption rights both in normal and in exceptional circumstances, and the existing redemption arrangements with Unitholders; and
- (viii) a description of all fees, charges and expenses and of the maximum amounts thereof which are directly or indirectly borne by Unitholders; and
- (ix) a description of how the Fund ensures a fair treatment of Unitholders and, whenever a Unitholder obtains preferential treatment or the right to obtain preferential treatment, a description of that preferential treatment, the type of Unitholders who obtain such preferential treatment and, where relevant, their legal or economic links with the Fund or the Fund Manager; and
- (x) the latest annual report for the Fund, if applicable; and
- (xi) the procedure and conditions for the issue and sale of units or shares of the Fund; and
- (xii) where available, the latest net asset value of the Fund and its units or shares or the latest market price per unit or share of the Fund; and
- (xiii) where available, information regarding the historical performance of the Fund; and
- (xiv) if relevant, the identity of any prime broker for the Fund and a description of any material arrangements with that prime broker and the way the conflicts of interest in relation thereto are managed, information about the possibility of transfer and reuse of the Fund's assets by the prime broker, and information about any transfer of liability to the prime broker that may exist; and
- (xv) the total amount of leverage employed by the Fund; and
- (xvi) the life of the Fund, the ability to terminate the Fund and the process by which the Fund may be terminated; and
- (xvii) a description of the arrangements in place for the safekeeping of cash held by or on behalf of the Fund pending investment or distribution to Unitholders.
(c) All Offering Materials relating to a Foreign Fund must include information on the jurisdiction and regulatory regime applicable to the Foreign Fund and its fund manager.
(d) If a Fund is a Listed Fund, the Fund Manager must provide in the Fund’s Offering Materials a description of the arrangements for listing of the Units and the listing venues on which Units of the Listed Fund may be traded.
(e) If a Foreign Fund is required to provide a summary or key information document to investors in any jurisdiction, that document must also be provided to potential investors in the AIFC.
(f) If at any time, there is a material change affecting any matter contained in the Offering Materials for a Fund or a significant new matter arises, the Fund must either before or promptly following the effective date of such material change or new matter, issue updated Offering Materials which clearly explain the material change or significant new matter.
(g) All Offering Materials relating to a Fund, including the information required under these Rules (as applicable) must be made available in the English language.
(h) All Offering Materials relating to a Fund must include the following statement displayed prominently on its front page: "The Astana Financial Services Authority has no responsibility for reviewing or verifying any offering materials, particulars or other documents in connection with this Fund. Accordingly, the Astana Financial Services Authority has not reviewed, nor taken any steps to verify, this document, the information it contains, or any other documents relating to the Fund and has no responsibility for it. The securities to which this document relates may be illiquid or subject to restrictions on their resale. Prospective purchasers should conduct their own due diligence. If you do not understand the contents of this document you should consult an authorised financial adviser."
(i) All Offering Materials relating to an Exempt Fund must prominently disclose the following statement to prospective Unitholders: "This Fund is an Exempt Fund for the purposes of the Collective Investment Scheme Rules. It is intended only for sophisticated investors and is not subject to many of the requirements of the Collective Investment Scheme Rules."
(j) All Offering Materials relating to an Exempt Fund managed by a Foreign Fund Manager must prominently disclose the following statement to prospective Unitholders: "The fund manager of this Fund is not subject to regulation by the Astana Financial Services Authority.
(k) Information relating to an Umbrella Fund:
- (i) Whether the Fund is constituted as a Protected Cell Company or is using contractual arrangements to segregate Sub-Funds.
- (ii) A statement that Unitholders may exchange Units of one Sub-Fund for Units in another Sub-Fund of the Umbrella Fund.
- (iii) Whether an exchange of Units in one Sub-Fund for Units in another Sub-Fund is treated as a redemption of Units, and resale or reissue of Units in the relevant Sub-Fund, and costs and fees associated with such redemption, resale or reissue.
- (iv) Policy for allocating between Sub-Funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the Fund Property which are not attributable to any particular Sub-Fund.
- (v) Information relating to any cross-liability that may occur between Sub-Funds if the Fund is not using the PCC structure.
- (vi) In respect of each Sub-Fund, if the currency is not the base currency of the Umbrella Fund, the currency in which the Fund Property allocated.
(l) Information relating to a Feeder Fund:
- (i) Whether the Fund is investing in:
- (A) Real Property only; or
- (B) Securities issued by Bodies Corporate whose main activities are investing in, dealing in, developing or redeveloping Real Property only; or
- (C) a combination of (A) and (B).
- (ii) What percentage of the Property Fund’s net assets may consist of property related assets, referred to in 3.1(b), which are not traded in or dealt on markets provided for in the Constitution.
- (iii) Unless the Constitution and the Offering Materials state that the Fund invests in a single property, the maximum percentage of the Fund’s net assets which may be invested in any single property or, if applicable, the conditions under which the Fund may derogate from this restriction.
- (iv) The maximum percentage of the Property Fund’s net assets which may be invested in properties which are vacant, in the process of development or requiring development.
- (v) The maximum percentage of the Property Fund’s net assets which may be invested in properties which are subject to a mortgage.
- (vi) For investment in Real Property:
- (A) the countries or territories in which the Fund may invest;
- (B) the types of Real Property in which the Fund may invest and the policy in relation to encumbrances and lease period, if applicable;
- (C) the policy of the Fund Manager in relation to insurance of Real Property forming part of the Fund Property;
- (D) the risks involved in this type of Fund;
- (E) details of the Property Fund’s appointed valuer under CIS 6.10.(b);
- (F) a statement to explain the standards according to which the property valuations are conducted;
- (G) a statement with respect to any material policy regarding Real Property activities;
- (H) details of significant holders and the number of units held and deemed to be held by each of them;
- (I) details of principal taxes levied on the Fund’s income and capital, including tax, if any, deducted on distribution to Unitholders; and
- (J) if the Fund is a REIT, whether the investment vehicle is an Investment Company or Limited Partnership.
- (vii) If the Fund is a single Property Fund:
- (A) a prominent statement that the Fund invests in a single property;
- (B) the details relating to the single property, such as whether the property comprises individual properties or buildings, whether there are different types of uses or businesses conducted in the property, and proportions of anticipated income to be derived from the types of uses or occupants of the property; and
- (C) any risks associated with the investment in the single property, including risks arising from or affecting income to be derived from the uses or occupants of the property.
- (viii) If the Fund Manager itself acts as the custodian of Real Property, in accordance with CIS 7.3.(e):
- (A) a prominent statement that it acts as the custodian of the Real Property;
- (B) disclosure of risks that may arise as a result of it acting as custodian rather than delegating the function to an Eligible Custodian; and
- (C) the measures and safeguards it has in place to ensure the proper segregation and protection of the Real Property.
- (ix) Disclosure of:
- (A) details of any transactions or agreements entered into with Related Parties;
- (B) full particulars of the nature and extent of the interest, if any, of Related Parties in the property owned or proposed to be acquired by the Fund; and
- (C) whether the Fund Manager has Unitholder approval to enter into Related Party Transactions.
(m) Information relating to an ESG Fund:
(i) a description of the investment objective, policy and strategy incorporating an ESG Fund’s investment focus;
(ii) a Fund Manager of an ESG Fund must ensure that Offering Materials do not refer to an “ESG Fund”, or otherwise includes or uses ESG-related or similar terms, unless the Fund meets the criteria in 2.4.1(e);
(iii) a list of ESG criteria used to measure the attainment of the fund’s ESG focus;
(iv) a description of the sustainable investing strategy used by the scheme to achieve its ESG focus, the binding elements of that strategy in the investment process, and how the strategy is implemented in the investment process on a continuous basis;
(v) where the Fund uses a benchmark index to measure the attainment of its ESG focus, an explanation of how the benchmark index is consistent with or relevant to its investment focus;
(vi) where the Fund uses a benchmark index for financial performance measurement only, a statement of that fact; and
(vii) risks associated with the Fund’s investment focus and strategy;
(viii) any ESG-related terms used must be clearly defined.
6. RULES REGARDING THE CONSTITUTION AND INVESTMENT POWERS OF FUNDS
6.1. Application
This chapter applies to all Domestic Fund Managers in respect of all Funds managed by those Fund Managers.
6.2. General requirements
(a) Every Fund, except a Corporate Treasury Centre Fund, must have:
- (i) a written Constitution which complies with these Rules and, if the Fund is a NonExempt Fund, contains the contents specified in Schedule 1; and
- (ii) a purpose that is reasonably capable of being successfully carried into effect; and
- (iii) in the case of an open‐ended Non-Exempt Fund, single pricing for the purposes of redemption and re‐issue or sale of Units in the Fund where the price of a Unit is calculated by reference to the net asset value of the property of the Fund to which the Units relate and in accordance with these Rules.
(b) Any provision in the Constitution of a Fund is void in so far as it would have the effect of exempting the Fund or the Fund Manager from liability for any failure to discharge their obligations under these Rules, the FSFR or any other rules made under the FSFR.
Guidance
For the avoidance of doubt, single pricing for these purposes means that the buying and selling prices for Units in a Fund are the same (that is, there is no spread between the buy and sell prices). This is in contrast with dual-priced Funds that offer different buy and sell prices.
6.3. Name of the Fund
(a) The Fund Manager must ensure that the name of a Non-Exempt Fund or any sub‐fund or class of units in a Non-Exempt Fund or its sub-funds, is not:
- (i) undesirable, misleading or in conflict with the name of another Fund or another sub‐fund or class of units in the Fund or sub‐fund; and
- (ii) substantially similar to the name of another Fund in the AIFC or elsewhere; or
- (iii) is in the opinion of the AFSA likely to mislead or offend the public.
(b) Before using as part of or in connection with the name of a Non-Exempt Fund, sub‐fund or class of units in a Non-Exempt Fund the words "guaranteed", "protected" or any other words with a similar meaning implying a degree of security in relation to the capital or income, the Fund Manager must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the AFSA that:
- (i) the guarantor has the authority and resources to honour the terms of the guarantee; and
- (ii) all the terms of the guarantee and the credentials of the guarantor are clearly set out in detail in the Offering Materials for the Fund and that any exclusions such as force majeure are highlighted.
6.4. Spread of risk
A Fund Manager must take reasonable steps to ensure that a Fund provides a spread of risk that is consistent with the investment objectives and policy of the Fund as stated in its Constitution or most recently published Offering Materials.
6.5. Breach of investment policy
On becoming aware of any breach of the investment objectives or policy of a Fund, a Fund Manager must immediately inform the Unitholders and, in the case of a Non-Exempt Fund, the AFSA of the magnitude of the breach, the cause of the breach, and the proposed method of rectification. The Fund Manager must take action, at its own expense, to rectify that breach except in circumstances where it decides doing so would not be in the best interests of Unitholders, in which case the action must be taken as soon as such circumstances cease to apply.
6.6. Investment in other Funds
A Fund may invest in Units of another collective investment vehicle if expressly permitted to do so by, and in accordance with any limits contained in, the Fund's investment policy.
6.7. Investment in Derivatives
A Fund may invest in Derivatives if expressly permitted to do so by, and in accordance with any limits contained in, the Fund's investment policy. If not so permitted, a Fund may only use Derivatives for the purposes of efficient portfolio management. If a Fund utilises Derivatives for any purposes, then the Fund Manager's systems and controls must include adequate risk management processes which enable it to monitor and measure as frequently as appropriate the risk of the Derivative positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the Fund.
6.8. Securities lending and borrowing
A Fund may lend or borrow Securities if expressly permitted to do so by, and in accordance with any limits contained in, the Fund's investment policy.
6.9. Borrowing
A Fund may borrow money for investment or other purposes if expressly permitted to do so by, and in accordance with any limits contained in, the Fund's investment policy. In the event that any limit on borrowing by the Fund is exceeded, the Fund Manager must immediately inform the Unitholders and, in the case of a Non-Exempt Fund, the AFSA of the magnitude of the breach, the cause of the breach, and the proposed method of rectification. The Fund Manager must use its best endeavours to reduce, as soon as reasonably possible, the excess borrowings, whether by liquidating assets to repay borrowings or otherwise, to the extent practicable without having a material adverse effect on the Fund or investors as a whole.
6.10. Specific rules regarding investment in Real Property by Non-Exempt Funds and Real Estate Investment Trusts
- (a) A Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust may invest in Real Property if expressly permitted to do so by, and in accordance with any limits contained in, the Fund's investment policy.
- (b) Before a Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust invests in any piece of Real Property or prior to disposing of a piece of Real Property, the relevant Fund Manager must appoint an independent professional Valuer with relevant expertise to ensure that the relevant Real Property is expertly valued.
- (c) The Fund Manager must ensure that the Valuer procures the proper valuation of all Real Property held by the Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust, on the basis of a full valuation with physical inspection including, where the Real Property is or includes a building, an internal inspection at least once a year.
- (d) If any event occurs which may on reasonable grounds have a material effect on the valuation of the relevant property the Fund Manager must consult with the Valuer with a view to arranging a fresh valuation before any Units in the Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust are issued or redeemed after the date of the event.
- (e) The Fund Manager must require that any valuation by the Valuer is on the basis of a 'open market value' of the relevant Real Property consistent with an authoritative text such as the current edition of the Royal Institute of Chartered Surveyors' Appraisal and Valuation Standards ("Red Book") or similar practitioners text used by surveyors.
6.11. Rules relating to Real Estate Investment Trusts
(a) A Fund Manager, or any other Person making an Offer of a Unit of a Fund or otherwise marketing a Fund, must not include the term "Real Estate Investment Trust" or "REIT" or refer to a Fund or otherwise hold out a Fund as being a Real Estate Investment Trust or a REIT, unless it is a Fund which complies with Rule 2.4(b)(iv).
(b) If at any time during its operation of the Real Estate Investment Trust, the requirements in Rule 2.4(b)(iv) are not met, the Fund Manager must immediately notify the AFSA of the failure to meet the requirements in these Rules, and of what measures have been or will be taken to remedy the breach. If the breach is not remedied within six months, the Fund will cease to meet the criteria of being a Real Estate Investment Trust. The Fund Manager shall notify Unitholders promptly:
- (i) of it becoming aware that the Fund is reasonably likely to cease to qualify as a Real Estate Investment Trust (such notice to include the expected date of such cessation); and
- (ii) on the date of such cessation.
(c) The Fund Manager of a Real Estate Investment Trust is responsible for appointing a Property Manager for the Real Estate Investment Trust and such Property Manager shall either be a:
- (i) a third party that is permitted under law or regulation (where applicable) to provide Real Estate Management and Servicing Activities; or
- (ii) a subsidiary of the Fund Manager, which has been established for the purpose of carrying on Real Estate Management and Servicing Activities.
(d) The Fund Manager of a Real Estate Investment Trust must ensure that it distributes to the Unitholders each year an amount equal to not less than 80% of its audited annual net income.
(e) The Fund Manager of a Real Estate Investment Trust must determine if any:
- (i) revaluation surplus credited to income, or
- (ii) gains on disposal of Real Property, shall form part of the annual net income for distribution to Unitholders.
(f) A Real Estate Investment Trust may only use leverage or borrow:
- (i) in aggregate, up to a maximum of 60% of its net asset value (as determined at the time of drawdown of funds); and
- (ii) for investment purposes or to meet its short-term working capital.
(g) A Real Estate Investment Trust is permitted to own, and its Fund Manager is permitted to establish, special purpose vehicles for the purpose of holding Real Property, provided that a Real Estate Investment Trust must own directly or indirectly not less than 60% of the shares, and be entitled to exercise directly or indirectly at least 60% of the voting rights, of any such special purpose vehicle.
(h) Where a Real Estate Investment Trust holds any Real Property via one or more special purpose vehicles, the Fund Manager must ensure that each special purpose vehicle distributes to the Fund all of the Fund's proportionate share of the special purpose vehicle's net income to the maximum extent permitted by the laws and regulations of the jurisdiction where the special purpose vehicle is established.
- (i) A Fund Manager of a Real Estate Investment Trust that is an Exempt Fund shall be permitted to accept non-cash consideration for the purchase of Units in the Real Estate Investment Trust, subject to complying with Rule 6.11(l). Non-cash consideration for the purchase of Units is not permitted in Real Estate Investment Trusts that are NonExempt Funds.
(j) Real Estate Investment Trusts can only invest in property under development full completion of construction of which is guaranteed by a relevant state authority or institution or acceptable by the AFSA guarantee issued by a credible bank. The total contract value of the property under development must not exceed 10% of the net asset value of the Fund property of the REIT.
(l) A Fund Manager of a Real Estate Investment Trust must include in the Fund’s Offering Materials:
- (i) a detailed description of how the Fund intends to acquire and hold its investments in Real Properties (including the maximum number of special purpose vehicles through which Real Properties may be held);
- (ii) the maximum percentage of the Real Estate Investment Trust's assets (by reference to the Real Estate Investment Trust's net asset value) that may be deployed for the purposes of property refurbishment, retrofitting and renovation, or a statement that no such activities are permitted; and
- (iii) (where applicable under Rule 6.11(i)), a statement that the Fund Manager may accept non-cash consideration for the purchase of units in the Real Estate Investment Trust and a description of the lock-up period (if any) applicable to Units acquired for non-cash consideration.
6.12. Rules relating to Private Equity Funds
A Fund Manager, or any other Person making an Offer of a Unit of a Fund or otherwise marketing a Fund, must not include the term "Private Equity Fund" or refer to a Fund or otherwise hold out a Fund as being a Private Equity Fund unless it is a Fund which complies with Rule 2.4(b)(ii).
6.13. Rules relating to Venture Capital Funds
A Fund Manager, or any other Person making an Offer of a Unit of a Fund or otherwise marketing a Fund, must not include the term "Venture Capital Fund" or refer to a Fund or otherwise hold out a Fund as being a Venture Capital unless it is a Fund which complies with Rule 2.4(b)(iii).
6.14 Rules relating to a Single Family Office Fund
A Fund Manager of a Single Family Office Fund must include in the Fund’s Constitution a statement containing the following:
(i) the name of the common ancestor of the Single Family, the details of the identities of the family members to be served by the Single Family Office, either directly or by way of Family Entities or Family Fiduciary Structures, and proof of their common ancestry;
(ii) a short explanation of the source of wealth of the family members served by the Single Family Office;
(iii) the details of the due diligence that has been conducted to verify the Source of Funds that is funding the Single Family Office.
(iv) the details of who controls the Single Family Office;
(v) the details of the Ultimate Beneficial Owner of the Single Family Office;
(vi) the details of Family Clients to be served by the Single Family Office;
(vii) the details of any family members that are Politically Exposed Persons;
(viii) confirmation that the Single Family meets minimum investable assets under management requirement.
7. RULES REGARDING THE MANAGEMENT AND OPERATION OF FUNDS
7.1. Application
This chapter applies to all Domestic Fund Managers in respect of all Funds managed by those Fund Managers.
7.2. General management duties
(a) A Fund Manager must:
- (i) manage the Fund including the Fund's property in accordance with the Fund's Constitution and its most recent Offering Materials;
- (ii) perform the functions conferred on it by the Fund's Constitution and by or under these Rules;
- (iii) comply with any conditions or restrictions imposed by the AFSA including those on its Licence or in respect of the Fund; and
- (iv) comply with any requirements or limitations imposed under these Rules including any limits relating to financial interests it or any of its associates may hold in a Fund, for which it acts as the appointed Fund Manager.
(b) In exercising its powers and carrying out its duties, a Fund Manager must:
- (i) act honestly; and
- (ii) exercise the degree of care and diligence that a reasonable person would exercise if he were in the Fund Manager's position; and
- (iii) act in the best interests of the Unitholders and, if there is a conflict between the Unitholders' interests and its own interests, give priority to the Unitholders' interests; and
- (iv) treat the Unitholders who hold interests of the same class equally and Unitholders who hold interests of different classes fairly; and
- (v) not improperly make use of information acquired through being the Fund Manager in order to:
(A) gain an advantage for itself or another person; or
(B) cause detriment to the Unitholders in the Fund; and
- (vi) ensure that the Fund's property is clearly identified as Fund property and held separately from the property of the Fund Manager and the property of any other Fund it manages; and
- (vii) in the case of a Non-Exempt Fund, report to the AFSA any breach of these Rules or relevant provisions of any other law administered by the AFSA, or of any Rules made under those laws, that:
(A) relates to the Non-Exempt Fund; and
(B) has had, or is likely to have, a materially adverse effect on the interests of nitholders; as soon as practicable after it becomes aware of the breach;
- (vii) in the case of a Non-Exempt Fund, report to the AFSA any breach of any other laws or requirements that apply to that Fund Manager in any other jurisdiction, that:
(A) relates to the Non-Exempt Fund; and
(B) has had, or is likely to have, a materially adverse effect on the interests of Unitholders; as soon as practicable after it becomes aware of the breach;
- (viii) comply with any other duty or obligation as may be prescribed by or under these Rules or any other law administered by the AFSA; and
- (ix) carry out or comply with any other duty, not inconsistent with any enactment or rule of law in the AIFC, that is conferred on the Fund Manager by the Fund's Constitution.
(c) Every officer, employee or agent of the Fund Manager must:
- (i) not make improper use of information acquired through being such an officer, employee or agent of the Fund Manager in order to:
(A) gain an advantage for himself or another person; or
(B) cause detriment to Unitholders in the Fund;
- (ii) not make improper use of his position as such an officer, employee or agent to gain, directly or indirectly, an advantage for himself or for any other person or to cause detriment to the Unitholders in the Fund;
- (iii) comply with any other duty or obligation as may be prescribed by or under these Rules or any other law administered by the AFSA; and
- (iv) carry out or comply with any other duty, not inconsistent with any enactment or rule of law in the AIFC that is conferred on him or her by the Fund's Constitution.
(d) A Fund Manager must take reasonable steps to ensure that its officers, employees and agents comply with their obligations referred to above.
7.2-1 Director
7.2-1.1 Application
This chapter applies to:
(a) a Single Family Office Fund;
(b) a Corporate Treasury Centre Fund; and
(c) the Director of an Investment Company acting as a Fund Manager of (a) or (b).
7.2-1.2 Requirements relating to the Single Family Office Fund
(a) A Single Family Office Fund must:
(i) be an Exempt Fund; and
(ii) have minimum investable assets under management of USD 1 million, assessed by fair market or book value.
(b) For the purposes of these Rules, a Single Family Office Fund is treated as a Domestic Fund that is managed by a Domestic Fund Manager.
(c) A Single Family Office Fund Manager is not required to have a Governing Body and appoint a Finance Officer and Compliance Officer.
7.2-1.3 Requirements relating to the Corporate Treasury Centre Fund
(a) The Corporate Treasury Centre Fund must be:
(i) an Exempt Fund; and
(ii) a Group arrangement.
(b) For the purposes of these Rules, a Corporate Treasury Centre Fund is treated as a Domestic Fund that is managed by a Domestic Fund Manager.
(c) The Corporate Treasury Centre Fund Manager is not required to have a Governing Body and appoint a Finance Officer and Compliance Officer.
7.2-1.4. Requirements relating to a Director
(a) The Director of a Single Family Office Fund who is managing the Single Family Office Fund must not act as the Fund Manager of any other Fund or manage assets for another Person.
(b) The Director of a Corporate Treasury Centre Fund who is managing the Corporate Treasury Centre Fund must not act as the Fund Manager of any other Fund or manage assets for another Person.
7.3. Duties in relation to Fund property
(a) A Fund Manager must make decisions as to the constituents of the Fund's property that are in accordance with the Fund's Constitution and investment objectives and policy stated in the Fund's Offering Materials.
(b) A Fund Manager must take all steps and execute, or procure the execution of, all documents to ensure that transactions relating to the Fund's property are properly entered into for the account of the relevant Fund or sub‐fund.
(c) The Fund Manager is responsible to the Unitholders for ensuring the safekeeping of the Fund's property in accordance with these Rules.
(d) Subject to Rule (e), and without removing the generality of the obligation under (c), the Fund Manager must delegate the Regulated Activity of Providing Custody in relation to the Fund's property to a service provider who is an Eligible Custodian in accordance with Rule 8.2.
7.4. Use of prime brokers
(a) A Fund Manager may only grant to a prime broker authority to combine the assets of a Fund with any other assets held by or available to the prime broker as collateral for any financing activities to be undertaken by the prime broker where, and so long as the Fund's Offering Materials include:
- (i) the identity and profile of the prime broker, including where it is located and how it is regulated;
- (ii) the services provided by the prime broker to the Fund and the nature and extent to which the prime broker has the power and authority to commingle the assets of the Fund with any other assets held by or available to the prime broker as collateral for any financing activities undertaken by the prime broker; and
- (iii) a prominent warning to alert prospective Unitholders to the fact that the prime broker has the power and authority to use as collateral the assets of the Fund in conjunction with any other assets held by or available to the prime broker and where the prime broker uses the Fund's assets as collateral pursuant to the above power, the Unitholders may lose all the assets of the Fund in the event of the insolvency of the prime broker.
(b) Any Person appointed as a prime broker to a Fund must qualify as an Eligible Custodian.
7.5. Risk management
(a) A Fund Manager must ensure that the risks inherent in the operation of a Fund are adequately managed, with due regard to the nature of the strategies and investment process employed by the Fund Manager and the role of Administrators and Eligible Custodians and where appointed, prime brokers.
(b) The Fund Manager must, to the extent proportionate given the nature of the Fund and the nature and scale of the Fund Manager, ensure functional and hierarchical separation and independence between:
- (i) the risk management functions (Fund valuation and asset pricing); and
- (ii) the portfolio management functions (the investment management process).
(c) Where the Fund Manager is unable to demonstrate adequate separation and independence in accordance with (b), the AFSA may require the Fund Manager to appoint an independent, suitably competent and experienced Administrator to perform the functions specified in (b)(i).
7.6. Conflicts of interest
(a) The Fund Manager must take reasonable steps to ensure that any dealing in relation to a Fund does not give rise to a conflict of interest.
(b) Where a conflict of interest arises, whether in dealings with Associates or otherwise, the Fund Manager must disclose to Unitholders the nature of the conflict and how the conflict will be managed.
7.7. Transactions between a Fund and its Fund Manager and the Fund Manager's Associates or other Funds managed by the Fund Manager
- (a) A Fund Manager must ensure that a Fund does not enter into a transaction with the Fund Manager, any Associate of a Fund Manager or any other Fund managed by the Fund or any of its Associates (each, a "Related Person Transaction") unless it is in accordance with the requirements in this Rule 7.7.
- (b) A Fund Manager must ensure that any Related Person Transaction is on terms at least as favourable to the Fund as any comparable arrangement on normal commercial terms negotiated at arm's length with an independent third party.
- (c) The Fund Manager must provide written notice to Unitholders before a Fund enters into any Related Person Transaction.
- (d) The Fund Manager must obtain the approval of a majority of independent Unitholders of a Fund prior to the implementation of a Related Person Transaction or series of Related Person Transactions which involve the acquisition, disposal or commitment of asset of the Fund in excess of 5 per cent. of the net assets of the Fund. For these purposes, the "independent Unitholders" of a Fund exclude the Fund Manager, any Associate of a Fund Manager and any other Fund managed by the Fund or any of its Associates.
- (e) The Fund Manager must include a brief summary of any Related Person Transaction in the relevant Fund's next published interim or annual report, including the total value of the transaction, its nature and the identity of the persons with whom such transaction was made. Where no such transactions take place during the financial year covered by an annual report, an appropriate negative statement to that effect must be made in the Fund's annual report.
7.8. Best execution and fair allocation
A Fund Manager's systems and controls must include policies and procedures which are designed to ensure that:
- (a) when executing or procuring execution of trades for or on behalf of the Fund, the transactions are executed:
- (i) as soon as reasonably practicable after a decision to effect a transaction has been made; and
- (ii) on the best terms available at the time of dealing;
- (b) where the Fund Manager undertakes investment transactions for or on behalf of a Fund which it operates and one or more other Clients, there is timely and fair allocation of trades to the Fund and each other Client; and
- (c) trading of the Fund's investment portfolio is not excessive in light of its investment objective and policy.
7.9. Maintenance of records
- (a) A Fund Manager must make and retain accounting and other records that are necessary to enable it to comply with these Rules in respect of each Fund for which it is the Fund Manager and to demonstrate at any time that such compliance has been achieved.
- (b) A Fund Manager must make the records referred to in (a) available for inspection by the AFSA free of charge at all times during ordinary office hours and must supply a copy of the records or any part of them to the AFSA on request.
7.10. Unitholder register
(a) A Fund Manager must ensure that in respect of each Fund of which it is the Fund Manager, a register of Unitholders is maintained which contains:
- (i) the name and address of each Unitholder; and
- (ii) the number of Units including fractions of a Unit of each class held by each Unitholder; and
- (iii) the date on which the Unitholder was registered in the register for the Units standing in his name.
(b) The Fund Manager must take all reasonable steps and exercise all due diligence to ensure that the Unitholder register is kept complete and up to date.
(c) The Fund Manager must make the Unitholder register in electronic or hard copy form available for inspection by Unitholders during normal business hours at the Fund Manager's place of business in the AIFC or otherwise in a designated location in the AIFC that has been notified to Unitholders.
7.11. Ability to delegate or outsource
- (a) A Fund Manager may, subject to any restriction in the relevant Fund's Constitution or any applicable agreement between the Fund Manager and the Fund and any provisions of these Rules, delegate or outsource any of its Regulated Activities or delegate or outsource any of its other functions to another Person, which may be located in or outside the AIFC.
- (b) Delegation or outsourcing by a Fund Manager does not relieve the Fund Manager from any of its obligations in respect of a Fund.
- (c) A Fund Manager may only delegate or outsource a Regulated Activity on prior written notification to the AFSA at least 30 days before the outsourcing or delegation is scheduled to take effect (the "specified date"). The outsourcing or delegation may only proceed if the Fund Manager does not receive an objection by the AFSA to the delegation or outsourcing prior to the specified date.
- (d) When delegating or outsourcing, a Fund Manager must carry out due diligence on a proposed service provider prior to effecting a delegation or outsourcing and conclude on reasonable grounds that proposed service provider is suitable to perform the relevant functions.
7.12. Requirements for delegation or outsourcing
- (a) Any delegation or outsourcing by a Fund Manager must be made on the basis of a written agreement with the relevant service provider.
- (b) If a Fund Manager delegates any activity or outsources any function to a service provider, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that it implements and maintains systems and controls to monitor the relevant service provider.
- (c) A Fund Manager which has delegated or outsourced any functions, must review at least every six months the carrying out of the relevant activities or functions by the relevant service provider.
- (d) If a Fund Manager discovers any non‐compliance in respect of a delegation or outsourcing agreement, the Fund Manager must take immediate action to remedy the matter and, where the non-compliance is material, notify the AFSA promptly.
7.13. Contents of delegation or outsourcing agreement
(a) A Fund Manager must ensure that any delegation or outsourcing agreement:
- (i) sets out the functions or activities and service standards that will be applied to the carrying out of such functions or activities;
- (ii) provides that the service provider cannot in turn delegate any activities delegated to it, or outsource any functions outsourced to it;
- (iii) requires the service provider to maintain records to show and explain transactions in relation to each activity or function performed in relation to the Fund and to enable the Fund to prepare accounts in compliance with these Rules and any other applicable law; and
- (iv) requires the service provider to:
(A) retain the records for at least six years from the date to which they relate; and
(B) keep the records, at all reasonable times, open to inspection by the Fund Manager, the Fund's auditor and the AFSA; and
(C) ensure that the records are, if requested by the AFSA, capable of reproduction within a reasonable period not exceeding 3 days in hard copy and in English.
(b) A Fund Manager must ensure that a delegation or outsourcing agreement contains an undertaking by the relevant service provider to comply with any Rules applicable to the activity and to disclose to the AFSA and to the Fund Manager any material information that it would disclose to its Financial Services Regulator, if relevant, in relation to the conduct of the delegated or outsourced activity.
(c) A Fund Manager must maintain records of all agreements, and any instructions given to a service provider under the terms of a delegation or outsourcing agreement, for at least six years.
7.14. Permissible fees, charges, levies and expenses
- (a) A Fund Manager must not make any charge or levy in connection with the issue or sale of Units of a Fund except in accordance with the Fund's Constitution and Offering Materials.
- (b) A preliminary or redemption charge must not be made by the Fund Manager unless it is permitted by the Fund's Constitution and it is expressed either as a fixed amount or calculated as a percentage of the price of a Unit.
- (c) Any preliminary charge must not exceed the amount or rate stated in the current Offering Materials in respect of any class of Units.
- (d) No payment may be made, or benefit given, to the Fund Manager out of the Fund's property, whether by way of remuneration for its services, reimbursement of expenses or otherwise, unless it is permitted by the Fund's Constitution and the Fund's Offering Materials specify how it will be calculated, accrued, when it will be paid and the maximum and current rates or amount of such remuneration.
- (e) A Fund Manager must give not less than 90 days' written notice to Unitholders of a Fund of any proposed increase in its remuneration, reimbursement of expenses or otherwise in respect of that Fund.
- (f) A Fund Manager must not introduce a new category of remuneration for its services or make any increase in the current rate or amount of its remuneration in respect of a Fund unless it has given not less than 90 days' written notice of that introduction or increase and of the date of its commencement to the Unitholders of that Fund and the Unitholders approve such new category or increase by such majority as is provided for in the Fund's Constitution.
7.15. Reimbursement of remuneration and expenses
- (a) A Fund Manager must take reasonable steps to ensure that any payment to any custodian or administrator of a Fund, whether by way of remuneration, reimbursement of expenses or otherwise, is consistent with the disclosure in the Fund's Offering Materials regarding how that payment will be calculated, accrued, when it will be paid and the maximum and current rates or amount of such remuneration.
7.16. Promotional payments, performance fees and set up costs
- (a) No promotional payment, performance fee or benefit may be made out of or given at the expense of a Fund to its Fund Manager unless it is permitted by the Fund's Constitution and specified in the Fund's Offering Materials.
- (b) Costs of the registration, exemption and incorporation of a Fund and of its initial offer or issue of Units, including Units in respect of a sub‐fund, may be amortised over a period not exceeding five years.
7.17. Allocation of payments to capital or income
- (a) A Fund Manager may determine that all or any part of any permitted payments, charges and expenses of the Fund may be treated as a capital expense or income expense and allocated to the capital account or income account of the Fund respectively.
- (b) The Fund Manager must ensure that any determination in (a) is permitted by the relevant Fund's Constitution and specified in its Offering Materials in sufficient detail for a Unitholder or a prospective Unitholder to make an informed decision in relation to the allocation of such charges and expenses to be paid from the capital property or the income property as the case may be.
8. ADDITIONAL SERVICE PROVIDERS
8.1. Application
This chapter applies to:
- (a) all Domestic Fund Managers in respect of all Non-Exempt Funds and Real Estate Investment Trusts managed by those Fund Managers; and
- (b) all Foreign Fund Managers that manage an Exempt Fund.
8.2. Requirement for Eligible Custodian and Fund Administrator
- (a) A Fund to which this chapter applies must have an Eligible Custodian and a Fund Administrator, in both cases acceptable to the AFSA. This is subject to the exception to appoint an Eligible Custodian contained in Rule 8.2(b) and Rule 8.2(e).
- (b) A Fund Manager is not required to appoint an Eligible Custodian where, due to the nature of the Fund and the type of assets which it holds, it is neither practical nor proportionate to appoint an Eligible Custodian, in which case the Fund Manager may choose not to appoint an Eligible Custodian, provided that title to such assets is either registered in the name of the Fund or is registered in the name of a nominee company (provided that in this latter case (i) such nominee company declares that it holds title to such assets on trust for the Fund; and (ii) the Fund Manager, vis‐à‐vis the Fund, takes full responsibility for the acts and omission of such nominee company).
- (c) A Fund Manager of a Fund to which this chapter applies must use appropriate care, skill and diligence when appointing an Eligible Custodian or Administrator. In conducting its due diligence, at a minimum, the Fund Manager must consider the Eligible Custodian's or Administrator's legal and regulatory status, financial resources and organisational capabilities.
- (d) A Fund Manager must monitor the Eligible Custodian and Administrator on an on-going basis for compliance with the terms of the custody agreement and administration agreement for the relevant Fund.
- (e) The AFSA may waive the requirement to appoint an Eligible Custodian or Administrator on a case-by-case basis on application by the Fund Manager of the relevant Fund.
8.3. Eligible Custodian
For the purposes of these Rules, an Eligible Custodian is a Person who is a separate legal entity from the Fund Manager for the relevant Fund and who also meets one of the following criteria:
- (a) an Authorised Person whose Financial Services Permission authorises it to Provide Custody Services; or
- (b) an Authorised Person that is a Bank; or
- (c) a legal entity that is authorised and supervised by a Financial Services Regulator in a Recognised Jurisdiction for providing custody services in respect of a Fund; or
- (d) any other legal entity otherwise acceptable to the AFSA.
8.4. Contents of a custody agreement
A custody agreement with an Eligible Custodian in respect of a Fund must:
- (a) require that the title of any account of the Eligible Custodian to hold Fund property sufficiently distinguishes that account from any account containing Investments belonging to the Eligible Custodian, and is in the form requested by the Fund Manager; and
- (b) require that the Fund's property will only be credited and withdrawn in accordance with the instructions of the Fund Manager; and
- (c) require that the Eligible Custodian will hold the Fund's property separately from assets belonging to the Eligible Custodian; and
- (d) set out the arrangements for recording and registering the Fund's property, claiming and receiving dividends and other entitlements and interest and the giving and receiving of instructions; and
- (e) not permit the delegation of the activities and functions of the Eligible Custodian without the prior written consent of the Fund Manager; and
- (f) require the Eligible Custodian to deliver a statement to the Fund Manager (including the frequency of such statement), which details the Fund's Investments deposited to the account;
- (g) require that all the Investments standing to the credit of the account are held by the Eligible Custodian as the agent of the Fund Manager or the Fund and the Eligible Custodian is not entitled to combine the account with any other account or to exercise any charge, mortgage, lien, right of set‐off or counterclaim against Investments in that account in respect of any sum owed to the Eligible Custodian on any other account of the Fund Manager, the Fund or any other Person; and
- (h) detail the extent of liability of the Eligible Custodian in the event of default.
8.5. Functions of an Administrator
(a) The AML module applies to an Administrator of a Fund in respect of its activities regarding that Fund as if each reference in AML to a "customer" is a reference to a "Unitholder" or "prospective Unitholder" as appropriate to the context.
(b) An Administrator of a Fund must not hold or control monies or assets belonging to third parties in connection with such administration except in the following circumstances:
- (i) holding cheques to the order of a Fund's bank account, provided such cheques are securely held for a maximum of three business days prior to being deposited into the relevant Fund's bank account or returned to the drawer of the cheque; or
- (ii) where a mandate over a Fund's or other third party's bank account is granted to the Administrator and the mandate has been agreed in writing with the bank concerned, and transfers out of the relevant bank account may be made only in circumstances where the mandate restricts instructions to make such payments to being made solely in accordance with the payment of invoiced fees and expenses, made in accordance with the relevant Fund's Constitution or Offering Materials and are not remitted to the account of the Administrator except by express instructions of the Fund Manager.
(c) An Administrator of a Fund must maintain records which are sufficient to show and explain transactions in relation to each of the specific activities and functions which are being provided to each Fund, in respect of Unitholders or potential Unitholders of the Fund as appropriate. The records must be retained by the Administrator for at least 6 years from the date to which they relate and at all reasonable times, open to inspection by the Fund Manager, the Fund's auditor and the AFSA and, if requested by the AFSA, be capable of reproduction within a reasonable period not exceeding 3 days, in hard copy and in English.
8.6. Contents of an administration agreement
An administration agreement with an Administrator in respect of a Fund must:
- (a) set out the functions and service standards that will be applied to the provision of the administration of the Fund; and
- (b) must not permit the delegation of the activities and functions of the Administrator without the prior written consent of the Fund Manager; and
- (c) require the Fund Administrator to retain any relevant work or records relating to its activities and functions where the contract is terminated either by the Fund Manager or the Administrator.
8.7. Requirements for notification
The AFSA must be notified when a Person ceases to be an Administrator or Eligible Custodian, and any Offering Materials must be updated accordingly.
9. RULES REGARDING DEALINGS IN OPEN-ENDED FUNDS AND LIQUIDITY
9.1. Application
This chapter applies to:
- (a) all Funds managed by Domestic Fund Managers; and
- (b) all Exempt Funds managed by Foreign Fund Managers.
9.2. Pricing of Units of open-ended Funds
- (a) A Fund Manager of an open-ended Fund must take all reasonable steps and exercise due diligence to ensure that the Units in the Fund are correctly priced in accordance with the applicable accounting procedures and the valuation policies of the Fund to ascertain an accurate single price for a Unit.
- (b) The price of a Unit must be calculated in a manner that is fair and reasonable as between Unitholders.
- (c) A Fund Manager must take immediate action to rectify any incorrect pricing of Units. Unless the incorrect pricing is of minimal significance, the Fund Manager must promptly inform the AFSA, and if appointed, the Eligible Custodian of the Fund, of such a rectification.
9.3. Suspension of dealings in Units
- (a) A Fund Manager may, in the case of an open‐ended Fund, temporarily suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of Units ("dealings in Units") in the Fund in accordance with the Constitution of the Fund where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of the Unitholders in the Fund to do so.
- (b) The Fund Manager may continue the suspension of dealings in Units only for so long as it reasonably believes that the suspension is in the interests of the Unitholders of the Fund.
- (c) Upon any suspension of dealings in Units, the Fund Manager must notify the Unitholders of the Fund and the AFSA as soon as practicable in writing of the suspension and its reasons for doing so.
10. AUDIT, FINANCIAL AND VALUATION REQUIREMENTS
10.1. Application
This chapter applies to all Funds managed by Fund Managers located in the AIFC.
10.2. Financial Statements
A Fund Manager must ensure that each Fund that it manages prepares financial statements for each financial year of the Fund in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) or US GAAP.
10.3. Accounting Records
(a) A Fund Manager must ensure that each Fund that it manages keeps accounting records that are:
- (i) sufficient to show and explain transactions undertaken by the Fund; and
- (ii) capable of determining the financial position of the Fund on an on-going basis; and
- (iii) record the financial position of the Fund as at its financial year end.
(b) The Accounting Records must be:
- (i) retained by the Fund Manager or Fund for at least six years from the date to which they relate;
- (ii) at all reasonable times, open to inspection by the AFSA and the auditor of the Fund; and
- (iii) capable of reproduction, within a reasonable period not exceeding 3 business days, in hard copy and available in English.
10.4. Auditor of a Non-Exempt Fund and a Real Estate Investment Trust
(a) Every Non-Exempt Fund and Real Estate Investment Trust must appoint an external auditor to conduct an audit of the Fund's annual financial statements in accordance with the requirements of the relevant standards published by the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) and to produce an auditor's report on those audited financial statements.
(b) A Fund Manager must prior to the appointment of the auditor, take reasonable steps to ensure that the auditor has the required skills, resources and experience to audit the type of Non-Exempt Fund and/or Real Estate Investment Trust for which the auditor has been appointed.
(c) A Fund Manager must notify the AFSA of the appointment, resignation or termination of an auditor of a Non-Exempt Fund or a Real Estate Investment Trust.
(d) A Non-Exempt Fund and a Real Estate Investment Trust must appoint an auditor to fill any vacancy in the office of auditor and ensure that the replacement auditor can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as reasonably practicable.
(e) A Non-Exempt Fund and a Real Estate Investment Trust must take reasonable steps to ensure that the auditor and the relevant audit staff of the auditor are independent of, and not subject to, any conflict of interest with respect to the Fund Manager or any other service provider to the Fund.
(f) A Fund Manager must notify the AFSA if it or any Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust that it manages becomes aware, or has reason to believe, that the auditor or the relevant audit staff of the auditor of the relevant Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust are no longer independent of the Fund Manager or any other service provider to the Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust, or have a conflict of interest which may affect their judgement in respect of the Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust.
(g) A Fund Manager must take reasonable steps to ensure that it and its employees:
- (i) provide any information to the Non-Exempt Fund's or Real Estate Investment Trust's auditor that the auditor reasonably requires, or is entitled to receive as auditor;
- (ii) give the auditor right of access at all reasonable times to relevant records and information within its possession regarding the Fund and allow the auditor to make copies of those records and information;
- (iii) do not interfere with the auditor's ability to discharge its duties in respect of the Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust;
- (iv) report to the auditor any matter which may significantly affect the financial position of the Non-Exempt Fund or Real Estate Investment Trust; and
- (v) provide such other assistance as the auditor may reasonably request it to provide.
(h) A Fund Manager must, in writing, require any Person to whom the Fund Manager has delegated or outsourced any functions to co operate with the Non-Exempt Fund's or Real Estate Investment Trust's auditor in accordance with the provisions specified in (g).
10.5. Periodic Reports of Non-Exempt Funds and Umbrella Funds
(a) Each Non-Exempt Fund must produce an annual report and interim report in respect of each of its accounting periods.
(b) An annual report must be produced within four months after the end of each annual accounting period for the Non-Exempt Fund.
(c) An interim report within one month after the end of each interim accounting period for the Non-Exempt Fund.
(c-1) For a Fund which is an Umbrella Fund, the Fund Manager must prepare an interim report for each Sub-Fund, but this is not necessary for the Umbrella Fund as a whole.
(d) Each annual and interim report of a Non-Exempt Fund must:
- (i) be available free of charge to the Non-Exempt Fund's Unitholders;
- (ii) be available in English; and
- (iii) be sent to the AFSA.
(e) The annual and interim report for a Non-Exempt Fund or the Sub-Funds of an Umbrella Fund must be clear, complete and true and contain information for the relevant period and must include:
- (i) the name of the Non-Exempt Fund or Sub-Fund, its investment objective and investment policy;
- (ii) a brief assessment of the Non-Exempt Fund's or Sub-Fund’s risk profile;
- (iii) a review of the Non-Exempt Fund's or Sub-Fund’s investment activities and investment performance during the period;
- (iv) sufficient information to enable Unitholders to form a view on where the NonExempt Fund's or Sub-Fund’s property is invested at the end of the period and the extent to which that has changed over the period; and
- (v) any other significant information which would reasonably enable Unitholders to make an informed judgment on the activities of the Non-Exempt Fund or Sub-Fund during the period and the results of those activities at the end of the reporting period.
(f) An annual report of a Non-Exempt Fund, other than a Fund which is an Umbrella Fund, must contain:
- (i) the full audited financial statements of the Fund for the annual accounting period; and
- (ii) the auditor's report on the financial statements; and
- (iii) a report of the Fund Manager containing the following information:
- (A) a review of the Non-Exempt Fund's investment activities during the period to which the report relates; and
- (B) particulars of any significant change to the Non-Exempt Fund since the date of the last report; and
- (C) any other information which would enable Unitholders to make an informed judgment on the development of the activities of the Non Exempt Fund during the relevant period and the results of those activities as at the end of that period; and
- (D) for a Non-Exempt Fund which invests a substantial proportion of its assets in other Funds, a statement as to the maximum proportion of management fees charged to the Non-Exempt Fund itself and to other Funds in which that Fund invests.
(g) An annual report of a Fund which is an Umbrella Fund must contain:
- (i) for each Sub-Fund:
- (A) the full audited financial statements for the annual accounting period;
- (B) the report of the Fund Manager in accordance with requirements set out in CIS 10.5-1.; and
- (C) if the Fund is a Public Fund, the comparative table in accordance with CIS 10.5-2.;
- (ii) an aggregation of the financial statements required by (j)(i)(A) for each Sub-Fund;
- (iii) the report produced by the auditor in accordance with CIS 10.4.; and
- (iv) if the Fund is a Public Fund, the Oversight Report in accordance with CIS 10.5-3.
10.5-1. Fund Manager’s report
The matters set out in (a) to (f) must be included in any Fund Manager’s report, except for the Corporate Treasury Centre Fund Manager's report:
(a) a restatement of the investment objectives of the Fund;
(b) a restatement of the policy for achieving those objectives;
(c) a review of the investment activities, including in relation to (a) and (b), during the period to which the report relates;
(d) particulars of any fundamental change requiring prior approval by Unitholder meeting made since the date of the last report;
(e) particulars of any significant change requiring pre-event notification since the date of the last report;
(f) any other information which would enable Unitholders to make an informed judgement on the development of the activities of the Fund during this period and the results of those activities as at the end of that period;
(g) for a report on an Umbrella Fund, the information required in (a) to (h) must be given for each Sub-Fund if it would vary from that given in respect of the Umbrella Fund as a whole; and
(h) for a Fund which invests a substantial proportion of its assets in other Funds, a statement as to the maximum proportion of management fees charged to the Fund itself and to other Funds in which that Fund invests.
(i) for a report on an ESG Fund the information containing:
(i) on how the Fund’s investment focus has been met during the financial period, including a comparison with the previous period (if any); and
(ii) the actual proportion of investments that meet the Fund’s investment focus (if applicable); and
(iii) any action taken by the Fund in attaining the Fund’s ESG focus.
(j) for a report on a Single Family Office Fund, statements:
(i) confirming that the Single Family Office Fund continues to comprise members of the Single Family;
(ii) confirming that the number of members of the Single Family has not changed (or, if it has, setting out details of the change);
(iii) confirming that the Single Family Office continues to maintain investable assets of USD 1 million.
10.5-1.1. Corporate Treasury Fund Manager’s report
For a report on a Corporate Treasury Centre Fund, the Fund Manager must report on the progress of the fund’s treasury activities and include in the report:
(i) a copy of the fund’s annual return;
(ii) copies of the fund’s audited financial statements; and
(iii) any additional information or document required by the AFSA.
10.5-2. The comparative table for the annual report for an Umbrella Fund
The comparative table for the annual report for an Umbrella Fund must set out:
(a) the performance record over the last five calendar years, or if the Fund has not been in existence during the whole of that period, over the whole period in which it has been in existence, showing:
- (i) the highest and the lowest price of a Unit of each class in issue during each of those years; and
- (ii) the net income distributed or, for accumulation Units, allocated for a Unit of each class in issue during each of those years, taking account of any sub-division or consolidation of Units that occurred during that period;
(b) as at the end of each of the last three annual accounting periods or all of the Fund's annual accounting periods, if less than three:
- (i) the total net asset value of the Fund Property at the end of each of those years;
- (ii) the net asset value per Unit of each class; and
- (iii) for a report of the directors of an Investment Company, the number of Units of each class in issue; or
- (iv) for a report of the Fund Manager of any other Fund, the number of Units of each class in existence or treated as in existence; and
(c) if, in the period covered by the table:
- (i) the Fund Manager has been the subject of any event such as a transfer scheme having a material effect on the size of the Fund, but excluding any issue or cancellation of Units for cash; or
- (ii) there have been changes in the investment objectives of the Fund;
- an indication, related in the body of the table to the relevant year in the table, of the date of the event or change in the investment objectives and a brief description of its nature.
10.5-3. Oversight report
(a) The Person providing the oversight function of a Public Fund must make a report to Unitholders of the Fund which must be included in the Fund’s annual report referred to in CIS 10.5-1.
(b) The oversight report must contain:
- (i) a description, which may be in summary form, of the duties of the Person carrying out the oversight functions and in respect of the safekeeping of the Fund Property; and
- (ii) a statement whether, in any material respect:
- (A) the issue, sale, redemption and cancellation, and calculation of the price of the Units and the application of the Fund's income, have not been carried out in accordance with the Rules and, the Constitution; and
- (B) the investment and borrowing powers and restrictions applicable to the Fund.
10.6. Valuation of Fund property
- (a) A Fund must have comprehensive and well documented valuation policies and procedures in place to ensure the production of timely and accurate valuation of the Fund and Units of the Fund.
- (b) A Fund Manager must ensure that the investment portfolio of each Fund managed by that Fund Manager is valued at regular intervals as appropriate to the nature of the Fund, market practice and investor expectations, and in accordance with the valuation procedures set out in the Fund's Constitution or Offering Materials, except where such valuation is suspended in any circumstances that are set out in the Fund's Constitution or Offering Materials.
- (c) A Fund Manager must ensure that as soon as practicable after each valuation point for each Fund it manages, the Fund notifies Unitholders of the value per Unit of the Fund.
- (d) Where required by these Rules, a Fund Manager must appoint an independent third party valuer which is expert in valuing the type of investments held by the Fund to value the Fund's investments.
SCHEDULE 1: CONTENT REQUIREMENTS FOR CONSTITUTION
The Constitution of a Non-Exempt Fund must contain all of the information specified below:
- (a) the name of the Fund;
- (b) the Fund Manager’s name and its principal place of business;
- (c) a statement that the Fund is a Domestic Fund, the Constitution of which is governed by the laws of the AIFC;
- (d) the legal form of the Fund and whether it is open- or closed-ended;
- (e) a statement to the effect that:
- (i) the Fund Manager is responsible for all operations concerning the Fund and may from time to time delegate activities or outsource functions, but not the responsibility for conducting those activities and functions, to another Person in accordance with these Rules; and
- (ii) the Fund Property is entrusted to the Fund Manager and the Fund Manager remains responsible for the property even when an Eligible Custodian holds the legal title to the Fund Property;
- (f) if the duration of the Fund is limited, the length of such duration;
- (g) a statement that fees, charges and other expenses of the Fund may be taken out of Fund Property and the basis for determination of the amount of such fees, charges and other expenses;
- (h) the maximum and minimum sizes of the Fund's capital, if any;
- (i) a statement that a Unitholder is not liable:
- (i) for the debts of the Fund, unless the applicable legislation prescribes otherwise and, if so, those circumstances;
- (ii) to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his Units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the Units he holds;
- (j) information on the investment objectives of the Fund, including:
- (i) whether the aim of the Fund is to spread investment risks and, if a Property Fund, whether the Fund invests in a single property;
- (ii) the types of Investments or assets in which it and (where applicable) each SubFund may invest; and
- (iii) if the Fund is a specialist class of Fund, the class of Fund;
- (k) details of any investment, borrowing or stock lending restrictions or, in the event that there are no such restrictions, a statement to that effect;
- (l) a statement specifying:
- (i) the classes of Units which the Fund may issue; and
- (ii) the rights attaching to Units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two or more denominations of such rights);
- (m) details as to:
- (i) the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem Units in any class; and
- (ii) the circumstances in which the issue of the Units of any particular class may be limited;
- (n) details of who is carrying out the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of Unit issued and outstanding during the accounting period;
- (o) information regarding the provision for the payment of income, if any, and the date on which such distribution shall be made;
- (p) a statement specifying the base currency of the Fund;
- (q) details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights of Unitholders;
- (r) details of oversight arrangements;
- (s) details as to:
- (i) the grounds under which the Fund Manager may initiate a suspension of the Fund and any associated procedures; and
- (ii) the methodology for determining the rights of Unitholders to participate in the Fund Property on winding up;
- (t) details of the manner in which amendments to the Constitution may be made;
- (u) a statement that nothing in the Constitution has the effect of exempting the Fund Manager from any liability to Unitholders imposed under AIFC law and the Rules; and
- (v) details of those matters which enable the Fund, Fund Manager or any Person providing the oversight function of the Fund to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the Rules which is not otherwise provided for in the Constitution.
SCHEDULE 2: RECOGNISED JURISDICTIONS
(a) The AFSA will consider eligibility criteria when determining the assessment of a Recognised Jurisdiction, namely whether:
- (i) the jurisdiction is listed as a Non-Compliant Country or Territory by the Financial Action Task Force;
- (ii) the jurisdiction complies with OECD standards for the exchange of tax information, including adherence to multilateral agreements in respect of the exchange of information;
- (iii) the jurisdiction's financial services regulatory regime achieves broadly similar outcomes to that of the AFSA; and
- (iv) the jurisdiction has appropriate co-operation arrangements in place with the AFSA to ensure co-operation including the exchange of information between regulatory authorities.
(b) The AFSA will publish on its website a list of Recognised Jurisdictions that it considers as having met the eligibility criteria in (a).
(c) The AFSA may determine that a jurisdiction no longer satisfies one or more of the eligibility criteria in (a), and that jurisdiction will cease to be a Recognised Jurisdiction and may be removed accordingly from the list of Recognised Jurisdictions on the AFSA's website.
SCHEDULE 3: ACCEPTABILITY ASSESSMENT
The AFSA will consider whether a non-AIFC jurisdiction is acceptable by assessing the following factors, after the Foreign Fund Manager has submitted documentation:
- (a) containing a comparative analysis of its jurisdiction's regulatory regime in relation to Funds and Fund Managers compared with that of the AFSA;
- (b) that identifies any gaps between the home state and the AFSA's fund management and regulatory regimes; and
- (c) demonstrates the controls intended to remedy any gaps identified in order to satisfy the AFSA's regulatory requirements.
SCHEDULE 4: Forms
For the purposes of the CIS the prescribed Forms are listed in the following table.
Purpose | Relevant section or Rule | Form |
Application Form for Recognition of Foreign Fund Managers | CIS 4-1.1 |
AUTHORISED MARKET INSTITUTION RULES
Authorised Market Institution
Guidance: Purpose and application of AMI
The rules and guidance in AMI complement Chapter 2 of Part 3 of the Framework Regulations (Licensing of Authorised Market Institutions) and Part 6 of the Framework Regulations (Capital Markets), where relevant. AMI also contains rules in relation to the supervision of Authorised Market Institutions which complement the provisions in Part 8 of the Framework Regulations (Supervision of Authorised Persons) and Chapter 7 of the GEN rulebook (Supervision). The purpose of the rules and guidance in AMI is to set out:
·the licensing requirements, or standards, which an applicant must satisfy to be granted a Licence to carry on either of the Market Activities of Operating an Investment Exchange and Operating a Clearing House and at all times thereafter. Reference in these Rules and guidance to an "Authorised Market Institution" or any type of an Authorised Market Institution should be taken to refer also to an applicant where relevant;
·the various regulatory functions that an Authorised Market Institution must perform in relation to admitting Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to trading, operating an Official List and enforcing its Business Rules; and
·the supervisory regime to which such an Authorised Market Institution will be subject on an ongoing basis, including requirements in respect of its relationship with the AFSA.
The application of the rules in AMI is as follows:
·Chapter 1 contains introductory provisions applicable to all Authorised Market Institutions.
·Chapter 2 contains rules and guidance applicable to all Authorised Market Institutions.
Chapter 2-1 contains rules and guidance applicable to Authorised Market Institutions Operating a facility for Investment Tokens.
·Chapter 3 contains additional rules and guidance applicable to Authorised Investment Exchanges.
·Chapter 4 contains additional rules and guidance applicable to Authorised Clearing Houses (including Authorised Central Counterparties).
·Chapter 5 contains rules in relation to the supervision of Authorised Market Institutions.
[intentionally omitted]
·Chapter 7 contains additional rules and guidance applicable to Authorised Crowdfunding Platforms.
For the avoidance of doubt, an Investment Token should be treated in the same way as the Investment it represents.
1. INTRODUCTION
1.1. Introduction
1.1.1. Definitions
(1) An Authorised Market Institution is a Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more Market Activities. An Authorised Market Institution can be an Authorised Investment Exchange, an Authorised Clearing House and/or an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform.
(2) An Authorised Investment Exchange is a Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating an Investment Exchange.
(3) An Authorised Clearing House is a Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Clearing House.
(4) A central counterparty is a legal Person that interposes itself between the counterparties to the contracts traded on one or more financial markets, becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer.
(5) An Authorised Central Counterparty is a central counterparty which is declared by an order made by the AFSA under these Rules for the time being in force to be an Authorised Central Counterparty.
(6) A Member of an Authorised Market Institution is a Person who is entitled, under an arrangement or agreement between him and the Authorised Market Institution, to use that institution’s facilities.
(7) [intentionally omitted]
(8) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform is a Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform and/or Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform.
(9) Operating a facility for Investment Tokens in relation to an Authorised Market Institution means Operating an Investment Exchange on which Investment Tokens are traded or Operating a Clearing House on which Investment Tokens are cleared.
1.1.2. Outsourcing
An Authorised Market Institution may satisfy the requirements applying to it under these Rules by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any other Person. In such circumstances:
- (a) An Authorised Market Institution must, before entering into any material outsourcing arrangements with a service provider, notify AFSA of such an arrangement.
- (b) For the avoidance of doubt, the requirement in sub-paragraph (a) applies to any outsourcing arrangements which were not in existence at the time the Authorised Market Institution was granted a Licence.
- (c) Outsourcing arrangements made by an Authorised Market Institution do not affect the responsibility of the Authorised Market Institution to satisfy the requirements applying to it, but there is in addition a requirement applying to the Authorised Market Institution that the Person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper Person who is able to perform them.
- (d) An Authorised Market Institution that outsources any functions must comply with the outsourcing requirements in GEN.
2. RULES APPLICABLE TO ALL AUTHORISED MARKET INSTITUTIONS
2.1. Requirements in GEN
Guidance
An Authorised Market Institution is an Authorised Person to which the following provisions of GEN are applicable either directly or in respect of its officers and Employees who are Approved Individuals or Designated Individuals:
- (a) GEN 2: Controlled and Designated Functions;
- (b) GEN 3: Control of Authorised Persons;
- (c) GEN 4: Core Principles;
- (d) GEN 5: Systems and Controls;
- (e) GEN 6: Supervision
Rules in this chapter supplement, and must be read in conjunction with, the Rules in GEN.
Guidance: risk management requirements
- An Authorised Market Institution is subject to the risk management requirements in GEN 5.8. Additional risk management requirements are prescribed for Authorised Market Institutions Operating a Clearing House in AMI 4.2 and 4.3.
- In assessing the adequacy of an Authorised Market Institution’s systems and controls for identifying, assessing and managing risks, the AFSA would also have regard to the extent to which such systems and controls enable the Authorised Market Institution to:
-
identify all the general, operational, legal, compliance, technology, credit, market and other risks wherever they arise in its activities;
-
measure and mitigate the different types of risk;
-
allocate responsibility for risk management to Persons with appropriate levels of knowledge and expertise; and
-
-
provide sufficient and reliable information to its officers and Employees who are Approved Individuals or Designated Individuals and, where relevant, the Governing Body of the Authorised Market Institution and the AFSA.As part of assessing the adequacy of risk controls, the AFSA would also consider how internal and external audits operate in the context of systems and controls. In doing so the following factors may be considered:
-
the size, composition and terms of reference of any audit committee of the Authorised Market Institution’s Governing Body;
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the frequency and scope of external audit;
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the provision and scope of internal audit;
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the staffing and resources of the Authorised Market Institution’s internal audit department;
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the internal audit department’s access to the Authorised Market Institution’s records and other relevant information; and
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the position, responsibilities and reporting lines of the internal audit department and its relationship with other departments of the Authorised Market Institution.
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In addition, the AFSA will also consider the adequacy of the risk management function, in particular:
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the access which the individuals performing risk management function have to the Authorised Market Institution’s records and other relevant information; and
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the position, responsibilities and reporting lines of the risk management department and its relationship with other departments of the Authorised Market Institution.
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2.2. Financial resources
2.2.1. Minimum capital requirement
An Authorised Market Institution must hold the following minimum capital:
- (a) an amount equal to 6 months' operational expenses; plus
- (b) unless the AFSA directs otherwise, an additional amount of up to a further 6 months' operational expenses.
2.3. Conflicts of interest
2.3.1. Conflicts of interest – core obligation
An Authorised Market Institution must take reasonable steps, including the maintenance of adequate systems and controls, governance and internal policies and procedures, to ensure that the performance of its regulatory functions is not adversely affected by its commercial interests. Guidance: regulatory functions of Authorised Market Institution
The regulatory functions of an Authorised Market Institution include, as appropriate:
• its obligations under AMI to monitor and enforce compliance with its membership rules, Business Rules, Direct Electronic Access Rules;
• its obligation to prevent, detect and report market abuse or financial crime; and
• its obligations in respect of admission of Investments to an Official List, to Trading or to Clearing.
2.3.2. Conflicts of interest – identification and management
For the purposes of compliance with AMI 2.3.1, an Authorised Market Institution must:
- (a) identify conflicts between the interests of the Authorised Market Institution, its shareholders, owners and operators and the interests of the Persons who make use of its facilities or the interests of the trading venues operated by it; and
- (b) manage or disclose such conflicts so as to avoid adverse consequences for the sound functioning and operation of the trading venues operated by the Authorised Market Institution and for the Persons who make use of its facilities.
2.3.3. Conflicts of interest – personal account transactions
An Authorised Market Institution must establish and maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure that its Employees do not undertake personal account transactions in Investments in a manner that creates or has the potential to create conflicts of interest.
2.3.4. Conflicts of interest – code of conduct
An Authorised Market Institution must establish a code of conduct that sets out the expected standards of behaviour for its Employees, including clear procedures for addressing conflicts of interest. Such a code must be binding on Employees.
2.4. Technology resources
2.4.1. Sufficient resources
An Authorised Market Institution must have sufficient technology resources to continually operate, maintain and supervise its facilities
2.4.2. Confidentiality
The Authorised Market Institution must take reasonable steps to ensure that its information, records and data are secure and the confidentiality is maintained
2.4.3. Cyber-security
The Authorised Market Institution must take reasonable steps to ensure that its information technology systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident.
2.4.4. Resources of Members
(1)An Authorised Market Institution must ensure that its Members and other participants on its facilities have sufficient and secure technology resources which are compatible with its own.
(2)The requirements in (1) do not apply to:
- (a) an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform (or its Clients);
- (b) [intentionally omitted]
2.4.5. On-going monitoring
For the purposes of meeting the requirement in AMI 2.4.1, an Authorised Market Institution must have adequate procedures and arrangements for the evaluation, selection and on-going maintenance and monitoring of information technology systems. Such procedures and arrangements must, at a minimum, provide for:
- (a) problem management and system change;
- (b) testing information technology systems before live operations in accordance with the requirements in AMI 2.4.6 and 2.4.7;
- (c) real time monitoring and reporting on system performance, availability and integrity; and
- (d) adequate measures to ensure:
- (i) the information technology systems are resilient and not prone to failure;
- (ii) business continuity in the event that an information technology system fails;
- (iii) protection of the information technology systems from damage, tampering, misuse or unauthorised access; and
- (iv) the integrity of data forming part of, or being processed through, information technology systems.
2.4.6. Testing of technology systems
An Authorised Market Institution must, before commencing live operation of its information technology systems or any updates thereto, use development and testing methodologies in line with internationally accepted testing standards in order to test the viability and effectiveness of such systems. For this purpose, the testing must be adequate for the Authorised Market Institution to obtain reasonable assurance that, among other things:
- (a) the systems enable it to comply with all the applicable requirements, including legislation, on an on-going basis;
- (b) the systems can continue to operate effectively in stressed market conditions;
- (c) the systems have sufficient electronic capacity to accommodate reasonably foreseeable volumes of messaging and orders;
- (d) the systems are adequately scalable in emergency conditions that might threaten the orderly and proper operations of its facility; and
- (e) any risk management controls embedded within the systems, such as generating automatic error reports, work as intended.
2.4.7. Testing relating to Members’ technology systems
(1) An Authorised Market Institution must implement standardised conformance testing procedures to ensure that the systems which its Members are using to access facilities operated by it have a minimum level of functionality that is compatible with the Authorised Market Institution’s information technology systems and will not pose any threat to fair and orderly conduct of its facilities.
(2) An Authorised Market Institution must also require its Members, before commencing live operation of any electronic trading system, user interface or a trading algorithm, including any updates to such arrangements, to use adequate development and testing methodologies to test the viability and effectiveness of their systems, to include system resilience and security.
(3) For the purposes of (2), an Authorised Market Institution must require its Members:
- (a) to adopt trading algorithm tests, including tests in a simulation environment which are commensurate with the risks that such a strategy may pose to itself and to the fair and orderly functioning of the facility operated by the Authorised Market Institution; and
- (b) not to deploy trading algorithms in a live environment except in a controlled and cautious manner.
(4) The requirements in (1)-(3) do not apply to:
- (a) an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform (or its Clients); or
- (b) [intentionally omitted]
2.4.8. Regular review of systems and controls
(1) An Authorised Market Institution must undertake regular review and updates of its information technology systems and controls as appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its operations.
(2) For the purposes of (1), an Authorised Market Institution must adopt well defined and clearly documented development and testing methodologies which are in line with internationally accepted testing standards.
2.5. Business Rules
2.5.1. Requirement to prepare Business Rules
(1) Save where the AFSA otherwise directs, an Authorised Market Institution must establish and maintain Business Rules governing relations between itself and the participants in the market, including but not limited to:
(a) Membership Rules, prepared in accordance with AMI 2.6, governing the admission of Members and any other Persons to whom access to its facilities is provided;
(b) Direct Electronic Access Rules, prepared in accordance with AMI 2.7, setting out the rules and conditions pursuant to which its Members may provide their clients with Direct Electronic Access to the Authorised Market Institution’s trading systems;
(c) Default Rules, prepared in accordance with either AMI 3.5 or AMI 4.6, governing action that may be taken in respect of unsettled Market Contracts in the event of a Member being, or appearing to be, unable to meet its obligations;
(d) Admission to Trading Rules, prepared in accordance with AMI 3.2, or Admission to Clearing Rules, prepared in accordance with AMI 4.1, governing the admission of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments to trading, or clearing and settlement, as appropriate to its facilities;
(e) Listing Rules, prepared in accordance with AMI 3.6, setting out the rules and conditions applicable to a Person who wishes to have Securities or Units in a Listed Fund included in an Official List; and
(f) any other matters necessary for the proper functioning of the Authorised Market Institution and the facilities operated by it.
(2) An Authorised Market Institution must incorporate into its Business Rules the substance of any additional provisions to be found in the COB Rules, with any modifications which seem to the Institution to be appropriate, for the purpose of regulating the conduct of business of a Person referred to in AMI 2.6.1(1)(c) as a Member of the Institution for the purposes of dealing in Commodity Derivatives or Environmental Instruments.
(3) An Authorised Market Institution must incorporate into its Business Rules the substance of additional provisions to be found in the COB Rules, for the purpose of regulating the conduct of business of a Person referred to in AMI 2.6.1(1)(d) as a Member of the Institution for the purposes of dealing in Security Tokens.
2.5.2. Content and effect of Business Rules
An Authorised Market Institution’s Business Rules must:
- (a) be based on objective criteria;
- (b) be non-discriminatory;
- (c) be clear and fair;
- (d) set out the Members’ and other participants’ obligations:
- (i) arising from the Authorised Market Institution’s constitution and other administrative arrangements;
- (ii) when undertaking transactions on its facilities; and
- (iii) relating to professional standards that must be imposed on staff and agents of the Members and other participants when undertaking transactions on its facilities;
- (e) be made publicly available free of charge;
- (f) contain provisions for the resolution of Members’ and other participants’ disputes and an appeal process from the decisions of the Authorised Market Institution, whether by an internal but independent body or otherwise; and
- (g) contain disciplinary procedures, including any sanctions that may be imposed by the Authorised Market Institution against its Members and other participants; and
- (h) be enforceable against the Members and other participants.
2.5.3. Review, amendment and consultation
The Authorised Market Institution must ensure that appropriate procedures are adopted for it to keep its Business Rules under annual review and to amend them. The procedures must include procedures for consulting users of the Authorised Market Institution's facilities in appropriate cases.
2.5.4. Amendment of rules
Any amendment to an Authorised Market Institution's Business Rules must, prior to the amendment being effective, be:
- (a) made available for market consultation for no less than 30 days; and
- (b) approved by the AFSA.
2.5.5. Waiver of consultation requirement
The AFSA may waive or modify the requirement for market consultation in AMI 2.5.4(a) where it considers it necessary or desirable to do so, including but not limited to, cases of emergency, force majeure, typographical errors, minor administrative matters, or to comply with applicable laws.
2.5.6. Monitoring and enforcing compliance with Business Rules
The Authorised Market Institution must have effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its Business Rules including procedures for:
- (a) prompt investigation of complaints made to the Authorised Market Institution about the conduct of Persons in the course of using the Authorised Market Institution's facilities; and
- (b) where appropriate, disciplinary action resulting in financial and other types of penalties.
2.5.7. Financial penalties
Where arrangements made pursuant to AMI 2.5.6 include provision for requiring the payment of financial penalties, they must include arrangements for ensuring that any amount so paid is applied only in one or more of the following ways:
- (a) towards meeting expenses incurred by the Authorised Market Institution in the course of the investigation of the breach or course of conduct in respect of which the penalty is paid, or in the course of any appeal against the decision of the Authorised Market Institution in relation to that breach or course of conduct; or
- (b) for the benefit of users of the Authorised Market Institution's facilities.
2.5.8. Appeals
Arrangements made pursuant to AMI 2.5.6 must include provision for fair, independent and impartial resolution of appeals against decisions of the Authorised Market Institution.
The requirements in AMI 2.5 do not apply to an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform.
2.6. Membership
2.6.1. Persons eligible for Membership
(1) An Authorised Market Institution, may only admit as a Member a Person who satisfies admission criteria set out in its Membership Rules and who is either:
(a) an Authorised Firm whose Licence permits it to carry on the Regulated Activities of Dealing in Investments; or
(b) a Recognised Non-AIFC Member; or
(c) Person intending to deal in Commodity Derivatives or Environmental Instruments who meets the criteria in GEN 1.1.14; or
(d) a Person by providing that Person with access to the facility, on which Security Tokens are traded or cleared or both traded and cleared, in respect of their trading or clearing of Investment Tokens only.
(2) [intentionally omitted]
(3) An Authorised Market Institution must ensure that a Member who is a Person referred to in (1)(c), or a Person referred to in 1(d) whose access is only for trading or clearing of Commodity Derivative Tokens or Environmental Instrument Tokens, is a Professional Client and treat the Person as such.
For the purposes of this rule, Professional Client has the same meaning as defined in COB Chapter 2.
(4) Before admitting a Person referred to in (1)(c) as a Member, an Authorised Market Institution must undertake due diligence to ensure that such a Person:
(a) is of sufficient good repute;
(b) has a sufficient level of competence, experience and understanding of relevant Investments., Financial Services, transactions and any associated risks, including appropriate standards of conduct for its staff permitted to use its order entry system; and
(c) has adequate organisational arrangements, including financial and technological resources, which are appropriate to allow it to discharge its obligations in respect of their category of membership at the Authorised Market Institution.
(5) An Authorised Market Institution must keep records of the procedures which it has followed under (3), including any documents that evidence the Person's assessment. The records must be kept for at least six years from the date on which the business relationship with a Person ended.
(6) Before admitting a Person referred to in (1)(d), an Authorised Market Institution must undertake due diligence to ensure that the Person:
(a) is of sufficient good repute;
(b) has a sufficient level of competence, experience and understanding of relevant Investments, Financial Services, transactions and any associated risks, including appropriate standards of conduct for its staff permitted to use its order entry system;
(c) has adequate financial and technological resources to meet the Business Rules of the facility;
(d) does not pose any operational risks to the orderly and efficient functioning of the facility’s trading or clearing systems; and
(e) does not pose any money laundering or terrorist financing risks.
2.6.2. Admission criteria
An Authorised Market Institution must ensure that access to its facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors.
2.6.3. Membership Rules
The Membership Rules of an Authorised Market Institution must specify the obligations imposed on users or Members of its facilities arising from:
- (a) the constitution and administration of the Authorised Market Institution;
- (b) where appropriate rules relating to transactions on its trading venues;
- (c) admission criteria for Members;
- (d) where appropriate rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions; and
- (e) where appropriate rules and procedures for the prevention of Market Abuse, money laundering and Financial Crime in accordance with AMI 2.8.
2.6.4. Undertaking to comply with AIFC rules
An Authorised Market Institution may not admit as a Member a Person referred to in 2.6.1.(1)(b) or (c) unless the Person:
- (a) agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AFSA in relation to any matters which arise out of or which relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution;
- (b) agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC Courts in relation to any disputes, or other proceedings in the AIFC, which arise out of or relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution;
- (c) agrees in writing to subject itself to the AIFC laws in relation to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution; and
- (d) where the Recognised Non-AIFC Member is incorporated outside the Republic of Kazakhstan, appoints and maintains at all times, an agent for service of process in the AIFC.
Guidance
- (1)Service of process is the procedure by which a party to a lawsuit (Claimant) gives an appropriate notice of initial legal action (Claim Form) to another party (Defendant), in an effort to exercise jurisdiction over that Person so as to enable that Person to respond to the proceeding before the court. Notice is furnished by delivering a set of court documents (called "process") to the Person to be served. Service of a Claim Form is defined in clause 4.9 of the AIFC Court Rules. Acknowledgement of process and consequences of not filing an acknowledgment of service are defined in clause 7.4 of the AIFC Court Rules. Methods of service are defined in Part 5 of the AIFC Court Rules.
- (2)An agent for service of process is a service provider having legal and real presence in the AIFC.
- (3)The main role of agent for service of process is to receive service of process in the AIFC on behalf of a Person, acknowledge the service of process, and forward the process to such Person once it is received.
2.6.5. Lists of users or Members
The Authorised Market Institution must make arrangements regularly to provide the AFSA with a list of its Members. The requirements in AMI 2.6 do not apply to an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform
2.7. Direct Electronic Access
2.7.1. Direct Electronic Access
Direct Electronic Access means any arrangement, such as the use of the Member's trading code, through which a Member or the clients of that Member are able to transmit electronically orders relating to Securities, or Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments directly to the facility provided by the Authorised Market Institution.
Guidance:
A Person who is permitted to have Direct Electronic Access to an Authorised Market Institution's facilities through a Member is not, by virtue of such permission, a Member of the Authorised Market Institution.
2.7.2. Direct electronic access – general conditions
An Authorised Market Institution may only permit a Member specified in AMI 2.6.1(1)(a) and (b) to provide its clients Direct Electronic Access to the Authorised Market Institution's facilities where the clients meet the suitability criteria established by the Member in order to meet the requirements in AMI 2.7.3
2.7.3. Direct electronic access – criteria, standards and arrangements
An Authorised Market Institution which permits its Members to have direct electronic access to its trading facilities or permits its Members to allow their clients to have Direct Electronic Access to its trading facilities must:
- (a) ensure that a Member allowing its clients to have direct electronic access to the trading facilities of an Authorised Market Institution is an Authorised Person;
- (b) set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through Direct Electronic Access;
- (c) be able to identify orders and trades made through Direct Electronic Access;
- (d) be able to distinguish and, if necessary, stop orders or trades made by a client using Direct Electronic Access provided by the Member without affecting the other orders or trades made or executed by that Member; and
- (e) have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision of Direct Electronic Access in the case of non-compliance with this sub-paragraph.
2.7.4. Direct electronic access rules
An Authorised Market Institution operating a trading venue which permits Direct Electronic Access through it systems must set out and publish the rules and conditions pursuant to which its Members specified in AMI 2.6.1(1)(a) and (b) may provide Direct Electronic Access to their clients. Those rules and conditions must at least cover the specific requirements set out below:
- (a) A Member must retain responsibility for the orders and trades executed by the clients who are using Direct Electronic Access.
- (b) A Member must have adequate mechanisms to prevent the clients placing or executing orders using Direct Electronic Access in a manner that would result in the Member exceeding its position or margin limits.
- (c) A Member must conduct annually or on request from AFSA a due diligence assessment of its prospective Direct Electronic Access clients to ensure they meet the rules of the trading venue to which it offers access.
- (d) The due diligence assessment referred to in sub-paragraph (c) above must cover:
- (i) the governance and ownership structure of the prospective Direct Electronic Access client;
- (ii) the types of strategies to be undertaken by the prospective Direct Electronic Access client;
- (iii) the operational set-up, the systems, the pre-trade and post-trade controls and the real-time monitoring of the prospective Direct Electronic Access client;
- (iv) the responsibilities within the prospective Direct Electronic Access client for dealing with actions and errors;
- (v) the historical trading pattern and behaviour of the prospective Direct Electronic Access client;
- (vi) the level of expected trading and order volume of the prospective Direct Electronic Access client;
- (vii) the ability of the prospective Direct Electronic Access client to meet its financial obligations to the Direct Electronic Access provider; and
- (viii) the disciplinary history of the prospective Direct Electronic Access client, where available.
- (e) A Member offering Direct Electronic Access allowing clients to use third-party trading software for accessing trading venues must ensure that the software includes pre-trade controls.
The requirements in AMI 2.7 do not apply to an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform.
2.8. Financial Crime and Market Abuse
2.8.1. Financial Crime
Financial Crime means any kind of conduct relating to money or to financial services or markets that would amount to criminal conduct under law of Republic of Kazakhstan (whether or not such conduct takes place in the Republic of Kazakhstan), including any offence involving:
- (a) fraud or dishonesty;
- (b) misconduct in, or misuse of information relating to, a financial market;
- (c) handling the proceeds of crime; or
- (d) the financing of terrorism.
2.8.2. Measures to prevent, detect and report market abuse or Financial Crime
An Authorised Market Institution must:
- (a) ensure that appropriate measures (including the monitoring of transactions effected on or through the Authorised Market Institution’s facilities) are adopted to reduce the extent to which the Authorised Market Institution’s facilities can be used for a purpose connected with Market Abuse, Financial Crime or money laundering, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence; and
- (b) immediately report to the AFSA any suspected Market Abuse, Financial Crime or money laundering, along with full details of that information in writing.
2.8.3. Whistleblowing
An Authorised Market Institution must have appropriate procedures and protections for requiring its Employees to disclose any information to the AFSA in a manner which does not expose them to any disadvantage as a result of so doing.
2.9. Safeguarding and administration of assets
2.9.1. Safeguarding and administration of users’ assets
(1) An Authorised Market Institution must ensure that where its facilities include making provision for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of those facilities, including Members and other participants, satisfactory arrangements are made for that purpose with an appropriate custodian or settlement facility and clear terms are agreed between the users of the facility and the Authorised Market Institution.
(2) When assessing its systems and controls for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of its facilities, an Authorised Market Institution must have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes by which it records:
(a) the assets held and the identity of the legal and beneficial owners of the relevant assets, and where appropriate, any Persons who have charges over, or other interests in, those assets; and
(b) any additions, reductions and transfers in each individual account of assets.
(3) When determining whether it has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, an Authorised Market Institution should have regard to:
(a) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;
(b) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with the terms of the agreement by which the Authorised Market Institution undertook to safeguard and administer those assets;
(c) whether the arrangements ensure that the assets are not transferred to the Authorised Market Institution or to any other Person to settle the debts of the owner (or other Person with the appropriate rights over the assets) except in accordance with valid instructions from a Person entitled to give those instructions, or in accordance with the terms of the agreement by which the Recognised Body undertook to safeguard and administer those assets;
(d) whether the arrangements include satisfactory procedures to ensure that any rights arising in relation to the assets held as a result of any actions by the issuers of those assets (or other relevant Persons) are held, transferred or acted upon in a timely and accurate manner in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with the terms of the agreement by which the Recognised Body undertook to safeguard and administer those assets;
(e) whether there are adequate arrangements to ensure the proper segregation of assets belonging to the Authorised Market Institution (or to Undertakings in the same Group) from those belonging to the users of its facilities for the safeguarding and administration of assets;
(f) whether its arrangements include satisfactory procedures for the selection, oversight and review of custodians or sub-custodians used to hold the assets;
(g) whether the agreements by which the Authorised Market Institution undertakes to safeguard and administer assets belonging to users of its facilities include appropriate information regarding the terms and conditions of that service and the obligations of the Authorised Market Institution to the user of the service and of the user of the service to the Authorised Market Institution;
(h) whether the records kept of those assets and the operation of the safeguarding services provide sufficient accurate and timely information to:
(i) identify the legal and beneficial owners of the assets and of any Persons who have charges over, or other interests in, the assets;
(ii) record separately any additions, reductions and transfers in each account of assets held for safeguarding or administration; and
(iii) identify separately the assets owned by (or, where appropriate, on behalf of) different Persons, including, where appropriate, the assets owned by Members of the Authorised Market Institution and their Clients;
(i) the frequency of reconciliation of the assets held by (or on behalf of) the Authorised Market Institution with the accounts held with the Authorised Market Institution by the users of its safeguarding and administration services and the extent of the arrangements for resolving a shortfall identified in any reconciliation; and
(j) the frequency with which statements of their holdings are provided to the users of the safeguarding and administration services, to the owners of the assets held and to other appropriate Persons in accordance with the terms of the agreement by which the Authorised Market Institution undertook to safeguard and administer those assets.
2.9.2. Custody and investment risk
(1) An Authorised Market Institution must have effective means to address risks relating to:
- (a) custody of its own assets, in accordance with (2), if it is an Authorised Clearing House; or
- (b) investments, in accordance with (3), if it is an Authorised Investment Exchange.
- (c) [intentionally omitted]
(2) For the purposes of (1)(a), an Authorised Clearing House must:
- (a) hold its own assets with entities which are licensed for holding deposits or providing custody, as judged appropriate by the AFSA or a Financial Services Regulator acceptable to the AFSA;
- (b) be able to have prompt access to its assets when required; and
- (c) regularly evaluate and understand its exposures to entities which hold its assets.
(3) For the purposes of (1)(b), an Authorised Investment Exchange must ensure that:
- (a) it has an investment strategy which is consistent with its overall risk-management strategy and is fully disclosed to its Members and other participants using its facilities;
- (b) its investments comprise instruments with minimal credit, market, and liquidity risks; and
- (c) its investments are secured by, or represent claims on, high-quality obligors, allowing for quick liquidation with little, if any, adverse price effect.
2.10. Transaction recording
An Authorised Market Institution must ensure that satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on its facilities, cleared or settled (or to be cleared or settled) by the Authorised Market Institution by means of its facilities.
Guidance
When determining whether it has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on, cleared or settled, or to be cleared or settled, by means of, its facilities, an Authorised Market Institution should have regard to:
(a) its arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least 6 years; and
(b) the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes details for each transaction of:
(i) the name of the Investment (and, if relevant, the underlying asset) and the price, quantity and date of the transaction;
(ii) the identities and, where appropriate, the roles of the counterparties to the transaction;
(iii) if its rules make provision for transactions to be effected, cleared, settled or to be cleared or settled in more than one type of facility, or under more than one part of its rules, the type of facility in which, or the part of its rules under which, the transaction was effected, cleared, settled or to be cleared or settled; and
(iv) the date and manner of settlement of the transaction; and
(v) communication regarding transactions executed on the Authorised Market Institution’s facilities should be carried out using official communication channels of the Authorised Market Institution.
2.11. Complaints handling
An Authorised Market Institution must:
(a) have effective arrangements in place for the investigation and resolution of complaints made against it;
(b) establish and maintain a register of complaints made against it and their resolution; and
(c) keep records of the complaints for a minimum of six years.
Guidance
Procedures should be in place to acknowledge a complaint promptly, for making an objective consideration of the complaint and for a timely response to be sent to the complainant.
2.12. Trade Repository
(1) The activity of maintaining a Trade Repository may be carried on by an Authorised Market Institution.
(2) In (1), a Trade Repository is a centralised registry that maintains an electronic database containing records of transactions in Derivatives including over-the-counter Derivatives.
(3) An Authorised Market Institution maintaining a Trade Repository is subject to some specific requirements relating to that activity, which are set out in Schedule 2.
(4) Counterparties and Authorised Clearing Houses must ensure that the details of any Derivative contract they have concluded and any modification or termination of the contract are reported to a Trade Repository. The details must be reported no later than the business day following the conclusion, modification or termination of the contract.
(5) Where a Trade Repository is not available to record the details of an over-the-counter Derivative contract, counterparties and Authorised Clearing Houses must ensure that such details are reported to the AFSA.
Guidance
(1) Maintaining a Trade Repository is not a separately Regulated or Market Activity, but may be carried on by an Authorised Market Institution.
(2) The functions of a Trade Repository promote increased transparency and integrity of information, particularly for over-the-counter Derivatives.
2-1. RULES APPLICABLE TO AUTHORISED MARKET INSTITUTIONS OPERATING A FACILITY FOR INVESTMENT TOKENS
Guidance
Operating a facility for Investment Tokens is defined in GLO as Operating an Exchange or Operating a Clearing House on which Investment Tokens are traded, cleared, or both traded and cleared.
2-1.1. Technology and governance requirements
2-1.1.1. Without limiting the generality of the technology resources requirements in AMI 2.4, an Authorised Market Institution must:
(a) establish and maintain policies and procedures to ensure that any DLT application used in connection with the facility operates on the basis of ‘permissioned’ access, such that it allows the operator to have and maintain adequate control over the Persons who are permitted to access and update records held on that DLT application;
(b) establish and maintain adequate measures to ensure that the DLT application it uses, and the associated rules and protocols, contain:
(i) clear criteria governing Persons who are permitted to access and update records for the purposes of trading or clearing Investment Tokens on the facility, including criteria about the integrity, credentials and competencies appropriate to the roles played by such persons;
(ii) measures to address risks, including to network security and network compatibility, that may arise through systems used by Persons permitted to update the records on the DLT application;
(iii) processes to ensure that the Authorised Market Institutions undertakes sufficient due diligence and adequate monitoring of ongoing compliance, relating to the matters referred to in (i) and (ii); and
(iv) measures to ensure there are appropriate restrictions on the transferability of Investment Tokens in order to address AML and CFT risks;
(c) ensure any DLT application used for its facility is fit for purpose; and
(d) have regard to industry best practices in developing its technology design and technology governance relating to DLT that is used by the facility.
Guidance
1. To be fit for purpose, the technology design of the DLT application used by an Authorised Market Institution Operating a facility for Investment Tokens should be able to address how the rights and obligations relating to the Investment Tokens traded on that facility are properly managed and capable of being exercised or performed. For example, where a Investment Token confers rights and obligations substantially similar to those conferred by a Share in a company, the DLT application would generally need to enable the management and exercise of the shareholder’s rights. These may, for example, include the right to receive notice of, and vote in, shareholder meetings, receive any declared dividends and participate in the assets of the company in a winding up.
2. To ensure the technology governance of any DLT application used on its facility is fit for purpose, an Authorised Market Institution should, as a minimum, have regard to the following:
a. careful maintenance and development of the relevant systems and architecture in terms of its code version control, implementation of updates, issue resolution, and regular internal and third party testing;
b. security measures and procedures for the safe storage and transmission of data in accordance with agreed protocols;
c. procedures to address changes in the protocol which result in modifications of or the splitting of the underlying distributed ledger into two or more separate ledgers (often referred to as a ‘forks’), whether or not the new protocol is backwards compatible with the previous version;
d. procedures to deal with system outages, whether planned or not, and errors;
e. decision-making protocols and accountability for decisions;
f. procedures for establishing and managing interfaces with Digital wallet Service Providers; and
g. whether the protocols, smart contracts and other inbuilt features of the DLT application meet at least a minimum acceptable level of reliability and safety requirements, including to deal with a cyber or hacking attack, and how any resulting disruptions would be resolved.
3. Credentials which indicate a Person is suitable to update records for the purposes of trading or clearing Investment Tokens on the facility may include:
a. accreditation by a recognised and reputable body to certify the requisite knowledge required; or
b. accreditation by the relevant body to certify compliance with the Kazakhstani standards in the area.
2-1.2. Operating a facility for Investment Tokens that permits direct access
2-1.2.1. An Authorised Market Institution must ensure that:
(1) it treats each Direct Access Member as its Client;
(2) its Business Rules clearly set out:
(a) the duties owed by the Authorised Market Institution to the Direct Access Member and how the Authorised Market Institution is held accountable for any failure to fulfil those duties; and
(b) the duties owed by the Direct Access Member to the Authorised Market Institution and how the Direct Access Member is held accountable for any failure to fulfil those duties,
(3) appropriate investor redress mechanisms are available, and disclosed, to each Member permitted to trade or clear Investment Tokens on its facility; and
(4) its facility contains a prominent disclosure of the risks associated with the use of DLT for trading and clearing Investments, particularly those relating to Digital wallets and the susceptibility of private cryptographic keys to misappropriation.
2-1.2.2. (1) Without limiting the generality of the systems and controls obligations of the Authorised Market Institution, an Authorised Market Institution must have in place adequate systems and controls to address market integrity, AML, CFT and investor protection risks in permitting a Direct Access Member to access its facility, including procedures to:
(a) identify the ultimate beneficial owner of a Direct Access Member, where the Member is a Body Corporate;
(b) ensure that appropriate due diligence sufficient to address AML and CFT risks has been conducted on each Direct Access Member, before permitting that Member to access its facility;
(c) detect and address market manipulation and abuse; and
(d) ensure that there is adequate disclosure relating to the Security Tokens that are traded on the facility, through prospectus and ongoing disclosure under chapters 1 and 6 of MAR.
(2) An Authorised Market Institution must have adequate controls and procedures to ensure that trading in Investment Tokens by Direct Access Members does not pose any risks to the orderly and efficient functioning of the facility’s trading system, including controls and procedures to:
(a) mitigate counterparty risks that may arise from defaults by Direct Access Members, through adequate collateral management measures, such as margin requirements, based on the settlement cycle adopted by the Authorised Market Institution;
(b) identify and distinguish orders that are placed by Direct Access Members, and, if necessary, enable the Authorised Market Institution to stop orders of, or trading by, such Direct Access Members;
(c) prevent Direct Access Members from allowing any other Persons to access the facility through that Direct Access Member’s access; and
(d) ensure that Direct Access Members fully comply with the Business Rules of the facility and promptly address any gaps and deficiencies that are identified.
(3) An Authorised Market Institution must have adequate resources and mechanisms to carry out front-line monitoring of the trading activities of Direct Access Members and must be able to deal with any threats to market integrity appropriately.
(4) An Authorised Market Institution must ensure that, to the extent that any of the systems and controls referred to in (1) are embedded within, or otherwise facilitated through, DLT, they must be included within the scope of the annual audit and written report required under AMI 2-1.5.
2-1.2.3. When an Authorised Market Institution Executes a Transaction in Investment Tokens for a Direct Access Member, the Authorised Market Institution must comply with the requirements relating to confirmation notes that would apply to an Authorised Firm under COB 9.1.2, 9.1.3 and 9.1.5.
2-1.3. Safe custody of Investment Tokens
2-1.3.1. Without limiting the generality of AMI 2.9, where an Authorised Market Institution’s obligations include making provision for the safeguarding and administration of Investment Tokens belonging to Members and other participants on its facility, it must ensure that:
(1) Where its safe custody arrangements involve acting as a Digital wallet Service Provider, it complies with the Client Asset provisions in COB 8.2 and 8.3 and the following requirements for firms Providing Custody of Investment Tokens:
(a) A Digital wallet Service Provider must ensure that:
(i) any DLT applications it uses in Providing Custody of Investment Tokens are resilient, reliable and compatible with any relevant facility on which those Investment Tokens are traded or cleared;
(ii) it has the ability to clearly identify and segregate Investment Tokens belonging to different Clients; and
(iii) it has in place appropriate procedures to enable it to confirm Client instructions and transactions, maintain appropriate records and data relating to those instructions and transactions and to conduct a reconciliation of those transactions at appropriate intervals.
(b) A Digital wallet Service Provider, in developing and using DLT applications and other technology to Provide Custody of Investment Tokens, must ensure that:
(i) the architecture of any Digital wallets used adequately addresses compatibility issues and associated risks;
(ii) the technology used and its associated procedures have adequate security measures (including cyber security) to enable the safe storage and transmission of data relating to the Investment Tokens;
(iii) the security and integrity of cryptographic keys are maintained through the use of that technology, taking into account the password protection and methods of encryption used;
(iv) there are adequate measures to address any risks specific to the methods of usage and storage of cryptographic keys (or their equivalent) available under the DLT application used; and
(v) the technology is compatible with the procedures and protocols built into the operating rules or equivalent on any facility on which the Investment Tokens are traded or cleared or both traded and cleared.
(2) Where it appoints a Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider to Provide Custody for Investment Tokens traded or cleared on its facility, that Person is either:
(a) an Authorised Firm permitted to be a Digital wallet Service Provider; or
(b) a firm that is regulated by a Financial Services Regulator to an equivalent level as that provided for under the AFSA regime for Digital wallet Service Providers.
2-1.4. Technology audit reports
2-1.4.1. An Authorised Market Institution must:
(a) appoint a suitably qualified and independent third party professional to:
(i) carry out an annual audit of the Authorised Market Institution’s compliance with the technology resources and governance requirements that apply to it; and
(ii) produce a written report which sets out the methodology and results of that annual audit, confirms whether the requirements referred to in (i) have been met and lists any recommendations or areas of concern;
(b) submit to the AFSA a copy of the report referred to in (a)(ii) within 4 months of the Authorised Market Institution’s financial year end; and
(c) be able to satisfy the AFSA that the independent third party professional who undertakes the annual audit has the relevant expertise to do so, including by reference to the due diligence undertaken by the Authorised Market Institution to satisfy itself of that fact.
Guidance
Where an Authorised Market Institution appoints a third party professional for the purposes of (a)(i) and (ii), the Authorised Market Institution is expected to ensure that the professional is suitably qualified.
Credentials which indicate a qualified and independent third party professional is suitable to conduct audits of technology governance may include:
(1) designation as a Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) or Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA); or
(2) designation as a Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC); or
(3) accreditation by a recognised and reputable body to certify compliance with relevant ISO/IEC 27000 series standards; or
(4) accreditation by the relevant body to certify compliance with the Kazakhstani standards in the area of information (cyber) security.
3. RULES APPLICABLE TO AUTHORISED INVESTMENT EXCHANGES
3.1. Systems and Controls
3.1.1. Fair and orderly trading
An Authorised Investment Exchange must ensure that it has transparent rules and procedures to provide for fair and orderly trading and to establish objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders.
3.1.1-1. Price and position limits in respect of Commodity Derivatives
An Authorised Investment Exchange must ensure that the risks to fair and orderly trading, arising from sharp price movements, are mitigated for Commodity Derivatives.
3.1.1-2. Price Limits
An Authorised Investment Exchange may impose price limits in relation to a Commodity Derivative to mitigate the risks to fair and orderly trading arising from sharp movements in the price of the Commodity Derivative.
3.1.1-3. Position Limits
An Authorised Investment Exchange must, in respect of a Commodity Derivative, implement position limits for the purposes of mitigating the risk of Market Abuse.
Guidance
An Authorised Investment Exchange should:
- consider the impact on its Commodity Derivative market from changes in the underlying market and set its position limits accordingly;
- ensure that its position limits are not exceeded by any Member, its affiliates or other participant trading in the Derivative, including through the acquisition of additional positions;
- require that its Members and other participants report their positions on a regular basis and on the occurrence of certain relevant events;
- include provisions in its Business Rules which impose appropriate obligations on Members and other participants, to ensure their compliance with its position limit obligations;
- immediately notify the AFSA when a position limit threshold is exceeded, detailing:
- the reason why such a large position is being held;
- how the holding of the position furthers the participant’s or Member’s trading strategy; and
- whether the position is being used for hedging and the relevant contracts being hedged against;
- on request by the AFSA, immediately make available the information collected by the Authorised Investment Exchange for the purposes of monitoring and enforcing the position limit obligations of its Members and other participants; and
- have in place appropriate internal governance arrangements to ensure its position limits are effective in mitigating relevant risks, including the risks relating to Market Abuse.
3.1.2. Execution of orders
An Authorised Investment Exchange must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders.
3.1.3. Publicly available data on quality of executions
An Authorised Investment Exchange must make available to the public, without any charges, data relating to the quality of execution of transactions on the Authorised Investment Exchange on at least an annual basis. Reports must include details about price, costs, speed and likelihood of execution for individual Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments.
3.1.4. Market making arrangements
An Authorised Investment Exchange must:
- (a) have written agreements with all Members pursuing a Market Making Strategy by using its facilities (Market Making Agreements); and
- (b) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of Members enter into Market Making Agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and
- (c) monitor and enforce compliance with the Market Making Agreements;
- (d) inform the AFSA of the content of its Market Making Agreements; and
- (e) provide the AFSA with any information it requests which it reasonably requires to satisfy itself that the Market Making Agreements comply with sub-paragraph 3.1.4.
3.1.5. Trading controls
An Authorised Investment Exchange must be able to:
- (a) reject orders that exceed its pre-determined volume and price thresholds, or that are clearly erroneous;
- (b) temporarily halt or constrain trading on its facilities if necessary or desirable to maintain an orderly market; and
- (c) cancel, vary, or correct any order resulting from an erroneous order entry and/or the malfunctioning of the system of a Member or of the Authorised Investment Exchange.
3.1.6. Tick size regimes
The Authorised Investment Exchange must adopt a tick size regime in respect of each type of Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments traded on each trading venue operated by it. The tick size regime must:
- (a) be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of such Investments in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account the desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and
- (b) be able to adapt the tick size for each such Investment appropriately.
3.1.7. Short selling and position management
(a) An Authorised Investment Exchange must have in place effective systems, controls and procedures to monitor and manage:
- (i) Short selling in shares, debentures and any other similar Investments; and
- (ii) Risks arising from position concentrations.
(b) For the purposes of (a), an Authorised Investment Exchange must have adequate powers over its Members to mitigate the probability and impact of risk to the orderly functioning of its facilities arising from unsettled positions in Securities or Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments.
(c) Short selling for the purposes of this Rule constitutes the sale of a share, debenture or other similar Investments by a Person who does not own the share, debenture or other similar Investment at the point of entering into the contract to sell.
3.1.8. Liquidity incentive schemes
An Authorised Investment Exchange must not introduce a liquidity incentive scheme or any other scheme for encouraging bids on a trading venue or to increase the volume of business transacted unless it has obtained the AFSA’s prior written approval for the scheme.
3.1.9. Settlement and Clearing facilitation services
An Authorised Investment Exchange must ensure that satisfactory arrangements are made for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise), Clearing and settlement of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on the Authorised Investment Exchange (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions).
3.2. Admission to trading
3.2.1. Admission to Trading Rules
An Authorised Investment Exchange must make clear and transparent rules concerning the admission of Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmnetal Instruments to trading on its facilities.
3.2.2. Content of Admission to Trading Rules
The rules of the Authorised Investment Exchange must ensure that:
- (a) Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange’s facilities are capable of being traded in a fair, orderly and efficient manner;
- (b) Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, or Environmental Instruments admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange’s facilities are freely negotiable; and
- (c) In case of Commodity Derivatives:
- (i) contracts for Commodity Derivatives admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange’s facilities are designed so as to allow for their orderly pricing as well as for the existence of effective settlement conditions.
- (ii) the rules and procedures must promote transparency by ensuring that there is sufficient information made available to the markets relating to the terms and conditions of the Derivative contracts traded on its facilities (including, where relevant, information relating to delivery and pricing of Derivative contracts)
Guidance: Fair, orderly and efficient trading
When assessing whether a Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative or Environmental Instrument is capable of being traded in a fair, orderly and efficient manner, the Authorised Investment Exchange shall take into account, depending on the nature of the Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative or Environmental Instrument being admitted, whether the following criteria are satisfied:
- (a) the terms of the Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative or Environmental Instrument are clear and unambiguous and allow for a correlation between the price of the Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative or Environmental Instrument and the price or other value measure of the underlying;
- (b) the price or other value measure of the underlying is reliable and publicly available or ascertainable; and
- (c) there is sufficient information publicly available of a kind needed to value the Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative or Environmental Instrument.
3.2.2-1. Commodity Derivative contract design specifications
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange must ensure, where appropriate, that the Commodity Derivative contracts have terms and conditions which:
(a) promote price discovery of the underlying commodity;
(b) ensure, to the extent possible, that there is a correlation to the operation of the physical market in the underlying commodity;
(c) include contract delivery specifications which address matters specified in Schedule 1; and
(d) provide for legally enforceable settlement and delivery procedures.
(2) For the purposes of meeting the requirement in 3.2.2(c)(i), an Authorised Investment Exchange must include in its Business Rules contract design specifications relating to Derivative contracts traded on its facilities which, at a minimum, include:
(a) minimum price fluctuations (price ticks);
(b) maximum price fluctuations (daily price limits), if any;
(c) last trading day;
(d) settlement or delivery procedures as applicable;
(e) trading months;
(f) position limits, if any;
(g) reportable levels; and
(h) trading hours.
3.2.2-2. On-going review of Commodity Derivative contracts
An Authorised Investment Exchange must:
(a) establish and implement clear procedures relating to the development and review of contract design for Commodity Derivative contracts traded on its facilities;
(b) have adequate process through which the views of potential users of Commodity Derivative contracts can be taken into account when developing and reviewing contract design for Commodity Derivative contracts;
(c) have adequate powers which enable it to eliminate contractual terms which produce, or are likely to produce, manipulative or disorderly conditions in the markets generally, or in relation to the particular class or type of Commodity Derivative contracts; and
(d) have adequate mechanisms to monitor and evaluate whether the settlement procedures reflect the underlying physical market and promote reliable pricing relationship between the two markets.
Guidance
(1) When assessing whether an Authorised Investment Exchange’s rules and procedures are adequate, the AFSA considers, among other things:
(a) the criteria adopted by the Authorised Investment Exchange for Commodity Derivative contracts to be traded on its facilities;
(b) what powers the Authorised Investment Exchange has in order to eliminate manipulative or disorderly conduct, including powers to vary, remove or rescind conditions of any Commodity Derivative contracts already traded where these are found to cause manipulative or disorderly conditions; and
(c) what mechanisms are established by the Authorised Investment Exchange to monitor and review market activities relating to Commodity Derivative contracts traded on its facilities.
(2) When designing and reviewing the design of Commodity Derivative contracts, an Authorised Investment Exchange should consider the following physical market characteristics, including differences within a commodity market with regard to the commodity in question:
(a) size and structure of the physical market;
(b) commodity characteristics (such as grade, quality, weight, class, growth, origin, source etc.);
(c) historical patterns of production, consumption and supply, including seasonality, growth, market concentration in the production chain, domestic or international export focus and logistics;
(d) extent of distribution or dispersal of production and consumption of the underlying physical commodity among producers, merchants and consumers;
(e) the liquidity of the underlying physical market;
(f) the spot market pricing system including transparency, availability, reliability and frequency of cash pricing;
(g) price volatility; and
(h) the existence of price controls, embargoes, export restrictions or other regulation or controls affecting the price or supply of the underlying physical commodity.
Guidance: Effective settlement conditions
When assessing whether a contract for a Commodity Dderivative contains effective settlement conditions, the Authorised Investment Exchange shouldall take into account, depending on the nature of the derivative being admitted, whether the following criteria are satisfied:
(a) the arrangements for determining the settlement price of the derivative ensure that this price properly reflects the price or other value measure of the relevant underlying Investment; and
(b) where the settlement of the derivative requires or provides for the possibility of the delivery of an underlying Investment or asset rather than cash settlement, there are adequate settlement and delivery procedures for that underlying Investment as well as adequate arrangements to obtain relevant information about that underlying Investment.
(c) appropriate supervisory arrangements are in place to monitor trading and settlement in such Commodity Derivative; and
(d) settlement and delivery, whether physical delivery or by cash settlement, can be effected in accordance with the contract terms and conditions of those Derivatives.
3.2.2-3. Use of Price Information Provider
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange may admit to trading or trade on its facilities Investments the value of which is determined by reference to an underlying benchmark or index provided by a Price Information Provider where it has undertaken appropriate due diligence to ensure that the Price Information Provider, on an on-going basis, meets the requirements set out in (2).
(2) For the purposes of (1), the Price Information Provider must:
(a) have fair and non-discriminatory procedures for establishing prices of Investments which are made public;
(b) demonstrate adequate and appropriate transparency over the methodology, calculation and inputs to allow users to understand how the benchmark or index is derived and its potential limitations;
(c) where appropriate, give priority to concluded transactions in making assessments and adopt measures to minimise selective reporting;
(d) be of good standing and repute as an independent and objective price reporting agency or index provider;
(e) have a sound corporate governance framework;
(f) have adequate arrangements to avoid its staff having any conflicts of interest where such conflicts are, or are likely to have, a material adverse impact on price establishment process; and
(g) adequate complaint resolution mechanisms to resolve any complaints about the Price Information Provider’s assessment process and methodology.
3.2.3. Undertaking to comply with AIFC rules
An Authorised Investment Exchange may not admit Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments to trading unless the Person who seeks to have such Investments admitted to trading:
- (a) gives an enforceable undertaking to the AFSA to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AFSA in relation to any matters which arise out of or which relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution, including but not limited to requirements in MAR relating to Reporting Entities;
- (b) agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC Courts in relation to any disputes, or other proceedings in the AIFC, which arise out of or relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution;
- (c) agrees in writing to subject itself to the AIFC laws in relation to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution; and
- (d) appoints and maintains at all times, an agent for service of process in the AIFC and requires such agent to accept its appointment for service of process.
Guidance
- See Guidance to AMI 2.6.4
3.2.4. Review of compliance
The Authorised Investment Exchange must maintain arrangements regularly to review whether the Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments admitted to trading on its facilities comply with the Admission to Trading Rules.
3.2.5. Verification of compliance by issuers with Market Rules
The Authorised Investment Exchange must maintain effective arrangements to verify that issuers of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by it comply with the Market Rules.
3.2.6. Arrangements for access to information
The Authorised Investment Exchange must maintain arrangements to assist users of a market operated by it to obtain access to information made public under the Market Rules.
3.3. Suspending or removing from trading
3.3.1. Power to suspend
The rules of an Authorised Investment Exchange must provide that the Authorised Investment Exchange has the power to suspend or remove from trading on its facilities any Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments which no longer comply with its rules.
3.3.2. Limitation on power to suspend or remove Securities or Units in a Listed Fund from trading
An Authorised Investment Exchange may not suspend or remove from trading on its facilities any Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative, or Environmental Instrument which no longer complies with its rules, where such step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interests of investors or the orderly functioning of the financial markets.
3.3.3. Suspension or removal from trading of associated derivatives
Where the Authorised Investment Exchange suspends or removes any Investment from trading on its facilities, it must also suspend or remove from trading on its facilities any Derivative that relates to or is referenced to that Investment where that is required to support the objectives of the suspension or removal of trading of that Investment
3.3.4. Publication of decision to suspend or remove from trading
Where the Authorised Investment Exchange suspends or removes any Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative, or Environmental Instrument from trading on its facilities, including any Derivative in accordance with AMI 3.3.3, it must immediately notify the AFSA and make that decision public.
3.3.5. Publication of decision to lift suspension or re-admit to trading
Where the Authorised Investment Exchange lifts a suspension or re-admits any Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative, or Environmental Instrument to trading on its facilities, including any Derivative suspended or removed from trading in accordance with AMI 3.3.3, following a decision made under AMI 3.3.1, it must notify the AFSA and make that decision public.
3.4. Transparency obligations
3.4.1. Pre-trade transparency obligation
An Authorised Investment Exchange must make available to the public on a continuous basis during normal trading hours the current bid and offer prices of Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative, or Environmental Instrument traded on its systems and the depth of trading interests at those prices.
Guidance
The disclosure required by 3.4.1 would depend on the type of trading system employed, including continuous auction order-book, quote-driven, periodic auction and hybrid trading systems. An Authorised Investment Exchange should discuss its proposals for compliance with this requirement with the AFSA. The AFSA may waive or modify the requirement in respect of certain types of order, transaction, trading system or types of Investment (including large orders and illiquid instruments) pursuant to Section 8 of the Framework Regulations.
3.4.2. Post-trade transparency obligation
An Authorised Investment Exchange must make available to the public in as close to real-time as technically possible the price, volume and time of the transactions executed in respect of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments traded on its facilities.
Guidance
The AFSA may waive or modify the requirement in AMI 3.4.2 in respect of certain types of trade or types of Investment pursuant to Section 8 of the Framework Regulations. In particular, subject to AMI 1.1.2 (outsourcing) and to obtaining the approval of the AFSA, an Authorised Investment Exchange may delegate its provision of post-trade information to a regulatory news service or similar third party entity.
3.5. Default management
3.5.1. Default Rules
An Authorised Investment Exchange must have legally enforceable Default Rules which, in the event of a Member or other participant on the facility of the Authorised Investment Exchange being or appearing to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more Market Contracts:
(a) enable it to suspend or terminate such Membership (or other participation) and cooperate by sharing information with its Authorised Clearing House or Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House, and
(b) enable action to be taken in respect of unsettled Market Contracts to which that Member or other participant is a party.
Guidance
The AIFC Insolvency Rules contain provisions which protect action taken by an Authorised Investment Exchange under its Default Rules from the normal operation of insolvency law which might otherwise leave this action open to challenge by a relevant office-holder.
3.5.2. Public notice of suspended or terminated Membership
The Authorised Investment Exchange must immediately issue a public notice on its website in respect of any Member or other participantwhose Membership (or other participation) is suspended or terminated in accordance with AMI 3.5.1.
3.5.3. Cooperation with office-holder
The Authorised Investment Exchange must cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the AFSA, any relevant office-holder and any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of, or connected with, the default of a Member or other participant of the Authorised Investment Exchange or the default of an Authorised Clearing House or another Authorised Investment Exchange.
3.6. Listing Rules
3.6.1. General requirements relating to Listing Rules
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange wishing to admit Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to its own Official List must:
- (a) have Listing Rules which comply with the requirements of AMI 3.6.2; and
- (b) ensure that its Listing Rules are approved by the AFSA.
(2) Any amendment to an Authorised Investment Exchange’s Listing Rules must, prior to the amendment becoming effective, have been:
- (a) made available for a reasonable period of time to the market for consultation; and
- (b) approved by the AFSA.
(3) In urgent cases, the AFSA may, on written application by the Authorised Investment Exchange, dispense with the requirement in (2)(a).
3.6.2. Contents of Listing Rules
The Listing Rules of an Authorised Investment Exchange must include requirements relating to:
- (a) procedures for admission of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to its Official List, including:
- (i) requirements to be met before such Investments may be granted admission to an Official List; and
- (ii) agreements in connection with admitting such Investments to an Official List;
- (b) procedures for suspension and delisting of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund from an Official List;
- (c) the imposition on any Person of obligations to observe specific standards of conduct or to perform, or refrain from performing, specified acts, reasonably imposed in connection with the admission of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to an Official List or continued admission of such Investments to an Official List;
- (d) penalties or sanctions which may be imposed by the Authorised Investment Exchange for a breach of the Listing Rules;
- (e) procedures or conditions which may be imposed, or circumstances which are required to exist, in relation to matters which are provided for in the Listing Rules;
- (f) actual or potential conflicts of interest that have arisen or might arise when a Person seeks to have Securities or Units in a Listed Fund admitted to an Official List; and
- (g) such other matters as are necessary or desirable for the proper operation of the listing rule process and the market.
3.6.3. Publication of Listing Rules
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange must publish, and make freely available, its Listing Rules.
(2) Where an Authorised Investment Exchange has made any amendments to its Listing Rules, it must have adequate procedures for notifying users of such amendments.
3.6.4. Compliance with Listing Rules
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange which is permitted to maintain an Official List must ensure the function is properly and independently operated.
(2) An Authorised Investment Exchange must have procedures in place to ensure that:
- (a) its Listing Rules are monitored and enforced; and
- (b) complaints regarding Persons subject to the Listing Rules are investigated.
(3) An Authorised Investment Exchange must ensure that:
- (a) where appropriate, disciplinary action can be carried out and financial and other types of penalties can be imposed on Persons subject to the Listing Rules; and
- (b) adequate appeal procedures are in place
3.6.5. Application for admission of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to an Official List
(1) Applications for the admission of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to an Official List must be made by the issuer of such Investments, or by a third party on behalf of and with the consent of the issuer of such Investments.
(2) An Authorised Investment Exchange must, before granting admission of any Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to an Official List maintained by it:
- (a) be satisfied that the applicable requirements, including those in its Listing Rules, have been or will be fully complied with in respect of those Investments; and
- (b) comply with the requirements relating to notification to the AFSA in (4) and (5).
(3) An Authorised Investment Exchange must notify an applicant in writing of its decision in relation to the application for admission of Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to its Official List.
(4) Subject to (5), an Authorised Investment Exchange must provide the AFSA with the following information in connection with an admission of Securities (other than (i) Exempt Securities or (ii) Equity Securities in connection with Pre-IPO Listings) or Units in a Listed Fund to its Official List:Subject to (5), at least 5 business days prior to an admission of Securities (other than (i) Exempt Securities or (ii) Equity Securities in connection with Pre-IPO Listings) or Units in a Listed Fund to its Official List, an Authorised Investment Exchange must provide the AFSA with notice of the decision and include the following information in the notification:
(a) a copy of the listing application and supporting documents (if applicable) - at least 10 business days before the admission;
(b) a copy of the assessment of the listing application carried out by the Exchange together with a notice of its decision in relation to the listing application - at least 5 business days before the admission; and
(c) any information requested by the AFSA.
(4-1) Subject to (5), an Authorised Investment Exchange must provide the AFSA with the following information in connection with an admission of Exempt Securities to its Official List or Equity Securities to its Official List under the sub-heading “Pre-IPO Listings”:
(a) a copy of the listing application and supporting documents (if applicable) - at least 5 business days before the admission;
(b) a copy of the assessment of the listing application carried out by the Exchange together with a notice of its decision in relation to the listing application - at least 2 business days before the admission; and
(c) any information requested by the AFSA.
(5) An Authorised Investment Exchange must immediately notify the AFSA of any decision to suspend, restore from suspension or de-list any Securities or Units in a Listed Fund from its Official List and the reasons for the decision.
3.6.6. Undertaking to comply with AIFC rules
An Authorised Investment Exchange may not admit Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to an Official List unless the issuer of such Investments:
- (a) gives an enforceable undertaking to the AFSA to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AFSA in relation to any matters which arise out of or which relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution, including but not limited to requirements in MAR relating to Reporting Entities;
- (b) agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC Courts in relation to any disputes, or other proceedings in the AIFC, which arise out of or relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution;
- (c) agrees in writing to subject itself to the AIFC laws in relation to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution; and
- (d) appoints and maintains at all times, an agent for service of process in the AIFC and requires such agent to accept its appointment for service of process.
Guidance
- See Guidance to AMI 2.6.4
4. RULES APPLICABLE TO AUTHORISED CLEARING HOUSES
4.1. Admission to clearing
4.1.1. Admission to clearing rules
(1) An Authorised Clearing House must have clear and objective criteria included in its rules according to which Investments can be cleared or settled on its facilities.
(2) In the case of a Commodity Derivative contract, an Authorised Cleaning House must have regard to:
(a) the degree of standardisation of the contractual terms and operational processes of the Commodity Derivative contract;
(b) the volume and liquidity of the Commodity Derivative contract; and
(c) the availability of fair, reliable and generally accepted pricing information in the Commodity Derivative contract
4.2. Risk management
4.2.1. Risk management framework
(1) An Authorised Clearing House must have a comprehensive risk management framework (i.e. detailed policies, procedures and systems) capable of managing legal, credit, liquidity, operational and other risks to which it is exposed.
(2) The risk management framework in (1) must:
- (a) encompass a regular review of material risks to which the Clearing House is exposed and the risks posed to other market participants resulting from its operations; and
- (b) be subject to periodic review by its board as appropriate to ensure that it is effective and operating as intended.
4.2.2. Safeguards for investors
An Authorised Clearing House must ensure that:
- (a) access to its facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of those facilities and the interests of investors;
- (b) its clearing services involve satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise) of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions in respect of which it provides such services (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions);
- (c) satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions which are cleared or to be cleared by means of its facilities; and
- (d) appropriate measures are adopted to reduce the extent to which the clearing house's facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or Financial Crime, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence.
4.2.3. Loss allocation
An Authorised Clearing House must maintain effective arrangements (which may include rules) for ensuring that losses that:
- (a) arise otherwise than as a result of a default of a Member of the Authorised Clearing House; and
- (b) threaten the Authorised Clearing House’s solvency; are allocated with a view to ensuring that the Authorised Clearing House can continue to provide its activities.
4.3. Credit and liquidity risk management
4.3.1. Credit Risk
(1) An Authorised Clearing House must establish a robust framework to manage its credit exposures to its participants and the credit risks arising from its payment, clearing and settlement processes.
(2) An Authorised Clearing House operating a payment system or Securities Settlement System must cover its current and, where they exist, potential future exposures to each participant fully with a high degree of confidence using collateral and other equivalent financial resources.
(3) An Authorised Clearing House operating as a Central Counterparty must:
- (a) cover its current and potential future exposures to each participant fully with a high degree of confidence using margin and other prefunded financial resources;
- (b) perform stress tests, on a regular basis as appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its operations, using models containing standards and predetermined parameters and assumptions; and
- (c) at least monthly (and more frequently if the Securities or Units in a Listed Fund cleared or markets served display high volatility, become less liquid, or when the size or concentration of positions held by its participants increase significantly), carry out a comprehensive and thorough analysis of stress testing models, scenarios, and underlying parameters and assumptions used to ensure that they are appropriate for determining the required level of default protection in light of current and evolving market conditions; and
- (d) at least annually, conduct an independent review and validation of its financial risk management models.
4.3.2. Collateral
(1) An Authorised Clearing House which requires collateral to manage its own, its Members’ or other participants’ credit risks arising in the course of or for the purposes of its payment, clearing, and settlement processes must:
- (a) only accept collateral with low credit, liquidity, and market risks; and
- (b) set and enforce appropriately conservative haircuts and concentration limits.
(2) An Authorised Clearing House must, for the purposes of meeting the requirement in (1), establish and implement a collateral management system that is well designed and operationally flexible. Such a system must, at a minimum:
- (a) limit the assets it accepts as collateral to those with low credit, liquidity, and market risks;
- (b) establish prudent valuation practices and develop haircuts that are regularly tested and take into account stressed market conditions;
- (c) to reduce the need for procyclical adjustments, establish, to the extent practicable and prudent, stable and conservative haircuts that are calibrated to include periods of stressed market conditions;
- (d) avoid concentrated holdings of certain assets where that would significantly impair the ability to liquidate such assets quickly without significant adverse price effects; and
- (e) mitigate, if it accepts cross-border collateral, the risks associated with such use. Such measures must ensure that the collateral can be used in a timely manner.
4.3.3. Margin
An Authorised Clearing House operating as a Central Counterparty must:
- (a) have a margin system which establishes margin levels commensurate with the risks and particular attributes of each product, portfolio, and market it serves;
- (b) use a reliable source of timely price data for its margin system;
- (c) have procedures and sound valuation models for addressing circumstances in which pricing data are not readily available or reliable;
- (d) adopt initial margin models and parameters that are risk-based and generate margin requirements sufficient to cover its potential future exposure to participants in the interval between the last margin collection and the close out of positions following a participant default;
- (e) mark participant positions to market and collect variation margin at least daily to limit the build-up of current exposures;
- (f) ensure that it has the authority and operational capacity to make intraday margin calls and payments, both scheduled and unscheduled, to participants;
- (g) analyse and monitor its model performance and overall margin coverage by conducting rigorous daily back testing and at least monthly, and more frequent where appropriate, sensitivity analysis; and
- (h) regularly review and validate its margin system.
4.3.4. Liquidity Risk
(1) An Authorised Clearing House must:
- (a) have a robust framework to manage its liquidity risks from its participants, settlement banks, nostro agents, custodian banks, liquidity providers, and other entities;
- (b) have effective operational and analytical tools to identify, measure, and monitor its settlement and funding flows on an ongoing and timely basis, including its use of intraday liquidity;
- (c) regularly test the sufficiency of its liquid resources through rigorous stress testing; and
- (d) establish explicit rules and procedures that enable the Authorised Clearing House to effect same-day and, where appropriate, intraday and multiday settlement of payment obligations on time following any individual or combined default among its participants.
(2) An Authorised Clearing House operating a payment system or Securities Settlement System must maintain sufficient liquid resources in all relevant currencies to effect same-day settlement, and where appropriate intraday or multiday settlement, of payment obligations with a high degree of confidence under a wide range of potential stress scenarios that should include, but not be limited to, the default of the participant and its affiliates that would generate the largest aggregate payment obligation in extreme but plausible market conditions.
(3) An Authorised Clearing House operating as a Central Counterparty must maintain sufficient liquid resources in all relevant currencies to settle securities-related payments, make required variation margin payments, and meet other payment obligations on time with a high degree of confidence under a wide range of potential stress scenarios that should include, but not be limited to, the default of the participant and its affiliates that would generate the two largest aggregate payment obligations to the Authorised Clearing House in extreme but plausible market conditions.
4.4. Settlement
4.4.1. Settlement finality
(1) An Authorised Clearing House must have rules and procedures which clearly define:
- (a) the point at which settlement is final according to the relevant governing law; and
- (b) the point after which unsettled payments, transfer instructions, or other obligations may not be cancelled by a participant.
(2) An Authorised Clearing House must complete final settlement no later than the end of the value date.
(3) Notwithstanding (1) above, a settlement by an Authorised Clearing House is final, irrevocable and binding and may not under any circumstances be reversed or avoided after:
- (a) an amount of money is credited to or debited from a depository account; or
- (b) an Investment approved for admission to the depository is credited to or debited from a depository account.
(4) Notwithstanding (1) above, transfer instructions and settlement are legally enforceable and, even in the event of insolvency proceedings against a participant, shall be binding on third parties, provided that transfer instructions were entered into a system before the moment of opening of such insolvency proceedings. Where, exceptionally, transfer instructions are entered into a system after the moment of opening of insolvency proceedings and are carried out on the day of opening of such proceedings, they shall be legally enforceable and binding on third parties only if, after the time of settlement, the Authorised Clearing House can prove that it was not aware, nor should have been aware, of the opening of such proceedings.
(5) For the purpose of (4), the moment of opening of insolvency proceedings shall be the moment when the relevant judicial or administrative authority handed down its decision.
4.4.2. Money settlement
(1) Where practical, an Authorised Clearing House must conduct its money settlements in central bank money.
(2) Where a Clearing House conducts its money settlements using commercial bank money, it must:
- (a) adopt appropriate measures to minimise and strictly control the credit and liquidity risk arising from such use;
- (b) ensure that its legal agreements with any settlement banks, at a minimum:
- (i) specify clearly when transfers on the books of individual settlement banks are expected to occur and when they are final; and
- (ii) ensure that funds received are transferable as soon as possible, if not intra-day, at least before the end of the payments day to enable it and its Members and other participants on its facilities to manage their credit and liquidity risks.
4.4.3. Physical delivery
(1) An Authorised Clearing House must:
(a) have rules and procedures which clearly state its obligations with respect to the delivery of physical instruments or commodities; and
(b) identify, monitor, and manage the risks and costs associated with the storage and delivery of physical instruments or commodities.
(2) A Clearing House must have adequate arrangements, including service agreements, which enable it to meet its physical delivery obligations.
Guidance
1. Where an Authorised Clearing House matches participants that have delivery and receipt obligations, the Authorised Clearing House would not need to be involved with the physical storage and delivery process but it should monitor the participants' performance and to the extent practicable, ensure the participants have the necessary systems and resources to be able to fulfil their physical delivery obligations.
2. The legal obligations for delivery should be clearly expressed in the Clearing Rules, Default Rules, and any related agreements, including provisions to specify:
(a) whether the receiving participant should seek compensation from the Authorised Clearing House or the delivering participant in the event of a loss; and
(b) if the Authorised Clearing House holds margin on the matched participants, such margin would only be released when the Authorised Clearing House confirms that both participants have fulfilled their obligations
4.5. Central securities depositories and exchange-of-value settlement systems
4.5.1. Central securities depositories
An Authorised Clearing House acting as a Central Securities Depository must:
(1) have appropriate rules, procedures, and controls, including robust accounting practices, to safeguard the rights of issuers and holders of Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments, prevent the unauthorised creation or deletion of Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments, and conduct periodic and at least daily reconciliation of its records of assets it maintains;
(2) prohibit overdrafts and debit balances in accounts of Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments;
(3) maintain Securities, Units in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivatives, or Environmental Instruments in an immobilised or dematerialised form for their transfer by book entry;
(4) protect assets against custody risk through appropriate rules and procedures consistent with its legal framework;
(5) ensure segregation between the Central Securities Depository’s own assets and the securities of its participants and segregation among the securities of participants; and
(6) identify, measure, monitor, and manage its risks from other activities that it may erform.
4.5.2. Central security depository links
(1) A CSD must not establish any link with another CSD (CSD link) unless:
- (a) it has:
- (i) prior to establishing the CSD link, identified and assessed potential risks, for itself and its Members and other participants using its facilities, arising from establishing such a link;
- (ii) adequate systems and controls to effectively monitor and manage, on an on-going basis, risks identified under (a) above; and
- (iii) complied with the requirement in (2); and
- (b) it is satisfied, on reasonable grounds, that the contractual arrangement establishing the CSD link:
- (i) provides to the CSD and its Members and other participants using its facilities adequate protection relating to possible risks arising from using the other CSDs to which it is linked (linked CSDs);
- (ii) in the case of a provisional transfer of securities between the CSD and linked CSDs, ensure intra-day finality by prohibiting the retransfer of securities before the first transfer of securities becomes final;
- (iii) sets out the respective rights and obligations of the CSD and linked CSDs and their respective Members and other participants using their facilities; and
- (iv) in the case of a linked CSD outside the AIFC, sets out clearly the applicable laws that govern each aspect of the CSD’s and the linked CSD’s operations.
(2) The CSD must be able to demonstrate to the AFSA, prior to the establishment of any CSD link, that:
- (a) the link arrangement between the CSD and all linked CSDs, contains adequate mitigants against possible risks taken by the relevant CSDs, including credit, concentration and liquidity risks, as a result of the link arrangement;
- (b) each linked CSD has robust daily reconciliation procedures to ensure that its records are accurate;
- (c) if it or another linked CSD uses an intermediary to operate a link with another CSD, the CSD or the linked CSD has adequate systems and controls to measure, monitor, and manage the additional risks arising from the use of the intermediary;
- (d) to the extent practicable and feasible, linked CSDs provide for Delivery Versus Payment (DVP) settlement of transactions between participants in linked CSDs, and where such settlement is not practicable or feasible, reasons for non-DVP settlement are notified to the AFSA before the link is approved ; and
- (e) where interoperable securities settlement systems and CSDs use a common settlement infrastructure, there are:
- (i) identical moments established for the entry of transfer orders into the system;
- (ii) irrevocable transfer orders; and
- (iii) finality of transfers of securities and cash.
4.5.3. Exchange-of-value settlement systems
An Authorised Clearing House operating an exchange-of-value settlement system must eliminate principal risk by ensuring that the final settlement of one obligation occurs if and only if the final settlement of the linked obligation also occurs, regardless of whether the Authorised Clearing House settles on a gross or net basis and when finality occurs
4.6. Default management
4.6.1. Default rules in respect of Market Contracts
(1) An Authorised Clearing House must have Default Rules which, in the event of a Member of the Authorised Clearing House being or appearing to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more Market Contracts, enable action to be taken to close out his position in relation to all unsettled Market Contracts to which he is a party.
(2) The rules may authorise the taking of the same or similar action where a Member appears to be likely to become unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more Market Contracts.
(3) If an Authorised Clearing House has arrangements for transacting business with, or in relation to common Members of, another Authorised Market Institution, it must have Default Rules which enable action to be taken in respect of unsettled Market Contracts to which that Authorised Market Institution is a party in the event of the Authorised Market Institution being or appearing to be unable to meet its obligations in respect of one or more Market Contracts.
Guidance
The AIFC Insolvency Rules contain provisions which protect action taken by an Authorised Clearing House under its Default Rules from the normal operation of insolvency law which might otherwise leave this action open to challenge by a relevant office-holder.
4.6.2. Content of Default Rules
The Default Rules of an Authorised Clearing House must clearly define and specify:
- (a) circumstances which constitute a default, addressing both financial and operational default, and how the different types of default may be treated by the Authorised Clearing House;
- (b) the method for identifying a default (including any automatic or discretionary default scenarios, and how the discretion is exercised in any discretionary default scenarios);
- (c) potential changes to the normal settlement practices in a default scenario;
- (d) the management of transactions at different stages of processing;
- (e) the expected treatment of proprietary and client transactions and accounts;
- (f) the probable sequencing of actions that the Authorised Clearing House may take;
- (g) the roles, obligations and responsibilities of various parties, including the Authorised Clearing House, the defaulting Member and non defaulting participants;
- (h) how to address the defaulting Member's obligations to clients;
- (i) how to address the allocation of any credit losses it may face as a result of any individual or combined default among its participants with respect to their obligations to the Authorised Clearing House and how stress events are dealt with; and
- (j) any other mechanisms that may be activated to contain the impact of a default, including:
- (i) a default contribution fund, whereby defaulting and non‐defaulting Members or participants' pre‐funded contributions to the default contribution fund are applied to cover the losses or shortfall arising on a default on the basis of a predetermined order of priority; and
- (ii) a resolution regime of the defaulting participant, involving "porting"; or
- (iii) transferring the open positions and margin related to client transactions to a non‐defaulting participant, receiver, third party or bridge financial company; and
- (k) for all remaining rights and liabilities of the defaulter under or in respect of unsettled Market Contracts to be discharged and for there to be paid by or to the defaulter such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the rules, by offsetting all relevant rights, assets and liabilities on the relevant account; and
- (l) for the certification by or on behalf of the Authorised Clearing House of the sum finally payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable, separately for each account of the defaulter; and
- (m) the Authorised Clearing House's segregation and portability arrangements, including the method for determining the value at which client positions will be transferred; and
- (n) provisions ensuring that losses that arise as a result of the default of a Member of the Authorised Clearing House or threaten the Authorised Clearing House's solvency are allocated with a view to ensuring that the Authorised Clearing House can continue to provide the services and carry on the activities specified in its recognition order.
4.6.3. Notification to other parties affected
An Authorised Clearing House must have adequate arrangements for ensuring that parties to unsettled Market Contracts with a defaulter are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of any decision taken under the rules in relation to contracts to which they are a party.
4.6.4. Cooperation with other authorities
An Authorised Clearing House must cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the AFSA and any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of or connected with the default of a Member of the Authorised Clearing House or the default of another Authorised Clearing House or an Authorised Investment Exchange.
4.6.5. Margin
- (a) The rules of an Authorised Clearing House must provide that in the event of a default, margin provided by the defaulter for his own account is not to be applied to meet a shortfall on a client account other than a client account of the defaulter.
- (b) This rule is without prejudice to the requirements of any rules relating to clients’ money made by the AFSA.
- (c) For the purposes of this rule, “client account of the defaulter” means an account held by the Authorised Clearing House in the name of the defaulter in which transactions effected by the defaulter have been recorded.
4.6.6. Segregation
(1) An Authorised Clearing House acting as a Central Counterparty must have systems and procedures to enable segregation and portability of positions of the customers of its Members and other participants on its facilities, and any collateral provided to it with respect to those positions.
(2) For the purposes of (1), an Authorised Clearing House’s systems and controls must, at a minimum, provide for the following:
- (a) the segregation and portability arrangements that effectively protect the positions and related collateral of the customers of the Members or other participants on its facilities from the default or insolvency of the relevant Member or other participants;
- (b) if the Authorised Clearing House offers additional protection of the customer positions and related collateral against the concurrent default of both the relevant Member or other participants or other customers, the adoption of necessary measures to ensure that the additional protection offered is effective; and
- (c) the use of account structures that enable the Authorised Clearing House to readily identify positions of the customers of the relevant Member or other participant, and to segregate their related collateral.
(3) An Authorised Clearing House acting as a Central Counterparty must make available to its Members and other participants using its facilities, its rules, policies and procedures relating to the segregation and portability of the positions and related collateral of the customers of its Members and other participants using its facilities.
5. SUPERVISION
5.1. Introduction
Guidance
The provisions of this chapter are additional to:
- (a) the provisions of Chapter 6 of GEN (Supervision) to which an Authorised Market Institution is also subject as an Authorised Person; and
- (b) the powers in respect of Authorised Market Institutions conferred upon the AFSA in the Framework Regulations.
5.2. Information and notifications
5.2.1. Information gathering on the AFSA’s own initiative
(a) The AFSA or (as the case may be) its officers may, by notice in writing, require an Authorised Market Institution or any Person who is connected to the Authorised Market Institution to provide or produce specified information or information of a specified description, at a specified place and before the end of a reasonable period, in such form and with such verifications or authentications as it may reasonably require.
(b) A Person is connected with an Authorised Market Institution if he is or has at any relevant time been:
- i. a member of the Authorised Market Institution’s group;
- ii. a Controller of the Authorised Market Institution;
- iii. a member of the Governing Body of the Authorised Market Institution; or
- iv. any other member of a partnership of which the Authorised Market Institution is a member.
5.2.2. Ongoing notification obligations
An Authorised Market Institution must deal with AFSA in an open and co-operative manner and keep the AFSA promptly informed of significant events or activities, wherever they are carried on, relating to the Authorised Market Institution, of which the AFSA would reasonably expect to be notified, including but not limited to, any matters that might impair the Authorised Market Institution’s ability to discharge its regulatory functions.
5.2.3. Notification of significant breaches by the Authorised Market Institution or its Employees
An Authorised Market Institution must advise the AFSA immediately if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that a significant breach by the Authorised Market Institution or any of its Employees of a Rule or any other requirement imposed by the AFSA may have occurred or may be about to occur.
5.2.4. Notification of significant breaches of the Business Rules
An Authorised Market Institution must advise the AFSA immediately if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that a significant breach by any Person of its Business Rules may have occurred or may be about to occur.
5.2.5. Notification of changes in constitution and governance
An Authorised Market Institution must give notice to the AFSA in the following circumstances, setting out written particulars of the matters concerned and any relevant dates:
- (a) Where an Authorised Market Institution is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association or other document relating to its constitution, to:
- i. its shareholders or any group or class of them;
- ii. Persons granted access to its facilities or any group or class of them; or
- iii. any other group or class of Persons which has the power to make that amendment or whole consent or approval is required before it may be made.
- (b) Where an Authorised Market Institution makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association, or other document relating to its constitution.
- (c) Where any significant change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or to the corporate governance framework or the remuneration structure or strategy of the Authorised Market Institution.
5.2.6. Notification of complaints
Where an Authorised Market Institution has investigated a complaint arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, and the conclusion is that the Authorised Market Institution should:
- (a) make a compensatory payment to any Person; or
- (b) remedy the matter which was the subject of that complaint, the Authorised Market Institution must immediately notify the AFSA of that event and give the AFSA a copy of the report and particulars of the recommendation as soon as that report or those recommendations are available to it.
5.2.7. Notification of admission to or removal from trading
Where an Authorised Investment Exchange proposes to suspend or remove from trading or admit to trading, by means of its facilities, a class of Security or Unit in a Listed Fund which it has not previously traded, but is licensed to do so, it must give the AFSA notice of that event, at the same time as the proposal is communicated to Persons granted access to its facilities or shareholders, with the following information:
- (a) a description of the Investment to which the proposal relates; and
- (b) the name of any clearing or settlement facility in respect of that Investment.
5.2.8. Notification of removal from or admission to clearing
Where an Authorised Clearing House proposes to cease clearing or settling, or to commence clearing or settling, by means of its facilities, a class of Security, Unit in a Listed Fund, Commodity Derivative, or Environmental Instrument which it has not previously cleared or settled, but is licensed to do so, it must give the AFSA notice of that event, at the same time as the proposal is communicated to Persons granted access to its facilities or shareholders, with the following information:
- (a) a description of the Investment to which the proposal relates; and
- (b) the name of any trading facility in respect of that Investment.
5.3. Financial and other information
5.3.1. Annual reports and accounts
Authorised Market Institution must give the AFSA:
- (a) a copy of its audited annual financial statements; and
- (b) a copy of any audited consolidated annual financial statements of any group of which the Authorised Market Institution is a member;
no later than when the first of the following events occurs:
- (c) four months after the end of the financial year to which the document relates;
- (d) the time when the documents are sent to Persons granted access to the facilities or shareholders of the Authorised Market Institution; or
- (e) the time when the document is sent to a holding company of the Authorised Market Institution.
5.3.2. Audit committee reports
Where an audit committee of an Authorised Market Institution has received a report in relation to any period or any matter relating to any regulatory functions of that Authorised Market Institution, the Authorised Market Institution must immediately give the AFSA a copy of that report.
5.3.3. Quarterly management accounts
An Authorised Market Institution must give the AFSA a copy of its quarterly management accounts within one month of the end of the period to which they relate.
5.3.4. Forward-looking estimates
An Authorised Market Institution must give the AFSA:
- (a) a statement of its anticipated income, expenditure and cash flow for each financial year; and
- (b) an estimated balance sheet showing its position as it is anticipated at the end of each financial year; at least 15 days before the beginning of that financial year.
5.3.5. Fees and charges
An Authorised Market Institution must give the AFSA a summary of:
- (a) any proposal for changes to the fees or charges levied on users of its facilities, or any group or class of them, at the same time as the proposal is communicated to the relevant users; and
- (b) any such change, no later than the date when it is published and notified to relevant parties.
6. [intentionally omitted]
6.1. [intentionally omitted]
(1)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must, at the time a Licence is granted and at all times thereafter, have:
- (a)transparent and non-discriminatory rules and procedures to ensure fair and orderly trading of Digital Assets on its facility;
- (b)objective criteria governing access to its facility;
- (c)objective and transparent criteria for determining the Investments that can be traded on its facility; and
- (d)adequate technology resources.
(2)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must maintain effective arrangements to verify that its members comply with requirements set out in COB, AML.
(3)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must not introduce a liquidity incentive scheme other scheme for encouraging bids on a trading venue or to increase the volume of business transacted unless it has obtained the prior approval of the AFSA.
(4)For the purposes of (1), an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must make available to the public, without any charges, data relating to the quality of execution of transactions on the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility on at least an annual basis. Reports must include details about price, costs, speed and likelihood of execution for individual Digital Assets.
6.2. [intentionally omitted]
(1)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility’s Rules must:
- (a)be based on objective criteria;
- (b)be non-discriminatory;
- (c)be clear and fair;
- (d)be made publicly available free of charge;
- (e)contain provisions for the resolution of Members’ and other participants’ disputes;
- (f)contain provisions for penalties or sanctions which may be imposed by the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility for a breach of the Rules; and
- (g)contain provisions for an appeal process from the decisions of the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility.
(2)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must seek prior approval of its Rules (Business Rules, Admission to Trading Rules, Membership Rules) and of amendments to its Rules by:
- (a)making its Rules available for market consultation for no less than 30 days; and
- (b)obtaining approval of the AFSA.
(3)Where an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility has made any amendments to its Rules, it must have adequate procedures for notifying users and the AFSA of such amendments with a notice period of at least 30 days prior to making any amendments to its Rules available for market consultation.
(4)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must have procedures in place to ensure that its Rules are monitored and enforced.
6.3. [intentionally omitted]
6.3.1. Admission to Trading Rules
(1) An Authorised Private E-currency Trading Facility must make clear and transparent rules concerning the admission of Private E currencies to trading on its facilities.
(2) The rules of the Authorised Private E-currency Trading Facility must ensure that:
- (a) Private E-currencies admitted to trading on an Authorised Private E-currency Trading Facility’s facilities are capable of being traded in a fair, orderly and efficient manner; and
- (b) Private E-currencies admitted to trading on an Authorised Private E-currency Trading Facility’s facilities are freely negotiable.
6.3.2. Application for admission of Digital Assets to Trading
(1)Applications for the admission of a Digital Asset to trading can be made to an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility by the issuer of the Digital Asset, by a third party on behalf of and with the consent of the issuer of the Digital Asset, or by a Member of an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility.
(2)A Digital Asset can also be admitted to trading on the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility’s own initiative.
(3)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must, before admitting any Digital Asset to trading:
(a)be satisfied that the applicable requirements, including those in its Admission to Trading Rules, have been or will be fully complied with in respect of such Digital Asset and
(b)obtain approval of the AFSA in respect of such Digital Asset.
(4)For the purposes of (1), an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must notify an applicant in writing of its decision in relation to the application for admission of the Digital Asset to trading. In the case that such decision is to deny the application, the written notice should indicate (i) whether the application has been considered by the AFSA, and if so, (ii) the AFSA’s determination in respect thereof.
(5)For purposes of 3(b), an application to AFSA by Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility shall include:
(a)a copy of the admission application; and
(b)any other information requested by the AFSA.
6.3.3. Decision-making procedures for the AFSA in relation to applications for approval of the admission of Digital Assets to trading
(1)Where an Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility applies for approval of the admission of a Digital Asset to trading, the AFSA may:
- (a)approve the application;
- (b)deny the application; or
- (c)approve the application subject to conditions or restrictions.
(2)The AFSA may exercise its powers under (1)(b) where the AFSA reasonably considers that:
- (a)granting the Digital Assets admission to trading of Digital Assets would be detrimental to the interests of Persons dealing in the relevant Digital Assets using the facilities of an Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility or otherwise; or
- (b)any requirements imposed by the AFSA or in the Rules of an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility as are applicable have not been or will not be complied with; or
- (c)the Issuer of the Digital Assets has failed or will fail to comply with any obligations applying to it including those relating to having its Digital Assets admitted to trading or traded in another jurisdiction.
(3)Where the AFSA denies an application for approval of admission of a Digital Asset to trading pursuant to (2), such Digital Assets must not be admitted by an Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility to its facility.
(4)Where the AFSA approves an application for approval of admission of a Digital Asset to trading subject to conditions or restrictions, the Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility is responsible for implanting such conditions and restrictions in admitting the Digital Asset to trading, and such conditions or restrictions may not be varied or removed without the approval of the AFSA.
6.3.4. Undertaking to comply with the acting law of the AIFC
An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility may not admit Digital Asset to trading unless the person who seeks to have Digital Assets admitted to trading:
- (a)gives an enforceable undertaking to the AFSA to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC in relation to any matters which arise out of or which relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution;
- (b)agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC Courts in relation to any disputes, or other proceedings in the AIFC, which arise out of or relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution; and
- (c)agrees in writing to subject itself to the acting law of the AIFC in relation to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution.
6.3.5. Review of compliance
The Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must maintain arrangements regularly to review whether the Digital Assets admitted to trading on its facilities comply with the Admission to Trading Rules.
Trading Rules. 6.4. [intentionally omitted]
6.4.1. Power to suspend
(1)The rules of an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must provide that the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility have the power to suspend or remove from trading on its facilities any Digital Assets with immediate effect or from such date and time as may be specified where it is satisfied that there are circumstances that warrant such action or it is in the interests of the AIFC.
(2)The AFSA may direct an Authorised Person Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility to suspend or remove Digital Assets from trading with immediate effect or from such date and time as may be specified if it is satisfied there are circumstances that warrant such action or it is in the interests of the AIFC.
(3)The AFSA may withdraw a direction made under (2) at any time.
(4)Digital Assets that are suspended from trading of Digital Assets remain admitted to trading for the purposes of this Chapter.
(5)The AFSA may prescribe any additional requirements or procedures relating to the removal or suspension of Digital Assets from or restoration of Digital Assets to trading.
6.4.2. Limitation on power to suspend or remove Digital Assets from trading
The rules of an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must contain provisions for orderly suspension and removal from trading on its facilities any Digital Asset which no longer complies with its rules taking into account the interests of investors and the orderly functioning of the financial markets of the AIFC.
6.4.3. Publication of decision
(1)Where the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility suspends or removes any Digital Asset from trading on its facilities, it must notify the AFSA in advance and make that decision public by issuing a public notice on its website.
(2)Where the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility lifts a suspension or re-admits any Digital Asset to trading on its facilities, it must notify the AFSA in advance and make that decision public by issuing a public notice on its website.
(3)Where an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility has made any decisions on admission, suspension, or removal of Digital Assets from trading on its facilities, it must have adequate procedures for notifying users of such decisions.
6.5. [intentionally omitted]
6.5.1. Trading transparency obligation
An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must make available to the public:
- (a)the current bid and offer prices of Digital Assets traded on its systems on a continuous basis during normal trading hours;
- (b)the price, volume and time of the transactions executed in respect of Digital Assets traded on its facilities in as close to real-time as technically possible; and
- (c)provide price, volume, time and counterparty details to the AFSA within 24 hours of the close of each trading day via a secure electronic feed.
6.5.2. Public notice of suspended or terminated Membership
The Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must promptly issue a public notice on its website in respect of any Member that has a Licence to carry on Market Activities or Regulated Activities whose Membership is suspended or terminated
6.5.3. Cooperation with office-holder
The Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the AFSA, any relevant office-holder and any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of, or connected with, the default of a Member of the Digital Asset Trading Facility.
6.6. [intentionally omitted]
6.6.1. Cyber-security policy
(1)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility shall implement a written cyber security policy setting forth its policies and procedures for the protection of its electronic systems and members and counterparty data stored on those systems, which shall be reviewed and approved by the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility’s governing body at least annually.
(2)The cyber security policy must, as a minimum, address the following areas:
- (a)information security;
- (b)data governance and classification;
- (c)access controls;
- (d)business continuity and disaster recovery planning and resources;
- (e)capacity and performance planning;
- (f)systems operations and availability concerns;
- (g)systems and network security;
- (h)systems and application development and quality assurance;
- (i)physical security and environmental controls;
- (j)customer data privacy;
- (k)vendor and third-party service provider management; and
(l)incident response.
(3)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must advise the AFSA immediately if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that a significant breach by any Person of its cyber security policy may have occurred or may be about to occur.
6.6.2. Technology governance
An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must, as a minimum, have in place systems and controls with respect to the procedures describing the creation, management and control of digital wallets and private keys.
6.6.3. Trading controls
An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must be able to:
- (a)reject orders that exceed its pre-determined volume and price thresholds, or that are clearly erroneous;
- (b)temporarily halt or constrain trading on its facilities if necessary or desirable to maintain an orderly market; and
- (c)cancel, vary, or correct any order resulting from an erroneous order entry and/or the malfunctioning of the system of a Member.
6.6.4. Settlement and Clearing facilitation services
(1)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must ensure that satisfactory arrangements are made for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise), clearing and settlement of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on the Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions).
(2)An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility acting as a Digital Asset Depository must:
- (a)have appropriate rules, procedures, and controls, including robust accounting practices, to safeguard the rights of Digital Assets issuers and holders, prevent the unauthorised creation or deletion of Digital Assets, and conduct periodic and at least daily reconciliation of each Digital Asset balance it maintains for issuers and holders;
- (b)prohibit overdrafts and debit balances in Digital Assets accounts;
- (c)maintain Digital Assets in an immobilised or dematerialised form for their transfer by book entry;
- (d)protect assets against custody risk through appropriate rules and procedures consistent with its legal framework;
- (e)ensure segregation between the Digital Asset Depository’s own assets and the Digital Assets of its participants and segregation among the Digital Assets of participants; and
- (f)identify, measure, monitor, and manage its risks from other custody related activities that it may perform.
6.7. [intentionally omitted]
6.7. Clients of an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility and Investment limits
(1) Members of an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility and their clients will be Clients of an Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility.
(2) An Authorised Digital Asset Trading Facility must maintain effective systems and controls to ensure that a Retail Client using its service does not invest, in respect of all Digital Assets in aggregate calculated over a period of one month, an amount which exceeds the greater of:
a) USD 1,000; or
b) the lesser of (i) 10 percent of the annual income; or (ii) 5 percent of the net worth of such Retail Client (excluding the value of the primary residence), up to a maximum aggregate amount of USD100,000.
7. RULES APPLICABLE TO AN AUTHORISED CROWDFUNDING PLATFORM
7.1. Application
7.1.1 The terminology used in this Chapter 7 varies according to the type of Authorised Crowdfunding Platform:
- (a) "Borrower", “Debenture”, "lender", "loan" and "Permitted Loan" for Loan Crowdfunding Platform; and
- (b) "Issuer", "Investor", "Investment" and "Permitted Investment" for Investment Crowdfunding Platform.
7.1.2 AMI 7.2 and 7.3 apply to all Authorised Crowdfunding Platforms (unless specified otherwise).
7.2. Permissible activities
7.2.1 An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform may apply to the AFSA to carry on one or more of the following Regulated and Market Activities:
- (a) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
- (b) Arranging Custody;
- (c) Arranging Deals in Investments;
- (d) Operating a Representative Office;
- (e) Providing Credit;
- (f) Arranging a Credit Facility;
- (g) Providing Money Services; and
- (h) Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility.
7.2.2 Permitted Investments and Permitted Loans
(1) An Investment Crowdfunding Platform may facilitate a Person investing in the following kinds of Investments ("Permitted Investments") through the Investment Crowdfunding Platform:
- (a) Shares; and
- (b) Units.
(2) A Loan Crowdfunding Platform may facilitate a Person investing in the following kinds of loans ("Permitted Loans") through the Loan Crowdfunding Platform:
- (a) loans;
- (b) Debentures; and
- (c) other financial accommodation.
7.2.3 An Investment Crowdfunding Platform must not facilitate a Person investing in the following kinds of Investments through the Investment Crowdfunding Platform:
- (a) Warrants;
- (b) Certificates;
- (c) Structured Products;
- (d) Derivatives;
- (e) Digital Assets; or
- (f) rights or interests in a Security, Structured Product, Derivative or a Digital Asset
7.3. Requirements for Authorised Crowdfunding Platforms
7.3.1 Clients of an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform
(1) Both Borrowers and lenders (in the case of a Loan Crowdfunding Platform) and Issuers and Investors (in the case of an Investment Crowdfunding Platform) will be Clients of an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform.
(2) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must classify Clients as being in one of the following categories:
(3) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must notify a new Client of its classification in accordance with AMI 7.3.1 in respect of the services provided by it to that Client.
(4) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must classify as a Retail Lender or Retail Investor any Client that is not an Accredited Lender or Accredited Investor.
(5) For the purposes of AMI 7, “Accredited Lender or Accredited Investor” means:
- (a) in respect of a Loan Crowdfunding Platform, any natural person who lends or intends to lend for a total consideration of at least USD100,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) per Borrower across one or more Permitted Loans in any 12-month period; or
- (b) in respect of an Investment Crowdfunding Platform, any natural person who acquires or intends to acquire Permitted Investments for a total consideration of at least USD 100,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) per Issuer across one or more offers in any 12-month period; or
- (c) an Authorised Person; or
- (d) a Body Corporate
7.3.2 Crowdfunding risk disclosure
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must disclose prominently on its website the main risks to lenders or Investors using a Crowdfunding Platform, including (as applicable) that:
- (a) Borrowers or Issuers using the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform may include new businesses and, as many new businesses fail, a loan to such a Borrower or an Investment with such an Issuer may involve high risks, including the loss of all or part of the lender or Investor's money, or delays in payment or the realization of gains;
- (b) Borrowers or Issuers on the Crowdfunding Platform may apply funds borrowed to higher risk activities or investments (for example, to a prospective investments in a property development) and, consequently, a loan to such a Borrower or a Permitted Investment with such an Issuer may involve high risks;
- (c) failure to diversify a portfolio of Permitted Loans or Permitted Investments may lead to greater losses in the event of the default of a relevant Borrower or Issuer;
- (d) the lender may not be able to transfer their Permitted Loans or the Investor may not be able to sell their Permitted Investment when they wish to, or at all; and
- (e) if for any reason the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform ceases to carry on its business, the lender or Investor may lose their money, incur costs or experience delays in being paid.
(2) The disclosure referred to in (1) must be presented in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading.
7.3.3 Information about default or failure rates
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must disclose prominently on its website (as applicable):
- (a) for a Loan Crowdfunding Platform, the actual and expected default rates for Permitted Loans entered into on the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform; and
- (b) for an Investment Crowdfunding Platform, the actual and expected failure rate of Permitted Investments who use the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform.
(2) The information referred to in (1) must:
- (a) for actual default or failure rates, cover the period since the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform began providing the service;
- (b) for expected default or failure rates, set out a summary of the assumptions used in determining those expected rates; and
- (c) be presented in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading.
(3) Where an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform is within its first 12 months of operation, it does not need to disclose actual default or failure rates if no such data is yet available. Where no such data is available during this period, an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform shall disclose that no historic data is available and all default or failure rates disclosed are expected default or failure rates only.
7.3.4 Information about the service and lender or Investor education tools
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must disclose prominently on its website in a way
that is fair, clear and not misleading key information about how its service operates (as applicable), including:
- (a) details of how the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform functions;
- (b) details of how and by whom an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform is remunerated for the service it provides, including fees and charges it imposes;
- (c) any financial interest of an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform or a Related Person that may create a conflict of interest;
- (d) the eligibility criteria for Borrowers or Issuers that use the service;
- (e) the minimum and maximum amounts, if any, of Permitted Loans or Permitted Investments that may be sought by a Borrower or an Issuer using the service;
- (f) what, if any, security or collateral is usually sought from Borrowers or Issuers,
when might rights to enforce such security or apply such collateral be exercised and any limitations in connection therewith;
- (g) the eligibility criteria for lenders or Investors that use the service;
- (h) any limits on the amounts a lender may lend or an Investor may invest using the service, including limits for individual Permitted Loans or Permitted Investments and limits that apply over any 12-month period;
- (j) what will happen if Permitted Loans sought by a Borrower or funds sought by an Issuer either fail to meet, or exceed, the target level;
- (k) steps an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform will take if there is a material change in a Borrower's or Issuer's circumstances and the rights of the lender and Borrower or Issuer and Investor in that situation;
- (l) how an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform will deal with overdue payments or a default by a Borrower;
- (m) which jurisdiction's laws will govern the loan agreement between the lender and Borrower or the Investment between Investor and Issuer;
- (n) arrangements and safeguards for Client Assets held or controlled by an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform, including details of any legal arrangements (such as nominee companies) that may be used to hold Client Assets;
- (o) any facility an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform provides to facilitate the transfer of Permitted Loans or sale of Permitted Investments, the conditions for using the facility and any risks relating to the use of that facility;
- (p) measures the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform has in place to ensure the Crowdfunding Platform is not used for money-laundering or other unlawful activities;
- (q) measures the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform has in place for the security of information technology systems and data protection; and
- (r) contingency arrangements the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform has in place to ensure the orderly administration of Permitted Loans if it ceases to carry on business.
(i) when a lender or Investor may withdraw a commitment to provide funding, and the procedure for exercising such a right;
(2) For the purposes of (1), "significant influence" refers to the ability to participate in, direct, or otherwise control the operating decisions of an entity. The existence of significant influence may be evidence in one or more of the following ways:
- (a) representation on the board of directors or equivalent governing body of the entity;
- (b) participation in the policy or decision making process of the entity;
- (c) material transactions between the entity and the person with influence;
- (d) changes to managerial personnel directed by the person with influence; or
- (e) the provision of otherwise sensitive information to the person with influence.
(3) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must make available on its website one or more interactive educational tools which are reasonably designed to promote lender understanding of the services offered by the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform, as further described in (1), and of the key risks of using these services, as further described in 7.3.2.
7.3.5 Risk acknowledgement form
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must ensure that a Retail Lender or Retail Investor provides a signed risk acknowledgement form for each Permitted Loan or Permitted Investment (as applicable) that it makes using the platform.
(2) The risk acknowledgement form under (1) must:
- (a) set out clearly the risks referred to in AMI 7.3.2, 7.3.4;
- (b) require the Retail Lender or Retail Investor to confirm that they understand those risks; and
- (c) be provided before, or at the same time as, the Retail Lender or Retail Investor commits to making the Permitted Loan or Permitted Investment (as applicable).
7.3.6 Due diligence on Borrowers or Issuers
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must not permit a Borrower or Issuer to use its service unless the Borrower or Issuer is a Body Corporate.
(2) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must conduct due diligence on each Borrower or Issuer before allowing it to use its service.
(3) The due diligence under (2) must include, as a minimum, taking reasonable steps to verify in relation to the Borrower or Issuer (as applicable):
- (a) its identity, including details of its incorporation and business registration; and
- (b) the identity and place of domicile of each of its Directors, officers and Controllers.
(4) The AFSA may by written notice, require an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform to conduct additional due diligence on Borrowers and/or Issuers before such Borrowers and/or Issuers are permitted to use the service provided by the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform.
7.3.7 Disclosure of information about the Borrower or Issuer
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must disclose prominently on its website relevant information about each Borrower or Issuer, including as a minimum:
- (a) the name of the Borrower or Issuer, the full name and position of each of its Directors and officers and the full name of each Controller;
- (b) the place of incorporation of the Borrower or Issuer and the place of domicile of each Director, officer and Controller;
- (c) a description of the Borrower or Issuer's business;
- (d) a detailed description of the proposal for which it is seeking funding including:
- (i) the target level of funding sought and what will happen if that level is not met or is exceeded; and
- (ii) how the funds will be used.
- (e) the results of any due diligence carried out by the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform on the Borrower or Issuer and any limits on the due diligence that could be carried out;
- (f) the grading or rating by the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform of the Borrower or Issuer's creditworthiness (if any), including:
- (i) how the grading or rating has been assessed;
- (ii) an explanation of what the different grading or rating levels mean; and
- (iii) a clear statement that this should not be taken as advice about whether money should be lent to the Borrower or an Investment should be made with the Issuer;
- (g) that the Borrower or Issuer, and information provided about the Borrower or Issuer, are not checked or approved by the AFSA; and
- (h) other disclosure documents that contain the necessary information which is material to Retail Investors or Retail Lenders for making an informed investment decision.
(2) The disclosures referred to in (1) must be presented in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading.
7.3.8 Disclosure of information about the Permitted Loan or Permitted Investment
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must disclose prominently on its website relevant information about each Permitted Loan or Permitted Investment offered by a Borrower (as applicable), including as a minimum:
- (a) for a Permitted Loan, the duration of the Permitted Loan, details of interest payable and any other rights attaching to the Permitted Loan;
- (b) for an issue of Permitted Investments, any rights attaching to the Permitted Investments, such as a dividend, voting or pre-emption rights;
- (c) whether any security is being provided and, if so, the details of that security including the circumstances in which it might be exercised and any limitations on its use;
- (d) for a Permitted Loan, if applicable, any other reward or benefit attaching to the Permitted Loan and the terms on which it is available; and
- (e) for an issue of Permitted Investments, whether Investors have any protection from their interest or holding being diluted by the issue of further Permitted Investments.
(2) The disclosures referred to in (1) must be presented in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading.
7.3.9 Proposals not to be advertised outside platform
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must:
- (a) not advertise a specific lending or Investment proposal that is available on the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform; and
- (b) take reasonable steps to ensure that Borrowers or Issuers that use the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform do not advertise the lending or Investment proposal, unless the advertisement is made on the platform and is accessible only to existing Clients who use the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform.
7.3.10 Material changes affecting a Borrower or Issuer
(1) This Rule applies if, in the reasonable opinion of an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform, a material change occurs relating to a Borrower or Issuer, its business, its proposal or the carrying out of its proposal.
(2) In this Rule, a "material change" means any change or new matter that may significantly affect the Borrower or Issuer's ability to meet its payment obligations under the loan agreement or its ability to carry out its proposal.
(3) If the material change occurs during the Commitment Period, an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must:
- (a) notify committed lenders or Investors of the material change and require them to reconfirm their commitment within 5 business days; and
- (b) if reconfirmation is not provided within the period specified in (a), cancel the commitment.
(4) If the material change occurs after the Commitment Period, an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must disclose prominently on its website:(a) details of the material change;
- (b) any change in the rights of the lenders and the Borrower, or the Investors and Issuer, arising from the material change; and
- (c) what steps, if any, the operator is proposing to take as a result of the change.
(5) A disclosure or notification under (3) or (4) must be made as soon as practicable after the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform becomes aware of the material change.
7.3.11 Borrower or Issuer use of other platforms
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must:
- (a) take reasonable steps to identify where a Borrower or Issuer is seeking, or proposes to seek, funding on another Authorised Crowdfunding Platform during the Commitment Period; and
- (b) where it identifies that a Borrower or Issuer is seeking, or proposes to seek, funding on another Authorised Crowdfunding Platform during the Commitment Period, disclose this fact to lenders or Investors.
7.3.12 Equal treatment of lenders or Investors
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must ensure that lenders or Investors who use its service are able to have access to the same information on its website about a Borrower or a lending proposal or an Issuer or an Investment proposal, and that access to the information is provided at the same time.
(2) If an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform provides an auto-lending or auto-investment system, or any other facility that provides some lenders or Investors with the opportunity to lend money ahead of other lenders or Investors, it must disclose prominently on its website that some lenders or Investors may have preferential access to alternative proposals or terms.
7.3.13 No suitability disclosure
(1) If an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform provides an auto-lending or auto-investment system it must disclose prominently to lenders or Investors who use the facility that no assessment is made that any Permitted Loan or Permitted Investment selected by the system is suitable for the lender or Investor.
7.3.14 An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform not to permit staff to use the platform
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must take reasonable steps to ensure that its officers, employees, their Family Members and any Related Persons do not:
7.3.15 Forums
(1) If an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform provides a means of communication (a "forum") for Borrowers and lenders or Issuers and Investors to discuss funding proposals made using the service, it must:
- (a) refer lenders or Investors to the forum as a place where they can find, or take part in, further discussion about proposals, while clearly stating that the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform does not conduct due diligence on information on the forum;
- (b) restrict posting of comments on the forum to Persons who are Clients using the service;
- (c) ensure that all Clients using the forum have equal access to information posted on the forum;
- (d) require a Person posting a comment on the forum to disclose clearly if he is affiliated in any way with a Borrower or Issuer or is being compensated, directly or indirectly, to promote a proposal by a Borrower or Issuer;
- (e) take reasonable steps to monitor and prevent posts on the forum that are potentially misleading or fraudulent;
- (f) immediately take steps to remove a post, or to require a post to be deleted or amended, if an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform becomes aware that (d) or (e) have not been complied with; and
- (g) not participate in discussions on the forum except to moderate posts or to take steps referred to in (f).
7.3.16 Facility for transfer of Permitted Loans or Permitted Investments
(1) If an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform provides a facility that assists the transfer of rights or obligations under a Permitted Loan or the sale of Permitted Investments, it must ensure that (as applicable):
- (a) the facility relates only to Permitted Loans or Permitted Investments originally facilitated using its service;
- (b) transfers can take place only between lenders or Investors who are already Clients using the service and have initially lent money under a Permitted Loan or initially subscribed for Permitted Investments using the service;
- (c) in the case of a Permitted Loan, the facility allows only a lender (and not the Borrower) to transfer rights and obligations under the agreement;
- (d) in the case of a Permitted Loan, a lender must transfer the rights and obligations relating to the whole of a Permitted Loan made (and not just a part of the Permitted Loan);
- (e) potential transferees or buyers have access to all information on the website about the Borrower or Issuer that was available to earlier lenders; and
- (f) fees it charges for the use of the facility are designed to recover its costs of providing the facility, rather than generating additional income.
7.3.17 Business cessation plan
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must:
- (a) maintain a business cessation plan that sets out appropriate contingency arrangements to ensure the orderly administration of Permitted Loans in the event that it ceases to carry on its business (including details of how any Loan Administrator, administrator and/or nominee company will continue to operate following the cessation of business); and
- (b) ensure, as far as reasonably practicable, that the contingency arrangements can be implemented if necessary.
7.3.18 AFSA power to impose a prohibition or requirement
(1) The AFSA may prohibit an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform from:
- (a) entering into certain specified transactions or agreements or types of transactions or agreements; or
- (b) outsourcing any of its functions or activities to a third party.
(2) The AFSA may, by written notice or guidance, set fees payable by an Authorised Crowdfunding Platforms to the AFSA on certain specified transactions or types of transactions.
7.3.19 Complaints
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform shall establish and maintain written policies and procedures to resolve complaints made against it or other parties (including Clients) in a fair and timely manner.
(2) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must provide, in a clear and conspicuous manner: on its website or websites; in all physical locations; and in any other location the AFSA may prescribe, the following disclosures:
- (a) the mailing address, email address and telephone number for the receipt of complaints;
- (b) a statement that the complainant may also bring his or her complaint to the attention of the AFSA;
- (c) the AFSA's mailing address, website and telephone number; and
- (d) such other information as the AFSA may require.
(3) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform shall report to the AFSA any change in its complaints policies or procedures within ten days of such change being made.
(4) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must maintain a record of any complaint made against it or other parties (including Clients) for a minimum period of six years from the date of receipt of the complaint.
7.3.20 Obligation to report transactions
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform shall report to the AFSA details of transactions which are executed through its platform.
(2) The AFSA may, by written notice or Guidance, specify:
- (a) the information to be included in reports made under (1); and
- (b) the manner in which such reports are to be made.
7.3.21 Cooling-off period
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must ensure that lenders or Investors who have committed to providing funding to a particular Borrower or purchasing an Permitted Investment or Permitted Loan from a particular Issuer or Borrower may withdraw that commitment, without any penalty and without giving a reason, during the cooling-off period.
(2) In (1), "cooling-off period" means the period of at least 48 hours starting at the end of the Commitment Period.
7.3.22 Target funding amount
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must ensure that all loan proceeds are only provided to the Borrower or offering proceeds are only provided to the Investor when the aggregate capital raised from all lenders or Investors is equal to or greater than the target funding amount and allow all lenders or Investors to cancel their commitments to lend or invest, as the AFSA shall determine appropriate.
7.3.23 Lending and Investment limits
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must maintain effective systems and controls to ensure that a Retail Lender or Retail Investor using its service does not lend or Invest, in respect of any single Borrower or Issuer and in aggregate calculated over a period of 12 months, an amount which exceeds the greater of:
- (a) USD 2,000; or
- (b) the lesser of
(i) 10 percent of the annual income; or
(ii) 5 percent of net worth of such Retail Lender or Retail Investor (excluding the value of the primary residence), up to a maximum aggregate amount of USD100,000.
7.3.24 Fundraising limits
(1) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform must maintain effective systems and controls to ensure that:
- (a) a Borrower does not borrow from:
- (i) Retail Lenders more than USD 5,000,000 in total; and
- (ii) Accredited Lenders more than USD 50,000,000 in total; and/or
- (b) the total aggregate consideration for the Permitted Investments offered by an Issuer to:
- (i) Retail Investors using its service is USD 5,000,000 or less; and
- (ii) Accredited Investors using its service is USD 50,000,000 or less; or an equivalent amount in another currency, calculated over a period of 12 months
7.3.25 Market Rules
(1) The issue of Permitted Investments or Debentures may result in the application of requirements under the Markets Rules (MAR) such as Market Abuse provisions or, if an offer is not an Exempt Offer or offer of Securities by way of placement, Prospectus requirements.
7.4. Additional Requirements for Loan Crowdfunding Platforms
7.4.1 Written loan agreement
(1) A Loan Crowdfunding Platform must ensure that, when a Permitted Loan is made using its service, there is a written loan agreement in place between the Borrower and lender that is legally enforceable and sets out sufficient details of the loan, the terms of repayment and the rights and obligations of the Borrower and lender.
7.4.2 Loan Administration
(1) A Loan Crowdfunding Platform must have in place arrangements to administer the collection of amounts due and payable under a Permitted Loan.
(2) The arrangements in (1) shall include procedures for taking steps to collect overdue amounts and/or enforce a Permitted Loan in default on behalf of lenders including such steps as are necessary to enforce any security or apply any collateral that the Borrower may have provided in connection with the Permitted Loan;
(3) The arrangements in (1) may be carried out by the Loan Crowdfunding Platform by itself or by such other Person as the Loan Crowdfunding Platform may appoint (a "Loan Administrator").
SCHEDULE 1: COMMODITY DERIVATIVE CONTRACT DELIVERY SPECIFICATIONS
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Application
This Schedule applies to an Authorised Market Institution which trades, or clears or settles, on its facilities Commodity Derivative contracts which require physical delivery of the underlying commodity.
- Deliverability of the underlying commodity
An Authorised Market Institution must, for the purposes of meeting the requirement in AMI 3.2.2-1.(1)(c) ensure that the terms and conditions of the Commodity Derivative contracts which are to be traded, or cleared or settled, on its facilities, are designed to include the matters specified in this Schedule.
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Quality or deliverable grade
A Commodity Derivative contract must include specifications of commodity characteristics for par delivery, including those relating to grade, class, and weight. The quality or grade specified must conform to the prevailing practices in the underlying physical market relating to the relevant commodity.
Guidance
Par delivery envisages delivery of commodities which are of a comparable quality or grade as specified in the contract. Contracts that call for delivery of a specific quality of commodity may provide commercial participants with a clearer, more efficient hedging and price-basing contracts than a contract that permits delivery of a broad range of commodity grades or classes.
However, as contracts that permit delivery of only a specific grade of commodity may be susceptible to manipulation if that grade of the commodity is in short supply or controlled by a limited number of sellers, an Authorised Market Institution should require appropriate measures to mitigate such risks.
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Size of delivery unit
A Commodity Derivative contract must contain provisions relating to size or composition of delivery units which conform to the prevailing market practice in the underlying physical market to ensure that it does not constitute a barrier to delivery or otherwise impede the performance of the contract.
Guidance
An Authorised Market Institution should, if the provisions relating to size and delivery units of the Commodity Derivatives contract deviate from the underlying physical market, examine the reasons for such deviation and ensure that the risks arising from such deviation can be effectively addressed by the contract parties.
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Delivery instruments
A Commodity Derivative contract must specify the acceptable form or type of delivery instruments, and whether such instruments are negotiable or assignable and, if so, on what conditions.
Guidance
Acceptable delivery instruments include legally acceptable warehouse receipts, bills of lading, shipping certificates, demand certificates, or collateralized depository receipts.
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The delivery process and facilities
A Commodity Derivative contract must specify:
- the delivery process, including timing, location, manner and form of delivery, and
- the delivery or storage facilities available, which conform to the prevailing practices in the underlying physical market to permit effective monitoring and to reduce the likelihood of disruption.
Guidance
An Authorised Market Institution should consider issues associated with the delivery process, including those relating to acceptable delivery locations. Such issues include:
- the level of deliverable supplies normally available, including the seasonal distribution of such supplies;
- the nature of the physical market at the delivery point (e.g., auction market, buying station or export terminal);
- the number of major buyers and sellers; and
- normal commercial practices in establishing cash commodity values.
The delivery months specified in the commodity derivative contract should take into account cyclical production and demand and accord with when sufficient deliverable supplies are expected to exist in the underlying physical market. Seasonality of a commodity should also be taken into account in relation to transport and storage, as it may affect the availability of warehouse space and transportation facilities.
Consistent with the grade differentials noted above, commodity derivative contracts that permit delivery in more than one location should set delivery premiums or discounts consistent with those observed in the underlying physical market. The adequacy of transportation links to and from the delivery point should also be taken into account when setting delivery premiums.
The delivery facilities available can include oil or gas storage facilities, warehouses or elevators for agricultural commodities and bank or vault depositories for precious metals.
An Authorised Market Institution should consider issues relating to the selection of delivery facilities under the contract which include:
- the number and total capacity of facilities meeting contract requirements;
- the proportion of such capacity expected to be available for short traders who may wish to make delivery against commodity derivative contracts and seasonal changes in such proportions;
- the extent to which ownership and control of such facilities is dispersed or concentrated; and
- its ability to access necessary information from such facility.
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Inspection and certification procedures
A Commodity Derivative contract must specify applicable inspection or certification procedures for verifying that the delivered commodity meets the quality or grade specified in the contract, which conform to the prevailing practices in the underlying physical market.
Guidance
If the commodity is perishable, the commodity derivative contract should specify if there are any limits on the duration of the inspection certificate and the existence of any discounts applicable to deliveries of a given age.
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Payment for transportation or storage
A Commodity Derivative contract must specify:
- the respective responsibilities of the parties to the contract regarding costs associated with transporting the commodity to and from the designated delivery point and any applicable storage costs; and
- how and when title to the commodity transfers, including from any short to long position holder.
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Legal enforceability
A Commodity Derivative contract must, where any one or more of the activities of trading, clearing or settlement under the contract take place in different jurisdictions, contain adequate arrangements to mitigate risks arising from any disparity between governing laws applicable in the relevant jurisdictions.
Guidance
An Authorised Market Institution should, when assessing whether the contractual terms adequately provide for addressing jurisdictional risks, take into account:
- whether the contract clearly identifies the different legal requirements applicable in the relevant jurisdictions and any differences, including those relating to the manner in which standard clauses are interpreted;
- the impact such differences may have in dealing with matters such as delivery disputes, and determination of rights in insolvency proceedings; and
- whether the contract contains effective measures to address risk of unenforceability of the contractual terms, particularly those relating to cargos and storage where jurisdictional differences could have a significant impact on the deliverability.
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Default provisions and force majeure
A Commodity Derivative contract must specify:
- the rights and obligations of the parties to the contract in the event of default by the parties, or in the event of frustration of the contract due to force majeure or other specified event; and
- whether any Clearing House guaranties the settlement of the transaction in an event specified in (a), and if so, the manner in which such settlement would occur.
Guidance
An Authorised Market Institution, when considering whether a Commodities Derivative contract adequately provides for contract certainty in the event of default or force majeure, should take into account:
- whether any collateral provided by the contracting parties would be sufficient to address the replacement risk in the performance of the contract; and
- whether there are any monetary consequences attaching to defaulting parties that would act as a disincentive against default.
The contract terms should clearly specify which jurisdictional laws are applicable to the governing law, including where there are any significant variations in the rights and liabilities attaching to the contracting parties for the events that occur in the relevant jurisdiction.
SCHEDULE 2: TRADE REPOSITORY
Requirements applicable to Trade Repositories
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Disclosure of market data by Trade Repositories
A Trade Repository must provide data in line with regulatory and industry expectations to relevant regulatory authorities and the public. Such information must be comprehensive and at a level of detail sufficient to enhance market transparency and support other public policy objectives.
Guidance
- At a minimum, a Trade Repository should provide aggregate data on open positions and transaction volumes and values and categorised data (for example, aggregated breakdowns of trading counterparties, reference entities, or currency breakdowns of products), as available and appropriate, to the public.
- Relevant regulatory authorities should be given access to additional data recorded in a Trade Repository, including participant-level data, as relevant to the respective mandates and legal responsibilities of the relevant regulatory authority (such as market regulation and surveillance, oversight of exchanges, and prudential supervision or prevention of market misconduct).
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Processes and procedures
A Trade Repository must have effective processes and procedures to provide data to relevant authorities in a timely and appropriate manner to enable them to meet their respective regulatory mandates and legal responsibilities.
Guidance
A Trade Repository should have procedures to facilitate enhanced monitoring, special actions, or official proceedings taken by relevant authorities in relation to data on troubled or failed participants by making relevant information in the Trade Repository available in a timely and effective manner. The provision of data from a Trade Repository to relevant authorities should be supported from a legal, procedural, operational, and technological perspective.
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Information systems
A Trade Repository must have robust information systems that enable it to provide accurate current and historical data. Such Data should be provided in a timely manner and in a format that permits it to be easily analysed.
Guidance
A Trade Repository should collect, store, and provide data to participants, regulatory authorities, and the public in a timely manner and in a format that can facilitate prompt analysis. Data should be made available that permits both comparative and historical analysis of the relevant markets.
MARKET RULES
Market Rules
Guidance: Purpose and application of MAR
The purpose of the rules and guidance set out in MAR is to provide the necessary detail in relation to:
- a. the manner in which Securities may be offered for sale;
- b. the conditions for admission of Securities to trading;
- c. Exempt Offerors and Exempt Securities;
- d. the content of a Prospectus;
- e. the approval and publication of a Prospectus;
- f. Prospectus Liability;
- g. Corporate Governance Principles;
- h. Obligations of Reporting Entities including:
- i. the obligation to prepare financial statements; and
- ii. the obligation to appoint a sponsor or compliance adviser if required by the AFSA;
- i. Market Abuse;
- j. Market Disclosure; and
- k. the conditions for admission of Units to trading and the application of the Market Abuse and Market Disclosure Rules to Listed Funds, Units of Listed Funds, and Fund Managers of Listed Funds.
The application of the Rules in MAR is stated in respect of each Rule or apparent from the context.
However, by way of summary:
- • MAR 1 (Offer of Securities) is applicable to all persons who may seek to have Securities
- admitted to trading or to offer Securities by way of placement and to all persons who may be liable for the contents of a Prospectus (as identified in MAR 1.9.1).
- • MAR 2 (Governance of Reporting Entities) applies to Reporting Entities other than a Reporting Entity that is a Listed Fund or a Fund Manager of a Listed Fund (in its capacity as such).
- • MAR 3 (Financial Reports) applies to Reporting Entities other than a Reporting Entity that is a Listed Fund or a Fund Manager of a Listed Fund (in its capacity as such).
- • MAR 4 (Sponsors and Compliance Advisers) applies to Reporting Entities (other than a
- Reporting Entity that is a Listed Fund or a Fund Manager of a Listed Fund (in their capacity as such)) and any person who intends to have Securities admitted to an Official List of Securities or admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange, as well as to sponsors and compliance advisers appointed by them.
- • MAR 5 (Market Abuse) applies to all persons without limitation.
- • MAR 6 (Market Disclosure) applies to Reporting Entities.
- • MAR 7 (Listed Funds) is applicable to all persons who may seek to have Units admitted to trading and applies to Listed Funds, Units of Listed Funds, and Fund Managers of Listed Funds.
As Security Tokens may be issued using DLT or any other similar technology approved by the AFSA, in these Rules, references to the term DLT should also be taken as including any other similar technology approved by the AFSA for the issuance, transfer and storage of a Security Token.
1. OFFER OF SECURITIES
1.1. Offer of Securities
1.1.1 Conditions for admission of Securities to trading and offer of Securities admitted or sought to be admitted to the Official List of an Authorised Investment Exchange
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange may not admit Securities to trading unless:
(a) the Securities have been admitted to the Official List maintained by the Authorised Investment Exchange in accordance with section 66 of the Framework Regulations; and
(b) subject to MAR 1.2 (Exemptions), there is a Prospectus in relation to the relevant Securities that satisfies the requirements of this Part and has been approved by the Authorised Investment Exchange.
(2) Subject to MAR 1.2 (Exemptions), an Authorised Investment Exchange may not permit the offer of Securities, admitted or sought to be admitted to the Official List, in or from the AIFC, unless there is a Prospectus in relation to the relevant Securities that satisfies the requirements of MAR 1.1.1(1)(b).
1.1.2. Conditions for the offer of Securities by way of placement
(1)The Issuer may not offer Securities by way of placement (other than Securities admitted or sought to be admitted to the Official List of an Authorised Investment Exchange) in or from the AIFC, and an Authorised Firm may not conduct, facilitate or participate in such an offer, unless:
- (a) there is a Prospectus in relation to the relevant Securities that satisfies the requirements of this Part and has been approved by the AFSA; or
- (b) the offer satisfies one and one only of the conditions mentioned in subsection (2) below; or
- (c) the offer satisfies one or more of conditions (a), (b) and (m) in subsection (2) below.
(2) The conditions mentioned in subsection (1)(b) above are the following:
- (a) the offer is made to or directed at only Accredited Investors; or
- (b) the offer is directed at fewer than 50 Retail Investors in any 12-month period; or
- (c) the offer is directed at investors who acquire Securities for a total consideration of at least USD100,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) per Person for each separate offer; or
- (d) the Securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least USD100,000 per unit (or an equivalent amount in another currency); or
- (e) the total aggregate consideration for the Securities offered is less than USD100,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) calculated over a period of 12 months; or
- (f) the Securities offered are Shares which are issued in substitution for Shares of the same class as already issued, where the issue of the new Shares does not involve any increase in the issued Share capital; or
- (g) the Securities offered are convertibles issued under a Prospectus to existing members or creditors of the Issuer or a member of its Group and there is no additional consideration to be paid; or
- (h) the Securities offered are offered in connection with a Takeover and an informational document is made available which is considered by the AFSA as being equivalent to that of a Prospectus; or
- (i) the Securities offered are offered, allotted or to be allotted in connection with a merger if an informational document is available which is considered by the AFSA as being equivalent to that of a Prospectus; or
- (j) the Securities offered are offered, allotted or to be allotted in connection with a rights issue where:
- (i) the Securities are of a class subject to Reporting Entity disclosure; and
- (ii) a document is made available to offerees containing information on the number and nature of the Securities including rights attaching to those Securities and the reasons for and details of the offer; or
- (k) the Securities offered are Shares which are offered, allotted or to be allotted to existing Shareholders free of charge or dividends paid out in the form of Shares of the same class as the Shares in respect of which the dividends are paid, and a document is made available to offerees containing information on the number and nature of the Shares and the reasons for and details of the offer; or
- (l) the Securities offered are offered, allotted or to be allotted to an existing or former Director or Employee, or any close relative of such a Director or Employee, of the Issuer or a member of the same Group as the Issuer and:
- (i) the Issuer or the member of the Group already has its Securities admitted to trading on a Regulated Exchange; and
- (ii) a document is made available to the offerees containing information on the number and nature of the Securities and the reasons for and details of the offer; or
- (m) the offer is made to and directed at Retail Investors, provided that the total aggregate consideration for the offer of Securities made under this subsection to Retail Investors is not more than USD5,000,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) calculated over a period of 12 months; or
- (n) the offer is made only through the Authorized Crowdfunding Platform to and directed at only Investors or lenders who are Clients of the Authorised Crowdfunding Platform within the limits set out in AMI.
(3) The following requirements apply to any offer of Securities to Retail Investors by way of placement conducted under subsections (2)(a) through (2)(m) of MAR 1.1.2:
- (a) the Issuer shall make available to each Investor at a reasonable time prior to the purchase of Securities the opportunity to ask questions and receive answers concerning the terms and conditions of the offering and to obtain any additional information which the Issuer possesses or can acquire without unreasonable effort or expense that is necessary to verify the accuracy of information furnished under this section;
- (b) the Issuer, and/or the Authorised Firm conducting, facilitating or participating in such an offer, shall take reasonable steps to verify the status of the Investors;
- (c) the Issuer shall, if Retail Investors are participating in the offering, give any Retail Investor disclosure documents that contain the necessary information which is material to an investor for making an informed investment decision; and
- (d) the Issuer shall file a notice on the results of the offer with the AFSA within 30 days after the sale of Securities in the offering.
(4) Where any Securities are offered by way of placement under subsections (2)(a) through (2)(m) of MAR 1.1.2, neither the Issuer nor any person acting on its behalf shall offer or sell the Securities by any form of general solicitation or general advertising, including, but not limited to, the following:
- (a) any advertisement, article, notice or other communication published in any newspaper, magazine, or similar media or broadcast over television or radio, and
- (b) any seminar or meeting whose attendees have been invited by any general solicitation or general advertising.
(5) For the purposes of subsection (4) above, the advertisement made on the Issuer’s website or website of the Authorised Firm, which facilitates such an offer, is not considered as general solicitation or general advertising.
(6) For the purposes of MAR 1.1.2:
- (a) “Accredited Investor” means:
- (i) any natural person who acquires or intends to acquire Securities for a total consideration of at least USD100,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) per Person for each separate offer; or
- (ii) an Authorised Person; or
- (iii) a Body Corporate.
- (b) “Retail Investor” means any natural person that is not an Accredited Investor, provided that the aggregate amount in current value of Securities which are the subject of the offer that were sold by the offeror to each Retail Investor, during the 12-month period preceding the date of any offer made under this rule, does not exceed the greater of USD2,000 or 10 percent of the annual income or 5 percent of net worth of such Retail Investor (excluding the value of the primary residence), whichever is lesser, but not to exceed a maximum aggregate amount sold of USD100,000.
Guidance
To verify the status of the investors Issuers, and/or the Authorised Firm which facilitates such an offer, could rely on Retail Investors’ self-certification (for example, questionnaires where investors self-report their income and net worth).
1.2. Exemptions
1.2.1. Exempt Offerors
The AFSA may publish a list from time to time identifying bodies to which the requirement in MAR 1.1.1 does not apply
1.2.2. Exempt Securities
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange may admit Securities to trading, and permit the offer of Securities (admitted or sought to be admitted to the Official List) in or from the AIFC, without a Prospectus, if such Securities satisfy one or more of the conditions specified below:
- (a) the offer is made to or directed at only Accredited Investors (as defined in MAR 1.1.2(6)(a)); or
- (b) the Securities being offered are issued and registered in the AIFC and the offer is directed at fewer than 50 investors in any 12-month period; or
- (c) the offer is directed at investors who acquire Securities for a total consideration of at least USD100,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) per Person for each separate offer; or
- (d) the Securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least USD100,000 per unit (or an equivalent amount in another currency); or
- (e) the total aggregate consideration for the Securities offered is less than USD5,000,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) calculated over a period of 12 months; or
- (f)Securities fungible with Securities already admitted to trading on the same Authorised Investment Exchange, provided that they represent, over a period of 12 months, less than 10% of the number of Securities already admitted to trading on the Authorised Investment Exchange; and
- (g) Shares resulting from the conversion or exchange of other Securities or from the exercise of the rights conferred by other Securities, where:
- (i) the resulting Shares are of the same class as the Shares already admitted to trading on the same Authorised Investment Exchange; and
- (ii) the resulting Shares represent, over a period of 12 months, less than 20% of the number of Shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same Authorised Investment Exchange; and
- (h) Shares issued in substitution for Shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same Authorised Investment Exchange, where the issuing of such Shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital; and
- (i)Securities offered in connection with a Takeover by means of an exchange offer, provided that a document is made available to the public in accordance with MAR 1.7, containing information describing the transaction and its impact on the Issuer; and
- (j)Securities offered, allotted or to be allotted in connection with a merger or a division, provided that a document is made available to the public in accordance with MAR 1.7, containing information describing the transaction and its impact on the Issuer; and
- (k) Shares offered, allotted or to be allotted free of charge to existing shareholders, and dividends paid out in the form of Shares of the same class as the Shares in respect of which such dividends are paid provided:
- (i) that the said Shares are of the same class as the Shares already admitted to trading on the same Authorised Investment Exchange; and
- (ii) that a document is made available to offerees containing information on the number and nature of the Shares and the reasons for and details of the offer or allotment; and
- (l)Securities offered, allotted or to be allotted to existing or former Directors or Employees by their employer or an affiliated undertaking, provided:
- (i) that the said Securities are of the same class as the Securities already admitted to trading on the same Authorised Investment Exchange; and
- (ii) that a document is made available to offerees containing information on the number and nature of the Securities and the reasons for and detail of the offer or allotment; and
- (m) Securities already admitted to trading on another Authorised Investment Exchange, Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution or other Equivalent Regulated Exchange (“the other market”), where:
- (i) the Securities, or Securities of the same class, have been admitted to trading and continuously traded on the other market for more than 18 months; and
- (ii) the ongoing obligations for trading on that other market have been complied with; and
- (iii) the Person requesting the admission to trading of the Securities under this exemption makes available to the public in accordance with MAR 1.7.6 a Prospectus Summary in accordance with MAR 1.4 (Prospectus Summary) in the English language, which is approved by the Authorised Investment Exchange and which states where the most recent Prospectus can be obtained and where the financial information published by the Issuer pursuant to its ongoing disclosure obligations is available. For the purpose of this sub-clause, references to a “Prospectus” in MAR 1.4.1, MAR 1.4.4 and MAR 1.4.7 shall be deemed references to a “Prospectus Summary” and the provisions of MAR 1.4.1(c), MAR1.4.4(a)(iv) and (b)(i) shall not apply.
(2) For the purposes of MAR 1.2.2 (1)(m):
- (a) “Equivalent”, in relation to a Regulated Exchange, means that the AFSA has determined, either on the application of an Issuer or upon its own initiative, that investors in Securities admitted to trading on the facilities of such Regulated Exchange are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded, if the Issuer were required to comply with MAR 1.1.1(1) without regard to MAR 1.2.2(1)(m), having regard to the law and practice of the country or territory in which the head office of the Regulated Exchange is situated and to its rules and practice; and
- (b) the AFSA may publish a list from time to time identifying Regulated Exchanges it has determined to be Equivalent.
1.2.3 Limitations
- (1) The exemptions in MAR 1.2.2(1) from (a) through (e) shall not apply to an offer of Equity Securities if such offer could lead to the immediate or deferred admission to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange over a period of 12 months of more than 10 % of the number of Shares of the same class, to which such Equity Securities are linked, already admitted to trading on the same Authorised Investment Exchange, without a Prospectus being published.
- (2) Offerors relying on the exemptions in MAR 1.2.2(1) from (a) through (e) must comply with the requirements of MAR 1.1.2(4) and (5) relating to limitation of general solicitation or general advertising, as if they were directly referred to therein.
1.3. The Prospectus
Guidance: Prospectus Contents Section 69 of the Framework Regulations provides: A Prospectus must contain:
- (a) the necessary information which is material to an investor for making an informed assessment of:
- (i) the assets and liabilities, profits and losses, financial position, and prospects of the Issuer and of any guarantor;
- (ii) the rights attaching to the Securities; and
- (iii) the reasons for the issuance and its impact on the Issuer; and
- (b) such further documents and information as may be specified by the AFSA pursuant to Section 70 of the Framework Regulations
1.3.1. Prospectus Structure
A Prospectus may be structured either as:
- (a) multiple documents comprising:
- (i) a Prospectus Summary as set out in MAR 1.4; and
- (ii) a Registration Document as set out in MAR 1.5.1 containing all the information relating to the Issuer; and
- (iii) a Securities Note as set out in MAR 1.5.2 containing the information concerning the Securities to be admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange; or
- (b) a single document containing a Prospectus Summary as set out in MAR 1.4 and all the information required to be included in the Registration Document and the Securities Note; or
- (c) for an offer of Shares, a single document containing all the information required to be included in the Registration Document and the Securities Note in relation to the offer of Shares, provided that the expected aggregate market value of such Shares (together with any other Equity Securities admitted to trading on all Regulated Exchanges) at the time of admission to trading does not exceed USD200,000,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) (REMS Shares). A Prospectus in relation to REMS Shares must include a prominent disclaimer that the Issuer is eligible to rely on concessions granted to it as set out in MAR, which exclude such Issuer from being required to prepare a Prospectus Summary and disclose certain other information in its Registration Documents and Securities Notes.
1.3.2. Risk factors
The information in a Prospectus must include:
- (a) risks which are relevant to the Issuer and/or the Securities and which are material for taking an informed investment decision, as corroborated by the content of the Registration Document and Securities Note; and
- (b) where there is a guarantee attached to the Securities, the material risk factors pertaining to the guarantor to the extent that they are relevant to the guarantor’s ability to fulfil its commitment under the guarantee.
Guidance: risk factors
(1) The materiality of the risk factors should be based on the probability of their occurrence and the expected magnitude of their negative impact.
(2) The assessment of the materiality of the risk factors may also be disclosed by using a qualitative scale of low, medium or high.
(3) Each risk factor should be adequately described, explaining how it affects the Issuer or the Securities.
(4) The risk factors should be presented in a limited number of categories depending on their nature. In each category the most material risk factors must be mentioned first.
(5) Risk factors should also include those resulting from the level of subordination of a Security and the impact on the expected size or timing of payments to holders of the Securities in the event of bankruptcy, or any other similar procedure.
1.3.3. Final offer price and amount of Securities
Where the final offer price and/or amount of Securities to be offered, whether expressed in number of Securities or as an aggregate nominal amount, cannot be included in the Prospectus the following must be included in the Prospectus:
- (a) the maximum price and/or the maximum amount of Securities, as far as they are available; or
- (b) the valuation methods and criteria, and/or conditions, in accordance with which the final offer price is to be determined and an explanation of any valuation methods used.
1.3.4. Clarity of the information
The information in a Prospectus must be written and presented in an easily analysable, concise and comprehensible form, taking into account the nature of the Issuer, the type of Securities and the circumstances of the Issuer.
1.3.5. Incorporation by reference
Information that is required to be contained in a Prospectus (apart from information required to be contained in a Prospectus Summary) may be incorporated by reference, provided that:
- (a) the source of information is publicly available on a continuing basis; and
- (b) the information is clearly set out and easily accessible in that source; and
- (c) the information is in the English language; and
- (d) the information can be accessed without charge; and
- (e) the reference contains sufficient information to enable an investor to decide whether to obtain the information or any part of it. Guidance: incorporation by reference Information that may generally be incorporated by reference includes instruments or statute of incorporation of a company, annual reports, periodic financial reports and listing particulars.
1.4. Prospectus Summary
1.4.1. Contents of the Prospectus Summary
The Prospectus Summary must:
- (a) provide the key information that investors need in order to understand the nature and the risks of the Issuer, the guarantor and the Securities;
- (b) contain information that is accurate, fair, clear and not misleading and which is consistent with other parts of the Prospectus;
- (c) not contain cross references to other parts of the Prospectus or incorporate information by reference.
1.4.2. Layout of the Prospectus Summary
The Prospectus Summary must be:
- (a) drawn up as a short document written in a concise manner and of a maximum length of seven sides of A4-sized paper when printed; and
- (b) written in a language and a style that facilitate the understanding of the information, in particular, in language that is clear, non technical, concise and comprehensible for investors; and
- (c) presented and laid out in a way that is easy to read, using characters of readable size.
1.4.3. Sections of the Prospectus Summary
The Prospectus Summary must be made up of the following four sections:
- (a) an introduction, containing warnings; and
- (b) key information on the Issuer; and
- (c) key information on the Securities; and
- (d) (where relevant) key information on the admission to trading.
1.4.4. Section 1: The Introduction
The introduction must contain:
- (a) the following information:
- (i) the name and international securities identification number (ISIN) of the Securities; and
- (ii) where applicable, the identity and contact details of the Issuer, including its legal entity identifier (LEI); and
- (iii) where applicable, the identity and contact details of the Person asking for admission to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange; and
- (iv) the identity and contact details of the Authorised Investment Exchange that approved the Registration Document; and
- (v) the date of approval of the Prospectus; and
- (b) the following warnings:
- (i) the Prospectus Summary should be read as an introduction to the Prospectus; and
- (ii) any decision to invest in the Securities should be based on a consideration of the Prospectus as a whole by the investor; and
- (iii) where applicable, that the investor could lose all or part of the invested capital and, where the investor’s liability is not limited to the amount of the investment, a warning that the investor could lose more than the invested capital and the extent of such potential loss; and
- (iv) civil liability attaches only to those Persons who have tabled the summary including any translation thereof, but only where the summary is misleading, inaccurate or inconsistent, when read together with the other parts of the Prospectus, or where it does not provide, when read together with the other parts of the Prospectus, key information in order to aid investors when considering whether to invest in such Securities.
1.4.5. Section 2: Key information about the Issuer
This section must contain the following information:
- (a) under a sub-section entitled 'Who is the Issuer of the Securities?', a brief description of the Issuer of the Securities, including at least the following:
- (i) its domicile and legal form, its LEI (if applicable), the law under which it operates and its country of incorporation;
- (ii) its principal activities;
- (iii) its major shareholders, including whether it is directly or indirectly owned or controlled and by whom;
- (iv) the identity of its key managing directors;
- (v) the identity of its Auditors;
- (b) under a sub-section entitled 'What is the key financial information regarding the Issuer?' a selection of historical key financial information presented for each financial year of the period covered by the historical financial information, and any subsequent interim financial period accompanied by comparative data from the same period in the prior financial year. Key financial information must, where applicable, include:
- (i) pro forma financial information;
- (ii) a brief description of any qualifications in the audit report relating to the historical financial information;
- (c) under a sub-section entitled 'What are the key risks that are specific to the Issuer?' a brief description in declining order of severity of the most material risk factors (not exceeding 15 risk factors) specific to the Issuer contained in the Prospectus.
1.4.6. Section 3: Key information on Securities
This section must contain the following information:
- (a) under a sub-section entitled 'What are the main features of the Securities?', a brief description of the Securities being admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange including at least:
- (i) their type, class and ISIN; and
- (ii) where applicable, their currency, denomination, par value, the number of Securities issued and the term of the Securities; and
- (iii) the rights attached to the Securities; and
- (iv) the relative seniority of the Securities in the Issuer’s capital structure in the event of insolvency; and
- (v) any restrictions on the free transferability of the Securities; and
- (vi) where applicable, the dividend or payout policy; and
- (b) under a sub-section entitled 'Where will the Securities be traded?', the identity of all known markets where the Securities are or are to be traded; and
- (c) where there is a guarantee attached to the Securities, under a sub-section entitled 'Is there a guarantee attached to the Securities?', the following information:
- (i) a brief description of the nature and scope of the guarantee; and
- (ii) a brief description of the guarantor, including its LEI; and
- (iii) the relevant key financial information for the purpose of assessing the guarantor’s ability to fulfil its commitments under the guarantee; and
- (iv) a brief description of the most material risk factors pertaining to the guarantor contained in the Prospectus while not exceeding the total of 15 risk factors; and
- (d) under a sub-section entitled 'What are the key risks that are specific to the Securities?', a brief description of the most material risk factors (not exceeding 15 risk factors) in declining order of severity relevant to the Securities contained in the Prospectus.
1.4.7. Section 4: Key information on the admission to trading
This section must contain the following information:
- (a) under a sub-section entitled ‘Under which conditions and timetable can I invest in this Security?’, where applicable:
- (i) where applicable, the details of the admission to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange; and
- (ii) the plan for distribution; and
- (iii) an estimate of the total expenses of the issue, including the estimated expenses charged to the investor by the Issuer; and
- (b) where applicable and if different from the Issuer, under a sub-section entitled ‘Who is the person asking for admission to trading?’, a brief description of the Person asking for admission to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange, including that Person’s domicile and legal form, the law under which it operates and its country of incorporation; and
- (c) under a sub-section entitled ‘Why is this Prospectus being produced?', a brief description of the reasons for the offer of Securities and/or the admission to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange, as well as, where applicable:
- (i) the use and estimated net amount of the proceeds;
- (ii) an indication of the most material conflicts of interest pertaining to the admission to trading.
1.5. The Registration Document and the Securities Note
1.5.1. The Registration Document
The Registration Document must include the information in relation to the relevant type of Security identified with a “√” in the table in MAR Schedule 1.
1.5.2. The Securities Note
The Securities Note must include the information in relation to the relevant type of Security identified with a “√” in the table in MAR Schedule 2.
1.6. Supplementary Prospectus
(1) Section 73 of the Framework Regulations requires the Issuer or the Person responsible for the issue of the Prospectus to issue a Supplementary Prospectus if, at any time after the issue of a Prospectus, there is a significant change in, or a material mistake or inaccuracy affecting any matter contained in the Prospectus or a significant new matter arises. The Supplementary Prospectus must provide details of the change, mistake, inaccuracy or new matter.
(2)The Supplementary Prospectus must be submitted for approval in the same way as the respective Prospectus.
(3) Section 74 of the Framework Regulations gives investors certain rights to withdraw in the event that the obligation to issue a Supplementary Prospectus arises.
1.6.1. Statement in the Supplementary Prospectus as to the right of withdrawal
A Supplementary Prospectus must contain a prominent statement concerning the right of withdrawal, which clearly states:
- (a) that a right of withdrawal is granted to those investors who had already agreed to purchase or subscribe for the Securities before the Supplementary Prospectus was published and where the Securities had not yet been delivered to the investors at the time when the significant new factor, material mistake or material inaccuracy arose or was noted; and
- (b) the period in which investors can exercise their right of withdrawal; and
- (c) whom investors may contact should they wish to exercise the right of withdrawal.
1.6.2. Prospectus Summary to be updated
Where a Supplementary Prospectus is published, the Prospectus Summary must be supplemented, where necessary, to take into account the new information included in the Supplementary Prospectus.
1.7. Approval and Publication of a Prospectus by an Authorised Investment Exchange
1.7.1. The requirement for an approval
A Prospectus or Supplementary Prospectus must not be published for the purposes of MAR 1.1.1 unless an Authorised Investment Exchange, has approved it or in the case of a Prospectus comprising multiple documents, all the multiple documents.
1.7.2. Approval by the Authorised Investment Exchange
For the purpose of MAR 1.1.1, a Person seeking the approval of an Authorised Investment Exchange to a Prospectus must submit to the Authorised Investment Exchange:
- (a) a Prospectus that meets all of the requirements in the Framework Regulations and MAR 1;
- (b) a statement identifying where in the Prospectus the information required in the relevant paragraphs of MAR 1 has been included and, where subsequent drafts or versions of the Prospectus are submitted, a marked- up version showing the changes from the previous version submitted to the Authorised Investment Exchange;
- (c) if information is incorporated in the Prospectus by reference to another document, a copy of the information;
- (d) contact details of two individuals who are sufficiently knowledgeable about the content of the Prospectus to be able to answer queries of the Authorised Investment Exchange during business hours; and
- (e) any other information that the Authorised Investment Exchange may require.
1.7.3. Timescales for the submission of the application for approval
The application in MAR 1.7.2 must be submitted to the Authorised Investment Exchange:
(a) at least 20 business days prior to the intended date on which the applicant expects the Prospectus to be approved; or
(b) in the case of a Supplementary Prospectus, as soon as reasonably possible.
1.7.4 Approval by the Authorised Investment Exchange
(1) An Authorised Investment Exchange must not approve a Prospectus or a Supplementary Prospectus (as the case may be) for the purposes of MAR 1.1.1 unless it is satisfied that:
- (a)the Prospectus or the Supplementary Prospectus meets all the requirements in the Framework Regulations and MAR 1; or
- (b)when a Prospectus or a Supplementary Prospectus (as the case may be) is produced under legislation in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC, such legislation comprising the rules and practices of an Equivalent Regulated Exchange and the law and practice of the country or territory in which the Equivalent Regulated Exchange is situated:
- (i)the Prospectus or the Supplementary Prospectus contains information equivalent to that which is required for a Prospectus or a Supplementary Prospectus in the Framework Regulations and MAR 1; and
- (ii)the offeror meets all the other requirements relating to a Prospectus or a Supplementary Prospectus as prescribed in the Framework Regulations and MAR.
(2) An Authorised Investment Exchange must approve a Prospectus or Supplementary Prospectus as soon as reasonably practicable.
1.7.5 Approved Prospectus
(1) A Prospectus filed with an Authorised Investment Exchange is not an approved Prospectus for the purposes of MAR 1.1.1 unless the Authorised Investment Exchange has issued the applicant a notice stating its approval:
- (a) of the Prospectus or Supplementary Prospectus as the case may be; and
- (b) in the case of a Prospectus comprising multiple documents, of all the multiple documents.
(2) An approval issued under (1) will remain valid for the period of 12 months from the date on which it is issued.
1.7.6. Publication of a Prospectus
(1)After a Prospectus has been approved by the Authorised Investment Exchange, it must be made available to the public as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any case, at a reasonable time in advance of, or at the latest at the beginning of, the offer of Securities and/or trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange, whichever is earlier.
(2)A Prospectus is deemed to be made available to the public for the purposes of (a) when such a Prospectus is published in an electronic form on the website of the Issuer and/or the Authorised Investment Exchange.
(3)A copy of the Prospectus must be delivered to any potential investor, upon request and free of charge, by the Person seeking to have Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange.
1.7.8 Text and format of published Prospectus
The text and format of the Prospectus, and any Supplementary Prospectus made available to the public, must at all times be identical to the version approved by the Authorised Investment Exchange.
1.8. Approval of a Prospectus by the AFSA
1.8.1. The requirement for approval
- A Prospectus or Supplementary Prospectus for the purposes of MAR 1.1.2(1)(a) must be submitted to the AFSA for approval.
1.8.2. Application for approval
For the purposes of MAR 1.1.2(1)(a), a Person seeking the approval of the AFSA to a Prospectus must submit to the AFSA:
- (a) a Prospectus that meets all of the requirements in the Framework Regulations and MAR 1;
- (b) a statement identifying where in the Prospectus the information required in the relevant paragraphs of MAR 1 has been included and, where subsequent drafts or versions of the Prospectus are submitted, a marked- up version showing the changes from the previous version submitted to the AFSA;
- (c) if information is incorporated in the Prospectus by reference to another document, a copy of the information;
- (d) contact details of two individuals who are sufficiently knowledgeable about the content of the Prospectus to be able to answer queries of the AFSA during business hours; and
- (e) any other information that the AFSA may require.
1.8.3. Timescales for the submission of the application for approval
The application in MAR 1.8.2 must be submitted to the AFSA:
(a) at least 20 business days prior to the intended date on which the applicant expects the Prospectus to be approved; or
(b) in the case of a Supplementary Prospectus, as soon as reasonably possible.
1.8.4. Approval by the AFSA
The AFSA will approve a Prospectus which has been filed with it in accordance with MAR 1.8.2 as soon as reasonably practicable.
1.8.5 Approved Prospectus
(1) A Prospectus filed with the AFSA is not an approved Prospectus for the purposes of MAR 1.1.2(1)(a) unless the AFSA has issued to the applicant a notice stating its approval:
- (a) of the Prospectus or Supplementary Prospectus as the case may be; and
- (b) in the case of a Prospectus comprising multiple documents, of all the multiple documents.
(2) An approval issued under (1) will remain valid for the period of 12 months from the date on which it is issued.
1.9. Prospectus Liability
1.9.1. Persons liable for the content of a Prospectus
For the purposes of section 70(4) of the Framework Regulations, the following Persons are, subject to MAR 1.9.2, prescribed as liable for a Prospectus and its content:
- (a) the Issuer; and
- (b) where applicable, the Person seeking to have Securities offered and/or admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange, if it is not the Issuer; and
- (c) where the Person in (a) or (b) is a Body Corporate:
- (i) each Person who is a Director of that body corporate at the time when the Securities are being offered in or from AIFC and/or the admission to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange is sought, as applicable; and
- (ii) each Person who has consented to be named, and is named, in the Prospectus as a Director or as having agreed to become a Director of that body either immediately or at a future time, and
- (d) each Person who accepts, and is stated in the Prospectus as having accepted, responsibility for the Prospectus or for any part thereof; and
- (e) each Person who is deemed to accept responsibility for any part of a Prospectus under these Rules; and
- (f) if there is a guarantor or obligor in relation to the issue of Securities:
- (i) the guarantor in relation to the information in the Prospectus that relates to the guarantor or its guarantee; or
- (ii) the obligor in relation to the information in the Prospectus that relates to the obligor or its obligations; and
- (g) each Person not falling within any of the foregoing paragraphs who has authorised the contents of the Prospectus or any part thereof (excluding for the avoidance of doubt an Authorised Investment Exchange).
1.9.2. Limitations on the application of MAR 1.9.1
(1)A Person who has accepted liability for or authorised only part of the content of any Prospectus under MAR 1.9.1(d) is liable only for that part and only if it is included substantially in the same form and context as the Person agreed to for inclusion in the Prospectus.
(2)Nothing in MAR 1.9.1 makes a Person liable for any part of a Prospectus by reason only of giving advice as to its content in a professional capacity to a Person specified in MAR 1.9.1(a) to (g).
1.10. AIFC ESG Debentures
1.10.1. Application
This section sets out the requirements that apply to a Person making an Offer of Securities that are AIFC ESG Debentures. The Rules and Guidance in this section apply to a Person making an Offer of Sukuk as if each reference to Debenture were a reference to Sukuk.
1.10.2. AIFC ESG Debenture
A Debenture is an AIFC ESG Debenture if the Debenture:
(a) is the subject of an Offer of Securities;
(b) complies with any one of the Qualifying ESG Debenture Standards mentioned in MAR 1.10.3; and
(c) is subject to external review in accordance with MAR 1.10.4.
1.10.3. Qualifying ESG Debenture Standards
(1) An AIFC ESG Debenture must comply with:
(a) the Principles and Guidelines issued by the International Capital Markets Association;
(b) the Climate Bonds Standard of the Climate Bonds Initiative;
(c) the European Union Green Bond Standard;
(d) the Association of Southeast Asian Nations Green Bond Standard; or
(e) international standards equivalent to paragraph (a), (b), (c) or (d), which are approved by the AFSA.
(2) The AFSA may approve other ESG standards as Qualifying ESG Debenture Standards if:
(a) the ESG standards are issued by a governmental body, reputable industry association or reputable investment exchange; and
(b) the ESG standards are published and freely available.
Guidance
(1) The following are examples of available ESG Debentures in accordance with the ESG Debenture Rules established by the AFSA. Issuers are encouraged to align their ESG Debentures with applicable standards irrespective of whether they are expressly listed.
(a) Green Bonds that comply with International Capital Markets Association Green Bond Principles (GBP) or Climate Bonds Standard of the Climate Bonds Initiative;
(b) Social Bonds that comply with International Capital Markets Association Social Bond Principles (SBP);
(c) Sustainability Bonds that comply with International Capital Markets Association Sustainability Bond Guidelines (SBG);
(d) Sustainability-Linked Bonds that comply with International Capital Markets Association Sustainability-Linked Bond Principles (SLBP) or Climate Bonds Standard of the Climate Bonds Initiative;
(e) Transition Bonds that comply with International Capital Markets Association Sustainability-Linked Bond Principles (SLBP) or Climate Bonds Standard of the Climate Bonds Initiative;
(f) Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Bonds that comply with United Nations Development Program SDG Impact Standards; and
(g) Blue Bonds that comply with the Practitioner’s Guide to Finance the Sustainable Blue Economy.
(2) For the purposes of issuing ESG Debentures, eligible projects may refer to official national and recognised market taxonomies as encouraged by the Green Bond Principles of the International Capital Market Association, including:
(a) Kazakhstan’s Green Taxonomy;
(b) Climate Bonds Taxonomy of the Climate Bonds Standard of the Climate Bonds Initiative (the Green Projects);
(c) EU Taxonomy for Sustainable Activities;
(d) Common Ground Taxonomy;
(e) ASEAN Taxonomy for Sustainable Finance; and
(f) Monetary Authority of Singapore Singapore-Asia Taxonomy.
1.10.4. External review
For this rule, a Debenture is subject to external review if the Issuer appoints one or more external review providers to:
(a) assess through a pre-issuance external review the compliance of the Debenture with Qualifying ESG Debenture Standards; or
(b) verify the content of post-issuance reporting if required by Qualifying ESG Debenture Standards or any direction given by the Issuer under disclosure requirements in the Prospectus or Offer of Securities, which may include either or both of the following:
(i) a report on the use of proceeds and the sustainability-related impact performance in respect of eligible projects;
(ii) a report on the performance status in respect of sustainability targets as required by Qualifying ESG Debenture Standards;
Guidance
(1) The assessment and verification functions of external review providers may be performed by different providers at different points of time and may not need to be performed in all cases. The requirements outlined in this section apply to the extent required by the specific Qualifying Standard or any direction given by the Issuer.
(2) Before appointing an external review provider an Issuer should take reasonable steps to ensure that the external review provider:
(a) has the required skills, resources, and experience to undertake the review; and
(b) is independent of, and not subject to any conflict of interest with respect to, the Issuer.
(3) When arranging for an external review, an Issuer should take into consideration the International Capital Markets Association Guidelines for Green, Social and Sustainability Debentures Reviews.
(4) Issuers are expected to ensure that securities admitted to the Official List of an Authorised Investment Exchange comply with both AFSA requirements and the additional requirements imposed by the Authorised Investment Exchange on which the ESG Debentures are admitted.
(5) Issuers are expected to make publicly available any reports on the use of proceeds, the sustainability-related impact performance or performance status referenced in paragraph (b).
2. GOVERNANCE OF REPORTING ENTITIES
Guidance: Definition of Reporting Entity
Section 81 of the Framework Regulations provides:
A Person is a Reporting Entity if the Person
(a) has Securities or Units admitted to an Official List;
(b) is the Fund Manager of a Listed Fund; or
(c) is declared by the AFSA to be a Reporting Entity.
2.1. Application
(1) This section 2 of MAR and MAR Schedule 3 will have limited application for certain types of Reporting Entities, as follows:
- (a)Reporting Entities, that are Issuers of Debentures admitted to an Official List are not required to comply with, or explain any non-compliance with, the following Corporate Governance Principles:
- (i) sections 16-21 (Chairman and chief executive) of MAR Schedule 3;
- (ii) sections 30-34 (Executive and non-executive directors) of MAR Schedule 3;
- (iii) sections 35-38 (Nomination Committee) of MAR Schedule 3;
- (iv) sections 39-40 (Secretary of the reporting entity) of MAR Schedule 3;
- (v) sections 49-51 (Audit committee) of MAR Schedule 3;
- (vi) MAR 2.2.6 (Principle 5 – Shareholder rights and effective dialog) and sections 52-59 (Principle 5 – Shareholder rights and effective dialog) of MAR Schedule 3;
- (vii) Sections 70-75 (Remuneration committee) of MAR Schedule 3;
- (viii) MAR 2.3.4 (Reduction of share capital);
- (ix) MAR 2.3.5 (Pre-emption rights);
- (x) MAR 2.3.6 (Communication with shareholders);
- (xi) MAR 2.3.7 (Proxy solicitation);
- (xii) MAR 2.3.8 (Other matters requiring shareholder approval).
- (b)Reporting Entities that are Issuers of Exempt Securities (except for cases where such Exempt Securities have been subsequently offered to the public) are not required to comply with the Corporate Governance Principles specified in MAR 2.1(1)(a) and MAR 2.2.9 (Annual reporting on compliance).
(2) This section 2 of the MAR will not apply to a Reporting Entity that is a Listed Fund or the Fund Manager of Listed Fund (in its capacity as such), and the CIS and the Business Rules prescribe the governance requirements for Listed Funds.
(3) Under AMI 3.2.3 and 3.6.6 a Person who seeks to have Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange and the Issuer of Securities admitted to an Official List maintained by an Authorised Investment Exchange must give enforceable undertakings to the AFSA to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AFSA in relation to any matters which arise out of or which relate to its use of the facilities of the Authorised Market Institution, including but not limited to requirements in MAR relating to Reporting Entities.
2.2. Corporate governance principles
2.2.1. Corporate governance principles
Pursuant to section 82(2) of the Framework Regulations, the principles in MAR 2.2.2 to 2.2.8 are hereby prescribed as “the Corporate Governance Principles”.
Guidance:
Corporate governance principles
(1) The Corporate Governance Principles in this section apply to Reporting Entities as mandatory high level requirements. MAR Schedule 3 sets out best practice standards that may be adopted by a Reporting Entity to achieve compliance with these principles.
(2) The best practice standards in MAR Schedule 3 are designed to provide a degree of flexibility so that a Reporting Entity can achieve outcomes intended by the Corporate Governance Principles whilst taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of its business.
(3) Generally, if a Reporting Entity does not adopt the best practice standards set out in MAR Schedule 3, or adopts them only partially, the AFSA would expect the reasons for doing so and any alternative measures adopted to achieve the outcomes intended by the Corporate Governance Principles to be disclosed in the Prospectus and thereafter pursuant to disclosure required under MAR 2.2.9. Any inaccurate or false representations would breach the prohibition against misleading and deceptive statements in section 75 of the Framework Regulations.
2.2.2. Principle 1 – Board of directors
A Reporting Entity must have an effective Board which is collectively accountable for ensuring that the Reporting Entity’s business is managed prudently and soundly.
2.2.3. Principle 2 – Division of responsibilities
The Board must ensure that there is a clear division between the Board’s responsibility for setting the strategic aims and undertaking the oversight of the Reporting Entity and the senior management’s responsibility for managing the Reporting Entity’s business in accordance with the strategic aims and risk parameters set by the Board.
2.2.4. Principle 3 – Board composition and resources
The Board, and its committees, must have an appropriate balance of skills, experience, independence and knowledge of the Reporting Entity’s business, and adequate resources, including access to expertise as required and timely and comprehensive information relating to the affairs of the Reporting Entity.
2.2.5. Principle 4 – Risk management and internal control systems
The Board must ensure that the Reporting Entity has an adequate, effective, well- defined and well-integrated risk management, internal control and compliance framework.
2.2.6. Principle 5 – Shareholder rights and effective dialogue
The Board must ensure that the rights of shareholders are properly safeguarded through appropriate measures that enable the shareholders to exercise their rights effectively, promote effective dialogue with shareholders and other key stakeholders as appropriate, and prevent any abuse or oppression of minority shareholders.
2.2.7. Principle 6 – Position and prospects
The Board must ensure that the Reporting Entity’s financial and other reports present an accurate, balanced and understandable assessment of the Reporting Entity’s financial position and prospects by ensuring that there are effective internal risk control and reporting requirements.
2.2.8. Principle 7 – Remuneration
The Board must ensure that the Reporting Entity has Remuneration structures and strategies that are well aligned with the long-term interests of the entity.
2.2.9. Annual reporting on compliance
The annual financial report of a Reporting Entity to which this section applies must:
- (a) state whether the best practice standards specified in MAR Schedule 3 have been adopted by the Reporting Entity for the purposes of complying with the Corporate Governance Principles; and
- (b) if the best practice standards in MAR Schedule 3 have not been fully adopted or have been only partially adopted explain:
- (i) why the best practice standards were not adopted fully or adopted only partially, as is relevant; and
- (ii) what actions, if any, have been taken by the Reporting Entity to achieve compliance with the Corporate Governance Principles to the extent the relevant best practice standards were not adopted, or were only partially adopted; and
- (c) include a statement by Directors whether or not, in their opinion, the corporate governance framework of the Reporting Entity is effective in promoting compliance with the Corporate Governance Principles, with supporting information and assumptions, and qualifications if necessary. Guidance: Annual reporting on compliance
(1) MAR 2.2.9 reflects the “comply or explain” approach adopted by the AFSA in respect of the Corporate Governance Principles.
(2) With regard to the opinion required under MAR 2.2.9(c), adequate information relating to the corporate governance framework of the Reporting Entity should be included to support the opinion, such as the identity of its chair, any committees of the Board and their role and membership, the chief executive and Persons undertaking key control functions such as the head of compliance, risk control and internal audit and how their independence is achieved.
2.3. Directors duties and fair treatment of shareholders
2.3.1. Application
This section applies to:
(a) the Board of a Reporting Entity; and
(b) each individual Director who is a member of such a board.
Guidance: Directors duties and fair treatment of shareholders
(1) Where a Person referred to in MAR 2.3.1 is required under any legislation applicable to such a Person to comply with a similar or more stringent requirement than the requirements in this section, compliance with those other requirements would be sufficient compliance for the purposes of the relevant requirement in this section.
(2) For example, in the case of a reduction of share capital, more stringent procedures such as a special resolution (i.e. a vote of at least 75% of the shareholders in voting), may be required under the company law or other legislation applicable to a Reporting Entity in its jurisdiction of incorporation. Where this is the case, compliance with the more stringent requirements applicable to the Reporting Entity suffices for the purposes of compliance with the requirements in this section dealing with a shareholder approval by simple majority in MAR 2.3.8.
2.3.2. Directors’ duties
A Director of a Reporting Entity must act:
- (a) on a fully informed basis;
- (b) in good faith;
- (c) honestly;
- (d) with due diligence and care; and
- (e) in the best interests of the Reporting Entity and its shareholders.
Guidance: Directors’ duties
In order to meet the obligation to act with due diligence and care, a Director should (amongst other things) ensure that he or she has enough time and capacity available to devote to the job. See also the best practice standards in MAR Schedule 3 which apply to Directors of Reporting Entities who are subject to the Corporate Governance Principles.
The directors' duties contained in the AIFC Companies Regulations applicable to companies incorporated under the regulations should also be carefully considered and adhered to. These include the duty to promote the success of the Company. This is a subjective test – in other words, the duty on a Director is to act in a way he or she considers to be in the best interests of the Reporting Entity to promote its success. Directors of Recognised Companies under the AIFC Companies Regulations should obtain appropriate advice on their duties under the law applicable to that Recognised Company.
2.3.3. Equality of treatment
The Board of a Reporting Entity must ensure equality of treatment of all holders of Securities of a particular class or type in respect of all rights attaching to the Securities of that class or type of Securities.
2.3.4. Reduction of share capital
The Board of a Reporting Entity must ensure that a Reporting Entity does not reduce its Share capital unless:
- (a) the reduction does not materially prejudice the Reporting Entity’s ability to pay its creditors;
- (b) a public disclosure is made as soon as possible of any proposed change in its capital structure, and, following the redemption of listed Shares, if any, information on such redemption including details of the number of Shares redeemed and the number of Shares of that class outstanding following the redemption.
2.3.5. Pre-emption rights
The Board of a Reporting Entity must, except where otherwise provided in the constituent documents of the Reporting Entity, ensure that a Reporting Entity provides pre-emption rights under which, on an issue of Shares by the Reporting Entity for cash, the shareholders of the Reporting Entity are offered any Shares to be issued in proportion to their existing holdings prior to the Shares being offered to third parties, unless there is prior approval of the issue of Shares without pre-emption rights by shareholders in meeting, by a majority vote.
2.3.6. Communications with shareholders
(1) The Board of Reporting Entity must ensure that all necessary information and facilities are available to its shareholders to enable them to exercise the rights attaching to the Shares on a well-informed basis.
(2) Without limiting the generality of the obligation in (1), the Board must ensure that the shareholders:
- (a) are provided with the necessary information relating to the matters to be determined at meetings to enable them to exercise their right to vote, including the proxy forms and notice of meetings; and
- (b) have access to any relevant notices or circulars giving information in relation to the rights attaching to the Securities.
2.3.7. Proxy solicitation
The Board of a Reporting Entity must ensure that for each meeting at which shareholders are eligible to exercise voting rights attaching to their Securities, each shareholder is given the right and means to vote by proxy.
2.3.8. Other matters requiring shareholder approval
(1)The Board of a Reporting Entity must, subject to (2), ensure that a majority of shareholders in voting approves:
(a) any alteration of the constitutional documents of the Reporting Entity including any alteration to the memorandum of association, articles of association, bylaws or any other instrument constituting the Reporting Entity;
(b) the appointment or removal of a Director of the Reporting Entity and the terms of such appointment;
(c) the appointment or removal of the Auditor of the Reporting Entity; and
(d) the placing of the Reporting Entity into voluntary liquidation;
(2)The requirement in (1) does not apply, subject to any requirements in the constitutional documents of the Reporting Entity, in relation to the appointment or removal of a Director or Auditor of a Reporting Entity in circumstances where the immediate appointment or removal is necessary in the interests of the Reporting Entity.
Guidance: Other matters requiring shareholder approval
The circumstances in which the immediate removal of a Director or Auditor may become necessary include matters affecting that Person’s fitness and propriety, such as professional misconduct of such a Person.
2.4. Dealings by restricted persons
2.4.1. Application
(1) This section applies to:
- (a) the Board of every Reporting Entity; and
- (b)a Restricted Person in relation to such a Reporting Entity.
(2) For the purposes of (1)(b), a Person is a Restricted Person in relation to a Reporting Entity if he or she is involved in the senior management of the Reporting Entity.
Guidance: Senior management
Persons are considered as involved in the senior management if they are in a position of authority and influence in making management or executive decisions with regard to the day- to-day management of the business of the Reporting Entity. Some members of the Board, such as executive Directors, will be subject to the requirements in this section because they undertake managerial functions and responsibilities relating to the day-to-day management of the Reporting Entity.
2.4.2. Prohibition on dealing
(1) A Restricted Person must not engage in dealing in the Securities of the Reporting Entity during a closed period except in the circumstances specified in MAR 2.4.4 or MAR 2.4.5.
(2) The prohibition in (1) applies to any dealing by Restricted Persons whether or not such dealings are with another Restricted Person or any other Person.
2.4.3. Definition of “closed period” and “dealing in Securities”
For the purposes of MAR 2.4.2:
(a) a ‘closed period’ is
- (i) the period from the relevant financial year end up to and including the time of the announcement or publication of the annual financial statements and/or results; and
- (ii) if the Reporting Entity reports on a semi-annual basis, the period from the end of the relevant semi-annual financial period up to and including the time of the announcement or publication of the semi-annual financial statements and/or results; or
- (iii) if the Reporting Entity reports on a quarterly basis, the period from the end of the relevant quarter up to and including the time of the announcement or publication of the quarterly financial statements and/or results.
- (b) ‘dealing in Securities’ means:
- (i) any acquisition or disposal of, or agreement to acquire or dispose of, Securities of the Reporting Entity; or
- (ii) entering into a contract (such as a contract for difference) the purpose of which is to secure a profit or avoid a loss by reference to fluctuations in the price of the Securities of the Reporting Entity; or
- (iii) the grant, acceptance, acquisition, disposal, exercise or discharge of any option to acquire or dispose of any Securities of the Reporting Entity; or
- (iv) entering into, or terminating, assigning or novating any stock lending agreement in respect of the Securities of the Reporting Entity; or
- (v) using as security, or otherwise granting a charge, lien or other encumbrance over the Securities of the Reporting Entity; or
- (vi) any other transaction including a transfer for no consideration, or the exercise of any power or discretion effecting a change of ownership of a beneficial interest in, the Securities of the Reporting Entity.
2.4.4. Clearance to deal
(a) The prohibition in MAR 2.4.2 (a) does not apply in relation to any dealing in Securities where the Restricted Person has obtained prior clearance to deal as provided in (b) and (c).
(b) For the purposes of (a), prior written clearance to deal in the Securities of a Reporting Entity must be obtained:
- (i) from a Director designated by the Board for the purposes of providing clearances to deal; and
- (ii) in the case of dealings by the Director designated for the purpose of providing clearances to deal, from the full Board or another Director designated by the Board for the purposes of providing such clearance.
(c) For the purposes of (a) and (b), a Director of the Reporting Entity must not be given written clearance to deal in any Securities of the Reporting Entity during any period when there exists any matter which constitutes Inside Information unless the Person responsible for granting clearance has no reason to believe that the proposed dealing is or may be in breach of the Framework Regulations or MAR.
2.4.5. Exempt dealings
The prohibition in MAR 2.4.2 (a) does not apply in relation to any dealing in Securities in the Reporting Entity if such dealing by the Restricted Person relates to:
- (a) undertakings or elections to take up, or the taking up of, an entitlement under a rights issue or dividend reinvestment offer, or allowing such an entitlement or offer to lapse; or
- (b) undertakings to accept, or the acceptance of, a Takeover Offer under Takeover Rules; or
- (c) dealings where the beneficial interest in the relevant Security does not change; or
- (d) transactions between the Restricted Person and an Associate of such a Person; or
- (e) transactions relating to dealings in an Employee Share Scheme in accordance with the terms of such a scheme.
2.5. Related party transactions
2.5.1. Application
This section applies, subject to MAR 2.5.4, to:
- (a) a Reporting Entity; and
- (b) a Related Party of such a Reporting Entity.
2.5.2. Definitions
In this section, unless otherwise provided:
- (a) a Person is a Related Party of a Reporting Entity if that Person:
- (i) is, or was within the 12 months before the date of the Related Party Transaction:
(A) a Director or a Person involved in the senior management of the Reporting Entity or a member of its Group;
(B) an Associate of a Person referred to in (a)(i)(A); or
- (ii) owns, or has owned within 12 months before the date of the Related Party Transaction, voting Securities carrying more than 5% of the voting rights attaching to all the voting Securities of either the Reporting Entity or a member of its Group; or
- (iii) is, or was within the 12 months before the date of the Related Party Transaction, a Person exercising or having the ability to exercise significant influence over the Reporting Entity or an Associate of such a Person.
- (b) a transaction is a Related Party Transaction if it is a transaction:
- (i) between a Reporting Entity and a Related Party; or
- (ii) under which the Reporting Entity invests in another Undertaking or asset, or provides financial assistance to another Undertaking, in which a Related Party also has a financial interest; or
- (iii) between the Reporting Entity and any other Person the purpose or effect of which is to benefit a Related Party; or
- (iv) of the kind referred to in (i) – (iii) and is between a Subsidiary of a Reporting Entity and a Related Party of the Reporting Entity.
Guidance:
Definitions Any transaction between a Subsidiary of a Reporting Entity and a Related Party is included within the definition of a Related Party Transaction. This is because a Related Party may, through the Reporting Entity, be able to influence terms which are more favourable to the Related Party when transacting with the subsidiary. Such transactions could be detrimental to the interests of the Reporting Entity.
2.5.3. Related party transaction procedures
If a Reporting Entity enters into a Related Party Transaction or a series of Related Party Transactions in any 12-month period and the value of such transaction(s) is greater than 5% of value of the net assets of the Reporting Entity as stated in its most recent financial reports, the Reporting Entity must, no later than the time when the terms of the transaction or arrangement are agreed, make public disclosure which sets out:
- (a) the nature of the Related Party relationship;
- (b) the name of the Related Party;
- (c) the date and the value of the transaction or arrangement; and
- (d) any other information necessary to assess whether the transaction or arrangement is fair and reasonable from the perspective of the Reporting Entity and of the stakeholders who are not a Related Party, including minority shareholders and creditors.
2.5.4. Exemptions
The requirements in this section do not apply to a transaction referred to in MAR 2.5.2(b):
- (a) where the transaction is made in the ordinary course of business and on commercial terms no less favourable than those of an arm’s length transaction with an unrelated party; or
- (b) where it, or any series of transactions with the same Related Party in any 12-month period, does not exceed 0.25% of the value of the net assets of the Reporting Entity as stated in its most recent financial reports; or
- (c) where it is made in accordance with the terms of an Employee Share Scheme or other Employee incentive scheme approved by the Board of the Reporting Entity; or
- (d) where it involves the issue of new Securities for cash or pursuant to the exercise of conversion or subscription rights attaching to Securities issued to existing Shareholders where the Securities are traded on an Authorised Investment Exchange.
3. FINANCIAL REPORTS
3.1. Core obligations
3.1.1. Obligation to prepare financial statements
A Reporting Entity must:
- (a) prepare and maintain all financial statements in accordance with the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) or other financial reporting standards acceptable to the AFSA;
- (b) prepare and file an annual report which meets the requirements in MAR 3.2 for each financial year of the Reporting Entity; and
- (c) in addition to the annual report, prepare and file a semi-annual report which meets the requirements in MAR 3.3.1 in respect of Shares, Warrants or Certificates over Shares.
3.1.2 Audit of annual financial statements
The annual financial statements of a Reporting Entity must be audited by an independent, competent and qualified Auditor in accordance with the International Standards on Auditing as issued by the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (“IAASB”) or other standards acceptable to the AFSA.
3.1.3. Financial reporting standards
[deleted]
3.2. Annual Financial Report
3.2.1. Contents of annual financial report
(1) The annual report which is required to be produced by a Reporting Entity pursuant to section 84 of the Framework Regulations must include the information specified in (2).
(2) In respect of the financial year to which the annual report relates, it must contain:
- (a)financial statements audited in accordance with MAR 3.1.2;
- (b)a review of the operations during the year and the results of those operations;
- (c)details of any significant changes in the Reporting Entity’s state of affairs during the financial year;
- (d)details relating to the Reporting Entity’s principal activities during the year and any significant changes in the nature of those activities during the year;
- (e)details of any matter or circumstance that has arisen since the end of the year that has significantly affected or may significantly affect the Reporting Entity’s operations in future financial years and the results of those operations; or the Reporting Entity’s state of affairs in future financial years;
- (f)likely developments in the Reporting Entity’s operations in future financial years and the expected results of those operations;
- (g)a statement by the Auditor of the Reporting Entity as to whether in the Auditor’s opinion the financial statements represent a true and fair view of the financial position of the Reporting Entity;
- (h)a statement by Directors whether or not, in their opinion, the business of the Reporting Entity is a going concern, with supporting assumptions or qualifications if necessary;
- (i)details relating to the identity and holdings of any Connected Person of the Reporting Entity; and
- (j)annual reporting on compliance with the Corporate Governance Principles pursuant to MAR 2.2.9 by the Reporting Entity, if it is a Reporting Entity to which section MAR 2.2.9 applies.
Guidance
With regard to the opinion required under the obligation in MAR 3.2.1(2)(h), the AFSA recognises that while the financial statements will be prepared by Persons other than the Directors, the Board has overall responsibilities to ensure the integrity and independence of the financial reporting process.
3.2.2 Signing of the annual report
The annual report must be signed by at least two Directors of the Reporting Entity or approved by a body competent to decide on such matters under the Reporting Entity’s constitutive documents and/or applicable law.
3.2.3. Signing of the annual financial report
[deleted]
3.3. Semi-annual financial report
3.3.1. Preparation of the semi-annual financial report
A Reporting Entity to which the obligation in MAR 3.1.1(c) applies must prepare a semi-annual report:
- (a) for the first six months of each financial year or period; and if there is a change to the accounting reference date, prepare such report in respect of the period up to the old accounting reference date; and
- (b) in accordance with the applicable IFRS standards or other standards acceptable to the AFSA.
3.3.2. Contents of the semi-annual financial report
A Reporting Entity must ensure that the semi-annual report includes:
- (a) an indication of important events that have occurred during the first six months of the financial year, and their impact on the financial statements;
- (b) a description of the principal risks and uncertainties for the remaining six months of the financial year;
- (c) a condensed set of financial statements, an interim management report and associated responsibility statements; and
- (d) where financial statements have either been audited or reviewed by Auditors, statements to that effect.
3.3.3. Signing of the semi-annual financial report
A semi-annual report must be signed by at least two Directors of the Reporting Entity or approved by a body competent to decide on such matters under the Reporting Entity’s constitutive documents and/or applicable law.
3.4. Disclosure of financial reports
3.4.1. Obligation to make market disclosure
(1) Where a Reporting Entity is required by to prepare any of the following reports:
- (a) its annual report;
- (b) its semi-annual report.
it must do so in the time periods specified in MAR 3.4.2.
(2) Reporting Entities that are Issuers of Exempt Securities (except where such Exempt Securities have been subsequently offered to the public) are required to prepare and disclose in the time periods specified in MAR 3.4.2:
- (a) audited annual financial statements pursuant to MAR 3.1.1(a) and MAR 3.1.2; and
- (b) interim financial statements or management account statements for the first six months of the financial year.
3.4.2. Time period for making market disclosure
(1) A Reporting Entity must disclose its required annual and semi-annual reports within the following time periods:
- (a) in relation to its annual report: as soon as possible after the financial statements have been approved, but no later than 150 days after the end of the financial period; and
- (b) in relation to its semi-annual report: as soon as possible and in any event no later than 75 days after the end of the period to which the report relates.
(2) A Reporting Entity which is an Issuer of REMS Shares pursuant to MAR 1.3.1(c) for the first time may postpone disclosure of the first annual report and the first semi-annual report by two (2) months from the due dates specified above.
3.5. Accounting periods
3.5.1. Accounting reference date
(1) A Reporting Entity must not change its accounting reference date as specified in its most recent Prospectus unless it has obtained the prior approval of the AFSA in accordance with the requirements in (b).
(2) A Reporting Entity that proposes to change its accounting reference date must:
- (a)notify the AFSA of its proposal at least 28 business days prior to making such a change; and
- (b)obtain the AFSA prior approval for the proposed change.
3.5.2. Disclosure of changes to accounting reference date
A Reporting Entity must, where there is a change to its accounting reference date, disclose to the market:
- (a) the change to its accounting reference date as soon as possible; and
- (b) if it is a Reporting Entity in relation to Shares, a second interim report within six months of the old accounting reference date if the change of the accounting reference date extends the annual accounting period to more than 14 months.
3.1-1 Application
(1) This section 3 of the MAR will not apply to a Reporting Entity that is a Listed Fund or the Fund Manager of Listed Fund (in its capacity as such), and the CIS and the Business Rules prescribe the financial reporting requirements for Listed Funds.
(2) Reporting Entities that are Issuers of Exempt Securities (except where such Exempt Securities have been subsequently offered to the public) are not required to prepare annual and semi-annual reports pursuant to MAR 3.1.1(b)-(c) but must disclose their financial statements pursuant to MAR 3.4.1(2).
4. SPONSORS AND COMPLIANCE ADVISERS
4.1. Sponsors
4.1.1. Appointment of sponsors
Where the AFSA chooses to exercise the power under section 85 of the Framework Regulations to require a Reporting Entity or a Person that intends to have Securities admitted to an Official List or admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange to appoint an Authorised Firm or Ancillary Services Provider to act as a sponsor, the AFSA will notify the relevant Person in writing.
Guidance The AFSA will not require a Person that intends to have Securities admitted to the Official list of Securities or admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange to appoint a sponsor unless the Person (a) does not have a proven track record or (b) has been in operation for less than 3 (three) years, but not including cases where such Person meets one of the following criteria:
- (i) the Person falls within the definition of Exempt Offerors or Financial Institution; or
- (ii) the Securities of the Person have been admitted to the Official List or admitted to trading on an Equivalent Regulated Exchange.
4.1.2. Procedures relating to appointment of sponsors
(a) A Person required to appoint a sponsor must, prior to appointing a sponsor:
- (i) take reasonable steps to ensure that the proposed sponsor has the required knowledge, experience, qualifications and resources to carry out its obligations under MAR; and
- (ii) notify the AFSA of the proposed sponsor’s name, its business address and an address in the AIFC for the service of documents.
(b) If requested by the AFSA, a Person appointing a sponsor must provide the AFSA with information about the knowledge, experience, qualifications and resources of the appointed or proposed sponsor.
4.1.3. Independence of sponsors and their employees
- (a) A Person must take reasonable steps to ensure that the relevant sponsor and Employees of the sponsor are independent and have appropriately managed any conflict of interest that may arise.
- (b) A Person must notify the AFSA if it becomes aware, or has reason to believe, that the sponsor or relevant Employees of the sponsor are no longer independent or have a conflict of interest which has not been appropriately managed.
4.1.4. AFSA’s power of direction
Where, in the opinion of the AFSA, a sponsor appointed by a Person is not suitable, or where a sponsor has not been appointed or has resigned, the AFSA may direct the Person to appoint or replace a sponsor.
4.1.5. Obligations of a sponsor
A sponsor appointed pursuant to MAR 4.1.1 must:
- (a) satisfy itself to the best of its knowledge and belief, having made due and careful enquiry that the Person who is seeking or intends to seek to have Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange has satisfied all applicable conditions for offering Securities and other relevant requirements under the Framework Regulations and MAR; and
- (b) provide to the AFSA any information or explanation known to it in such form and within such time limit as the AFSA may reasonably require for the purpose of verifying whether the Person seeking to have Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange complies or has complied, with the applicable requirements in the Framework Regulations and MAR; and
- (c) take other steps required in writing by the AFSA.
4.1.6. Sponsor’s obligation when aware of non-compliance
Where a sponsor becomes aware of a failure by the Person seeking to have Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange to comply with its obligations under MAR and the Framework Regulations, the sponsor must without undue delay:
4.1.7. Duty of care of sponsors
A sponsor has a duty of care to the Person which has made its appointment.
4.1.8. Co-operation with sponsors
A Person who is required to appoint a sponsor in respect of the admission of Securities to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange must take reasonable steps to ensure that it and its Employees:
- (a) provide such assistance as the sponsor reasonably requires to discharge its duties; and
- (b) give the sponsor right of access at all reasonable times to relevant records and information; and
- (c) do not interfere with the sponsor’s ability to discharge its duties; and
- (d) do not provide misleading or deceptive information to the sponsor; and
- (e) report to the sponsor any matter which may significantly affect the financial position of the Person issuing the Securities or the price or value of the Securities.
4.1.9. Notifying the AFSA of failure to co-operate
A sponsor must notify the AFSA of any non-co-operation by the Person seeking to have Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange or by the Employees of that Person.
4.1.10. Termination of appointment
Where a Person who is required to appoint a sponsor dismisses the sponsor, the Person must advise the AFSA in writing without delay of the dismissal, giving details of any relevant facts and circumstances.
4.1.11. Resignation of sponsor
Where a sponsor resigns, it must advise the AFSA in writing without delay of the resignation, giving details of any relevant facts and circumstances.
4.2. Compliance advisers
4.2.1. Appointment of a compliance adviser
Where the AFSA chooses to exercise power under section 85 of the Framework Regulations to require a Person to appoint an Authorised Firm or Ancillary Services Provider to act as a compliance adviser, the AFSA will notify the relevant Person in writing. Guidance The AFSA may require the appointment of a compliance adviser where a Reporting Entity has been held to have breached the Acting Law of the AIFC and/or Authorised Market Institutions Rules.
4.2.2. Procedure for appointing a compliance adviser
A Reporting Entity required to appoint a compliance adviser must, prior to making the appointment:
- (a) take reasonable steps to ensure that the proposed compliance adviser has the required knowledge, experience, qualifications and resources to carry out its obligations under MAR; and
- (b) notify the AFSA of the proposed compliance adviser’s name and business address; and
- (c) take reasonable steps to ensure that the proposed compliance adviser and its relevant Employees are independent and that any conflicts of interest are appropriately managed.
4.2.3. Provision of information to the AFSA
If requested by the AFSA, a Reporting Entity appointing a compliance adviser must provide the AFSA with such information as it may require including information regarding knowledge, experience, qualifications and resources of the compliance adviser.
4.2.4. Conflicts of interest
A Reporting Entity must notify AFSA if it becomes aware, or has reason to believe, that the compliance adviser or its relevant Employees have a conflict of interest which has not been appropriately managed.
4.2.5. Appointment of a compliance adviser for a specified period
- (a) The AFSA may, by written notice, require a Reporting Entity to appoint a compliance adviser for a specified period to assist the Reporting Entity in meeting its continuing obligations under the Framework Regulations and MAR.
- (b) A Reporting Entity that is required to appoint a compliance adviser in accordance with the requirements in this section must ensure that a compliance adviser continues to fulfil the role of compliance adviser until such time as the AFSA advises the Reporting Entity in writing that a compliance adviser is no longer required.
4.2.6. Obligation of a Reporting Entity to rectify failure
Where a Reporting Entity is advised by its compliance adviser that it is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under the Framework Regulations and MAR, the Reporting Entity must without undue delay:
- (a) take reasonable steps to rectify the failure as soon as practicable; and
- (b) if the Reporting Entity does not or is unable to rectify the failure as soon as practicable notify the AFSA of that fact.
4.2.7. Provision of information to the AFSA
A Reporting Entity must provide to the AFSA any information in such form and within such time as the AFSA may reasonably require regarding its compliance adviser or any advice the compliance adviser is providing, or has provided, to the Reporting Entity regarding its continuing obligations under the Framework Regulations and MAR.
4.2.8. Co-operation with the AFSA
A Reporting Entity must take reasonable steps to ensure its compliance adviser cooperates in any investigation conducted by the AFSA including answering promptly and openly any questions addressed to the compliance adviser, promptly producing the originals or copies of any relevant documents and attending before any meeting or hearing at which the compliance adviser is requested to appear.
4.2.9. Co-operation with compliance advisers
A Reporting Entity must take reasonable steps to ensure that it and its Employees:
- (a) provide such assistance as the compliance adviser reasonably requires to discharge its duties;
- (b) give the compliance adviser right of access at all reasonable times to relevant records and information;
- (c) do not hinder or interfere with the compliance adviser’s ability to discharge its duties; and
- (d) do not withhold information that would assist the compliance adviser advising the Reporting Entity of its duties;
- (e) do not provide misleading or deceptive information to the compliance adviser; and
- (f) report to the compliance adviser any matter which may significantly affect the financial position of the Reporting Entity or the price or value of the Securities.
4.2.10. Termination of appointment
Where a Reporting Entity dismisses its compliance adviser, the Reporting Entity must advise the AFSA in writing without delay of the dismissal, giving details of all relevant facts and circumstances.
4.2.11. Resignation of compliance adviser
Where a compliance adviser resigns, the Reporting Entity must without delay advise the AFSA in writing of the resignation, giving details of all relevant facts and circumstances.
5. MARKET ABUSE
Guidance
(1) Section 86 of the Framework Regulations provides that a Person may not behave in relation to an Investment or anything which is the subject matter of (or whose price or value is expressed by reference to the price or value of) an Investment, where such behaviour consists of that Person:
- (a) acquiring or disposing of, or attempting to acquire or dispose of, for his own account or for the account of a third party, either directly or indirectly, an Investment, on the basis of inside information relating to the Investment;
- (b) disclosing inside information to another Person otherwise than in the proper course of the exercise of his employment, profession or duties;
- (c) recommending or inducing any Person, on the basis of inside information, to acquire or dispose of an Investment to which that information relates;
- (d) effecting, or participating in effecting, transactions or orders to trade (otherwise than for legitimate reasons in conformity with accepted market practice on the relevant market) which:
- (i) give, or are likely to give a false or misleading impression as to the supply of, or demand for, or as to the price or value of, one or more Investments, or
- (ii) secure the price of one or more Investments at an abnormal or artificial level;
- (e) effecting, or participating in effecting, transactions or orders to trade which employ fictitious devices or any other form of deception or contrivance; or
- (f) disseminating, or causing the dissemination of, information by any means which gives, or is likely to give, a false or misleading impression as to an Investment by a Person who knew or could reasonably be expected to have known that the information was false or misleading.
(2) Pursuant to section 87 of the Framework Regulations, MAR 5 sets out the scope and effect of section 86 including the definition of Inside Information, conduct to be regarded as Market Abuse (and thus contravening section 87) and exceptions thereto.
5.1. Definition of Market Abuse
5.1.1. Conduct amounting to Market Abuse
The following conduct, wherever it occurs and whether engaged or participated in directly or indirectly, amounts to Market Abuse for the purposes of section 86 of the Framework Regulations:
- (a) unlawful disclosure of Inside Information;
- (b) engaging or attempting to engage in Insider Dealing;
- (c) recommending that another Person engage in Insider Dealing;
- (d) inducing another Person to engage in Insider Dealing; and
- (e) engaging or attempting to engage in Market Manipulation.
5.1.2. Conduct not amounting to Market Abuse
The following conduct does not amount to Market Abuse for the purposes of section 86 of the Framework Regulations:
(a) disclosure of Inside Information made in the course of a Market Sounding;
(b) the behaviour described in MAR 5.3.4 to 5.3.6; and
(c) accepted market practices established under MAR 5.4.4.
(d) conduct of another activity which occurs outside the AIFC unless it affects the AIFC markets or their users.
5.2. Definition of Inside Information
5.2.1. Definition of Inside Information (general)
Inside information is information of a precise nature which:
- (a) has not been made public;
- (b) relates directly or indirectly, to one or more Issuers or to one or more Investments; and
- (c) would, if it were made public, be likely to have a significant effect on the prices of those Investments or on the price of related Investments.
Guidance: Inside Information An intermediate step in a protracted process will be Inside Information if, by itself, it satisfies the criteria of Inside Information.
5.2.2. Definition of Inside Information (execution of orders
For Persons charged with the execution of orders concerning Investments, Inside Information:
(a) has the meaning given in MAR 5.2.1 (Definition of Inside Information (general); and
(b) is information conveyed by a client and relating to the client’s pending orders in Investments which:
(i) is of a precise nature; and
(ii) relates directly or indirectly, to one or more Issuers or to one or more Investments; and
(iii) if it were made public, would be likely to have a significant effect on the prices of those Investments, the price of related spot commodity contracts, or on the price of related Investments.
5.2.3. Definition of Information of a ‘precise nature’
Information will be deemed to be of a precise nature if it:
(a) indicates a set of circumstances which exists or which may reasonably be expected to come into existence, or an event which has occurred or which may reasonably be expected to occur; and
(b) is specific enough to enable a conclusion to be drawn as to the possible effect of that set of circumstances or event on the prices of the Investments or the related Investments.
Guidance:
Precise information In the case of a protracted process that is intended to bring about, or that results in, particular circumstances or a particular event, those future circumstances or that future event, and also the intermediate steps of that process which are connected with bringing about or resulting in those future circumstances or that future event, may be deemed to be precise information.
5.2.4. Definition of Information likely to have a ‘significant effect’
Information which, if it were made public, would be likely to have a significant effect on the prices of Investments means information which a reasonable investor would be likely to use as part of the basis of his or her investment decisions.
5.2.5. Unlawful disclosure of Inside Information
Unlawful disclosure of Inside information occurs where:
- (a) a Person specified in MAR 5.2.6 possesses Inside Information and discloses that information to any other Person, except where the disclosure is made in the normal exercise of an employment, a profession or duties; or
- (b) a Person (‘A’) to whom a recommendation to engage in Insider Dealing is made or who is induced to engage in Insider Dealing, within the meaning of MAR 5.3.2, discloses the recommendation or inducement to another where A knows or ought to know that the recommendation or inducement was based on Inside Information.
5.2.6. Persons possessing Inside Information
MAR 5.2.5 (a) applies to:
- (a) any Person who possesses Inside Information as a result of:
- (i) being a member of the administrative, management or supervisory bodies of the Issuer; or
- (ii) having a holding in the capital of the Issuer; or
- (iii) having access to the information through the exercise of an employment, profession or duties; or
- (iv) being involved in criminal activities;
- (b) any Person who possesses Inside Information other than under the circumstances specified in (a) where that Person knows or ought to know that the information is Inside Information.
5.3. Insider Dealing
5.3.1 Definition of Insider Dealing
The following amount to Insider Dealing:
- (a) the use, by a Person who possesses Inside information, of that information by acquiring or disposing of, for its own account or for the account of a third party, directly or indirectly, Investments to which that information relates; or
- (b) the use of Inside Information by cancelling or amending an order concerning Investments to which the information relates where the order was placed before the Person concerned possessed the Inside Information; or
- (c) the use of recommendations or inducements to engage in Insider Dealing MAR 5.3.2 (Recommending or Inducing Insider Dealing), where the Person using the recommendation or inducement knows or ought to know that it is based on Inside Information.
5.3.2. Recommending or Inducing Insider Dealing
A Person (‘A’) recommends another Person (‘B’) to engage in Insider Dealing or induces B to engage in Insider Dealing, where A possesses Inside Information and:
- (a) recommends, on the basis of that information, that B acquires or disposes of Investments to which that information relates, or induces B to make such an acquisition or disposal; or
- (b) recommends, on the basis of that information, that B cancels or amends an order concerning Investments to which that information relates, or induces B to make such a cancellation or amendment.
5.3.3. Persons to whom MAR 5.3.2 and MAR 5.3.1 apply
MAR 5.3.1 (Definition of Insider Dealing) and MAR 5.3.2 (Recommending or inducing Insider Dealing) apply:
- (a) to any Person who possesses Inside Information as a result of:
- (i) being a member of the administrative, management or supervisory bodies of the Issuer; or
- (ii) having a holding in the capital of the Issuer; or
- (iii) having access to the information through the exercise of an employment, profession or duties; or
- (iv) being involved in criminal activities;
- (b) to any Person who possesses Inside Information other than under the circumstances specified in (a) where that Person knows or ought to know that the information is Inside Information; or
- (c) where the Person in (a) or (b) is a legal Person, in addition to that legal Person, to the natural Persons who participate in the decision to carry out the acquisition, disposal, cancellation or amendment of an order for the account of the legal Person concerned.
5.3.4. Behaviour that does not constitute Insider Dealing
A Person (‘A’) who is or who has been in possession of Inside Information will not be deemed to have used that information for acquisition or disposition of Investments merely because A is or was in possession of Inside Information:
- (a) Where A is a legal Person and A:
- (i) has established, implemented and maintained adequate and effective internal arrangements and procedures that effectively ensure that neither the natural Person who made the decision on its behalf to acquire or dispose of Investments to which the information relates, nor another natural Person who may have had an influence on that decision, was in possession of the Inside Information; and
- (ii) has not encouraged, made a recommendation to, induced or otherwise influenced the natural Person who, on behalf of the legal Person, acquired or disposed of Investments to which the information relates.
- (b) Where A:
- (i) for the Investments to which the information relates, is a Market Maker or a Person authorised to act as a counterparty, and the acquisition or disposal of Investments to which that information relates is made legitimately in the normal course of the exercise of its function as a market maker or as a counterparty for those Investments; or
- (ii) is authorised to execute orders on behalf of third parties and the acquisition or disposal of Investments to which the order relates, is made to carry out such an order legitimately in the normal course of the exercise of that Person’s employment, profession or duties;
- (c) Where A conducts a transaction to acquire or dispose of Investments and that transaction is carried out in the discharge of an obligation that has become due in good faith and not to circumvent the prohibition against Insider Dealing and:
- (i) that obligation results from an order placed or an agreement concluded before the Person concerned possessed Inside Information; or
- (ii) that transaction is carried out to satisfy a legal or regulatory obligation that arose, before the Person concerned possessed Inside Information.
5.3.5. Behaviour that does not constitute Insider Dealing – public takeover
It will not be deemed from the mere fact that a Person is in possession of Inside information that that Person has used that information and has thus engaged in Insider Dealing:
- (a) where such Person has obtained that Inside Information in the conduct of a public takeover or merger with a company and uses that Inside information solely for the purpose of proceeding with that merger or public takeover; and
- (b) provided that at the point of approval of the merger or acceptance of the offer by the shareholders of that company, any Inside Information has been made public or has otherwise ceased to constitute Inside Information.
5.3.6. Behaviour that does not constitute Insider Dealing – use of own knowledge
The mere fact that a Person uses its own knowledge that it has decided to acquire or dispose of Investments in the acquisition or disposal of those Investments will not of itself constitute use of Inside Information.
Guidance:
Behaviour that does not constitute Insider Dealing Notwithstanding the provisions in MAR 5.3.4 to MAR 5.3.6, an infringement of the prohibition of Insider Dealing may still be deemed to have occurred if the AFSA establishes that there was an illegitimate reason for the orders to trade, transactions or behaviours concerned.
5.4. Market Manipulation
5.4.1. Market Manipulation
Market Manipulation comprises the activities set in MAR 5.4.2 and includes the conduct set out in MAR 5.4.3.
5.4.2. Market Manipulation Activities
The following activities constitute Market Manipulation:
- (a) entering into a transaction, placing an order to trade or any other behaviour which:
- (i) gives, or is likely to give, false or misleading signals as to the supply of, demand for, or price of, a Security; or
- (ii) secures, or is likely to secure, the price of one or several Securities at an abnormal or artificial level; unless the Person entering into a transaction, placing an order to trade or engaging in any other behaviour establishes that such transaction, order or behaviour have been carried out for legitimate reasons, and conform with an accepted market practice MAR 5.4.4 (Accepted Market Practice); and
- (b) entering into a transaction, placing an order to trade or any other activity or behaviour which affects or is likely to affect the price of one or several Securities, which employs a fictitious device or any other form of deception or contrivance; and
- (c) disseminating information through the media, including the internet, or by any other means, which gives, or is likely to give, false or misleading signals as to the supply of, demand for, or price of, a Security, or secures, or is likely to secure, the price of one or several Securities, at an abnormal or artificial level, including the dissemination of rumours, where the Person who made the dissemination knew, or ought to have known, that the information was false or misleading; and
- (d) transmitting false or misleading information or providing false or misleading inputs in relation to a benchmark where the Person who made the transmission or provided the input knew or ought to have known that it was false or misleading, or any other behaviour which manipulates the calculation of a benchmark.
5.4.3. Market Manipulation Behaviour
The following conduct constitutes Market Manipulation:
- (a) the conduct by a Person, or Persons acting in collaboration, to secure a dominant position over the supply of or demand for a Security which has, or is likely to have, the effect of fixing, directly or indirectly, purchase or sale prices or creates, or is likely to create, other unfair trading conditions; and
- (b) the buying or selling of Securities, at the opening or closing of the market, which has or is likely to have the effect of misleading investors acting on the basis of the prices displayed, including the opening or closing prices; and
- (c) the placing of orders to a trading venue, including any cancellation or modification thereof, by any available means of trading, including by electronic means, such as algorithmic and high-frequency trading strategies, and which has one of the effects referred to in MAR 5.4.2(a) or (b), by:
- (i) disrupting or delaying the functioning of the trading system of the trading venue or being likely to do so; or
- (ii) making it more difficult for other Persons to identify genuine orders on the trading system of the trading venue or being likely to do so, including by entering orders which result in the overloading or destabilisation of the order book; or
- (iii) creating or being likely to create a false or misleading signal about the supply of, or demand for, or price of, a Security, in particular by entering orders to initiate or exacerbate a trend;
- (d) the taking advantage of occasional or regular access to the traditional or electronic media by voicing an opinion about a Security (or indirectly about its Issuer) while having previously taken positions on that Security and profiting subsequently from the impact of the opinions voiced on the price of that instrument without having simultaneously disclosed that conflict of interest to the public in a proper and effective way.
5.4.4. Accepted Market Practice
The activities referred to in MAR 5.4.2(a) will not constitute Market Manipulation if the Person entering into a transaction, placing an order to trade or engaging in any other behavior establishes that such transaction, order or behavior have been carried out for legitimate reasons, and conform with an accepted market practice as established by the AFSA.
5.5. Market Soundings
5.5.1. Definition of Market Sounding
The following constitute Market Sounding:
- (a) the communication of information, prior to the announcement of a transaction, in order to gauge the interest of potential investors in a possible transaction and the conditions relating to it, such as its potential size or pricing, to one or more potential investors by:
- (i) an Issuer; or
- (ii) a secondary offeror of a Security, in such quantity or value that the transaction is distinct from ordinary trading and involves a selling method based on the prior assessment of potential interest from potential investors; or
- (iii) a third party acting on behalf or on the account of a Person referred to in (i) or (ii); and
- (b) disclosure of Inside Information by a Person intending to make a takeover bid for the Securities of a company or a merger with a company to parties entitled to the Securities, will also constitute a market sounding, provided that:
- (i) the information is necessary to enable the parties entitled to the Securities to form an opinion on their willingness to offer their Securities: and
- (ii) the willingness of parties entitled to the Securities to offer their Securities is reasonably required for the decision to make the takeover bid or merger.
5.5.2. Disclosure of Inside Information in the course of Market Sounding
Disclosure of Inside Information made in the course of Market Sounding will be deemed to be made in the normal exercise of a Person’s employment, profession or duties (and will not constitute unlawful disclosure of Inside Information (MAR 5.2.65) provided that the Person making the disclosure complied with the requirements in MAR 5.5.3 (Requirements on a Person conducting or intending to conduct Market Sounding).
5.5.3. Requirements on a Person conducting or intending to conduct Market Sounding
A market participant must:
- (a) prior to conducting a Market Sounding, consider whether the Market Sounding will involve the disclosure of Inside Information and make a written record of its conclusions and reasons thereof; and
- (b) before making the disclosure of Inside Information:
- (i) obtain the consent of the Person receiving the Market Sounding to receive Inside Information; and
- (ii) inform the Person receiving the market sounding that he is prohibited from using that information, or attempting to use that information, by acquiring or disposing of, for his own account or for the account of a third party, directly or indirectly, Securities relating to that information; and
- (iii) inform the Person receiving the market sounding that he is prohibited from using that information, or attempting to use that information, by cancelling or amending an order which has already been placed concerning a Security to which the information relates; and
- (iv) inform the Person receiving the market sounding that by agreeing to receive the information he is obliged to keep the information confidential; and
- (c) make and maintain a record of all information given to the Person receiving the Market Sounding, including the information given in accordance with points (i) to (iv), and the identity of the potential investors to whom the information has been disclosed, including but not limited to the legal and natural Persons acting on behalf of the potential investor, and the date and time of each disclosure. The disclosing market participant must provide that record to the competent authority upon request; and
- (d) provide its written record to the AFSA upon request; prior to conducting a Market Sounding.
5.5.4. Information which ceases to be Inside Information
Where information that has been disclosed in the course of a Market Sounding ceases to be Inside Information according to the assessment of the disclosing market participant, the disclosing market participant must inform the recipient accordingly, as soon as possible and maintain a record of the information given to the recipient.
6. MARKET DISCLOSURE
6.1. Public disclosure of Inside Information
6.1.1. Obligation to disclose Inside Information to the public
A Reporting Entity must inform the public as soon as possible of Inside Information which directly concerns that Reporting Entity.
6.1.2. Requirements for public disclosure of Inside Information
The Reporting Entity:
- (a) must ensure that the Inside Information is made public in a manner which enables fast access and complete, correct and timely assessment of the information by the public; and
- (b) must not combine the disclosure of Inside Information to the public with the marketing of its activities; and
- (c) must post and maintain on its website for a period of at least five years, all Inside Information it is required to disclose publicly.
6.1.3. Delaying disclosure
A Reporting Entity may delay disclosure of Inside Information to the public provided that all of the following conditions are met:
- (a) immediate disclosure is likely to prejudice the legitimate interests of the Reporting Entity; and
- (b) delay of disclosure is not likely to mislead the public; and
- (c) the Reporting Entity is able to ensure the confidentiality of that information.
6.1.4. Delaying disclosure – protracted processes
In the case of a protracted process that occurs in stages and that is intended to bring about, or that results in, a particular circumstance or a particular event, a Reporting Entity may delay the public disclosure of Inside Information relating to this process, subject to MAR 6.1.3.
6.1.5. Obligation to notify the AFSA and the Authorised Investment Exchange of delayed disclosure
Where a Reporting Entity has delayed the disclosure of Inside Information under MAR 6.1.3 or MAR 6.1.4, it must inform the AFSA and the Authorised Investment Exchange that disclosure of the information was delayed and must provide a written explanation of how the conditions set out in MAR 6.1.3 were met, immediately after the information is disclosed to the public.
6.1.6. Obligation to disclose to the public when confidentiality is no longer ensured
Where disclosure of Inside Information has been delayed in accordance with MAR 6.1.3 or MAR 6.1.4 and the confidentiality of that Inside Information is no longer ensured, the Reporting Entity must disclose that Inside Information to the public as soon as possible.
Guidance: Obligation to disclose to the public when confidentiality is no longer ensured MAR 6.1.6 would apply to situations where a rumour explicitly relates to Inside Information the disclosure of which has been delayed in accordance with MAR 6.1.3 or MAR 6.1.4 where that rumour is sufficiently accurate to indicate that the confidentiality of that information is no longer ensured.
6.1.7. Disclosure of Inside Information in the normal course of the exercise of an employment, profession or duties
Where a Reporting Entity, or a Person acting on their behalf or for their account, discloses any Inside Information to any third party in the normal course of the exercise of an employment, profession or duties as referred to in MAR 5.2.5 (Unlawful Disclosure of Inside Information):
- (a) they must make complete and effective public disclosure of that information, simultaneously in the case of an intentional disclosure, and promptly in the case of a non-intentional disclosure; but
- (b) the obligation in (a) does not arise where the Person receiving the information owes a duty of confidentiality, whether such duty is based on law, regulations, on articles of association or on a contract.
6.2. Insider lists
6.2.1. Obligation to draw up insider lists
A Reporting Entity, or a Person acting on its behalf or on its account, must draw up a list of all Persons who have access to Inside Information and who are working for them under a contract of employment, or otherwise performing tasks through which they have access to Inside Information, such as advisers, accountants or credit rating agencies (Insider List).
6.2.2. Reporting Entity is responsible for complying with MAR 8.2.2 (Obligation to draw up insider lists)
Where another Person acting on behalf or on the account of the Reporting Entity assumes the task of drawing up and updating the Insider List, the Reporting Entity remains fully responsible for complying with MAR 6.2.21 (Obligation to draw up insider lists).
6.2.3. Contents of the Insider List
The Insider List must include at least:
- (a) the identity of any Person having access to Inside Information; and
- (b) the reason for including that Person in the Insider List; and
- (c) the date and time at which that Person obtained access to Inside Information; and
- (d) the date on which the insider list was drawn up.
6.2.4. Persons on the Insider List
A Reporting Entity, or a Person acting on its behalf or on its account, must take all reasonable steps to ensure that any Person on the Insider List acknowledges in writing the legal and regulatory duties entailed and is aware of the sanctions applicable to Insider Dealing and unlawful disclosure of Inside Information.
6.2.5. Updating the Insider list
A Reporting Entity, or a Person acting on its behalf or on its account, must update the Insider List promptly, including the date of the update, in the following circumstances:
- (a) where there is a change in the reason for including a Person already on the Insider List; and
- (b) where there is a new Person who has access to Inside Information and needs, therefore, to be added to the Insider List; and
- (c) where a Person ceases to have access to Inside Information. Each update must specify the date and time when the change triggering the update occurred.
6.2.6. Provision of Insider Lists to the AFSA
Reporting Entities or any Person acting on their behalf must provide the Insider List to the AFSA as soon as possible upon its request.
6.2.7. Record Keeping
A Reporting Entity, or a Person acting on its behalf or on its account, must retain the Insider List for a period of at least five years after it is drawn up or updated.
6.3. Managers’ transactions
6.3.1. Notification of transactions
Persons discharging managerial responsibilities within a Reporting Entity must notify the Reporting Entity and the AFSA, in accordance with the rules in MAR 6.3, of every transaction conducted on their own account relating to the Shares or debt instruments of that Issuer or to derivatives or other Securities linked thereto.
6.3.2. Transactions on behalf of Persons discharging managerial responsibilities
Transactions that must be notified under MAR 6.3.1 (Notification of transactions) must also include:
- (a) the pledging or lending of Securities by or on behalf of a Person discharging managerial responsibilities, save that a pledge, or a similar Security interest, of Securities in connection with the depositing of the Securities in a custody account does not need to be notified, unless and until such time that such pledge or other Security interest is designated to secure a specific credit facility; and
- (b) transactions undertaken by Persons professionally arranging or executing transactions or by another Person on behalf of a Person discharging managerial responsibilities, including where discretion is exercised.
6.3.3. Content of notification
The notification of transactions referred to in MAR 6.3.1 must contain the following information:
- (a) the name of the Person;
- (b) the reason for the notification;
- (c) the name of the relevant Reporting Entity;
- (d) a description and the identifier of the Security;
- (e) the nature of the transaction(s) (e.g. acquisition or disposal), indicating whether it is linked to the exercise of Share option programmes or to the specific examples set out in MAR 6.3.2 (Transactions on behalf of Persons discharging managerial responsibilities);
- (f) the date and place of the transaction(s); and
- (g) the price and volume of the transaction(s). In the case of a pledge whose terms provide for its value to change, this should be disclosed together with its value at the date of the pledge.
6.3.4. Notification to be made promptly
The notification in MAR 6.3.1 must be made promptly and no later than three business days after the date of the transaction.
6.3.5. Disclosure to the public
The Reporting Entity must ensure that the information that is notified in accordance with MAR 6.3.1 is made public promptly and no later than three business days after the transaction in a manner which enables fast access to the information on a non-discriminatory basis.
6.3.6. Notifying Persons discharging managerial responsibilities of their obligations
Reporting Entities must notify the Person discharging managerial responsibilities of their obligations under MAR 6.3.1 (Notification of transactions).
6.3.7. List of Persons discharging managerial responsibilities of their obligations
A Reporting Entity must draw up a list of all Persons discharging managerial responsibilities.
6.3.8. Closed period
A Person discharging managerial responsibilities within a Reporting Entity must not conduct any transactions on their own account or for the account of a third party, directly or indirectly, relating to the Shares or debt instruments of the Reporting Entity or to derivatives or other Securities linked to them during a closed period as defined in MAR 2.4.3.
6.3.9. Discretion to permit trading with the closed period
A Reporting Entity may allow a Person discharging managerial responsibilities within it to trade on its own account or for the account of a third party during a closed period either:
- (a) on a case-by-case basis due to the existence of exceptional circumstances, such as severe financial difficulty, which require the immediate sale of Shares; or
- (b) due to the characteristics of the trading involved for transactions made under, or related to, an Employee Share Scheme or saving scheme, qualification or entitlement of Shares, or transactions where the beneficial interest in the relevant Security does not change.
6.4. Dissemination of investment recommendations, statistics and information in the media
6.4.1. Investment recommendations
Persons who produce or disseminate investments recommendations or other information recommending or suggesting an investment strategy must take reasonable care to ensure that such information is objectively presented, and to disclose their interests or indicate conflicts of interest concerning the Investments to which that information relates.
6.4.2. Dissemination of statistics
Public institutions disseminating statistics or forecasts liable to have a significant effect on financial markets must disseminate them in an objective and transparent way.
6.4.3. Disclosure or dissemination of information in the media
For the purposes of MAR 5.2.6.6, MAR 5.4.2(c), MAR 6.4.1 and MAR 6.4.2, where information is disclosed or disseminated and where recommendations are produced or disseminated for the purpose of journalism or other form of expression in the media, such disclosure or dissemination of information must be assessed taking into account the rules governing the freedom of the press and freedom of expression in other media and the rules or codes governing the journalist profession, unless:
- (a) the Persons concerned, or Persons closely associated with them, derive, directly or indirectly, an advantage or profits from the disclosure or the dissemination of the information in question; or
- (b) the disclosure or the dissemination is made with the intention of misleading the market as to the supply of, demand for, or price of Securities.
6.5 Other matters concerning market disclosure
(1) A Reporting Entity must disclose to the public any other matters prescribed by the market disclosure rules of the Authorised Investment Exchange on which it has Securities or Units admitted to the Official List.
(2) Subject to (3) below, if a Reporting Entity that has its Securities of the same class admitted to trading on an Equivalent Regulated Exchange complies with the corresponding requirements of market disclosure rules and regulations in the jurisdiction of such Equivalent Regulated Exchange, it will not be required to make any additional disclosure under market disclosure requirements of the AFSA beyond those disclosures such Reporting Entity makes in the jurisdiction of such Equivalent Regulated Exchange, provided that the same information is released on the Authorised Investment Exchange at the same time as in that other jurisdiction, subject to the manner of market disclosure and English language requirement prescribed in the Business Rules of the Authorised Investment Exchange. Notwithstanding that, AFSA and/or the Authorised Investment Exchange, in their reasonable discretion, may require the Reporting Entity to make additional disclosures when necessary to protect the interests of investors or other lawful purposes.
(3) If a Reporting Entity is in breach of the requirements of, or is released from, disclosure obligations (as a result of delisting or otherwise) under, market disclosure rules and regulations in the jurisdiction of the relevant Equivalent Regulated Exchange, the Reporting Entity must comply with all relevant market disclosure requirements of the AFSA and the Authorised Investment Exchange on which Securities of the Reporting Entity are admitted to trading.
7. LISTED FUNDS
7.1.2. Conditions for admission of Units to trading
An Authorised Investment Exchange may not admit Units to trading unless:
- (a) the Units have been admitted to the Official List maintained by the Authorised Investment Exchange in accordance with section 66 of the Framework Regulations; and
- (b) in relation to Units of Listed Funds other than Overseas Listed Funds:
- (i) the Fund is a Non-Exempt Fund registered under the AIFC Collective Investment Scheme Rules;
- (ii) there are Offering Materials in relation to the relevant Units and the Authorised Investment Exchange has satisfied itself that such Offering Materials satisfies the requirements in AIFC Collective Investment Scheme Rules.
Guidance:
Listing Exempt Funds Exempt Funds may be admitted to the Official List, but not to trading, as they can only be offered on a private placement basis to certain investors.
7.1.3. Application of MAR to Listed Funds
The following parts of MAR shall generally apply to Listed Funds, with all necessary modifications (such that references to "Security" or "Securities" shall be read as references to "Unit in a Listed Fund" or "Units in a Listed Fund", respectively; references to the "Issuer" shall be read as references to the "Listed Fund"; and references to "Reporting Entity" shall be a reference to "the Listed Fund and its Fund Manager" (except the second reference to "Reporting Entity in Rule 6.1.1 shall be a reference to the "Listed Fund" only):
- (a) MAR 5 (Market Abuse);
- (b) MAR 6 (Market Disclosure).
The following parts of MAR shall not apply to Listed Funds, or a Reporting Entity that is the Fund Manager of Listed Fund (in its capacity as such):
- (c) MAR 1 (Offer of Securities);
- (d) MAR 2 (Governance of Reporting Entities);
- (e) MAR 3 (Financial Reports); and
- (f) MAR 4 (Sponsors and Compliance Advisors).
7.1.4. Disclosure of Financial Reports and Valuation
The Fund Manager of a Listed Fund (other than an Overseas Listed Fund) must disclose to the market any interim and annual reports and any valuations that the Listed Fund is required to prepare and disclose to Unitholders under CIS 10 promptly on their being available.
SCHEDULE 1: REGISTRATION DOCUMENT
1. INFORMATION ABOUT THE ISSUER
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | ||
1. INFORMATION ABOUT THE ISSUER | ||||||||||
1.1 | General information General information about the Issuer including: (a) the full legal name of the Issuer; (b) if different to the legal name, the full commercial name of the Issuer; (c) the legal form of the Issuer; (d) the country of incorporation of the Issuer and its incorporation number; (e) if domiciled in a jurisdiction outside the country of incorporation, the legislation under which the Issuer operates; (f) if registered in a place other than the country of incorporation, the place of registration of the Issuer and its registration number; (g) the date of incorporation and registration and the length of time the Issuer has remained incorporated or registered (or both) as is relevant. Where the Issuer has a fixed life, this must be stated together with the end date; and (i) if the Securities are asset backed Securities, a statement whether the Issuer has been established as a special purpose vehicle or entity for the purpose of issuing asset backed Securities. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
1.2 | Investments Information about: (a) the Issuer's principal investments for each financial year for the period covered by the historical financial information up to the date of the Registration Document; (b) description, (including the amount) of the Issuer's principal investments for the period referred to in (a); and (c) a description of the Issuer's principal investments that are in progress, including the geographic distribution of these investments (home and abroad) and the method of financing (internal or external). | √ | √ | √ |
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2. OPERATIONAL FINANCIAL OVERVIEW
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | ||
2. OPERATIONAL FINANCIAL OVERVIEW | ||||||||||
2.1 | Actual and proposed business activities |
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| A detailed description of the actual and proposed principal operations of the Issuer including: |
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| (a) the history of the Issuer; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (b) a description of the principal activities and business of the Issuer; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
| (c) a description of important events in the development of the Issuer's business; | √ | √ | √ | √ | |||||
| (d) a description of, and key factors relating to, the nature of the Issuer's operations and its principal activities, specifying the main categories of products sold and/or services performed for each financial year for the period covered by the historical financial information; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (e) an indication of any significant new products and/or services that have been introduced by the Issuer and, to the extent the development of new products or services has been publicly disclosed, the status of the development; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (f) a description of the principal markets in which the Issuer operates, including a breakdown of total revenues by category of activity and geographic market for each financial year for the period covered by the historical financial information; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||||
| (g) if material to the Issuer's business or profitability, a summary of the extent to which the Issuer is dependent on any patents or licences, industrial, commercial or financial contracts or new manufacturing processes; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (h) the basis for any statement made by the Issuer regarding its competitive position; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (i) where the information given under this item has been influenced by exceptional factors, a statement about that fact; and | √ | √ | √ | √ | |||||
| (j) where the Issuer belongs to a Group, relevant material information as specified above in relation to the Group's activities. | √ | √ | √ | √ | |||||
2.2 | Significant factors affecting income/operations (a) Information regarding significant factors, including unusual or infrequent events or new developments, which are materially affecting or may likely to so affect the Issuer's income from operations, indicating the extent to which income was so affected. (b) Where the financial statements disclose material changes in net sales or revenues, a narrative discussion of the reasons for such changes. (c) Information regarding any governmental, economic, fiscal, monetary or political policies or factors that have materially affected, or could materially affect, directly or indirectly, the Issuer's operations. | √ | √ | √ |
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2.3 | Risk factors Prominent disclosure of risk factors that are specific to the Issuer and if relevant, its industry in a section headed "Risk Factors" containing information including: (a) the material risks associated with investing in the Issuer, and where applicable, any risks associated with the assets to be acquired using the proceeds of the offer; (b) the effect that the material risks may have on the Issuer together with a discussion of how the risk could affect the business, operating results and financial condition of the Issuer; (c) any steps proposed by the Issuer to mitigate or manage the risks; and (d) general and specific risks relating to the industry and the jurisdiction in which the Issuer operates. *not exceeding 15 risk factors (for REMS Shares) | √ | √* | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
2.4 | Production and sales trends |
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| (a) Information about the most significant recent trends in production, sales and inventory, and costs and selling prices since the end of the last financial year to the date of the Registration Document. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (b) If: (i) there has been no material adverse change relating to the information referred to in (a) since the date of its last published financial statements, a statement to that effect; and (ii) the Issuer is not in a position to make such a statement, details of the material adverse change. |
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| (c) Information on any known trends, uncertainties, demands, commitments or events that are reasonably likely to have a material effect on the Issuer's prospects for at least the past 12 months. | √ | √ | √ |
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3. CONSTITUTION AND ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | |
3.1 | Constitution A summary of the provisions of the constitution of the Issuer including: (a) a description of the Issuer's objectives and purpose and where they can be found in the constitution; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (b) a summary of any provisions of the constitution with respect to its Directors and any Person involved in the senior management of the Issuer including the members of the administrative, management and supervisory bodies; (c) a description of the rights, preferences and restrictions attaching to each class of the existing Securities; (d) a description of what action is necessary to change the rights of holders of the Securities, indicating where the conditions are more significant than is required by any law applicable to the Issuer; (e) a description of the conditions governing the manner in which annual general meetings and extraordinary general meetings of holders of Securities are called including the conditions of admission to the meeting; (f) a brief description of any provision of the constitution that would have an effect of delaying, deferring or preventing a change in control of the Issuer; (g) an indication whether there are any provisions in the constitution, governing the ownership threshold above which shareholder ownership must be disclosed; (h) a description of the conditions imposed by the constitution governing changes in the capital, where such conditions are more stringent than is required by law applicable to the Issuer. | √ | √ |
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3.2 | Group Structure If the Issuer is a member of a Group, information about the Issuer's Groupincluding: |
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(a) identity of the material entities of the Issuer’s of the Group Structure; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
(b) a brief description of the Groupexplaining the Issuer's position within the Group; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
(c) the identity of the ultimate Holding Company of the Issuer and where it is domiciled; and | √ | √ | √ |
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(d) a list of significant Subsidiaries of the Issuer, including name, country of incorporation or domicile, proportion of ownership interest and, if different, proportion of voting power or other form of control held. | √ | √ | √ |
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All rights reserved 2020
4. ASSETS
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | ||
4. ASSETS | ||||||||||
4.1 | Property, plant and equipment Information about: (a) existing material fixed assets, including any leased properties, and any major encumbrances in respect of such assets; (b) planned acquisition of material fixed assets, including leased properties, and any major encumbrances in respect to those assets; and (c) a description of any environmental issues that may affect the Issuer's utilisation of the assets referred to in (a) and (b). | √ | √ | √ |
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4.2 | Material contracts Information about material contracts of the Issuer including: |
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| (a) a summary of each material contract (to the extent not disclosed under 5.1), other than contracts entered into in the ordinary course of business, to which the Issuer or any member of the Group is a party, for the two years immediately preceding publication of the Registration Document; and | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (b) a summary of any other contract (not being a contract entered into in the ordinary course of business) entered into by any member of the Groupwhich contains any provision under which any member of the Group has any obligation or entitlement which is material to the Group as at the date of the Registration Document. | √ | √ |
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5. CAPITAL
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | ||
5. CAPITAL | ||||||||||
5.1 | Capital resources (a) Information about the capital resources of the Issuer including: (i) the short and long term capital resources; (ii) an explanation of, the sources and amounts of, and a narrative description of, the cash flows; (iii) the borrowing requirements and funding structure; (iv) any restrictions on the use of capital resources that have materially affected, or could materially affect, directly or indirectly, its operations; (b) Information regarding the anticipated sources of funds needed to fulfil commitments relating to: (i) any existing or planned material tangible fixed assets, including leased properties, and any major encumbrances thereon; and (ii) any principal future investments to which the Board or the senior management of the Issuer have already made firm commitments. | √ | √ | √ |
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5.2 | Certificates In the case of an Issuer of Certificates, a summary of the Issuer's responsibilities and obligations in respect of the Certificates including the obligations and responsibilities in making certain payments as and when payments on the underlying Securities are received and any material information about the Issuer of the underlying Securities that may affect the Issuer's ability to meet its obligations. |
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5.3 | Share capital The following information as of the date of the most recent balance sheet included in the historical financial information of the Issuer: (a) The amount of issued share capital, and for each class of share capital: (i) the number of Shares authorised; (ii) the number of Shares, issued and fully paid, and issued but not fully paid; (iii) the par value per Share, or that the Shares have no par value; and | √ | √ | √ |
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| (iv) a reconciliation of the number of Shares outstanding at the beginning and end of the year. If more than 10% of capital has been paid for with assets other than cash within the period covered by the historical financial information, a statement to that effect. (b) If there are Shares not representing capital, the number and main characteristics of such Shares. (c) The number, book value and face value of Shares in the Issuer held by or on behalf of the Issuer itself or by Subsidiaries of the Issuer. (d) The amount of any convertible securities, exchangeable securities or securities with warrants, with an indication of the conditions governing and the procedures for conversion, exchange or subscription. (e) Information about and terms of any acquisition rights and or obligations over authorised but unissued capital or an undertaking to increase the capital. (f) Historical information about the share capital highlighting any changes for the period covered by the historical financial information. | √ | √ |
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5.4 | Options If any options or other rights granted in respect of Shares in the Issuer to any Person, a summary of the total of any such options, along with an estimate of the number of Shares which would be created, if such rights were to be exercised. | √ | √ | √ |
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6. MANAGEMENT OF THE ISSUER
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | |||
6. MANAGEMENT OF THE ISSUER | |||||||||||
6.1 | Details relating to directors and senior managers ("Key Persons") (a) names, business addresses, functions and principal activities carried out by the following Persons (“Key Persons”), including outside that of the Issuer where such functions are significant with respect to the activities of the Issuer: (i) the Directors of the Issuer; (ii) the Directors of the ultimate Holding Company of the Issuer, if any; (iii) the members of the senior management (senior managers) of the Issuer and, if they are also Directorsof the Issuer, their respective responsibilities as Directors and as a member of the senior management of the Issuer; (iv) founding members, if the Issuer has been established for fewer than five years; and (v) any senior manager who is relevant to establishing that the Issuer has the appropriate expertise and experience for the management of the Issuer's business. (A reference to a Director in the case of a Limited Partnership should be read as a reference to a General Partner of the partnership.) | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | ||
| (b) The nature of any family or business relationship between any of the Key Persons | √ | √ | √ |
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| (c) Except for the category of Person in item (a)(iv) above, details of each of the Key Person's relevant management expertise and experience and the following information: (i) the names of all companies and partnerships in which such Personhas been a member of a Board or involved in the senior management of in the previous five years, indicating whether or not the Person still holds such position. It is not necessary to list all the Subsidiaries of an Issuer of which the Person is also a member of the Board or involved in the senior management; (ii) the history of all convictions relating to fraud, wrongful trading, defaults, antitrust violations and any other financial crimes; (iii) details of any bankruptcies, receiverships or liquidations of another entity with which a Person described in item (a)(iii) and (vi) was associated with for at least the previous five years when acting in a similar capacity; (iv) details of any official public incrimination and/or sanctions of such a Person by statutory or regulatory authorities (including designated professional bodies) and whether such a Person has ever been disqualified by a court from acting as a Director or from acting in the senior management of, or conduct the affairs of, any Issuer for at least the previous five years; and (v) if there is no such information to be disclosed pursuant to (i) – (iv), a statement to that effect. | √ | √ √ √ | √ |
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| (d) If there is a potential conflict of interests between the personal interests of any Key Person and that of the duties such Persons owed to the Issuer or interests of the Issuer, details of such conflict of interests and, if there are no such conflicts, a clear statement to that effect. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |||
| (e) Information about any arrangement or understanding with major shareholders, customers, suppliers or others, pursuant to which any Key Person was selected as a Directoror senior manager of the Issuer. | √ | √ | √ |
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| (f) Details relating to any restrictions agreed by a Key Person on the disposal within a certain period of time of his holdings in the Issuer's Securities. | √ | √ | √ |
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6.2 | Other information relating to key Persons (a) For the last completed financial year of the Issuer, information relating to each Key Person about: (i) the amount of remuneration paid (including any contingent or deferred compensation), and benefits in kind granted to such Persons by the Issuer and its Subsidiaries for services in all capacities to the Issuer and its Subsidiaries; and (ii) the total amounts set aside or accrued by the Issuer or its Subsidiaries to provide pension, retirement or similar benefits. (b) For the last completed financial year of the Issuer: (i) the date of expiration of the current term of office, if applicable, and the period during which the Person has served in that office of each Key Person specified in (a)(i) — (iii); (ii) information about any service contracts with a Key Person and the Issuer or any of its Subsidiariesproviding for benefits upon termination of employment, and if there are no such contracts, a statement to that effect; | √ | √ |
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| (iii) information about the Issuer's audit committee, nomination committee and remuneration committee, if any, including the names of committee members and a summary of the terms of reference under which the committee operates; and (iv) statements as to whether or not the Issuer is complying with any corporate governance regime in its country of incorporation or domicile and if so whether or not such a regime is compatible with the corporate governance regime under MAR. In the event an Issuer does not comply with a regime of corporate governance applicable in the country of its incorporation or domicile, a statement to that effect, together with an explanation regarding why the Issuer does not comply with such a regime. | √ | √ | √ |
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6.3 | Information about Employees Information relating to the following: (a) either: (i) the number of Employees at the end of each period covered by the historical financial information; or (ii) the average for each financial year for the period covered by the historical financial information up to the date of the Registration Document (and changes in such numbers, if material); and (b) If the Issuer employs a significant number of temporary Employees, the number of temporary Employees on average during the most recent financial year; and (c) a breakdown of the Employees by main category of activity and geographic location to the extent practicable and material. | √ | √ |
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7. FINANCIAL INFORMATION ABOUT THE ISSUER
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | ||
7. FINANCIAL INFORMATION ABOUT THE ISSUER | ||||||||||
7.1 | Historical financial information about the Issuer (a) Historical financial information covering the latest 3 financial years (or such shorter period that the Issuer has been in operation) where such information in respect of each year is: (i) prepared in accordance with the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) or any other standards acceptable to the AFSA; (ii) audited in accordance with the standards of the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board(IAASB) or other standards acceptable to the AFSA; and (iii) independently audited or reported on as to whether or not, for the purposes of the Registration Document, it gives a true and fair view, in accordance with the applicable auditing standards referred to in (ii) above; and | √ | √ |
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(a.1) Historical financial information covering the latest 1 financial year where such information is: (i)prepared in accordance with the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) or any other standards acceptable to the AFSA; (ii)audited in accordance with the standards of the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board(IAASB) or other standards acceptable to the AFSA; and (iii) independently audited or reported on as to whether or not, for the purposes of the Registration Document, it gives a true and fair view, in accordance with the applicable auditing standards referred to in (ii) above; and | √ | |||||||||
| (b) Historical financial information covering the latest 2 financial years (or such shorter period that the Issuer has been in operation) where such information in respect of each year is: (i) prepared in accordance with the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) or any other standards acceptable to the AFSA; (ii) audited in accordance with the standards of the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board(IAASB) or other standards acceptable to the AFSA; and (iii) independently audited or reported on as to whether or not, for the purposes of the Registration Document, it gives a true and fair view, in accordance with the applicable auditing standards referred to in (ii) above; and |
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| (c) In respect of the last year of audited financial information included, such information not being older than one of the following: (i) 18 months from the date of the Registration Document if the Issuer includes audited interim financial statements in the Registration Document; or (ii) 15 months from the date of the Registration Document if the Issuer includes unaudited interim financial statements in the Registration Document. (d) A statement that the historical financial information has been audited. (e) If the audit reports on the historical financial information have been refused by the auditors or if they contain qualifications or disclaimers, reproduction of such refusal, qualifications or disclaimers in full and the reasons given. (f) If any other information in the Registration Document has been audited by the auditors, a statement to that effect. (g) If any financial data in the Registration Document is not extracted from the Issuer's audited financial statements, statements as to the source of the data and that the data is unaudited. (h) If since the date of the Issuer's last audited financial statements quarterly or half yearly financial information has been published, such statements including: (i) if the quarterly or half yearly financial information has been reviewed or audited, the audit or review report; or (ii) if the quarterly or half yearly financial information is unaudited or has not been reviewed, a statement to that effect. (i) If the Registration Document is dated more than nine months after the end of the last audited financial year, interim financial information: (i) covering at least the first six months of the financial year; (ii) including comparative statements for the same period in the prior financial year (except that the requirement for comparative balance sheet information may be satisfied by presenting the years end balance sheet); and (iii) if unaudited, a statement to that effect. (j) If the Issuer prepares both own and consolidated annual financial statements, at least the consolidated annual financial statements. (k) A description of any significant change in the financial or trading position of the group which has occurred since the end of the last financial period for which either audited financial information or interim financial information have been published, or an appropriate negative statement. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
7.2 | Profit forecasts If an Issuer chooses to include a profit forecast or a profit estimate in the Registration Document: (a) information about the principal assumptions upon which the Issuer has based its forecast or estimate: (i) in a manner readily understandable by investors and prepared on a basis comparable with the historical financial information; and (ii) showing a clear distinction between assumptions about factors which the Board or senior management of the Issuer can influence and assumptions about factors which are exclusively outside the influence of such Persons; (b) a report prepared by independent accountants or auditors stating that in the opinion of the independent accountants or auditors, the forecast or estimate has been properly compiled on the basis stated and that the basis of accounting used for the profit forecast or estimate is consistent with the accounting policies of the Issuer; and (c) If a profit forecast in a Prospectushas been previously published, a statement setting out whether or not that forecast is still correct as at the time of the Registration Document or if the forecast is no longer valid, an explanation of why that is the case. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
8. OTHER INFORMATION RELATING TO THE ISSUER
9. RESPONSIBILITY FOR THE CONTENT OF PROSPECTUS
CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants over Shares | Debentures | Warrants over Debentures | Certificates over Shares | Certificates over Debentures | Structured Products | ||
9. RESPONSIBILITY FOR THE CONTENT OF PROSPECTUS | ||||||||||
9.1 | Responsibility Statement A Responsibility Statement that: (a) the Prospectus complies with the requirements in Section 69 of the Framework Regulations and Part 1 of MAR; (b) sets out the details of the Personsresponsible for the Prospectuspursuant to MAR 1.9, and in particular: (i) where a Person responsible is a natural person, indicates the name and function of that Person; and (ii) where a Person responsible is a Body Corporate or other legal person, indicates the name and registered office of that Person; and (c) includes a declaration, from each Person responsible for the Prospectus, or for certain parts of it, pursuant to MAR 1.9, that having taken all reasonable care to ensure that such is the case, the information contained in the Prospectus is, to the best of their knowledge, in accordance with the facts and contains no omission likely to affect its import. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
9.2 | Expert opinions included in a prospectus |
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| (a) If any Expert's opinion, statement or report ("report") is included in the Prospectus : | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
| (i) the name, business address and professional qualifications of the Expert responsible for the report and the date on which the Expert report was made or produced; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
| (ii) Information relating to any material interests of the Expert in the Issuer such as any benefit or fees paid to the Expert by the Issuer or a related company, positions held or to be held by the Expert in the Issuer or a related company, investments held or to be held by the Expert in the Issuer or a related company, fees and commissions paid or to be paid to the Expert or Persons associated with the Expert; and | √ | √ | √ |
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| (iii) if the report has been produced at the Issuer's request, a statement to that effect and that the report is included, in the form and context in which it is included, with the consent of the Expert. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
| (b) Where information has been sourced from an Expert or other third party, the source of such information and confirmation by the Issuer that the information has been accurately produced and that as far as the Issuer is aware and is able to ascertain from the information published by that Expert or third party, that no facts have been omitted which would render the reproduced information inaccurate or misleading. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
9.4 | Special categories of companies If the Issuer is a special category of company, such as a property, or scientific research company, or a start up company (a company with less than 3 year track record), a report by an Expert on the assets or rights owned by the Issuer prepared at a date which shall be no later than 6 (six) months before the date of the Prospectus. | √ | √ |
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(a.1) If the Issuer is a mineral or petroleum company, a report by an Expert on the status of exploration, development and production, and assessments of reserves and resources of the Issuer’s projects, prepared at a date which shall be no later than 6 (six) months before the date of the Prospectus or older as may be reasonably determined by Authorised Investment Exchange | √ | √ |
10. DOCUMENTS ON DISPLAY
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CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — REGISTRATION DOCUMENT |
Shares |
REMS Shares |
Warrants over Shares |
Debentures |
Warrants over Debentures |
Certificates over Shares |
Certificates over Debentures |
Structured Products |
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10. DOCUMENTS ON DISPLAY |
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10.1 |
Documents for inspection
A statement that the following documents, in original or copy form, where applicable, may be inspected:
(a) the constitution of the Issuer;
(b) the historical financial information of the Issuer; and
(c) any information produced by an expert at the Issuer's request, any part of which is included or referred to in the Registration Document. |
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10.2 |
Details
The details of how the documents referred to in 10.1 may be inspected. |
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* In the case of a Prospectus relating to a Security Token the Registration Document must include the additional content information set out in Schedule 4.
SCHEDULE 2: SECURITIES NOTE
1. KEY INFORMATION
2. INFORMATION RELATING TO THE SECURITIES OFFERED/ADMITTED TO TRADING
| CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — SECURITIES NOTE | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants Over Shares | Debentures | Warrants Over Debentures | Certificates Over Shares | Certificates Over Debentures | Structured Product |
2 INFORMATION RELATING TO THE SECURITIES OFFERED/ADMITTED TO TRADING |
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2.1 | General information relating to Securities |
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| (a) A description of the type and class of the Securities being offered and/or admitted to trading, including any identification number (ISIN) or code applicable to the Securities. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (b) An indication whether the Securities are in certificated form or book-entry form and if it is the latter, the name and address of the entity maintaining the records. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (c) A summary of any restrictions relating to transferability of the Securities, the arrangements for settlement of transfers and any limitations of those rights and procedures for the exercise of such rights, including those specified in 2.2 and 2.3. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (d) Any legislation under which the Securities have been created. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (e) The currency of the Securities issue. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (f) The ranking of the Securities being admitted to trading, including summaries of any clauses that are intended to affect ranking or subordinate the Security to any present or future liabilities of the Issuer. |
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| (g) The maturity date and arrangements for the amortisation of the Debenture, including the repayment procedures. Where advance amortisation is contemplated, on the initiative of the Issuer or of the holder, it must be described, stipulating amortisation terms and conditions. |
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| (h) Information regarding representation of Debenture holders including an identification of the organisation representing the investors and provisions applying to such representation. Indication of where investors may have access to the contracts relating to these forms of representation. |
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2.2 | Dividends Information relating to dividend rights including: (a) a description of the Issuer's policy on dividend distributions and any restrictions thereon; (b) the amount of the dividend per Security, or underlying Security if applicable, for each financial year for the period covered by the historical financial information, adjusted where the number of Securities, or underlying Securities if applicable, in the Issuer has changed, to make it comparable; (c) fixed date(s) on which the dividend entitlement arises; (d) if relevant, the time limit after which entitlement to dividend lapses and an indication of the Person in whose favour the lapse operates; (e) any dividend restrictions; and (f) the rate of dividend or method of its calculation, periodicity and cumulative or non-cumulative nature of payments. | √ | √ | √ |
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2.3 | Interest Rate and Yield (a) Where there is a nominal rate of interest or rate of return and provisions relating to rate of interest or rate of return payable, information including: (i) the date from which rate of interest or rate of return becomes payable and the due dates for rate of interest or rate of return; and (ii) the time limit on the validity of claims to rate of interest or rate of return and repayment of principal. (b) Where the rate is not fixed, information including: (i) a description of the underlying on which it is based and of the method used to relate the two; (ii) a description of any market disruption or settlement disruption events that affect the underlying; (iii) adjustment rules with relation to events concerning the underlying; and (iv) the name of the calculation agent. (c) An indication of yield. |
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2.4 | Other rights Information relating to other rights including: |
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| (b) pre-emption rights in relation to offers for subscription of Securities of the same class; | √ | √ |
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| (c) right to share in the Issuer's profits; | √ | √ |
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| (d) rights to share in any surplus in the event of liquidation of the Issuer; | √ | √ |
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| (e) redemption rights, if any; and | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | |
| (f) conversion rights, if any. | √ | √ |
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3. TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF THE OFFER
| CONTENTS OF PROSPECTUS — SECURITIES NOTE | Shares | REMS Shares | Warrants Over Shares | Debentures | Warrants Over Debentures | Certificates Over Shares | Certificates Over Debentures | Structured Product |
3 TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF THE OFFER |
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3.1 | Terms and conditions of the offer The terms and conditions of the offer including: |
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| (a) the number of Securities offered; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (b) the price or price range of the Securities; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (c) the identity of the seller of the Securities where the Person making the Prospectus Offer is not the Issuer; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (d) the various categories of potential investors to which the Securities are offered. If the offer is being made simultaneously in two or more markets, and if a tranche has been or is being reserved for certain of these, indicate any such tranche and the category of investors for whom it is offered; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (e) a description of any material interests and conflict of interests relating to the affairs of the Issuer, detailing the Persons involved and the nature of such interests; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (f) the Offer Period, including the opening and closing dates; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (g) the manner of allocation of Securities to applicants including the manner in which Securities are allotted in the event of over subscription; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (h) proposed date for allotment of Securities; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (i) where the Securities to be offered confer the right to subscribe for new Securities by existing holders of Securities in the Issuer, details of such rights, including a statement of the maximum number of Securities which would be created if the rights were exercised in full; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (j) the effect the issuance of the Securities will have on the capital structure of the Issuer; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (k) particulars of any commissions or other fees to be paid by the Issuer in relation to the offer; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (l) all relevant details of the appointment of an underwriter on a firm commitment basis, including the nature of the obligations of the underwriter, quotas, plan of distribution, commission and, if a portion of the offer is not covered, a statement of the portion not covered; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (m) all relevant details of the appointment of placing agents appointed on a 'without a firm commitment' basis or under a “best efforts” arrangement, including quotas and placing commission; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (n) details of the entities which have a firm commitment to act as intermediaries in secondary trading, providing liquidity through bid and offer rates and description of the main terms of their commitment; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (o) methods of payment for the Securities, particularly as regards the paying up of Securities which are not fully paid or are payable by instalments; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (p) in the event of the offer not proceeding, the details of the procedure and means under which the money obtained from applicants will be returned; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (q) process for notification to applicants of the amount of Securities allotted and indication whether dealing may begin before notification is made; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (r) provided applicants are allowed to withdraw their subscription, an indication of the period during which an application may be withdrawn; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (s) in the case of new Securities, a statement of the resolutions, authorisations and approvals by virtue of which the Securities have been or will be created and/or issued; | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (t) the details of any Convertible, including an indication of the conditions governing the procedures for conversion, exchange or subscription; | √ | √ | √ |
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| (u) the procedure for the exercise of any right of pre-emption, the negotiability of subscription rights and the treatment of subscription rights not exercised; | √ | √ | √ | √ |
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| (v) if advisors to the Issuer are connected with the offer, a statement of the professional or other capacity in which such advisors have acted; and | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
| (w) the name and address of any paying agents and depository agents in each country. | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ | √ |
3.2 | Plan of distribution and allotment (a) Pre-allotment disclosure relating to: (i) the division into tranches of the offer including institutional, retail and Issuer's employee tranches and any other tranches; (ii) the conditions under which a claw-back right may be used, the maximum size of such claw-back and any applicable minimum percentages for individual tranches; (iii) the allotment method or methods to be used for the retail and Issuer'semployee tranche in the event of an over subscription of these tranches; (iv) a description of any pre-determined preferential treatment to be accorded to certain classes of investors or certain affinity groups (including friends and family programmes) in the allotment, the percentage of the offer reserved for such preferential treatment and the criteria for inclusion in such classes or groups; (v) whether the treatment of subscriptions or bids to subscribe in the allotment may be determined on the basis of which intermediary firm they are made through or by a target minimum individual allotment if any within the retail tranche; (vi) the conditions for the closing of the offer before the end of the Offer Periodas well as the date on which the offer may be closed at the earliest; and (vii) whether or not multiple subscriptions are admitted, and where they are not, how any multiple subscriptions will be handled. (b) The details of any over-allotment option, including existence and size of the over-allotment option, the period in which the over-allotment option may be exercised and any conditions on exercising such option. | √ | √ | √ |
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4. OTHER INFORMATION
5. ADMISSION TO TRADING
6. INFORMATION RELATING TO CERTAIN CLASSES OF SECURITIES
7. ASSET BACKED SECURITIES
*In the case of a Prospectus relating to a Security Token the Securities Note must include the additional content information set out in Schedule 4.
SCHEDULE 3: CORPORATE GOVERNANCE BEST PRACTICE STANDARDS
General
1. This Schedule sets out, by way of Guidance, best practice standards relevant to each of the Corporate Governance Principles (the “Principles”) set out in MAR 2.2 (Corporate governance principles). While the Principles have the status of rules that apply to a Reporting Entity, the standards in this document are best practice standards that may be adopted by a Reporting Entity to achieve compliance with the Principles.
2. A Reporting Entity to which the Principles apply is required under MAR 2.2.9 (Annual reporting on compliance) to state in its annual report whether the best practice standards have been adopted. In circumstances where a Reporting Entity has not fully adopted or only partially adopted the best practice standards, it needs to explain in its annual report why the standards were not fully adopted or adopted only partially and what actions, if any, it has taken to achieve compliance with the Principles.
3. Section 82(1) Framework Regulations provides that a Reporting Entity must have a corporate governance framework which is adequate to promote prudent and sound management of the Reporting Entity in the long-term interest of the Reporting Entity and its shareholders. Accordingly, in providing its explanation in the annual report as noted in paragraph 2, a Reporting Entity should aim to illustrate how its actual practices achieve compliance with the outcomes intended by the Framework Regulations and the Principles, and thereby contribute to prudent and sound management of the Reporting Entity.
4. The annual report required under MAR 2.2.9 must include a statement by the Board of Directors (the “Board”), stating whether or not, in its opinion, the corporate governance framework of the Reporting Entity is effective in achieving the outcome required by the Framework Regulations and promoting compliance with the Principles, with supporting information and assumptions, and qualifications if necessary. As the Principles are the core of the corporate governance framework, the way in which they are applied should be the central question for the Board as it determines how the Reporting Entity conducts its affairs under its directorship in accordance with the letter and spirit of the applicable requirements including the Principles and the standards.
5. The “comply or explain” approach reflected in the standards recognises that there is more than one way to comply with the Principles to achieve sound and prudent governance of the Reporting Entity. It also gives the Reporting Entity the flexibility to tailor its governance practices to achieve effective outcomes taking into account the nature, size and complexity of its business. For example, a Reporting Entity may have a small Board to reflect the small and less complex nature of its business, as opposed to a larger and more complex business which requires a larger Board. It may not be possible to have a large number of committees of the small Board to undertake the functions of committees discussed in this Schedule. In such cases, the Board as a whole may undertake all these functions, or alternatively, combine the roles of committees as appropriate.
6. Where the standards set out in this Schedule are not adopted due to particular circumstances of the Reporting Entity, the reasons for deviating from the standards should be explained clearly and carefully in the Reporting Entity’s annual report, thereby providing shareholders’ the opportunity to make well informed decisions with regard to their voting and the exercise of their rights.
7. The standards in this Schedule are not exhaustive and hence a Reporting Entity may implement any additional measures as required in order for it to comply with the Principles and contribute to sound and prudent governance of the entity.
8. For the purposes of this Schedule “senior management” includes any individual who either alone or jointly has ultimate responsibility for the day to day management, supervision and control of one or more (or all) parts of a Reporting Entity’s business. Consistently with this, the Board should adopt a definition of “senior management” that includes the first layer of management below the Board.
Principle 1 – Board of directors
MAR 2.2.2:“Every Reporting Entity must have an effective Board of Directors (“the Board”) which is collectively accountable for ensuring that the Reporting Entity’s business is managed prudently and soundly.”
9. The role of the Board of Directors (“Board”) is to provide leadership of the Reporting Entity within a framework of prudent and effective controls which enable risks to which the Reporting Entity is exposed to be identified, assessed and effectively managed.
10. The Board should set the Reporting Entity’s business and strategic objectives and risk parameters, ensure that the necessary financial and human resources are in place for the Reporting Entity to meet those objectives, and review management performance in achieving those objectives and outcomes. For this purpose, the Board should:
- (a) determine the nature and extent of the significant risks it is willing to take in achieving the relevant strategic objectives; and
- (b) set the Reporting Entity’s values and standards and ensure that its obligations to its stakeholders are clearly understood and met.
11. The Board should meet sufficiently regularly to discharge its duties effectively. There should be a formal schedule of matters specifically reserved for its decision.
12. The mandate, composition and working procedures of the Board should be well defined.
13. The annual report of the Reporting Entity should include a statement of how the Board operates and it should also set out the number of meetings of the Board.
Principle 2 – Division of responsibilities
MAR 2.2.3:“The Board must ensure that there is a clear division between the Board’s responsibility for setting the strategic aims and undertaking the oversight of the Reporting Entity and the senior management’s responsibility for managing the Reporting Entity’s business in accordance with the strategic aims and risk parameters set by the Board.”
Board and Senior Management
14. The division of responsibilities between the Board and the senior management of the Reporting Entity should be clearly established, set out in writing, and agreed to by the Board. In assigning duties, the Board should ensure that no one individual has unfettered powers in making decisions. It should also ensure that there is a clear segregation of the functions of:
- (a) the oversight of the management by the Board; and
- (b) the management of the Reporting Entity’s business by the senior management in accordance with the strategic aims and risk parameters set by the Board.
15. Board members may include individuals undertaking senior management functions. For example, the chief executive of a Reporting Entity may also be a Board member. Where this is the case, the Board should ensure that when assessing the performance of the senior management, the independence and objectivity of that process is achieved through appropriate mechanisms, such as the assignment of such a task to a non-executive Director of the Board or a committee comprising a majority of non-executive Directors.
Chairman and chief executive
16. In order to ensure that the Board’s function of providing effective oversight of the management of the Reporting Entity is not compromised, it is important that the role of the chairman of the Board and the role of the chief executive of the Reporting Entity should not be held by the same individual.
17. However, if the Board decides that the chief executive should also hold the position of the chairman of the Board, there should be effective measures to ensure that the Board is able to properly discharge its function of providing effective oversight of the management of the business of the Reporting Entity by its senior management. For example, the performance assessment of the chief executive and other members of the senior management should be undertaken by a non-executive Director of the Board (such as the senior independent Director) or a committee comprising a majority of non-executive Directors who report to the Board directly on their assessment, and also, prior approval by shareholders of the appointment of the chief executive as chairman of the Board.
18. Except where the positions of the chairman of the board and the chief executive are held by the same Person, the division of responsibilities between the chairman and chief executive should be clearly established, set out in writing and agreed to by the Board.
19. The chairman should be responsible for providing leadership of the Board, ensuring its effectiveness in all aspects of the Board’s role and setting its agenda.
20. Except where the positions of the chairman of the Board and the chief executive are held by the same individual, the chairman of the Board should meet the independence criteria set out in paragraph 31.
21. The annual report of the Reporting Entity should:
- (a) identify the chairman, the deputy chairman (where there is one) and the chief executive; and
- (b) include a high level statement of which types of decisions are to be taken by the Board and which are to be delegated to the senior management.
Principle 3 – Board composition and resources
MAR 2.2.4:“The Board and its committees must have an appropriate balance of skills, experience, independence and knowledge of the Reporting Entity’s business, and adequate resources, including access to expertise as required and timely and comprehensive information relating to the affairs of the Reporting Entity.”
Balance of skills and independence
22. A major consideration that underpins the effectiveness of the Board is the availability at the Board level of the relevant skills, expertise and resources as are necessary to discharge the Board functions, taking due account of the nature, scale and complexity of the business of the Reporting Entity.
23. It may well be that no single Director has all the knowledge, skills and expertise needed by a Board to discharge its functions. The Board should have an appropriate number and mix of individuals to ensure that there is an overall adequate level of knowledge, skills and expertise commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of the business of the Reporting Entity.
24. In order to ensure that the Board is equipped with the necessary skills, expertise and resources appropriate to the business of the Reporting Entity, there should be a formal, rigorous and transparent procedure for the appointment of Directors to the Board. Appointments to the Board should be made on merit and against objective criteria, with due regard to the benefits of diversity on the Board. Care should be taken to ensure that appointees have enough time available to devote to the job. This is particularly important in the case of chairmanships.
25. All Directors should be submitted for re-appointment at regular intervals, subject to continued satisfactory performance. The Board should ensure planned and progressive refreshing of the Board to ensure the on-going effectiveness of the Board, particularly the objectivity of the decision making by the Board and maintaining the skills and expertise as relevant to the Reporting Entity’s business.
26. All Directors should be subject to election by shareholders at the first annual general meeting after their appointment, and to re-election thereafter at intervals of no more than three years. The Board should satisfy itself that there is adequate succession planning in respect of Board membership and the senior management, so as to ensure an orderly and smooth change-over of positions whilst maintaining an appropriate balance of skills and experience within the Reporting Entity and on the Board.
26A. The Board should include key executive officers such as the chief executive officer and the chief financial officer.
Chairman
27. For the appointment of a chairman, there should be a job specification, and an objective assessment against the relevant criteria including an assessment of the time commitment expected, recognising the need for availability in the event of crises. Generally, the nomination committee should undertake this function. A chairman’s other significant commitments should be disclosed to the Board before appointment and included in the annual report. Changes to such commitments should be reported to the Board as they arise, and their impact explained in the next annual report.
28. The chairman should ensure that new Directors receive an appropriate induction on joining the Board. The chairman should ensure that the Directors continually update their skills and their knowledge and familiarity with the Reporting Entity required in fulfilling their role both on the Board and its committees. All Directors should have appropriate knowledge of the Reporting Entity and should be provided with adequate access to its operations and staff to carry out their respective responsibilities.
29. The Reporting Entity should provide the necessary resources for developing and updating its Directors’ knowledge and capabilities. The chairman should regularly review and agree with each Director their training and development needs.
Executive and non-executive directors
30. The Board should include a balance of executive and non-executive Directors (including independent non-executive Directors). No individual or small group of individuals should be able to dominate the Board’s decision making. At least one third of the Board should comprise nonexecutive Directors, of which at least two non-executive Directors should be independent.
31. The Board should consider a non-executive Director to be “independent” if that Director meets, upon an assessment, objective criteria of independence set by the Board. Such independence criteria should encompass independence in character and judgement of the individual by having no commercial or other relationships or circumstances which are likely to affect or could appear to impair his judgement in a manner other than in the best interests of the Reporting Entity. In making the assessment of independence against such criteria, the Board should consider matters such as whether the Person:
- (a) has already served as a member of the Board for a significant period; or
- (b) has been an Employee of the Reporting Entity or a member of the Group within the last five years; or
- (c) has or has had, within the last three years, a material business relationship with the Reporting Entity, either directly or as a partner, shareholder, Director or senior Employee of another body that has such a relationship with the Reporting Entity; or
- (d) receives or has received, in the last three years additional Remuneration or payments from the Reporting Entity apart from a Director’s fee, or participates in the Reporting Entity’s share option, or a performance-related pay scheme, or is a member of the Reporting Entity’s pension scheme; or
- (e) is or has been a Director, partner or employee of a firm which is the Reporting Entity’s Auditor; or
- (f) has close family ties with any of the Reporting Entity’s advisors, Directors or senior Employees; or
- (g) holds cross Directorships or has significant links with other Directors through involvement in other companies or bodies; or
- (h) represents a significant shareholder.
32. The terms and conditions of appointment of non-executive Directors should be made available for inspection by any Person at the Reporting Entity’s registered office during normal business hours. The letter of appointment should set out the expected time commitment. Non-executive Directors should undertake that they will have sufficient time to meet what is expected of them. Their other significant commitments should be disclosed to the Board before appointment, with a broad indication of the time involved. The Board should be informed of subsequent changes.
33. The annual report of the Reporting Entity should identify each non-executive Director it considers to be independent, the senior independent Director, and the chairman and members of each of the Board committees. It should also state the relevant skills and expertise which each Director brings to the Board and set out the number of meetings of each of the committees and individual attendance by Directors.
34. As part of their role as members of the Board, non-executive Directors should constructively challenge and help develop proposals on business objectives and strategy for achieving those objectives. Non-executive Directors should scrutinise the performance of senior management against agreed goals and objectives and monitor the reporting of their performance.
Nomination committee
35. The Board should establish and maintain a nomination committee to lead the process for appointments and make recommendations to the Board relating to the appointment of Board members and the senior management. A majority of members of the nomination committee should be independent non-executive Directors. The chairman of the nomination committee should be an independent non-executive Director.
36. The mandate, composition and working procedures of the nomination committee should be well defined. The nomination committee should make available on the website of the Reporting Entity its written terms of reference explaining its role and the authority delegated to it by the Board.
37. The nomination committee should evaluate the balance of skills, knowledge, independence and experience on the Board and, in the light of this evaluation, prepare a description of the role and capabilities required for a particular appointment.
38. A separate section of the annual report of the Reporting Entity should describe the work of the nomination committee, including the process it has used in relation to Board appointments. An explanation should be given if neither an external consultancy nor an open advertising process has been used in the appointment of the chairman or a non- executive Director of the Board.
Secretary of the reporting entity
39. The responsibilities of the Reporting Entity’s secretary should clearly include, under the
direction of the chairman, ensuring good information flows within the Board and its committees and between senior management and non-executive Directors, as well as facilitating induction and assisting with professional development of Board members as required. The secretary should also be responsible for ensuring that Board procedures are fully complied with, and advising the Board through the chairman on all governance matters.
40. Both the appointment and removal of the secretary of the Reporting Entity should be a matter for the Board as a whole.
Information and support
41. All Directors should have access to accurate, timely and clear information relating to the business and affairs of the Reporting Entity to enable them to discharge their duties, taking due account of the roles undertaken by such members. The chairman is responsible for ensuring that the Directors receive such information. senior management has an obligation to provide such information, but Directors should seek clarification or amplification where necessary. All Directors should also have access to the advice and services of the secretary of the Reporting Entity, as he is responsible to the Board for ensuring compliance with the Board procedures.
42. The Board should ensure that Directors, especially non-executive Directors, have access to independent professional advice at the Reporting Entity’s expense where necessary to enable them to discharge their respective roles and responsibilities. Committees of the Board should also be provided with sufficient resources including information to carry out their role and responsibilities effectively.
Performance evaluation
43. The Board should undertake a formal and rigorous evaluation of its own performance and that of its committees and individual Directors at least annually.
44. The chairman of the Board should act on the results of the performance evaluation by recognising the strengths and addressing the weaknesses of the Board and making any changes to the composition of the Board as required.
45. The Board should state in the annual report how performance evaluation of the Board, its committees and its individual Directors has been conducted.
Principle 4 – Risk management and internal control systems MAR 2.2.5:“The Board must ensure that the Reporting Entity has an adequate, effective, well-defined and well-integrated risk management, internal control and compliance framework.”
46. The Board should, at least annually, conduct a review of the effectiveness of the Reporting Entity’s risk management, internal control and compliance framework (“systems and controls”) and should report to the shareholders that it has done so. The review should cover all aspects of material controls, including management, financial, operational and compliance controls and risk management systems. The Board may satisfy this requirement by instructing an Auditor to undertake the review and report to it on its outcome. They should satisfy themselves on the integrity of financial information and that financial controls and systems of risk management are robust and effective.
47. The Board should establish formal and transparent arrangements for considering how it should apply the financial reporting and internal control systems, and for maintaining an appropriate relationship with its Auditors.
48. The Board should establish policies and procedures for the identification and oversight and management of material business risks and disclose a summary of those policies and procedures in its annual report. The Board should also ensure that senior management implements the requisite risk management and internal control systems to manage material risks.
Audit committee
49. The Board should establish and maintain an audit committee to monitor and review the Reporting Entity’s internal audit function and other internal controls. The main roles and responsibilities of the audit committee should be set out in written terms of reference, be available on the website of the Reporting Entity and include at least the following:
- (a) monitoring the integrity of the financial statements of the Reporting Entity and any formal announcements relating to the Reporting Entity’s financial performance and reviewing significant financial reporting judgements contained in them; and
- (b) reviewing the Reporting Entity’s internal financial controls and, unless expressly addressed by a separate risk committee of the Board or the Board itself, internal controls and risk management systems; and
- (c) monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of the Reporting Entity’s internal audit function; and
- (d) making recommendations to the Board in respect of the appointment, re- appointment, removal and terms of engagement, including Remuneration, of the Auditor; and
- (e) reviewing and monitoring the Auditor’s independence and objectivity and the effectiveness of the audit process; and
- (f) developing and implementing policy on the engagement of the Auditor to supply non -audit services; and
- (g) reviewing the adequacy of arrangements by which staff of the Reporting Entity may, in confidence, raise concerns about possible improprieties in matters of financial reporting or other matters to ensure that arrangements are in place for the proportionate and independent investigation of such matters and for appropriate follow-up action.
50. The Board should appoint at least two independent non-executive Directors to the audit committee. At least one of the independent non-executive Directors appointed to the audit committee should have recent and relevant financial expertise. The chair of the audit committee should be an independent non-executive Director.
51. A separate section of the annual report should describe the work of the audit committee in discharging its responsibilities. The annual report should also explain to shareholders how, if the Auditor provides non-audit services, Auditor objectivity and independence is safeguarded.
Principle 5 – Shareholder rights and effective dialogue MAR 2.2.6:“The Board must ensure that the rights of shareholders are properly safeguarded through appropriate measures that enable the shareholders to exercise their rights effectively, promote effective dialogue with shareholders and other key stakeholders as appropriate, and prevent any abuse or oppression of minority shareholders.”
52. The Board as a whole has responsibility for ensuring that a satisfactory dialogue with shareholders takes place. Such dialogue should be based on the mutual understanding of objectives and provision of adequate information relating to the Reporting Entity including financial information, and how the business and affairs of the Reporting Entity are carried out.
53. The Board should hold a general meeting of shareholders at least annually.
54. The Board should use the annual general meeting to communicate with shareholders on important aspects of the Reporting Entity’s business and affairs and encourage their participation. Shareholders should have the opportunity to ask questions of the Board, to place items on the agenda of general meetings and to propose resolutions.
55. At any general meeting, the Reporting Entity should propose a separate resolution on each substantial separate issue, and should in particular propose a resolution at the annual general meeting relating to the report and accounts. For each resolution, proxy appointment forms should provide shareholders with the option to direct their proxy to vote either for or against the resolution or to withhold their vote.
56. The chairman should arrange for the chairs of the audit, Remuneration, and nomination committees to be available to answer questions at the annual general meeting and for all Directors to attend either in Person or by electronic means.
57. Whilst recognising that most shareholder contact is with the chief executive and finance Director, the chairman and other Directors, including non-executive Directors, as appropriate should maintain sufficient contact with major shareholders to understand their issues and concerns. The Board should keep in touch with shareholder opinion using means which are most practical and efficient taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of its operations and the nature of its shareholder base. The Board should use its website as a forum for the posting of information such as new strategies, calendar for important meetings and other events.
58. The chairman should ensure that the views of shareholders are communicated to the Board as a whole. In addition, the chairman should discuss governance and strategy of the Reporting Entity at least with its major shareholders. Non-executive Directors should be offered the opportunity to attend meetings with major shareholders and should expect to attend such meetings especially if requested by major shareholders.
59. The Board should ensure that no steps are taken which may prevent shareholders consulting with other shareholders on issues concerning their basic shareholder rights, subject to exceptions to prevent abuse. Similarly, the Board should also protect minority shareholders from any oppressive or abusive action by controlling or major shareholders.
Other stakeholders
60. While shareholders of the Reporting Entity form the major stakeholder group of the Reporting Entity, the Board should also ensure that there are adequate channels of communication with its other key stakeholders as appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its business operations, and the environment in which it operates. Such stakeholders may include Employees, creditors and business customers of the Reporting Entity. The Board should make an assessment of the level of information that should generally be made available to the public, or to any particular group of stakeholders, relating to the affairs of the company, and how best to make use of its website or any other channels of communication as appropriate to disseminate relevant information.
Principle 6 –Position and prospects
MAR 2.2.7: “The Board must ensure that the Reporting Entity’s financial and other reports present an accurate, balanced and understandable assessment of the Reporting Entity’s financial position and prospects by ensuring that there are effective internal risk control and reporting requirements.”
61. The Board’s responsibility to present a true, balanced and understandable assessment of its financial position and prospects should extend to interim and other price-sensitive public reports and reports to regulators as well as to information required to be presented by law.
62. The Directors should explain in the annual financial report their responsibility for preparing that report and accounts, and there should be a statement by the Auditor about their reporting responsibilities.
63. The Directors should include in the annual report an explanation of the basis on which the Reporting Entity generates or preserves value over the longer term (the business model) and the strategy for delivering the objectives of the Reporting Entity.
64. The Directors should report in annual and half yearly financial statements that the business is a going concern, with supporting assumptions or qualifications as necessary.
Principle 7 – Remuneration
MAR 2.2.8:“The Board must ensure that the Reporting Entity has Remuneration structures and strategies that are well aligned with the long-term interests of the entity.”
Directors’ Remuneration
65. Levels of Remuneration of Directors should be sufficient to attract and retain Directors of appropriate quality, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the business of the Reporting Entity, and to provide effective direction and leadership to the Reporting Entity in managing its business and affairs successfully. In doing so, the Reporting Entity should avoid paying more than is necessary for this purpose.
66. The performance-related elements of Remuneration should form an appropriate proportion of the total Remuneration package of executive Directors and should be designed to promote the long term interests and viability of the Reporting Entity, to align their interests with those of shareholders and other key stakeholders and to give these Directors appropriate incentives to perform at the highest levels.
67. Levels of Remuneration for non-executive Directors should reflect the time commitment and responsibilities of their respective roles and the objectivity of judgement in their decision making required by them. In considering whether to grant share options to non- executive Directors, a Reporting Entity should consider whether the granting of the share options will impair the objectivity or independence of the non-executive Directors’ decision making.
68. Generally, where non-executive Directors’ Remuneration include share options, rights resulting from the exercise of share options should be subject to appropriate retention and vesting periods, generally until at least one year after the non-executive Director leaves the Board.
69. There should be a formal and transparent procedure for developing policies on executive Remuneration and for fixing Remuneration packages of individual Directors. No Director should decide his own Remuneration, and ideally, all Directors’ Remuneration should be subject to recommendations of the Remuneration committee if one exists, and otherwise upon the advice of an external consultant.
Remuneration committee
70. The Board should establish and maintain a Remuneration committee to assess the Remuneration of Directors (including the chairman). The Remuneration committee should comprise at least three members, with a majority of those members being independent nonexecutive Directors. The chair of the committee should be an independent non- executive Director. In addition, the chairman of the Board may also be a member but not the chair of the committee.
71. The Remuneration committee should have delegated responsibility for setting Remuneration for all executive Directors and the chairman. The committee should also recommend and monitor the level and structure of Remuneration for the senior management and other key control functionaries such as the risk or compliance officers and auditors, to ensure that the independence and objectivity of the decision making by such control functionaries is not compromised or impaired by their Remuneration structure. An important consideration that should be taken into account in setting Remuneration of key control functionaries of the Reporting Entity is that their Remuneration is not substantially linked to the profits generated by business or trading units whose activities are subject to monitoring and oversight by those functionaries.
72. The mandate, composition and working procedures of the Remuneration committee should be well defined. The Remuneration committee should make available on the website of the Reporting Entity its written terms of reference explaining its role and the authority delegated to it by the Board.
73. The Remuneration committee should also be responsible for appointing any external consultants in respect of executive Directors’ Remuneration. Where external consultants are appointed, a statement should be made available of whether they have any other connection with the Reporting Entity.
74. The Board itself, or where required by the articles of association or other constituent documents, the shareholders, should determine the Remuneration of the non-executive Directors.
75. The annual report of the Reporting Entity should contain sufficient information relating to the overall Remuneration policy and strategy of the Reporting Entity to demonstrate that the Remuneration, particularly of the executive Directors and senior management to properly link rewards to corporate and individual performance and outcomes, and to ensure that any performance-based Remuneration granted is structured in such a way so as to not induce inappropriate risk taking by such individuals.
SCHEDULE 4: ADDITIONAL CONTENT OF A PROSPECTUS FOR SECURITY TOKENS
1. A Person producing a Prospectus in relation to a Security Token must ensure that:
(a) the Prospectus contains:
(i) information specified in paragraph 2; and
(ii) a statement confirming the matters specified in paragraph 3 made by a suitably qualified independent third party professional, who has given consent under MAR 1.9.3 for that statement to be included in the Prospectus; and
(b) in the case of a Security Token which will be admitted to trading on an Authorised Market Institution, the Prospectus contains the information specified in paragraph 4.
2. The following information is specified for the purposes of paragraph 1(a)(i):
(a) the essential characteristics of the Security Token, including the rights and obligations conferred by it and details of the Person or Persons responsible for meeting such obligations and against whom such rights can be exercised;
(b) the type of Security which the Security Token constitutes and a clear analysis as to how the Security Token meets the definition of such type of Security;
(c) details of the technology that is used to issue, store or transfer the Security Token including whether there is sufficient capability for restrictions on transferability in order to address AML and CFT risks;
(d) how the holder of a Security Token may exercise any rights conferred by it, such as voting or participation in shareholder actions;
(e) if the capital to be raised through issuing of the Security Token is to be used to fund the creation of a new Token, detailed information about:
(i) the project or venture to be funded;
(ii) whether it is the Issuer or a third party who will receive and apply the capital raised towards that project or venture (and if a third party, what rights and obligations a holder of the Security Token has in respect of that third party);
(iii) the features of that new Token and any rights and obligations attaching to it;
(iv) details of the delivery or establishment of the project or venture, including any right of a Security Token holder to have their contribution refunded if any funding requirement is not met, the expected timetable for completion, any milestones included in that timetable and an explanation of the consequences if the timetable is not met; and
(v) the risks associated with the project or venture, including those associated with the technology used to deliver or facilitate its completion or the Token’s ongoing use;
(f) how title to the Security Tokens is established, certified or otherwise evidenced;
(g) cybersecurity risks associated with the Security Token or its underlying technology, including whether there is a risk of loss of the Security Token in the event of a cyber attack, and details of steps that have been, or can be, taken to mitigate such risks;
(h) details of other risks associated with the use of the DLT application, particularly those relating to Digital wallets and the susceptibility of private cryptographic keys to misappropriation; and
(i) any other information relevant to the Security Token that would reasonably assist a prospective investor in making an informed decision about investing in the Security Token.
3. The matters to be confirmed by a third party professional in the statement referred to in paragraph 1(a)(ii) are that:
(a) the DLT application, used to issue, store or transfer the Security Tokens offered under the Prospectus, is an authentic, valid and workable solution capable of meeting its intended purpose; and
(b) the Prospectus accurately describes the architecture, functionality, effect, risks and vulnerabilities of the DLT application, including its compatibility with other technologies, applications and services with which it is intended to interact.
4. The following information is specified for the purposes of paragraph 1(b):
(a) details of a facility on which the Security Token is admitted to trading or cleared including:
(i) the Person responsible for operating an Authorised Market Institution;
(ii) details of each DLT application used by the operator to facilitate trading or clearing of the Security Token and the functionality provided by that DLT application;
(iii) details as to how the operator of the facility meets the technology and governance requirements set out in AMI 2-1.2;
(b) details of the custody arrangements for the Security Token that are permitted or required by the operator of facility, including, in respect of each such arrangement:
(i) the Person who carries out the function of the Digital wallet Service Provider;
(ii) the Person who is responsible for the safe custody of the Security Token when held in the Digital wallet; and
(iii) risks associated with the Digital wallet, such as the consequences of the loss of cryptographic keys (private and public), cyber security risks associated with Digital wallets held online, loss, theft or destruction of Digital wallets held offline, and whether and how such risks are addressed;
(c) whether smart contracts are being used or executed on the facility and, if so:
(i) what form those smart contracts take;
(ii) how the legal rights and obligations arising under the smart contracts are exercised, including when contract or settlement finality occurs, (whether by the smart contract itself, an underlying natural language contract or a combination of both); and
(iii) details of the relationship between those smart contracts and any underlying natural language contract.
RECOGNITION RULES
Recognition Rules
1. RECOGNISED NON-AIFC MARKET INSTITUTIONS
1.1. Recognition
1.1.1. Application procedure
A Person which operates an investment exchange or clearing house from a place of business in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC may apply to the AFSA for an order declaring it to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange or Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House as appropriate by:
1.1.2. Required contents
Applications for recognition as a Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange or a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House must contain:
- (a) the address of the applicant's head office in its country of registration;
- (b) an address located in the AIFC for the service on the applicant of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it; and
- (c) a description of the activities that the applicant envisages carrying on in the AIFC.
1.1.3. Recognition Requirements
An applicant for an order declaring it to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange or Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House must satisfy the AFSA that the requirement of section 89(3) of the Framework Regulations (“the Recognition Requirements”) are met.
1.1.4. Equivalent protection
For the purposes of section 89(3)(a) of the Framework Regulations, an applicant must provide to the AFSA a legal analysis
- (a) comparing the regulatory requirements in the applicant's home jurisdiction with Part 4 of the Framework Regulations and Chapters 2 and 3 or 4 (as appropriate) of the AMI Rules; and
- (b) if relevant, identifying any respects in which the regulatory requirements in the applicant’s home jurisdiction do not provide a level of protection to investors equivalent to that required in the AMI rules.
1.1.5. Additional information required for Clearing Houses
An applicant for recognition as a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House must demonstrate that it has QCCP status as defined in P6 of the Bank for International Settlements' paper BCBS 282 entitled "Capital requirements for bank exposures to central counterparties".
1.1.6. Default procedures
For the purposes of section 89(3)(b) of the Framework Regulations, an applicant must satisfy the AFSA that:
- (a) it has procedures for dealing with a Person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet its obligations in respect of one or more Market Contracts connected with the applicant;
- (b) that such procedures are at least equivalent to the procedures required under AMI; and
- (c) that such procedures would remain effective and legally enforceable in the context of its proposed activities in the AIFC.
1.1.7. Co-operation and information
For the purposes of section 89(3)(c) of the Framework Regulations, an applicant must satisfy the AFSA that:
1.1.8. Co-operation with the applicant’s home regulator
For the purposes of section 89(3)(d) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA will have regard to:
- (a) any bilateral or multilateral memorandum of understanding that it may have with the regulator of the applicant in its home jurisdiction; and
- (b) any other mechanisms that exist for co-operation and the sharing of information between the AFSA and the relevant regulator.
1.2. Supervision
1.2.1. Annual reports
(a) A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution shall provide the AFSA with an annual report which must include:
- (i.) a copy of its annual report and accounts, including any consolidated annual report and accounts of any Group of which the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution is a member;
- (ii.) confirmation that the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution has satisfied the Recognition Requirements throughout the previous 12 months and is continuing to satisfy the Recognition Requirements; and
- (iii.) a statement about whether the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution has not satisfied the Recognition Requirements in any respect, an explanation of why the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution failed to satisfy the Recognition Requirements and what actions it is taking, or has already taken, to satisfy them.
(b) The period covered by such a report:
- (i) starts on the day after the period covered by its last report; or
- (ii) if there is no such report, on the day of the making of the recognition order recognising the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution as such; and
- (iii) ends on the date specified in the report, or, if no date is specified, on the date of the report.
(c) If a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution changes the period covered by its report, it must ensure that the first day of the period covered by a report is the day immediately following the last day of the period covered by the previous report.
(d) Copies of the report should be sent to the AFSA within two months after the end of the period to which it relates.
1.2.2. Notifications to be made to the AFSA
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution must notify the AFSA of the events identified in the first column of the table in Schedule 2 within the period and in the manner specified in the second and third columns of that table.
1.2.3. Language of notice
Any notice to be given or information to be supplied under these notification rules must be supplied in English, and any document to be provided must be accompanied, if not in English, by an accurate English translation.
1.2.4. Waiver of notification rules
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution may apply to the AFSA for a waiver of any of the notification rules in accordance with section 9 of the Framework Regulations.
1.2.5. Supervisory powers of the AFSA
The AFSA may:
- (a) give directions to a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution if it has failed, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the Recognition Requirements or if it has failed to comply with any other obligation imposed by or under the Framework Regulations or these Rules; or
- (b) revoke a recognition order if a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution is failing, or has failed, to comply with the Recognition Requirements or any other obligation; or
- (c) require a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution or a Person connected with the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution, to provide or produce specified information or information of a specified description, at a specified place and before the end of a reasonable period, in such form and with such verifications or authentications as it may reasonably require; or
- (d) require any of the following Persons, to provide the AFSA with a report on any matter, or appoint a Skilled Person to provide the AFSA with information or produce documents with respect to any matter:
- (i) the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution; or
- (ii) any other member of the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution's group; or
- (iii) a partnership of which the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution is a member; or
- (iv) a Person who has at any time been a Person falling within (i), (ii) or (iii).
2. RECOGNISED NON-AIFC MEMBER
2.1. Recognition
2.1.1. Application procedure
A Person located in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC may apply to the AFSA for an order declaring it to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Member by:
- (a) completing the form prescribed in Schedule 1 and filing the form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the Form;
- (b) providing such further information as the AFSA may require; and
- (c) paying the Fee prescribed in the Fees Rules to the AFSA.
2.1.2. The making of a recognition order
(1) Before making a recognition order, the AFSA will need to be satisfied that the applicant meets the requirements for recognition in section 91 of the Framework Regulations (“the Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements”).
(2) If the AFSA considers that the Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements are satisfied, it may make a recognition order, which will state the date on which it takes effect.
2.2. Supervision
2.2.1. Annual reports
(a) A Recognised Non-AIFC Member shall provide the AFSA or the Authorised Market Institution, as applicable, with an annual report which must include:
- (i) a copy of its audited annual report and accounts, including any consolidated annual report and accounts of any Group of which the Recognised Non-AIFC Member is a member;
- (ii) confirmation that the Recognised Non-AIFC Member has satisfied the Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements throughout the previous 12 months and is continuing to satisfy the said requirements; and
- (iii) if the Recognised Non-AIFC Member has not satisfied the Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements in any respect, an explanation of why the Recognised Non-AIFC Member failed to satisfy such requirements and what actions it is taking, or has already taken, to satisfy them.
(b) The period covered by such a report:
- (i) starts on the day after the period covered by its last report; or
- (ii) if there is no such report, the making of the recognition order recognising the Recognised Non-AIFC Member as such; and
- (iii) ends on the date specified in the report, or, if no date is specified, on the date of the report.
(c) If a Recognised Non-AIFC Member changes the period covered by its report, it should ensure that the first day of the period covered by a report is the day immediately following the last day of the period covered by the previous report.
(d) Copies of the report should be sent to the AFSA or the Authorised Market Institution, as applicable within five months after the end of the period to which it relates.
Guidance
A Recognised Non-AIFC Member, which is not a member of the Authorised Market Institution, shall provide the AFSA with an annual report.
A Recognised Non-AIFC Member, which is a member of the Authorised Market Institution, shall provide the Authorised Market Institution with an annual report.
2.2.2. Notifications
A Recognised Non-AIFC Member must notify the AFSA or, in case such a Recognised Non-AIFC Member is an effective member of the Authorised Market Institution, the Authorised Market Institution, of the events identified in the first column of the table in Schedule 3 within the period and in the manner specified in the second and third columns of that table.
2.2.3. Language of notice
Any notice to be given or information to be supplied under these notification rules must be supplied in English, and any document to be provided must be accompanied, if not in English, by an accurate English translation.
2.2.4. Waivers
A Recognised Non-AIFC Member may apply to the AFSA for a waiver of any of the notification rules in accordance with section 9 of the Framework Regulations.
2.2.5. Supervisory powers of the AFSA
The AFSA may:
- (a) give directions to a Recognised Non-AIFC Member if it has failed, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements or if it has failed to comply with any other obligation imposed by the AFSA; or
- (b) revoke a recognition order if:
- (i) a Recognised Non-AIFC Member is failing, or has failed, to comply with the Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements or any other obligation; or
- (ii) a Recognised Non-AIFC Member has applied for revocation of its status by completing the form prescribed in Schedule 1 and filing the form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the form; or
- (c) require a Recognised Non-AIFC Member or a Person connected with the Recognised Non-AIFC Member, to provide or produce specified information or information of a specified description, at a specified place and before the end of a reasonable period, in such form and with such verifications or authentications as it may reasonably require;
Guidance
The AFSA will rely upon a Recognised Non-AIFC Member’s lead financial services regulator to supervise a Recognised Non-AIFC Member. The focus of AFSA’s interest will be on those activities of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member that may have an impact on the AIFC. A Recognised Non-AIFC Member must deal with the AFSA in an open and co-operative manner.
SCHEDULE 1: Forms
For the purpose of the Framework Regulations and the REC Rules the prescribed Forms are listed in the following table.
Purpose | Relevant section or Rule | Form |
Application for an order declaring a Person to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Member | REC 2.11 |
Application to revoke a Recognised Non-AIFC Member status | REC 2.2.5. |
SCHEDULE 2: Notifications required of a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution
|
Event |
Timing |
Information requirement |
1 |
An event occurs which is likely to affect the AFSA's assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the Recognition Requirements. |
As soon as reasonably practicable. |
Particulars of the relevant event. |
2 |
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution changes its:(a) memorandum and articles of association or any similar or analogous documents; or(b) chairman or president, or chief executive (or equivalent). |
In its next annual report (or first annual report, if not notified to the AFSA during the application process). |
Particulars of the change and effective date. |
3 |
Disciplinary action (or any similar or analogous action) is taken against the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution by any supervisory authority in its country of registration, whether or not that action has been made public in that territory. |
As soon as reasonably practicable. |
Particulars of the disciplinary action taken. |
4 |
Publication of annual report and accounts. |
Within fourteen days of publication or approval of the auditor, whichever is the sooner. |
A copy of the annual report and accounts. |
5 |
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution proposes to change its address in the AIFC for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it or the address of its head office. |
Fourteen days before the change is effective. |
The new address. |
6 |
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution has notice that any license, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be revoked or modified in any way which would materially restrict the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the AIFC. |
As soon as practicable. |
(a) particulars of the license, permission or authorisation which has been or is to be revoked or modified, including particulars of the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution's regulated activities to which it relates;(b) an explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the AIFC;(c) the date on which the revocation or modification took, or will take, effect and, if it is a temporary measure, any date on which, or any conditions that must be met before which, it will cease to have effect; and(d) any reasons given for the revocation or modification. |
7 |
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution admits for the first time a Member whose head or registered office is in the AIFC. |
As soon as practicable. |
(a) notice of that event; (b) the address of the new Member. |
8 |
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution decides to put a Member into default. |
As close to when such a decision is taken by the Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution as practicable. |
(a) notice of that event;(b) the name of the Member and (where relevant) the class of Membership; (c) the reasons for that decision; and(d) the names of any other exchange, clearing house or auction platform on which, to the best of that Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution's knowledge, that Member clears business or transacts for, or in respect of, its clients. |
9 |
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution issues a consultation on proposed changes to its rules or procedures. |
As soon as practicable. |
A copy of the consultation paper and accompanying documentation. |
10 |
Changes to Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution's rules or procedures become effective. |
Seven days before they come into effect. |
A copy of the amended rules or procedures. |
11 |
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution issues guidance on or a circular relating to its rules or procedures. |
Seven days before they come into effect. |
A copy of the guidance or circular. |
12 |
The Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution becomes aware of anything which reasonably tends to show a breach, or likely breach, by itself or a third party of a provision of legislation administered by the AIFC. |
As soon as possible. |
Particulars of the relevant event. |
_
SCHEDULE 3: Notifications required of a Recognised Non-AIFC Member
Event | Timing | Information requirement | ||
1 | A change in name of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member. | Reasonable advance notice. | Particulars of the change and effective date. | |
2 | A change in any business name or trading name the Recognised Non-AIFC Member uses in the AIFC (if different to its name). | Reasonable advance notice. | Particulars of the change and effective date. | |
3 | A change in the address of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member’s registered office or home office in its home jurisdiction. | Reasonable advance notice. | Particulars of the change and effective date. | |
4 | The granting, modification, variation, withdrawal or refusal of any application for, or revocation of, licensing, recognition or authorization of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member in the jurisdiction in which the Recognised Non-AIFC Member has its head office or principal business. | Immediately. | (a) Particulars of the granting, modification, variation, withdrawal or refusal of the application for, or revocation of, licensing, recognition or authorization including particulars of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member's regulated activities to which it relates;(b) An explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the Recognised Non-AIFC Member in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the AIFC;(c) the date on which the event took, or will take, effect and, if it is a temporary measure, any date on which, or any conditions that must be met before which, it will cease to have effect; and(d) any reasons given for the granting, modification, variation, withdrawal or refusal of the application for, or revocation of, licensing, recognition or authorization. | |
5 | The Recognised Non-AIFC Member provides any information to any financial services regulator to which the Recognised Non-AIFC Member is subject and which is relevant to its status as a Recognised Non-AIFC Member, save where the activities of the financial services regulator are part of a routine or regular inspection or audit of the affairs of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member. | As soon as practicable. | A copy of the information provided. | |
6 | Anything which causes or may cause the Recognised Non-AIFC Member to fail to satisfy the Non-AIFC member Recognition Requirements. | As soon as possible. | Particulars of the event. | |
7 | The Recognised Non-AIFC Member becomes aware that a financial services regulator has started an investigation into the affairs of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member or has appointed inspectors to investigate or manage the affairs of the Recognised Non-AIFC Member. | As soon as possible. | Particulars of the event. | |
8 | The imposition of disciplinary measures or disciplinary sanctions on the Recognised Non-AIFC Member by any financial services regulator. | As soon as possible. | Particulars of the event | |
9 | A Recognised Non-AIFC Member receives: an order from a client, or arranges or executes a transaction with or for a client; and has reasonable grounds to suspect that the order or transaction may constitute Market Abuse or Financial Crime. | Immediately. | (a) Sufficient details of the order or transaction; and (b) the reasons for the Recognised Non-AIFC Member suspecting that the order or transaction may constitute Market Abuse. | |
10 | The Recognised Non-AIFC Member becomes aware of anything which reasonably tends to show a breach, or likely breach, by itself or third party of a provision of legislation administered by the AIFC. | As soon as possible. | Particulars of the relevant event. |
_
DEMATERIALISED INVESTMENT RULES
Dematerialised Investment
PART 1: GENERAL
1.1 Name
These Rules are the AIFC Dematerialised Investment Rules 2017 (or DIR).
1.2 Commencement
These Rules commence on 1 January 2018.
1.3 Legislative authority
These Rules are adopted by the Board of Directors of the AFSA under:
- (a) section 181 (Power to adopt rules etc.) of the AIFC Companies Regulations; and
- (b) section 43 (Power to adopt rules etc.) of the AIFC Personal Property Regulations.
1.4 Application of these Rules
These Rules apply within the jurisdiction of the AIFC to any Person to whom the AIFC Companies Regulations apply and any other Issuer of Investments that are or are to be held in Uncertificated form.
1.5 Definitions etc.
1.5.1 Subrule 1.5.4 and Schedule 1 contain definitions used in these Rules.
1.5.2 Terms used in these Rules (other than terms defined in subrule 1.5.4 and Schedule 1) have the same meanings as they have, from time to time, in the AIFC Companies Regulations, or the relevant provisions of those Regulations, unless the contrary intention appears.
Note: For definitions in the AIFC Companies Regulations applying to these Rules, see Schedule 1 to those Regulations. The definitions in that Schedule relevant to these Rules include the following:
• AIFC Regulations
• AIFC Rules
• Company
• Document
• Recognised Company
• Registrar of Companies (or Registrar)
• Writing.
1.5.3 Subject to subrule 1.5.2, terms used in these Rules (other than terms defined in Schedule 1 or the AIFC Companies Regulations) have the same meanings as they have, from time to time, in the AIFC Personal Property Regulations, or the relevant provisions of those Regulations, unless the contrary intention appears. Note: For definitions in the AIFC Personal Property Regulations applying to these Rules, see Schedule 1 to those Regulations. The definitions in that Schedule relevant to these Rules include the following:
• Authorised Market Institution
• Endorsement
• Instruction
• Investment.
1.5.4 For purposes of the AIFC Personal Property Regulations (PPR) and these Rules, the term Investment and the term Security mean, respectively, an Investment and a Security as defined in the AIFC Glossary where, in each case, one or more of the following circumstances applies:
a) it is issued by a legal entity incorporated or otherwise formed under the Acting Law of the AIFC, or otherwise issued under the Acting Law of the AIFC;
b) it is offered or placed in or from the AIFC;
c) it is admitted to the Official List of Securities of an Authorised Market Institution;
d) it is admitted to trading, clearing or settlement by an Authorised Market Institution;
e) it is transferred according to the Acting Law of the AIFC; or
f) the register of its legal title holders is maintained in the AIFC by an AIFC Participant, except for any such financial product that is declared by any Rules not to be an Investment or Security for purposes of these Rules.
1.6 Administration of these Rules
These Rules are administered by the Registrar of Companies.
PART 2: ISSUE OF UNCERTIFICATED INVESTMENTS AND DEMATERIALISATION
2.1. Issue of Uncertificated Investments
Subject to rule 2.3 (Conditions for issue of Uncertificated Investments and dematerialisation), if an Issuer of Investments permits the issue, registration and transfer of the Investments in Uncertificated form, the Investments may be issued in Uncertificated form in accordance with these Rules.
2.2. Dematerialisation of Investments
Subject to rule 2.3 (Conditions for issue of Uncertificated Investments and dematerialisation), if an Issuer permits the registration and transfer of a class of its existing Certificated Investments in Uncertificated form, the Investments may be converted from Certificated form into Uncertificated form in accordance with these Rules.
2.3. Conditions for issue of Uncertificated Investments and dematerialisation
2.3.1 The Issuer of an Investment must not permit the holding of, or transfer of title to, the Investment in Uncertificated form if the law under which the Investment or the Issuer is constituted, or the Terms of Issue, are in any respect inconsistent with:
- (a) the issue of the Investment in Uncertificated form; or
- (b) the registration or transfer of title to the Investment in Uncertificated form; or
- (c) these Rules.
2.3.2 If Investments are issued in or converted into Uncertificated form, all Investments of the relevant class must be held in Uncertificated form. However, this subrule does not limit the right of the Issuer subsequently to convert Uncertificated Investments to Certificated form under Part 5 (Rematerialisation).
2.3.3 Bearer Investments must not be converted into Uncertificated form.
2.4. Procedure for dematerialisation of Investments
2.4.1 Before an Issuer converts Investments into Uncertificated form, the Issuer must:
- (a) if the Issuer is a Company—obtain the consent of the majority of the holders of the existing Investments that the Issuer proposes to convert into Uncertificated form; and
- (b) comply with any other requirements of applicable AIFC Regulations or AIFC Rules and the Terms of Issue applicable to the Issuer or the Investments relating to the conversion of the Investments into Uncertificated form.
2.4.2 The conversion of Investments into Uncertificated form is effective when the requirements of subrule 2.4.1 are satisfied or, if the Issuer sets a later time, at that time.
2.4.3 If the Issuer of Investments that are converted into Uncertificated form is a Company or Recognised Company, the Issuer must. on the day of the conversion, notify:
- (a) each holder of the Investments in Writing of the conversion of the Investments into Uncertificated form and the date of the conversion; and
- (b) the Registrar of Companies in the form required by the Registrar.
2.4.4 On receiving the notification under subrule 2.4.3, the Registrar of Companies must note the conversion of the Investments into Uncertificated form, and the date of the conversion, on the relevant register kept by the Registrar under the AIFC Companies Regulations.
2.4.5 To remove any doubt, these Rules do not prevent the conversion of Certificated Investments, which have previously been converted from Uncertificated form into Certificated form, back into Uncertificated form.
PART 3: REGISTRATION OF UNCERTIFICATED INVESTMENTS
3.1. Keeping of registers
3.1.1 For each class of Uncertificated Investments issued by an Issuer, the Issuer must keep a register of all the Uncertificated Investments in that class.
3.1.2 The Issuer must ensure that the register is kept in accordance with these Rules, applicable AIFC Regulations and other applicable AIFC Rules. However, if the requirements of these Rules and applicable AIFC Regulations or other applicable AIFC Rules are inconsistent, the requirements of these Rules must be complied with.
3.1.3 To remove any doubt, but subject to subrule 3.1.5, these Rules do not prevent an Issuer from appointing an agent to keep any register under these Rules on behalf of the Issuer.
3.1.4 Subrule 3.1.5 applies to an Issuer if the Issuer is:
- (a) a Company; or
- (b) a General Partnership under the AIFC General Partnership Regulations; or
- (c) a Limited Liability Partnership under the AIFC Limited Liability Partnership Regulations.
3.1.5 The Issuer must not appoint a Person other than an Authorised Market Institution or another Person authorised (however described) to conduct business in the AIFC to maintain a register of Uncertificated Investments on its behalf.
3.2. Availability of registers
3.2.1 An Issuer of Uncertificated Investments must ensure that a register of Uncertificated Investments, and the Terms of Issue of the Investments, are available for inspection in accordance with applicable AIFC Regulations and AIFC Rules and the Terms of Issue.
3.2.2 An Issuer that is a Company must ensure that a register of Uncertificated Investments issued by it is available for inspection during business hours without charge
PART 4: EFFECT OF DEMATERIALISATION
4.1. Effect of entries on registers
Subject to any applicable AIFC Regulations or AIFC Rules, a register of Uncertificated Investments kept under these Rules is sufficient evidence of any matter in relation to which an entry has been made in the register.
4.2. Substitution of tangible documentary requirements
4.2.1 This rule applies in relation to any legal or regulatory requirement or restriction (a tangible documentary requirement) relating to:
- (a) the creation, issue or provision; or
- (b) the Endorsement; of a declaration, certificate, instrument, instruction, or other Document, in tangible form that applies in relation to the creation or issue of, or transfer of title to, Investments or rights in an Uncertificated Investment.
4.2.2 A tangible documentary requirement does not prevent:
- (a) the creation or issue of, or registration of a transfer of title to, an Uncertificated Investment or rights in an Uncertificated Investment in accordance with subrule 4.2.3; or
- (b) the conversion of an Investment into Uncertificated form in accordance with that subrule; or
- (c) any action mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) being legally valid and binding as if it were made fully in accordance with the tangible documentary requirement.
4.2.3 In relation to an Uncertificated Investment, any tangible documentary requirement is to be taken to be a requirement or restriction:
- (a) if subrule 4.2.1(a) applies to the tangible documentary requirement—relating to the creation, issue or provision, as the case may be, of a record containing the information that the relevant Document is required to contain; and
- (b) if subrule 4.2.1(b) applies to the tangible documentary requirement—relating to the provision of a statement, consent or information required by the tangible documentaryrequirement in any form (including by electronic means) by the Person to whom the tangible documentary requirement applies.
4.2.4 Where rule 2.3.1 applies, any provision of the law under which the Investment or the Issuer is constituted, or of the Terms of Issue, which is inconsistent for the purposes of that subrule, is not a tangible documentary requirement for the purposes of this rule.
4.3. Instructions to transfer Uncertificated Investments
Without limiting rule 4.2 (Substitution of tangible documentary requirements), an Instruction relating to an Uncertificated Investment given by a Person entitled to give the Instruction may be given in any form (including by electronic means).
4.4. No Certificates of Title in relation to Uncertificated Investments
4.4.1 Notwithstanding any other AIFC Rules, an Issuer must not issue a Certificate of Title in relation to an Uncertificated Investment.
4.4.2 Subject to Part 5 (Rematerialisation), a Document issued by or on behalf of an Issuer purportedly evidencing title to an Uncertificated Investment is not evidence of title to the Investment and may not be relied on by any Person as evidencing title to the Investment.
4.5. Liability and sanctions in relation to registers
If an Issuer Fails to comply with its obligations under these Rules in relation to the keeping of a register, the same liability or sanctions apply as would apply under applicable AIFC Regulations or applicable other AIFC Rules if the Investments to which the obligations related were not Uncertificated Investments.
PART 5: REMATERIALISATION
5.1. Rematerialisation of Investments
Subject to rule 5.2 (Conditions for rematerialisation), if an Issuer permits the registration and transfer of a class of its existing Uncertificated Investments in Certificated form, the Investments may be converted from Uncertificated form into Certificated form in accordance with these Rules.
5.2. Conditions for rematerialisation
5.2.1 The Issuer of an Investment must not permit the holding of, or transfer of title to, the Investment in Certificated form if the law under which the Investment or the Issuer is constituted, or the Terms of Issue, are in any respect inconsistent with:
- (a) the registration or transfer of title to the Investment in Certificated form; or
- (b) these Rules.
5.2.2 If Investments are converted into Certificated form, all Investments of the relevant class after conversion must be held in Certificated form. However, this subrule does not limit the right of the Issuer subsequently to convert Certificated Investments to Uncertificated form under Part 2 (Issue of Uncertificated Investments and dematerialisation).
5.3. Procedure for rematerialisation of Investments
5.3.1 Before an Issuer converts Investments into Certificated form, the Issuer must:
- (a) if the Issuer is a Company—obtain the consent of the majority of the holders of the existing Investments that the Issuer proposes to convert into Certificated form; and
- (b) comply with any other requirements of the Terms of Issue relating to the conversion of the Investments into Certificated form.
5.3.2 Uncertificated Investments are converted into Certificated form by the issue of Certificates of Title in relation to them and the Issuer must issue them on a single day (the day of the conversion).
5.3.3 Any issue of Certificates of Title under this Part in relation to Uncertificated Investments must be in accordance with applicable AIFC Regulations and AIFC Rules and the Terms of Issue.
5.3.4 If the Issuer of Investments that are converted into Certificated form is a Company or Recognised Company, the Issuer must, on the day of the conversion, notify:
- (a) each holder of the Investments in Writing of the conversion of the Investments into Certificated form and the date of the conversion; and
- (b) the Registrar of Companies in the form required by the Registrar.
5.3.5 On receiving the notification under subrule 5.3.4, the Registrar of Companies must note the conversion of the Investments into Certificated form, and the date of the conversion, on the relevant register kept by the Registrar under the AIFC Companies Regulations.
5.3.6 From the issue of Certificates of Title in relation to Investments converted to Certificated form:
- (a) the Investments are Certificated Investments; and
- (b) these Rules cease to apply in relation to the Investments unless and until they are, or are to be, subsequently converted into Uncertificated form.
5.3.7 To remove any doubt, these Rules do not prevent the conversion of Uncertificated Investments, which have previously been converted from Certificated form into Uncertificated form, into Certificated form.
SCHEDULE 1: INTERPRETATION
SCHEDULE 1: INTERPRETATION
1. Definitions for these Rules Certificate of Title, in relation to an Investment, means a certificate in tangible form evidencing title to the Investment. Certificated: an Investment is Certificated, or in Certificated form, if a Certificate of Title is issued for the Investment. Issuer means a Person issuing or intending to issue Investments. Terms of Issue, in relation to an Investment issued or intended to be issued by an Issuer, means the terms of issue of the Investment, including the terms set by the Issuer on which the Investment is held and title to it is transferred. Uncertificated: an Investment is Uncertificated, or in Uncertificated form, if title to the Investment is recorded on the relevant register, kept in the AIFC or in a jurisdiction outside the AIFC, without issue of a Certificate of Title.
RULES FOR PRE-IPO LISTINGS
Rules for Pre-IPO Listings
Guidance: Purpose and application of these Rules
The purpose of these Rules is to compliment AMI in relation to Pre-IPO Listings in the AIFC.
1. Application and Scope
(1) These Rules apply within the jurisdiction of the AIFC.
(2) The following do not apply in the case of a Pre-IPO Listing:
- (a) Sections 66(3), 82(1) and 83(1) of the Framework Regulations; and
- (b) Sections 86(a) through (c) of the Framework Regulations, provided that the Issuer complies with the requirements of the Listing Rules of the Authorised Investment Exchange as prescribed by Sections 4 and 5 of these Rules;
- (c) MAR, in its entirety; and
- (d) any Takeover Rules prescribed by the AFSA under Section 88 of the Framework Regulations outside of MAR, unless such Rules specifically state that they apply in the case of a Pre-IPO Listing.
2. Interpretation
(1) For purpose of these Rules, a “Pre-IPO Listing” means the admission of the Shares of an Issuer to an Official List of Securities maintained by an Authorised Investment Exchange, without the Issuer immediately carrying out an initial public offering of Shares and seeking their admission to trading on the Authorised Investment Exchange.
3. Rules applicable to Authorised Investment Exchange
(1) Subject to the requirements of this section 3, an Authorised Investment Exchange may include Pre-IPO Listings under a subheading of its Official List of Securities.
(2) Without limitation of any other applicable requirements of AMI 3.6, an Authorised Investment Exchange that wishes to permit Pre-IPO Listings must include the following requirements in its Listing Rules:
- (a) procedures for admission of Shares to its Official List of Securities as a Pre-IPO Listing, including:
- i. requirements to be met before Shares may be granted admission to an Official List of Securities as a Pre-IPO Listing; and
- ii. agreements in connection with admitting Shares to an Official List of Securities as a Pre-IPO Listing;
- (b) procedures for suspension and delisting of Shares from an Official List of Securities as a Pre-IPO Listing; and
- (c) requirements for disclosure to the markets of such information as the Authorised Investment Exchange, in consultation with the AFSA, deems appropriate in lieu of the disclosure requirements of section 83(1) of the Framework Regulations and MAR.
(3) For purposes of 3(2)(c), the Listing Rules must prescribe the type of information and the circumstances and manner in which such information must be disclosed including:
- (a) financial information; and
- (b) any other information or material change which occurs in relation to the Issuer.
(4) A prominent warning, approved by the Authorised Investment Exchange, shall accompany each release of the information disclosed, regarding the nature and purpose of such information, including without limitation that
- (a) certain regulatory requirements and protections applicable to shares admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange do not apply to a Pre-IPO Listing, including sections 82(1) (corporate governance), 83(1) (market disclosure) and 86(a) through (c) (insider information) of the AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations, and the AIFC Market Rules in their entirety; and
- (b) the information being disclosed (i) is provided solely for purposes of a Pre-IPO Listing; (ii) does not include key information customarily used for making investment decisions; (iii) is not a substitute for investment research, due diligence or advice; and (iv) is used by an investor for investment decision-making purposes solely at the investor’s own risk.
SOVEREIGN BONDS RULES
Sovereign Bonds
Guidance: Purpose and application of these Rules.
The purpose of these Rules is to facilitate the safekeeping and settlement of Republic of Kazakhstan sovereign bonds in the systems of non-AIFC securities depositories.
PART 1. INTRODUCTION
1. Short Title
These Rules may be cited as the Sovereign Bonds Safekeeping and Settlement Rules.
2. Commencement
These Rules come into force on 29 January 2019.
3. Application and Scope
(1) These Rules apply within the jurisdiction of the AIFC.
- (a) These Rules apply to Sovereign Bonds which are registered on the books of the Registrar; and
- (b) included on the Official List of Securities of an Authorised Investment Exchange.
(2) These Rules specify certain matters in respect of the safekeeping and settlement of Sovereign Bonds which shall be governed by the Governing Law of the CSD to which the Sovereign Bonds have been admitted for such purposes. The Governing Law of the CSD shall additionally apply in relation to any other aspects of the safekeeping and settlement of Sovereign Bonds that would normally be governed by such law and which are not covered by these Rules.
(3) To the extent that any other AIFC Act of the same or lower level in the hierarchy of the Acting Law of the AIFC as these Rules is inconsistent with the provisions of these Rules, these Rules shall prevail to the extent relevant for the issuance, placement or trading of the Sovereign Bonds.
4. Interpretation
(1) Schedule 1 contains definitions used in these Rules and other interpretative provisions.
(2) Sovereign Bonds are not Investments specifically for purposes of the AIFC Personal Property Regulations 2017 (PPR) and the AIFC Dematerialised Investments Rules 2017 (DIR), with the effect that PPR and DIR do not apply in respect of Sovereign Bonds.
PART 2. REGISTRAR
5. Status and Appointment
(1) A Registrar shall be appointed by the Issuer pursuant to an agreement according to which the Registrar will provide services relating to the establishment and maintenance of the register of the Sovereign Bonds and which sets out the rights and responsibilities of the Registrar towards the Issuer, as well as the terms and conditions of the appointment of the Registrar.
(2) The bankruptcy, insolvency or winding-up of the Registrar, or any other agent, shall not affect in any manner whatsoever the Sovereign Bonds recorded on the books of the Registrar, or the rights or interests of the holders of such Sovereign Bonds. The Sovereign Bonds recorded on the books of the Registrar do not form part of the property of the Registrar available for distributions among, or realisation for the benefit of, the creditors of the Registrar in bankruptcy or insolvency proceedings in relation to the Registrar.
6. Register of the Sovereign Bonds
(1) The Registrar shall establish and maintain the register of the Sovereign Bonds in the AIFC upon the instruction of the Issuer.
(2) The Registrar shall increase or decrease the issued amount of the Sovereign Bonds recorded in the register upon the instruction of the Issuer.
(3) For the purpose of the primary issuance of the Sovereign Bonds a single CSD (or Nominee thereof) shall be appointed by the Issuer under the agreement between the CSD and the Issuer and in accordance with these Rules. Such CSD (or Nominee thereof)
- (a) shall be recorded in the register as the legal holder of the entire issued amount of each issue of the Sovereign Bonds, in which case the rights and responsibilities of the CSD (or its Nominee) and the Registrar in connection with the Sovereign Bonds in relation to each other shall be stipulated in an agreement entered into between them;
- (b) may hold the Sovereign Bonds in an Omnibus Account;
- (c) shall be entitled to direct the Registrar to re-register the Sovereign Bonds in the name of a Participant or any other person specified by either the CSD (or Nominee thereof) or the Issuer;
- (d) shall not be deemed the beneficial owner of such Sovereign Bonds; and
- (e) from time to time may be replaced by the Issuer, provided that appropriate arrangements are in place to ensure an orderly transition.
(4) The appointment of such a CSD by the Issuer shall be subject to an agreement setting out the respective functions, rights and responsibilities of the Issuer and CSD in relation to the Sovereign Bonds.
(5) The appointed CSD may, but is not obliged to, engage an appropriately licensed or authorised (however described) financial institution, person or system to carry out any aspect of such functions, provided that the CSD shall remain ultimately responsible for the performance of such functions;
(6) Legal title to Sovereign Bonds as held by a CSD (or Nominee thereof) as recorded in the register of the Sovereign Bonds shall not be subject to (a) attachment by any person or to any lien, pledge, right of retention, set-off, or any other similar right, to the detriment of any of the CSD (or Nominee thereof) or any beneficial owner of such Sovereign Bonds or (b) any freeze order or attachment by, or at the request of, any AIFC Body.
PART 3. CENTRAL SECURITIES DEPOSITORY
7. Safekeeping and Settlement
(1) Subject to the provisions of this section 7, safekeeping and settlement functions in relation to the Sovereign Bonds may take place on the facilities maintained either in or outside the AIFC and/or the Republic of Kazakhstan.
(2) Without prejudice to section 6 and to the extent that Sovereign Bonds have been admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange, such Authorised Investment Exchange may, in accordance with the AIFC Authorised Market Institutions Rules (AMI), the AIFC General Rules (GEN) and other applicable provisions of the Acting Law of the AIFC, appoint a settlement agent to carry out settlement and safekeeping functions (if any) in relation to transactions in Sovereign Bonds conducted on its facilities.
(3) The title to the Sovereign Bonds as well as settlement of the Sovereign Bonds on the books of the CSD and the settlement finality rules, shall in each case be governed by the Governing Law of the CSD and the rules, procedures and contracts of such CSD.
8. Securities Lending and Borrowing Program
(1) A CSD may include the Sovereign Bonds in its securities lending and borrowing programmes. The services rendered by a CSD and related to its securities lending and borrowing programmes shall be governed by the Governing Law of that CSD and the rules, procedures and contracts of such CSD.
9. Collateral Management
(1) The services rendered by a CSD in relation to collateral transactions with the Sovereign Bonds held in the system of that CSD shall be governed by the Governing Law of the CSD and the rules, procedures and contracts of such CSD.
10. Reporting and Liability
(1) The liability of the CSD appointed under these Rules, (or its Nominee), and(or) the directors, officers, employees and agents of such CSD (or Nominee), shall be governed by the Governing Law of the CSD and the rules, procedures and contracts of such CSD.
(2) The CSD appointed under section 6 will not be subject to any reporting requirements under the Acting Law of the AIFC.
PART 4. SOVEREIGN BONDS
11. Sovereign Bonds
(1) Only fully fungible, freely transferable uncertificated Sovereign Bonds shall be eligible with the CSD for safekeeping and settlement.
12. Sovereign Bonds Documentation
(1) The governing documentation of the Sovereign Bonds shall provide for the possibility to register the Sovereign Bonds with the Registrar in the name of a person other the beneficial owner of the Sovereign Bonds (nominee registration).
(2) The governing documentation of the Sovereign Bonds shall not provide for any obligation for the CSD and its Nominee to monitor holding restrictions applicable, if any, to the Sovereign Bonds.
(3) The governing documentation of the Sovereign Bonds shall provide for the procedure to notify the CSD on the events of default of the Issuer, as well as the appointment of a representative of the holders of the Sovereign Bonds or the conferring of the rights in connection with the events of default to the beneficial owners of the Sovereign Bonds. The CSD shall not act as the representative of either the legal or beneficial holders of the Sovereign Bonds in connection with events of defaults of the Issuer.
13. Admission to trading and Exemption from the Requirement to be Admitted to Trading
(1) In order to admit the Sovereign Bonds to trading on Authorised Investment Exchange, the Issuer shall demonstrate to Authorised Investment Exchange a satisfactory systems or arrangements for clearing and settlement.
(2) Sovereign Bonds that have been admitted to the Official List of Securities of an Authorised Investment Exchange need not comply with the requirement in section 66(3) of the Framework Regulations; provided, however, that such Sovereign Bonds may be admitted to trading on the Authorised Investment Exchange in accordance with applicable AIFC Regulations and Rules and the Rules of the Authorised Investment Exchange.
SCHEDULE 1
(1) In these Rules the following definitions apply, unless the context requires otherwise:
Authorised Investment Exchange has the meaning set out in the AIFC Glossary.
CSD means a central securities depository which operates a securities settlement system, which may be a foreign central securities depository established in a third country (i.e. outside of the AIFC and the Republic of Kazakhstan);
Governing Law of the CSD means the governing law of the jurisdiction in which a CSD is incorporated, without regard to conflict of law principles.
Issuer means the Ministry of Finance of the Republic of Kazakhstan.
Nominee means a nominee company wholly owned and/or controlled by a CSD, which holds legal title to dematerialised securities on behalf of the CSD in order to facilitate the safekeeping and settlement of such securities by the CSD.
Omnibus Account means a nominee account that is established for the benefit of multiple beneficial owners.
Participant means any entity which has entered into an agreement to participate in a CSD on the terms and conditions set out in the internal rules of the CSD.
Registrar means a company incorporated in the AIFC which is appointed by the Issuer to establish, maintain and keep the register of the
Sovereign Bonds in the AIFC. Sovereign Bonds means debt securities issued by the Issuer, registered on the books of the Registrar and included on the Official List of Securities of an Authorised Investment Exchange.
(2) Any capitalised terms used, but not defined in these Rules shall be construed in accordance with the acts of the AIFC, unless the context requires otherwise.
BANKING BUSINESS PRUDENTIAL RULES
Banking Business Prudential Rules
CHAPTER 1 General
1.1. Introduction
The purpose of these Banking Business Rules (BBR) is to establish the prudential framework for Authorised Firms carrying out Banking Business. These rules are based on the Basel Accords and on the Basel Core Principles for Effective Banking Supervision, issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
1.2. Commencement
These rules commence on 30 July 2018.
1.3. Effect of definitions, notes and examples
(1) A definition in the AIFC Glossary also applies to any instructions or document made under these rules.
(2) A note in or to these rules is explanatory and is not part of these rules. However, examples and guidance are part of these rules.
(3) An example is not exhaustive, and may extend, but does not limit, the meaning of these rules or a provision of these rules to which it relates.
(4) Unless the contrary intention appears, a reference in these rules to an accord, principle, standard or other similar instrument is a reference to that instrument as amended from time to time.
1.4 .Banking Business firms
(1) Banking Business comprises the Regulated Activities of Accepting Deposits, Dealing in Investments as Principal and Providing Credit. An Authorised Firm that has a license from the AFSA to conduct any of those activities is a Banking Business firm.
(2) However, an Authorised Firm that is an Islamic Bank or an Islamic Broker dealer or an Islamic Financing Company (as defined in the IBB Rules) is not a Banking Business firm for the purposes of these Rules.
(3) A Banking Business firm may be a Bank or a Broker Dealer or a Credit Provider.
Guidance
A firm that conducts any of the activities that make up Banking Business, or a combination of those activities, will need to consider the extent to which its business model is subject to the prudential requirements set out in these rules.
These rules are designed to address the different prudential risks that could arise from the broad range of business models, risk appetites and risk profiles of Banking Business firms.
For example, a firm that solely conducts the activity of Dealing in Investments as Principal (that is, a Broker Dealer) will need to consider the extent to which its activities in buying, selling, subscribing to or underwriting investments attract prudential risks that are subject to the requirements of these rules.
In contrast, a firm that is a Bank and that also conducts the activity of Dealing in Investments as Principal would be subject to a broader range of prudential requirements.
In both examples, these rules apply in accordance with the nature, scale and complexity of the firm’s business.
1.5. Bank
(1) An Authorised Firm is a Bank if it is authorised to conduct the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits and/or Opening and Operating Bank Accounts.
(2) An Authorised Firm is a Bank even if it is also authorised to conduct any other Regulated Activity or activity. The authorisation for Accepting Deposits and/or Opening and Operating Bank Accounts qualifies an Authorised Firm as a Bank
1.6. Broker Dealer
(1) An Authorised Firm is a Broker Dealer if it is authorised to conduct the Regulated Activity of Dealing in Investments as Principal and it is not a Bank.
(2) A Broker Dealer may raise funds from capital markets or money markets using debt instruments of any type but must not accept deposits.
(3) An Authorised Firm is a Broker Dealer even if it is also authorised to conduct any other Regulated Activity (except Accepting Deposits). The authorisation for Dealing in investments as a Principal and the absence of an authorisation for Accepting Deposits qualifies an Authorised Firm as a Broker Dealer.
(4) An Authorised Firm licensed to conduct the Regulated Activity of Dealing in Investments as Principal on a matched principal basis does not fall under the category of Broker Dealer. Such firms are subject to the AIFC PRU INV Rules and are not subject to the BBR Rules.
1.7. Credit Provider
(1) An Authorised Firm is a Credit Provider if it is authorised to conduct the Regulated Activity of Providing Credit and it is not a Bank.
(2) Credit Providers may raise funds from capital markets or money markets using debt instruments of any type but must not accept Deposits.
(3) An Authorised Firm is a Credit Provider even if it is also authorised to conduct any Regulated Activity (except Accepting Deposits). The authorisation for Providing Credit and the absence of an authorisation for Accepting Deposits qualifies an Authorised Firm as a Credit Provider.
(4) A Credit Provider may conduct the Regulated Activity of Dealing in Investments as Principal, if it receives the necessary authorisation from the AFSA.
(5) The Regulated Activity of Providing Credit is taken to include the activity of providing Commercial Captive Finance. The BBR applies to a Credit Provider providing Commercial Captive Finance on a risk-proportionate basis, where AFSA may have regard, including but not limited to, to the firm’s scale and complexity, business model, customer base and level of engagement in capital or money markets.
1.8. Application of these rules — genera
(1) Except as stated otherwise, these rules apply to a Person that has, or is applying for, a license to conduct Banking Business, as defined in Rule 1.4(1).
(2) Except as stated otherwise, all references to a Bank in the BBR Rules must be read as referring also to Broker Dealers, defined in Rule 1.6 and Credit Providers, defined in Rule 1.7.
Consequently, all the regulatory requirements imposed by these BBR Rules apply to all entities licensed to carry out Banking Business as defined in Rule 1.4 (1), except for specific sections or rules wherein their applicability is defined in a particular manner. For clarity, all the regulatory requirements imposed by the BBR Rules apply to Banks, Broker Dealers and Credit Providers as defined in Rules 1.5, 1.6 and 1.7, unless otherwise specified in the BBR.
(3) Firms licensed by the AFSA to conduct the Regulated Activities of Advising on a Credit Facility, Arranging a Credit Facility or Providing Money Services are subject only to Base Capital Requirements set out in Rule 4.10.
Guidance
It is possible for an Authorised Firm to be authorised both as a Bank under these rules and to hold a license to carry on one or more other Regulated Activities defined in Schedule 1 of the AIFC GEN Rules. Both these rules and the relevant rules for those activities could apply to such an Authorised Firm in relation to the activities they are involved in. In relation to such an Authorised Firm, however, the Capital requirements in these rules apply. If that Authorised Firm complies with the Capital requirements in these rules, it is taken to comply with the prudential rule requirements specified in AIFC PRU INV Rules.
1.9 Application of these rules—branches
(1) Chapter 4 (Capital adequacy) does not apply to a Bank operating in the form of a branch in the AIFC, in respect of the quantitative capital requirements and related rules specified in Chapter 4. The rules specifying non-quantitative requirements in respect of governance, board responsibilities, policies, systems and controls apply to Banks operating as branches in the AIFC.
(2) However, the AFSA may require a branch to have Capital resources or to comply with any other Capital requirement if the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable to do so in the interest of effective supervision of the branch.
1.10 Requirement for policy also requires procedures and systems
In these rules, a requirement for a Bank to have a policy also requires such a firm to have the procedures, systems, processes, controls and limits needed to give effect to the policy.
1.11 Responsibility for principles
(1) A Bank’s Governing Body is responsible for the firm’s compliance with the principles and requirements set out in these rules.
(2) The Governing Body must ensure that the firm’s senior management establishes and implements policies to give effect to these rules. The Governing Body must approve significant policies and any changes to them (other than formal changes) and must ensure that the policies are fully integrated with each other. Note: The significant policies relate to the adequacy of capital and the management of various prudential risks faced by a Bank and group risk, as set out in the following Chapters.
(3) The Governing Body must review and appropriately adjust the firm’s policies from time to time, taking into account changed operating circumstances, market conditions, activities and risk profiles. The interval between reviews must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the Bank’s business, but must not be longer than 12 months.
(4) The Governing Body must ensure that the policies are made known to, and understood by, all relevant staff.
CHAPTER 2. Principles relating to Banking Business
2.1. Principle 1—Capital Adequacy
A Bank must have capital, of adequate amount and appropriate quality, for the nature, scale and complexity of its business and for its risk profile. A Bank must have appropriate risk management strategies that have been approved by the Bank's Governing Body. The Governing Body of the Bank must set its risk appetite to define the level of risk the Bank is willing to assume.
2.2. Principle 2—Credit Risk and Problem Assets
(1) A Bank must have an adequate Credit Risk management policy that takes into account the Bank’s risk tolerance, its risk profile and the market and macroeconomic conditions. This policy must identify, measure, evaluate, monitor, report and control or mitigate Credit Risk in a timely way.
(2) A Bank must have adequate policies for the early identification and management of problem assets, and the maintenance of adequate provisions and reserves.
2.3. Principle 3—Transactions with Related Parties
A Bank must enter into transactions with related parties on an arm’s-length basis to avoid conflicts of interest.
2.4. Principle 4—Concentration Risk
A Bank must have adequate policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate concentrations of risk in a timely way.
2.5. Principle 5—Market Risk
A Bank must have an adequate Market Risk management policy that takes into account the firm’s risk tolerance, its risk profile, the market and macroeconomic conditions and the risk of a significant deterioration in market liquidity. This policy must identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate Market Risk in a timely way.
2.6. Principle 6—Operational Risk
A Bank must have an adequate operational risk management policy that takes into account the firm’s risk tolerance, its risk profile and market and macroeconomic conditions. This policy must identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate operational risk in a timely way.
2.7. Principle 7— Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book
A Bank must have an adequate management policy for Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book that takes into account the firm’s risk tolerance, its risk profile and the market and macroeconomic conditions. This policy must identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate interest rate risk in the Banking Book in a timely way.
2.8. Principle 8—Liquidity Risk
A Bank must have prudent and appropriate quantitative and qualitative liquidity requirements. A Bank must also have adequate policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate Liquidity Risk in a timely way.
2.9. Principle 9—Group Risk
A Bank must effectively manage risks arising from its membership in a group.
CHAPTER 3. Prudential Reporting Requirements
3.1. Introduction
(1) This Chapter sets out the prudential reporting requirements for a Bank.
(2) The prudential returns of a Bank must reflect its management accounts, financial statements and ancillary reports. A Bank’s prudential returns, accounts, statements and reports must all be prepared using the same standards and practices and must be easily reconcilable with one another.
(3) A prudential return is referred to as a Solo prudential return if it reflects the individual Bank’s accounts, statements and reports.
(4) A Consolidated prudential return means a prudential return which reflects the accounts, statements and reports of a Bank consolidated with those of the other members of its Financial Group. Note Financial Group is defined in Chapter 10 of BBR and is used for consolidated reporting instead of ‘corporate group’.
3.2 Information about Financial Group
If directed by the AFSA, a Bank must give the AFSA the following information about its Financial Group:
- (a) details about the entities in the group;
- (b) the structure of the group;
- (c) how the group is managed;
- (d) any other information that the AFSA requires.
Note The processes and procedures relating to flow of management information, decision-making, oversight, control and review of the operations and activities of the group are collectively referred to as managing the group in (c) above.
3.3. Financial Group risk
(1) If a Bank is part of a Financial Group, Credit Risk, market risk, operational risk, Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book (IRRBB) and liquidity risk exposures (collectively referred to as prudential risk exposures) apply on a consolidated basis to the Bank and the other members that constitute its Financial Group.
(2) Preparing returns on a consolidated basis means including the financial effects and risk exposures arising from all the activities of all the members or entities forming part of the Bank’s Financial Group. Such returns are not restricted to just reflecting the financial activities or positions of the Bank.
Note: A Bank is required to have systems to enable it to calculate its financial group capital requirement and resources, according to rules in Chapter 10 of the BBR.
3.4. Preparing returns
(1) A Bank must prepare the prudential returns that it is required to prepare by a notice published by the AFSA on its own website. Such a notice may also require Banks to give other information to the AFSA.
(2) The Bank must give the return to the AFSA within the period stated in the notice.
(3) The AFSA may, by written notice:
- (a) require a Bank to prepare additional prudential returns;
- (b) exempt a Bank from a requirement to prepare annual, biannual, quarterly or monthly returns
(or a particular return); or
- (c) extend the period within which to give a return.
(4) An exemption may be subject to one or more conditions. The Bank availing the exemption must comply with any condition attached to an exemption.
(5) The Bank must prepare and submit its prudential returns in accordance with the AFSA’s instructions. Such instructions may require that the return be prepared or given through an electronic submission system.
(6) The instructions may be set out in these rules, in the return itself, in a separate document published by the AFSA on its own approved website or by written notice. These instructions, wherever or however they are given, are collectively referred to as instructions for preparing returns.
Note:Instructions may be in the form of formulae or blank spaces that a Bank is expected to use or fill in which would automatically compute the amounts to be reported.
3.5. Giving information
(1) The AFSA may, by written notice, require a Bank to provide information in addition to that required under these rules.
(2) A Bank must submit the required information to the AFSA in accordance with the AFSA’s instructions and within the period stated in the written notice seeking such information. The AFSA may extend the period for the submission of such information.
(3) The AFSA may exempt a Bank from giving information. The Bank must comply with any conditions attached to such an exemption.
3.6. Accounting standards
A Bank must prepare and maintain its financial accounts and prepare its financial statements in accordance with the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).
3.7. Signing returns
(1) A prudential return must be signed by 2 individuals, who are Approved Individuals for the Bank and who occupy any of the Controlled Functions of Director, Senior Executive Officer or Finance Officer. The AFSA, by way of a notice, may prescribe acceptable modes of affixing a signature for the prudential returns, including but not limited to electronic signatures.
(2) If these Approved Individuals are not available or are unable to sign, the prudential return must be signed by both of the individuals approved to exercise the following Controlled Functions:
- (a) the Risk Manager function;
- (b) the Compliance Officer function.
3.8. Obligation to notify the AFSA
(1) A Bank must notify the AFSA if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that the Bank has breached, or is about to breach, a prudential requirement.
(2) In particular, the Bank must notify the AFSA as soon as practicable of:
- (a) any breach or potential breach of its minimum capital requirement;
- (b) any concern it has about its solvency or capital adequacy position;
- (c) any indication of significant adverse change in the market price of, or trading volume of, the equity capital or other capital instruments of the Bank or those of its Financial Group (including pressure on the Bank to purchase its own equity or debt);
- (d) any other significant adverse change in its capital; and
- (e) any significant departure from its Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP).
(3) The Bank must also notify the AFSA of any measures planned or taken to deal with any real or potential breach or concerns related to its solvency or capital adequacy position.
CHAPTER 4. Capital Adequacy
4.1. Introduction
(1) This Chapter sets out capital adequacy requirements for a Bank.
(2) A Bank’s total Regulatory Capital is the sum of its Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital. The categories and elements of Regulatory Capital, as well as the limits, restrictions and adjustments to which they are subject are set out in this Chapter.
(3) Capital adequacy and capital management must be an integral part of a Bank’s overall governance and its bank-wide risk management process. Capital management must align the Bank’s risk appetite and risk profile with its capacity to absorb losses.
4.2. Application to branches
(1) This Chapter does not apply to a Bank that is licensed to operate as a branch in the AIFC, insofar as this Chapter would require the branch to hold capital.
(2) A branch is required to comply with the reporting requirements under this Chapter. In relation to the branch’s ICAAP, the branch may rely on the ICAAP for the bank of which it is a part (if available), to demonstrate compliance.
4.3. Governing Body’s responsibilities
(1) A Bank’s Governing Body must consider, on a periodic basis, whether the minimum capital and liquidity resources required by these rules are adequate to ensure there is no significant risk that the Bank’s liabilities cannot be met as they fall due. The Bank must take material and effective measures to obtain additional capital and liquidity resources if its Governing Body considers that the minimum requirements defined in these rules do not adequately reflect the risks of its business.
(2) The Governing Body is also responsible for:
- (a) ensuring that capital management is part of the Bank’s bank-wide risk management framework and is aligned with its risk appetite and risk profile;
- (b) ensuring that the Bank has, at all times, capital and liquidity resources of the kinds and amounts required by these rules;
- (c) ensuring that the Bank has capital, of adequate amount and appropriate quality, for the nature, scale and complexity of its business and for its risk profile;
- (d) ensuring that the amount of capital it has exceeds its minimum capital requirement, calculated according to these rules;
- (e) reviewing the Bank’s annual ICAAP and approving it, including but not limited to taking decisions to raise additional capital for the Bank; and
- (f) monitoring the adequacy and appropriateness of the Bank’s systems and controls to ensure the Bank’s compliance with these rules.
4.4. Systems and controls
(1) A Bank must have adequate systems and controls to allow it to calculate and monitor its minimum capital requirement.
(2) The systems and controls must be documented and must be appropriate for its risk profile and proportionate to the nature, scale and complexity of its business.
(3) The systems and controls employed by a Bank must include the ICAAP process which is defined in greater detail in a separate chapter of these rules.
(4) The systems and controls must, at all times, enable the Bank to demonstrate its compliance with the rules in this Chapter.
(5) The systems and controls of the Bank must enable it to manage available capital in anticipation of events or changes in market conditions.
(6) A Bank must have adequate and proportionate contingency plans to maintain or increase its capital in times of stress, whether idiosyncratic or systemic.
4.5. Use of internal models
A Bank must not use its internal models to calculate regulatory capital requirements and assess capital adequacy in accordance with the BBR Rules or to achieve compliance with the BBR Rules, except for the instances permitted by Rule 6.7 for calculation of market risk capital requirements.
4.6. References to particular currencies
In these rules, the specification of an amount of money in a particular currency is also taken to specify the equivalent sum in any other currency at the relevant time.
Initial and ongoing capital requirements
Section 4A – Capital Requirements and Ratios
4.7. Capital Requirements
(1) A Bank is required to meet minimum risk-based capital requirements for exposure to Credit Risk, market risk and operational risk, under these rules. The Bank’s capital ratios (consisting of CET 1 ratio, total tier 1 ratio and total capital ratio) are calculated by dividing its Regulatory Capital by total Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs).
(2) Total RWAs of a Bank is the sum of:
- (a) the Bank’s RWAs for all on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet Credit Risk exposures calculated in accordance with the rules in Chapter 5 of BBR; and
- (b) 12.5 times the sum of the Bank’s market and operational risk capital requirements (to the extent that each of those requirements applies to the Bank) calculated in accordance with the rules in Chapters 6 and 7 of BBR respectively
(3) In this Chapter, consolidated Subsidiary, of a Bank, means:
- (a) a Subsidiary of the Bank; or
- (b) a Subsidiary of a Subsidiary of the Bank.
4.8. Required Tier 1 Capital on authorisation
A Bank must have, at the time of its authorisation and at all times thereafter, Common Equity Tier 1 Capital (CET1 Capital) as defined in Rule 4.14, at least equal to the Base Capital Requirement applicable to it. The AFSA will not grant an authorisation for conducting Banking Business unless it is satisfied that the entity complies with this requirement.
4.9. Required ongoing capital
(1) A Bank must have at all times, Capital at least equal to the higher of:
- (a) its Base Capital requirement; and
- (b) its Risk-based Capital requirement.
Note A Bank whose minimum capital requirement is determined by its risk-based capital requirement is subject to the additional requirement to maintain a Capital Conservation Buffer, as defined in Rule 4.31.
(2) The amount of Capital that a Bank must have, in accordance with these rules, is its Minimum Capital Requirement.
4.10. Base Capital Requirement
The Base Capital Requirement is:
- (a) for a Bank — USD 10 million;
- (b) for a Broker Dealer — USD 500,000;
- (c) for a Credit Provider – USD 2 million;
- (ca) for a Credit Provider providing only Commercial Captive Finance – USD 500,000;
- (d) for an Authorised Firm Arranging Credit Facility – USD 10,000;
- (e) for an Authorised Firm Advising on Credit Facility – USD 10,000;
- (f) for an Authorised Firm Providing Money Services – USD 200,000.
4.11. Risk-based Capital Requirement
(1) The Risk-based Capital Requirement for a Bank is the sum of:
- (a) its Credit Risk capital requirement;
- (b) its Market Risk Capital Requirement; and
- (c) its Operational Risk Capital Requirement.
(2) The Market Risk and Operational Risk Capital Requirements are required to be calculated according to the rules in Chapters 6 and 7 of BBR respectively.
(3) The Credit Risk Capital Requirement must be calculated as 8% of the Bank’s risk-weighted onbalance-sheet and off-balance-sheet Credit Risk exposures calculated in accordance with the rules in Chapter 5 of BBR.
4.12. Capital ratios
(1) A Bank’s capital adequacy is measured in terms of 3 capital ratios expressed as percentages of its total Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs).
(2) A Bank’s minimum capital ratios are:
- (a) a CET 1 Capital ratio of 4.5%;
- (b) a Tier 1 Capital (T1 Capital) ratio of 6%; and
- (c) a Total Capital ratio of 8%.
(3) The AFSA may, if it believes it is prudent to do so, increase any or all of a Bank’s minimum capital ratios. The AFSA will notify the Bank in writing about a higher capital ratio and the timeframe available for the Bank to meet it.
(4) A Bank must maintain at all times capital ratios higher than the required minimum levels specified in Rule 4.12 (2).
Section 4B – Elements of Regulatory Capital
4.13. Total Capital
(1) The Total Capital of a Bank is the sum of its Tier 1 (T1) Capital and Tier 2 (T2) Capital.
(2) T1 Capital is the sum of a Bank’s Common Equity Tier 1 (CET 1) Capital and Additional Tier 1
(AT1) Capital. T1 Capital is also known as going-concern capital because it is meant to absorb losses while the Bank is viable.
(3) T2 Capital is defined in Rule 4.18. T2 Capital is also known as gone-concern capital because it is meant to absorb losses after the Bank ceases to be viable.
(4) For these rules, the 3 categories of Regulatory Capital are CET 1 Capital, AT1 Capital and T2 Capital.
4.14. Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) Capital
CET 1 Capital is the sum of the following elements:
- (a) common shares issued by the Bank that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.15 for classification as common shares for regulatory purpose (or the equivalent for legal entities which are not);
- (b) share premium resulting from the issue of instruments included in CET 1 Capital;
- (c) retained earnings;
- (d) accumulated other comprehensive income and other disclosed reserves;
- (e) common shares, issued by a consolidated Subsidiary of the Bank and held by third parties, that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.22 for inclusion in CET 1 Capital;
- (f) regulatory adjustments applied in the calculation of CET 1 Capital in accordance with Rule 4.29.
4.15. Criteria for classification as CET1 Capital
A capital instrument issued by a Bank is eligible for classification as common equity and for inclusion in CET 1 Capital, only if all of the following criteria in sub-rules (1) to (14) below are satisfied:
(1) The instrument is the most subordinated claim in case of the liquidation of the Bank.
(2) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets that is proportional with its share of issued capital, after all senior claims have been repaid in liquidation. The claim must be unlimited and variable and must be neither fixed nor capped.
(3) The principal amount of the instrument is perpetual and never repayable except in liquidation. Discretionary repurchases and other discretionary means of reducing capital allowed by law do not constitute repayment.
(4) The Bank must not create an expectation at issuance that the instrument will be bought back, redeemed or cancelled. The statutory or contractual terms must not provide anything that might give rise to such an expectation.
(5) Distributions are paid out of distributable items of the Bank (including retained earnings) and the amount of distributions:
- (a) is not tied or linked to the amount paid in at issuance; and
- (b) is not subject to a contractual cap (except to the extent that a Bank may not pay distributions that exceed the amount of its distributable items).
(6) There are no circumstances under which the distributions are obligatory. Non-payment of distributions must not lead to default.
(7) Distributions are paid only after all legal and contractual obligations have been met and payments on all more senior capital instruments have been made. There are no preferential distributions to any pre-defined specified parties, including in relation to other CET1 Capital instruments and the terms of the instrument must not provide any preferential rights for payment of distributions.
(8) Compared to all the capital instruments issued by the Bank, the instrument must absorb the first and proportionately greatest share of any losses as they occur, and each instrument absorbs losses on a going-concern basis to the same degree as all other CET1 Capital instruments. Note This criterion in (8) above would be considered as fulfilled if the instrument includes a permanent write-down mechanism, as referred in Rule 4.17 (11) and 4.20.
(9) The paid-up amount is recognised as equity capital (rather than as a liability) for determining balance-sheet insolvency.
(10) The paid-in amount is classified as equity in accordance with the relevant accounting standards.
(11) The instrument is directly issued and paid-in, and the Bank has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
(12) The paid-in amount is neither secured nor covered by a guarantee of the Bank or a related party, nor subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the holder’s claim in relation to the claims of the Bank’s creditors.
(13) The instrument is issued only with the approval of the owners of the Bank, either given directly by the owners or, if permitted by the applicable law, given by its Governing Body or by other persons authorised by the owners.
(14) The instrument is clearly and separately disclosed on the Bank’s balance sheet.
4.16. Additional Tier 1 (AT1) Capital
AT 1 Capital is the sum of the following elements:
- (a) instruments issued by a Bank that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.17 for inclusion in AT1 Capital (and are not included in CET 1 Capital);
- (b) share premium resulting from the issue of instruments included in AT1 Capital, according to
- (a) above, if any;
- (c) instruments, issued by consolidated Subsidiaries of the Bank and held by third parties, that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.23 for inclusion in AT1 Capital (and are not included in CET 1 Capital of the respective Banks);
- (d) regulatory adjustments applied in the calculation of AT1 Capital in accordance with Rule 4.28.
4.17 Criteria for inclusion in AT1 Capital
A capital instrument is eligible for inclusion in AT1 Capital only if that instrument meets all of the following criteria in sub-rules (1) to (15):
(1) The instrument is issued and paid-up.
(2) The instrument is the most subordinated claim after those of depositors, general creditors and holders of the subordinated debt of the Bank.
(3) The instrument is neither secured nor covered by a guarantee of the Bank or a related party, nor subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the holder’s claim in relation to the claims of the Bank’s creditors.
(4) The instrument is perpetual. It has no maturity date and there are no step-ups or other incentives to redeem.
(5) If the instrument is callable by the Bank, it can only be called 5 years or more after the instrument is paid-up and only with the approval of the AFSA. The Bank must not do anything to create an expectation that the exercise of the option will be approved, and, if the exercise is approved, the Bank:
- (a) must replace the called instrument with capital of the same or better quality and at conditions sustainable for the income generation capacity of the Bank; or
- (b) must demonstrate to the AFSA that its capital will exceed the Bank’s minimum capital requirement after the call option is exercised.
(6) A repayment of principal through repurchase, redemption or other means must be approved by the AFSA. The Bank must not assume, or create a market expectation, that such approval will be given.
(7) In respect of the dividend or coupon payable on the instrument
- (a) The Bank has full discretion at all times to cancel distributions or payments;
- (b) Any cancellation of a dividend or coupon is not an event of default;
- (c) The Bank has full access to cancelled payments to meet obligations as they fall due; and
- (d) Any cancellation of dividend or coupon does not impose restrictions on the Bank, except in relation to distributions to common shareholders.
(8) Dividends and coupons must be paid out of distributable items.
(9) The instrument must not have a credit-sensitive dividend feature under which a dividend or coupon is periodically reset based (wholly or partly) on the Bank’s credit standing.
(10) The instrument must not contribute to the Bank’s liabilities exceeding its assets if such a balancesheet test forms part of any insolvency law applying in the jurisdiction where the instrument was issued.
(11) An instrument classified as a liability for accounting purposes must have principal loss absorption through conversion to common shares, or a write-down mechanism that allocates losses to the instrument, at a pre- specified trigger point. The conversion must be made in accordance with Rule 4.20.
(12) A write-down of the instrument has the following effects:
- (a) reducing the claim of the instrument in liquidation;
- (b) reducing the amount repaid when a call option is exercised;
- (c) reducing or eliminating dividend or coupon payments on the instrument.
(13) Neither the Bank nor a related party over which the Bank exercises control or significant influence has purchased the instrument, nor has the Bank directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
(14) The instrument has no features that hinder recapitalisation. For example, it must not require the Bank to compensate investors if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified period.
(15) If the instrument is issued by a special purpose vehicle, the proceeds are immediately available without limitation to the Bank through an instrument that satisfies the other criteria for AT1 Capital.
4.18 .Tier 2 Capital (T2 Capital)
T2 Capital is the sum of the following elements:
- (a) instruments issued by the Bank that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.19 for inclusion in T2 Capital (and are not included in T1 Capital);
- (b) share premium resulting from the issue of instruments included in T2 Capital according to
- (a), if any;
- (c) instruments, issued by consolidated Subsidiaries of the Bank and held by third parties, that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.24 for inclusion in T2 Capital (and are not included in T1 Capital);
- (d) regulatory adjustments applied in the calculation of T2 Capital in accordance with Rule 4.28;
- (e) general provisions or general reserves held against future, presently unidentified losses (but only up to a maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted assets for Credit Risk, calculated using the standardised approach in Chapter 5 of BBR).
Note General provisions and reserves are freely available to meet losses that subsequently materialise and therefore qualify for inclusion in T2 Capital. In contrast, provisions for identified deterioration of particular assets or known liabilities, whether individual or grouped, must be excluded because they would not be available to meet losses.
4.19. Criteria for inclusion in T2 Capital
A capital instrument is eligible for inclusion in T2 Capital only if all the criteria in sub-rules (1) to (10) below are satisfied.
(1) The instrument is issued and paid up.
(2) The instrument is subordinated to the claims of depositors and general creditors.
(3) The paid-in amount is neither secured nor covered by a guarantee of the Bank or a related party, nor subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the holder’s claim in relation to the claims of the Bank’s depositors and general creditors.
(4) The original maturity of the instrument is at least 5 years.
(5) The recognition in regulatory capital in the remaining 5 years before maturity is amortised on a straight line basis and there are no incentives to redeem.
(6) If the instrument is callable by the Bank, it can only be called 5 years or more after the instrument is paid-in and only with the approval of the AFSA. The Bank must not do anything to create an expectation that the exercise of the option will be approved, and, if the exercise is approved, the Bank:
- (a) must replace the called instrument with capital of the same or better quality with servicing costs sustainable for the income capacity of the Bank; or
- (b) must demonstrate to the AFSA that its capital will exceed the Bank’s minimum capital requirement after the call option is exercised.
(7) The holder has no right to accelerate future scheduled payments of coupon or principal, except in bankruptcy or liquidation.
(8) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive-dividend feature under which a dividend or coupon is periodically reset based (wholly or partly) on the Bank’s credit standing.
(9) Neither the Bank nor a related party over which the Bank exercises control or significant influence has purchased the instrument, nor has the Bank directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
(10) If the instrument is issued by a special purpose vehicle, the proceeds are immediately available without limitation to the Bank through an instrument that satisfies the other criteria for T2 Capital.
4.20. Requirements—loss absorption at point of non-viability
(1) This rule applies to an AT1 or T2 Capital instrument issued by a Bank. It sets out additional requirements to ensure loss absorption at the point of non-viability.
(2) The terms and conditions of an instrument must give the AFSA the discretion to direct that the instrument be written-off or converted to common equity on the happening of a Trigger event.
(3) The Bank must be able to issue the required number of shares specified in the instrument if a trigger event happens. The issuance of any new shares because of a trigger event must happen before any public sector injection of capital so that capital provided by the public sector is not diluted.
(4) Trigger event, for the purposes of (2) above, in relation to the Bank that issued the instrument, is the earliest of:
- (a) a decision of the AFSA that a write-off (without which the Bank would become non-viable) is necessary; and
- (b) a decision by the relevant authority to make a public sector injection of capital, or give equivalent support (without which injection or support the Bank would become non-viable, as determined by that authority).
(5) If the Bank is a member of a financial group and the Bank wishes the instrument to be included in the Group’s Capital in addition to its solo capital, the trigger event must be the earliest of:
- (a) the decision in sub-rule (4) (a);
- (b) the decision in sub-rule (4) (b);
- (c) a decision, by the relevant authority in the Bank’s home jurisdiction, that a write-off (without which the Bank would become non viable) is necessary; and
- (d) a decision, by the relevant authority in the jurisdiction of the financial regulator that regulates the parent entity of the Bank, to make a public sector injection of capital, or give equivalent support, in that jurisdiction (without which injection or support the Bank would become nonviable, as determined by that authority).
(6) Any compensation paid to the holder of an instrument because of a write-off must be paid immediately in the form of common shares.
(7) If the Bank is a member of a financial group, any common shares paid as compensation to the holder of the instrument must be common shares of the Bank or of the parent entity of the group.
Section 4C – Treatment of Minority interests
4.21. Introduction
This section sets out the criteria and formulae for the treatment of minority interests in a Bank’s Regulatory Capital.
4.22. Criteria for third party interests— CET 1 Capital
(1) For Rule 4.14 (e), CET1 Capital issued by a consolidated Subsidiary of a Bank and held by a third party as a non-controlling interest, may be included in the Bank’s CET 1 Capital if:
- (a) the share would be included in the Bank’s CET 1 Capital had it been issued by the Bank; and
- (b) the Subsidiary that issued the share is itself a Bank or a Broker Dealer (or an equivalent entity in its home jurisdiction).
(2) The amount to be included in the consolidated CET 1 Capital of a Bank is calculated in accordance with the following formula: NCI – ((CET1s – Min) × SS) where:
NCI is the total of the non-controlling interests of minority shareholders in a consolidated Subsidiary of the Bank. CET1s is the amount of CET 1 Capital of the Subsidiary. Min is the lower of:
- (a) 0.07 × total RWAs, as defined in Rule 4.7 (2), of the Subsidiary; and
- (b) 0.07 × share of consolidated RWAs of the group attributable to the Subsidiary. SS means the percentage of the shares in the Subsidiary (being shares included in CET 1 Capital) held by those third parties.
4.23. Criteria for third party interests—AT1 Capital
(1) For Rule 4.16 (c), an instrument (including a common share) issued by a consolidated Subsidiary of a Bank and held by a third party as a non-controlling interest may be included in the Bank’s AT1 Capital if the instrument would be included in the Bank’s AT1 Capital had it been issued by the Bank.
(2) Subject to (3), the amount to be included in the consolidated AT1 Capital of a Bank is calculated in accordance with the following formula: NCI – ((T1s – Min) × SS) where: NCI is the total of the non-controlling interests of third parties in a consolidated Subsidiary of the Bank. T1s is the amount of Tier 1 Capital of the Subsidiary. Min is the lower of:
- (a) 8.5% of the total RWAs, as defined in Rule 4.7 (2), of the Subsidiary; and
- (b) 8.5% of the share of consolidated RWAs of the group attributable to the Subsidiary. SS means the percentage of the shares in the Subsidiary (being shares included in additional Tier 1 Capital) held by those third parties.
(3) A Bank must determine the amount of qualifying T1 Capital of a Subsidiary that is included in consolidated AT1 Capital by excluding the minority interests of that Subsidiary that are included in consolidated CET1 Capital, in accordance with Rule 4.22.
4.24. Criteria for Minority interests— Tier 2 Capital
(1) For Rule 4.18 (c), an instrument (including common equity or any other T1 Capital instrument) issued by a consolidated Subsidiary of a Bank and held by a third party as a non-controlling interest may be included in the Bank’s T2 Capital if the instrument would be included in the Bank’s T2 Capital had it been issued by the Bank.
(2) The amount to be included in the consolidated T2 Capital of a Bank is calculated in accordance with the following formula: NCI – ((T2s – Min) × SS) where:NCI is the total of the non-controlling interests of third parties in a consolidated Subsidiary of the Bank. T2s is the amount of Tier 2 Capital of the Subsidiary. Min is the lower of:
- (a) 10.5% of the total RWAs, as defined in Rule 4.7 (2), of the Subsidiary; and
- (b) 10.5% of the share of consolidated RWAs of the group attributable to the Subsidiary. SS means the percentage of the shares in the Subsidiary (being shares included in Tier 2 Capital) held by those third parties.
(3) A Bank must determine the amount of qualifying Total Capital of a Subsidiary that is included in consolidated T2 Capital by excluding the minority interests of that Subsidiary that are included in consolidated CET1 Capital and consolidated AT1 Capital, in accordance with Rules 4.22 and 4.23.
4.25 Treatment of third party interests from special purpose vehicles
(1) An instrument issued out of a special purpose vehicle and held by a third party must not be included in a Bank’s CET 1 Capital. Such an instrument may be included in the Bank’s AT1 or T2 Capital (and treated as if it had been issued by the Bank itself directly to the third party), if:
- (a) the instrument satisfies the criteria for inclusion in the relevant category of Regulatory Capital; and
- (b) the only asset of the special purpose vehicle is its investment in the capital of the Bank and that investment satisfies the criterion in Rule 4.17 (15) or 4.19 (10) for the immediate availability of the proceeds.
(2) A capital instrument described in sub-rule (1) above that is issued out of a special purpose vehicle through a consolidated Subsidiary of a Bank may be included in the Bank’s consolidated AT 1 or T2 Capital if the instrument satisfies the criteria in Rule 4.23 or 4.24, as the case requires. Such an instrument is treated as if it had been issued by the Subsidiary itself directly to the third party.
Section 4D Regulatory Adjustments
4.26. Valuation approaches and related adjustments
(1) A Bank must use the same approach for valuing regulatory adjustments to its capital as it does for balance-sheet valuations. An item that is deducted from capital must be valued in the same way as it would be for inclusion in the Bank’s balance sheet.
(2) The Bank must use the corresponding deduction approach and the threshold deduction rule referred in Rules 4.29 and 4.30, in making adjustments to its capital.
4.27. Definitions for Section 4D
In this Section: entity concerned means any of the following entities:
- (a) a Bank;
- (b) any other financial or insurance entity;
- (c) an entity over which a Bank exercises control. significant investment, by a Bank in an entity concerned, means an investment of 10% or more in the common shares, or other instruments that qualify as capital, of the entity concerned. investment includes a direct, indirect and synthetic holding of capital instruments.
4.28. Adjustments to CET1 Capital
(1) Form of adjustments: Adjustments to CET 1 Capital must be made in accordance with this rule. Regulatory adjustments are generally in the form of deductions, but they may also be in the form of recognition or derecognition of items in the calculation of a Bank’s capital.
(2) Goodwill and intangible assets: A Bank must deduct from CET 1 the amount of its goodwill and all other intangible assets (except mortgage servicing rights). The amount must be net of any related deferred tax liability that would be extinguished if the goodwill or assets become impaired or derecognised under IFRS or any other relevant accounting standards.
(3) Deferred tax assets:
- (a) A Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the amount of deferred tax assets (except those that relate to temporary differences) that depend on the future profitability of the Bank.
- (b) A deferred tax asset may be netted with a deferred tax liability only if the asset and liability relate to taxes levied by the same taxation authority and offsetting is explicitly permitted by that authority. A deferred tax liability must not be used for netting if it has already been netted against a deduction of goodwill, other intangible assets or defined benefit pension assets.
(4) Cash flow hedge reserve: In the calculation of CET 1 Capital, a Bank must derecognise the amount of the cash flow hedge reserve that relates to the hedging of items that are not fair valued on the balance sheet (including projected cash flows).
(5) Cumulative gains and losses from changes to own Credit Risk: In the calculation of CET 1 Capital, a Bank must not take into account any unrealised gains and unrealised losses that have resulted from changes in the fair value of liabilities that are due to changes in the Bank’s own Credit Risk.
(6) Defined benefit pension fund assets:
- (a) A Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the amount of a defined benefit pension fund that is an asset on the Bank’s balance sheet. The amount must be net of any related deferred tax liability that would be extinguished if the asset becomes impaired or derecognised under IFRS or any other relevant accounting standards.
- (b) The Bank may apply to the AFSA for approval to offset from the deduction any asset in the defined benefit pension fund to which the Bank has unrestricted and unfettered access. Such an asset must be assigned the risk-weight that would be assigned if it were owned directly by the Bank.
(7) Securitisation gains on sale: In the calculation of CET 1 capital, a Bank must derecognise any increase in equity capital or CET 1 capital from a securitisation transaction (for example, an increase associated with expected future margin income resulting in a gain-on- sale).
(8) Higher capital imposed on overseas branch
- (a) If a Bank has an overseas branch, the Bank must deduct from CET 1 capital whichever is the higher of any capital requirement imposed by the AFSA or the financial regulator in the jurisdiction in which the branch is located.
- (b) This rule does not apply if the overseas branch is a consolidated entity of the Bank. A branch is a consolidated entity if it is included in the Bank’s consolidated returns.
- (c) Despite sub-rule (b) above, if the financial regulator in the jurisdiction in which a branch is located imposes a capital requirement for the foreign branch, a Bank must deduct from CET 1 capital the amount of any shortfall between the actual capital held by the foreign branch and that capital requirement.
(9) Assets lodged or pledged to secure liabilities
- (a) A Bank must deduct from CET 1 capital the amount of any assets lodged or pledged by the Bank if:
- (i) the assets were lodged or pledged to secure liabilities incurred by the Bank; and
- (ii) the assets are not available to meet the liabilities of the Bank.
- (b) The AFSA may determine that, in the circumstances, the amount of assets lodged or pledged need not be deducted from the Bank’s CET 1 capital. The determination must be in writing.
(10) Acknowledgments of debt
- (a) A Bank must deduct from CET 1 capital the net present value of an acknowledgement of debt outstanding issued by it to directly or indirectly fund instruments that qualify as CET 1 capital.
- (b) This rule does not apply if the acknowledgement is subordinated in rank similar to that of instruments that qualify as CET 1 capital.
(11) Accumulated losses: A Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the amount of any accumulated losses.
4.29. Deductions from Regulatory Capital
(1) Deductions using corresponding deduction approach:
- (a) The deductions that must be made from CET 1 capital, AT 1 capital or T2 capital under the corresponding deduction approach are set out in the sub-rules (2) to (7) of this rule. A Bank must examine its holdings of index securities and identify any underlying exposures to its own CET1, AT1 or T2 capital instruments in those index securities to determine whether an deductions are required as a result of such indirect holdings.
- (b) Deductions must be made from the same Tier for which the capital would qualify if it were issued by the Bank itself or, if there is not enough capital at that category, from the next higher category.
- (c) The corresponding deduction approach applies regardless of whether the positions or exposures are held in the Banking Book or Trading Book. Note If the amount of T2 capital is insufficient to cover the amount of deductions required to be made from T2 capital, the shortfall must be deducted from AT1 capital and, if AT1 capital is still insufficient, the remaining amount must be deducted from CET 1 capital.
(2) Investments in own shares and capital instruments
- (a) A Bank must deduct direct or indirect investments in its own common shares or own capital instruments (except those that have been derecognised under IFRS). The Bank must also deduct any of its own common shares or instruments that it is contractually obliged to purchase.
- (b) The gross long positions may be deducted net of short positions in the same underlying exposure only if the short positions involve no counterparty risk. However, gross long positions in its own shares resulting from holdings of index securities may be netted against short positions in its own shares resulting from short positions in the same underlying index, even if those short positions involve counterparty risk.
(3) Reciprocal cross holdings: A Bank must deduct reciprocal cross holdings in shares, or other instruments that qualify as capital, of an entity concerned.
(4) Non-significant investments—where the Bank does not own more than 10% of issued common equity of the entity
- (a) This rule applies if:
- (i) a Bank makes a non-significant investment in an entity concerned;
- (ii) the entity concerned is an unconsolidated entity (that is, the entity is not one that is included in the firm’s consolidated returns);
- (iii) the Bank does not own more than 10% of the common shares of the entity concerned; and
- (iv) after applying all other regulatory adjustments, the total of the deductions required to be made under this rule is less than 10% of the Bank’s CET 1 capital.
- (b) A Bank must deduct any investments in common shares, or other instruments that qualify as capital, of an entity concerned.
- (c) The amount to be deducted is the net long position (that is, the gross long position net of short positions in the same underlying exposure if the maturity of the short position either matches the maturity of the long position or has a residual maturity of at least 1 year).
- (d) Underwriting positions held for more than 5 business days must also be deducted.
- (e) If a capital instrument is required to be deducted and it is not possible to determine whether it should be deducted from CET 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital, the deduction must be made from CET 1 capital.
(5) Non-significant investments—aggregate is 10% or more of Bank’s CET 1 capital
- (a) This rule applies if, after applying all other regulatory adjustments, the total of the deductions required to be made under Rule 4.29 (4) is 10% or more of the Bank’s CET 1 Capital.
- (b) A Bank must deduct the amount by which the total of the deductions required to be made under Rule 4.29 (4) exceeds 10% of the Bank’s CET 1 Capital. This amount to be deducted is referred to as the excess.
- (c) How much of the excess gets to be deducted from each category of regulatory capital under the corresponding deduction approach is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
where:
A is the amount of CET 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital of the Bank, as the case may be;
B is the total capital holdings of the Bank.
(6) Significant investments
- (a) This rule applies if:
- (i) a Bank makes a significant investment in an entity concerned;
- (ii) the entity concerned is an unconsolidated entity (that is, the entity is not one that is included in the Bank’s consolidated returns); and
- (iii) the Bank owns 10% or more of the common shares of the entity concerned.
- (b) A Bank must deduct the total amount of investments in the entity concerned (other than investments in common shares, or other instruments that qualify as CET 1 capital, of the entity).
- (c) The amount to be deducted is the net long position (that is, the gross long position net of short positions in the same underlying exposure if the maturity of the short position either matches the maturity of the long position or has a residual maturity of at least 1 year).
- (d) Underwriting positions held for more than 5 business days must also be deducted.
- (e) If a capital instrument is required to be deducted and it is not possible to determine whether it should be deducted from CET 1 capital, AT1 capital or T2 capital, the deduction must be made from CET 1 capital.
(7) Banks may use estimates or exclude deductions
- (a) If it is impractical for a Bank to examine and monitor the Bank’s exposures to the capital of entities concerned (including through holdings of indexed securities), the Bank may apply to the AFSA for approval to use an estimate of such exposures. The AFSA will grant such an approval only after the Bank satisfies the AFSA that the estimate is conservative, wellfounded and reasonable.
- (b) A Bank may also apply to the AFSA for approval not to deduct an investment made to resolve, or provide financial assistance to reorganise, a distressed entity.
4.30. Deductions from CET1 Capital
(1) In addition to the other deductions to CET 1 Capital under this Chapter, deductions may be required to CET 1 Capital under the threshold deduction rule.
(2) The threshold deduction rule provides recognition for particular assets that are considered to have some limited capacity to absorb losses. The following items come within the threshold deduction rule:
- (a) significant investments in the common shares, or other instruments that qualify as CET 1 Capital, of an unconsolidated entity concerned;
- (b) mortgage servicing rights;
- (c) deferred tax assets that relate to temporary differences (for example, allowance for credit losses).
(3) Instead of full deduction, the items that come within the threshold deduction rule receive limited recognition when calculating CET 1 Capital. The total of each of the items in sub-rule (2) do not require adjustment from CET 1 Capital and are risk-weighted at 300% (for items listed on a regulated exchange) or 400% (for items not so listed) provided that:
- (a) each item is no more than 10% of the Bank’s CET 1 Capital (net of all regulatory adjustments except those under this Subdivision); or
- (b) in total, the 3 items are no more than 15% of the Bank’s CET 1 Capital (net of all regulatory adjustments except those under this Subdivision).
(4) A Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital any amount in excess of the threshold in sub-rule (3) (a) or (b) above.
Section 4E Capital Buffers
4.31. Capital Conservation Buffer
(1) A Bank whose risk-based capital requirement is higher than its base capital requirement must maintain a minimum Capital Conservation Buffer of:
- (a) 2.5% of the Bank’s total risk-weighted assets; or
- (b) a higher amount that the AFSA may, by written notice, set from time to time.
(2) A Bank’s capital conservation buffer must be made up of CET 1 Capital above the amounts used to meet the Bank’s CET 1 Capital ratio, T1 Capital ratio and Total Capital ratio in Rule 4.12.
4.32. Capital conservation ratios
(1) If a Bank’s capital conservation buffer falls below the required minimum, the Bank must immediately conserve its capital by restricting its distributions.
(2) This rule sets out, in column 3 of table 4A below, the minimum capital conservation ratios for Banks that are required to maintain a capital conservation buffer. Capital conservation ratio is the percentage of earnings that a Bank must not distribute if its CET 1 capital ratio falls within the corresponding ratio in column 2 of that table.
(3) A Bank must have adequate systems and controls to ensure that the amount of distributable profits and maximum distributable amount are calculated accurately. The Bank must be able to demonstrate that accuracy if directed by the AFSA.
(4) If the Bank is a member of a financial group, the capital conservation buffer applies at group level
Table 4A Minimum capital conservation ratios
column 1 item | column 2CET1 capital ratio | column 3capital conservation ratio (% of earnings) |
1 | 4.5% to 5.125% | 100 |
2 | ≥5.125% to 5.75% | 80 |
3 | ≥5.75% to 6.375% | 60 |
4 | ≥6.375% to 7.0% | 40 |
5 | >7% | 0 |
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4.33. Powers of the AFSA
(1) The AFSA may impose a restriction on capital distributions by a Bank even if the amount of the Bank’s CET 1 Capital is greater than its CET 1 Capital ratio and required capital conservation buffer.
(2) The AFSA may, by written notice, impose a limit on the period during which a Bank may operate within a specified capital conservation ratio.
(3) A Bank may apply to the AFSA to make a distribution in excess of a limit imposed by this Chapter. The AFSA will grant approval only if it is satisfied that the Bank has appropriate measures to raise capital equal to, or greater than, the amount the Bank wishes to distribute above the limit.
4.34. Capital reductions
(1) A Bank must not reduce its capital and reserves without the AFSA’s written approval.
(2) A Bank planning a reduction must prepare a forecast (for at least 2 years) showing its projected capital after the reduction. The Bank must satisfy the AFSA that the Bank’s capital will still comply with these rules after the reduction.
4.35. The AFSA can require other matters
Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may require a Bank to have capital resources, comply with any other capital requirement or use a different approach to, or method for, capital management. The AFSA may also require a Bank to carry out stress- testing at any time.
Section 4F Leverage Ratio
4.36. Application
The rules in this section apply only to Authorised Firms licensed by the AFSA to conduct the Regulated Activities of “Accepting Deposits” or “Providing Credit”.
4.37. Calculation of Leverage Ratio
(1) A Bank must calculate its Leverage Ratio in accordance with the following formula:
Where:
- (a) “Capital Measure” represents T1 Capital of the Bank calculated in accordance with Rule 4.13; and
- (b) “Exposure Measure” represents the value of exposures of the Bank calculated in accordance with (2) of this rule.
(2) For the purpose of determining the Exposure Measure, the value of exposures of a Bank must be calculated in accordance with the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) subject to the following adjustments:
- (a) on-balance sheet, non-derivative exposures must be net of specific allowances and valuation adjustments (e.g. credit valuation adjustments);
- (b) physical or financial collateral, guarantees or Credit Risk mitigation purchased must not be used to reduce on-balance sheet exposures; and
- (c) loans must not be netted with deposits. Note Detailed guidance specifying the methodologies, parameters and formulae for calculating the Leverage Ratio are set out in Section D of Chapter 4 of the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA.
CHAPTER 5. Credit Risk and Concentration Risk
Part I. Credit Risk
Introduction
Guidance
(1) This chapter sets out the regulatory requirements in respect of managing the Credit Risk exposures of a Bank. Credit Risk refers to the risk of incurring losses due to failure on the part of a borrower or a counterparty to fulfil their obligations in respect of a financial transaction. This chapter aims to ensure that a Bank holds sufficient regulatory capital of a quality, acceptable to the AFSA, so that it can absorb unexpected losses arising out of its Credit Risk exposures, should the need arise and continue to operate in a sustainable manner.
(2) This chapter requires a Bank to:
- (a) implement a comprehensive Credit Risk management framework to manage, measure and monitor Credit Risk commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations;
- (b) calculate the Credit Risk Capital Requirement for its on-balance sheet and off- balance sheet credit exposures after adjusting for applicable levels of Credit Risk mitigation, according to the norms, methodologies, standards and guidance provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA;
- (c) implement a sound framework for managing concentration risk and large exposures, including limits for concentration of such exposures to individual and group borrowers.
(3) This Chapter also deals with the following elements of determination of regulatory capital requirements to support a Bank’s Credit Risk exposures:
- (a) the risk-weighted assets approach;
- (b) Credit Risk Mitigation (CRM) techniques;
- (c) provisioning requirements for impaired assets of the Bank.
(4) To guard against abuses and to address conflicts of interest, this Chapter requires transactions with related parties to be at arm’s length.
(5) The detailed requirements specifying the calculation methodologies, parameters, metrics and formulae in respect of the primary Credit Risk management and Credit Risk capital requirements outlined in this Chapter are provided in the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. The BPG also provides detailed guidance on calculation methodologies, formulae, parameters and norms involved in calculation of Credit Risk capital requirements which is an element used to calculate the capital ratios for a Bank, as set out in Chapter 4 of BBR. It is suggested that this Chapter of the BBR, be read in conjunction with Chapter 5 of the BPG issued by the AFSA to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
5.1. Credit Risk Management – Systems and Controls
(1) A Bank must implement and maintain comprehensive Credit Risk management systems and controls which:
- (a) are appropriate to the Bank’s type, scope, complexity and scale of operations;
- (b) enable the Bank to effectively identify, assess, monitor, mitigate and control Credit Risk and to ensure that adequate Capital is available to support the Credit Risk exposures assumed; and
- (c) ensure effective implementation of the Credit Risk strategy and policy.
(2) A Bank must:
- (a) identify, assess, monitor, mitigate and, control its Credit Risk; and
- (b) implement and maintain a prudent Credit Risk management policy which enables it to identify, assess, monitor, control and mitigate its Credit Risk.
(3) The Credit Risk management policy must:
- (a) be documented and approved by its governing body;
- (b) include the Bank’s risk appetite for Credit Risk;
- (c) be appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its activities and for its risk profile;
- (d) must establish procedures, systems, processes, controls and approaches to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate its Credit Risk and to ensure the integrity of its Credit Risk management;
- (e) must set out the organizational structure, and must define the responsibilities and roles, for managing Credit Risk;
- (f) ensure that its risk management framework including but not limited to tools, methodologies and, systems enable it to implement its Credit Risk management policy; and
- (g) be reviewed and updated at a reasonable frequency, but at least on an annual basis.
(4) A Bank’s Credit Risk management policy must establish:
- (a) a well-documented and effectively-implemented process for assuming Credit Risk that does not rely unduly on external credit assessments;
- (b) well-defined criteria for approving credit (including prudent underwriting standards), and renewing, refinancing and restructuringexisting credit;
- (c) a process for identifying the approving authority for credit, given its size and complexity;
- (d) effective Credit Risk administration, including:
- (i) regular analysis of counterparties’ ability and willingness to repay; and
(ii) monitoring of documents, legal covenants, contractual requirements, and collateral and other Credit Risk Mitigation techniques;
- (e) effective systems for the accurate and timely identification, measurement, evaluation, management and control or mitigation of Credit Risk, and reporting to the Bank’s Governing Body and senior management;
- (f) prudent and appropriate credit limits that are consistent with the Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and capital;
- (g) provide for process and criteria for identification and recognition of problem assets as well as systems for measurement and reporting of problem assets;
- (h) the criteria and responsibility for Credit Risk reporting, and the scope, manner and frequency of reporting, to the Governing Body or a committee of the governing body;
- (i) establish, and must provide for the regular review of, the Bank’s Credit Risk tolerance and credit exposure limits to control credit exposures of the Bank;
- (j) procedures for tracking and reporting exceptions to credit limits and deviations from Credit Risk management policies; and
- (k) effective controls for the quality, reliability and relevance of data and validation procedures. Note Guidance in respect of the contents of a Bank’s Credit Risk management policy which is required to satisfy the regulatory requirement in the Rule 5.1 is provided in Chapter 5 of the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(5) A Bank’s Credit Risk management policy must ensure that credit decisions are free of conflicts of interest and are made on an arm’s-length basis. In particular, the credit approval and credit review functions must be independent of the credit initiation function.
(6) A Bank’s Credit Risk management policy must provide for monitoring the total indebtedness of each counterparty and any risk factors that might result in default (including any significant unhedged foreign exchange risk).
(7) A Bank must give the AFSA full access to information about its credit portfolio. The Bank must also give the AFSA access to staff involved in assuming, managing, controlling and reporting on Credit Risk.
(8) The Credit Risk management policy must enable the Bank to carry out stress-tests on its credit portfolio at intervals appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the Bank’s business and using various scenarios based on appropriate assumptions. The policy must take into account the Bank’s Credit Risk profile (including on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet exposures) and tolerance in the context of the markets and macroeconomic conditions in which the Bank operates. The Bank’s Credit Risk stress testing must include procedures to make any changes to its Credit Risk management framework based on the results from the stress testing. Note Guidance in respect of a Bank’s policies for Credit Risk assessment which is required to satisfy the regulatory requirement in the Rule 5.1 is provided in paragraphs 10 and 11 of Chapter 5 of the BPG issued by the AFSA.
5.2. Role of Governing Body—Credit Risk
(1) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that its Credit Risk management policy enables it to obtain a comprehensive bank-wide view of its Credit Risk exposures and covers the full credit lifecycle including credit underwriting, credit evaluation, and the Credit Risk management of the Bank’s trading activities.
(2) A Bank must ensure that its Governing Body is responsible for monitoring the nature and level of Credit Risk assumed by it and for monitoring the Credit Risk management process.
(3) The Governing Body of the Bank must also ensure that:
- (a) an appropriate senior management structure with clearly defined responsibilities and roles for Credit Risk management and for compliance with the Bank’s Risk strategy, is established and maintained;
- (b) the Credit Risk management framework is consistent with the Bank’s risk profile and its systemic importance.
- (c) the Bank’s senior management and other relevant staff have the necessary experience to manage Credit Risk and to effectively implement the Credit Risk management policy;
- (d) appropriate Credit limits covering Credit Risk management in both day-to-day and stressed conditions are set;
- (e) stress-tests, funding strategies, contingency funding plans and holdings of high-quality liquid assets are effective and appropriate for the Bank;
- (f) the Bank’s senior management:
(i) develops a Credit Risk management policy in accordance with the Bank’s Credit Risk tolerance;
(ii) monitors the Bank’s Credit Risk profile and reports to the Governing Body regularly;
(iii) determines, and sets out in the Bank’s Credit Risk management policy, the structure, responsibilities and controls for managing Credit Risk and for overseeing the Credit Risk of all legal entities, branches and subsidiaries in the jurisdictions in which the Bank is active; and
(iv) monitors trends and market developments that could present significant, unprecedented or complex challenges for managing Credit Risk so that appropriate and timely changes to the Credit Risk management policy can be made.
(4) The Governing Body must regularly review reports on the Bank’s Credit Risk profile and portfolio returns and, where necessary, information on new or emerging problem assets. The Governing Body of the Bank must also review the Credit Risk tolerance and strategy at least on an annual basis.
(5) The Governing Body must approve:
- (a) the Bank’s Credit Risk management policy; and
- (b) its Credit Risk tolerance and risk strategy.
5.3. Classification of Credit exposures
(1) Unless a Bank has established something more detailed, the Bank must classify credits into 1 of the 5 categories in table 5A. Nothing in the table prevents a Bank from classifying a credit under a higher risk category than the table requires.
(2) Unless there is good reason not to do so, the same category must be given to all credit exposures to the same counterparty.
Column 1 Item |
Column 2 Category |
Column 3Description |
1 |
performing |
In this category, there is no uncertainty about timely repayment of the outstanding amounts. This category comprises credits that are currently in regular payment status with prompt payments. |
2 |
special mention |
This category comprises:credits with deteriorating or potentially deteriorating credit quality that may adversely affect the counterparty’s ability to make scheduled payments on time;credits that are 30 to 90 days in arrears;credits showing weakness arising from the customer’s financial position;credits affected by market circumstances or any other industry- related concerns; andcredits that have been restructured and are not classified into a higher risk category. |
3 |
substandard |
This category comprises:credits that show definite deterioration in credit quality and impaired repayment ability of the counterparty; andcredits that are 91 to 180 days in arrears. |
4 |
doubtful |
This category comprises:credits that show significant credit quality deterioration, worse than those in the substandard category, to the extent that the prospect of full recovery of all the outstanding amounts is questionable and the probability of a credit loss is high (though the exact amount of loss cannot be determined yet); andcredits that are 181 to 270 days in arrears. |
5 |
loss |
This category comprises:credits that are assessed as uncollectable;credits where the probability of recovering the amount due is very low; andcredits that are more than 270 days in arrears. |
_
5.4. Problem Assets and Impaired Assets
(1) A Bank’s Credit Risk management policy must facilitate the Bank’s collection of past-due obligations, and its management of problem assets through:
- (a) monitoring of their credit quality;
- (b) early identification and ongoing oversight; and
- (c) review of their classification, provisioning and write-offs.
(2) The refinancing of a special mention or impaired credit must not be used to reclassify the credit to a more favourable category.
(3) The AFSA may require a special mention credit to be managed individually, and may set a higher level of provision for the credit, if the AFSA is of the view that market circumstances or any other industry-related concerns require such action.
5.5. Using ratings from External Credit Rating Agencies (ECRAs)
(1) A Bank must use only a solicited Credit Risk rating determined by an ECRA in determining the riskweights for the Bank’s exposures. The Bank must use the ratings determined by an ECRA consistently and in accordance with these rules and its Credit Risk management policy.
(2) If there is only one assessment by an ECRA for a particular claim or asset, that assessment must be used to determine the risk-weight of the claim or asset. If there are two assessments by ECRAs and the assessments map into different risk weights, the higher risk-weight must be applied. If there are three or more assessments with different risk weights, the assessments corresponding to the two lowest risk-weights should be referred to, and the higher of those two risk-weights must be applied.
(3) If a Bank invests in an instrument with an issue-specific rating, the risk-weight to be applied to the instrument must be based on that rating.
(4) If the Bank invests in an unrated instrument and the issuer of the instrument is assigned a rating that results in a lower risk-weight than the risk-weight normally applied to an unrated position, the Bank may apply the lower risk-weight to the instrument but only if the claim for the instrument has the same priority as, or is senior to, the claims to which the issuer rating relates. If the instrument is junior to the claims to which the issuer rating relates, the Bank must apply the risk-weight normally applied to an unrated position.
(5) If the Bank invests in an unrated instrument and the issuer of the instrument is assigned a rating that results in a higher risk-weight than the risk-weight normally applied to an unrated position, the Bank must apply the higher risk-weight to the instrument if the claim for that instrument has the same priority as, or is junior to, the claims to which the issuer rating relates.
(6) A Bank must not use a Credit Risk rating for one entity in a Financial Group to determine the riskweight for an unrated entity in the same Financial Group. If the rated entity has guaranteed the unrated entity’s exposure to the Bank, the guarantee may be recognised for risk- weighting purposes if it satisfies the criteria set out in this Chapter on Guarantees.
(7) If an issuer rating is assigned to a counterparty and a Bank applies a risk-weight to an unrated position based on the rating of anequivalent exposure to the same counterparty:
- (a) the Bank must use that counterparty’s domestic-currency rating for any exposure denominated in the currency of the counterparty’s place of residence or incorporation; and
- (b) the Bank must use that counterparty’s foreign-currency rating for any exposure denominated in a foreign currency.
(8) A short-term Credit Risk rating must be used only for short-term claims relating to banks and corporations (such as those arising from the issuance of commercial paper). The rating is taken to be issue-specific and must be used only to assign risk-weights for claims arising from a rated facility.
(9) If a short-term rated exposure is assigned a risk-weight of 50%, an unrated short-term exposure to the same counterparty cannot be assigned a risk-weight lower than 100%. If a short-term facility of an issuer is assigned a risk-weight of 150% based on the facility’s Credit Risk rating, all unrated claims of the issuer (whether long-term or short-term) must be assigned a risk-weight of 150%.
5.6. Calculation of Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs)
(1) A Bank must apply risk-weights to all of its on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet asset items using the Risk-Weighted Assets method, defined in this Rule.
(2) If a claim or asset to which a risk-weight must be applied by a Bank is secured by eligible financial collateral or a guarantee (or there is mortgage indemnity insurance, or a credit derivative instrument or netting agreement), the Credit Risk Mitigation techniques allowed in this Chapter may be used to reduce the Bank’s Credit Risk capital requirement.
(3) A Bank must not rely only on a rating determined by an ECRA to assess the risks associated with an exposure. The Bank must also carry out its own Credit Risk assessment of each exposure (rated or unrated) to determine whether the risk-weights applied to each of them are appropriate. The determination must be based on each exposure’s inherent risk.
(4) If there are reasonable grounds to believe that the inherent risk of an exposure is significantly higher than that implied by the risk weight assigned to it, the Bank must consider the higher risk (and apply a higher risk-weight) in calculating the Credit Risk capital requirement.
(5) A Bank must take into account all commitments in calculating its Credit Risk capital requirement, whether or not those commitments contain material adverse change clauses or other provisions that are intended to relieve the Bank of its obligations under particular conditions.
(6) Notwithstanding the provisions of these rules, the AFSA may determine the risk-weighted amount of a particular on-balance-sheet or off-balance-sheet Exposure of a Bank, if the AFSA considers that the Bank has not risk-weighted the Exposure appropriately. Such a determination must be issued by the AFSA, in writing.
(7) The AFSA may also impose specific capital requirements or limits on significant risk exposures, including those that the AFSA considers have not been adequately transferred or mitigated.
5.7. Calculation of RWAs – for On-Balance Sheet Exposures
(1) A Bank’s total RWAs for its on-balance-sheet items must be calculated as the sum of the riskweighted amounts of each of its on balance-sheet items.
(2) The RWA of an on-balance-sheet item must be calculated by multiplying its exposure (after taking into account any applicable Credit Risk Mitigation) by the applicable risk-weight in table 5B.
(3) If column 3 of table 5B states that the risk weight is “based on ECRA rating” for a particular asset, the applicable risk-weight for that asset item must be derived from the table 5C. If a claim or asset’s risk-weight is to be based on the ECRA rating and there is no such rating from an ECRA, the Bank must apply the risk-weight in the last column of table 5C.
Table 5B Risk-weights for on-balance-sheet items
Column 1 Item | Column 2 Description of Assets or Items | Column 3 Risk-Weight (%) |
1 | cash | |
(a) notes, gold bullion | 0 | |
(b) cash items in the process of collection | 20 | |
2 | claims on sovereigns | 0 |
(a) claims on Kazakhstan including National Bank of Kazakhstan | 0 | |
(b) claims on other sovereigns including respective central banks | based on ECRA rating | |
3 | claims on public sector enterprises: | |
(a) claims on non-commercial public sector enterprises in Kazakhstan | 0 | |
(b) claims on other sovereign non- commercial public sector enterprises | based on ECRA rating | |
(c) claims on commercial public sector enterprises | based on ECRA rating | |
4 | claims on multilateral development banks: | |
(a) claims on multilateral development banks eligible for 0% risk-weight | 0 | |
(b) claims on other multilateral development banks | based on ECRA rating | |
5 | claims on banks (financial undertakings) | |
(a) claims on banks with an original maturity of more than 3 months | based on ECRA rating | |
(b) claims on banks with an original maturity of 3 months or less | based on ECRA rating | |
6 | claims on securities and investment entities | |
(a) claims on securities and investment entities that are subject to capital requirements similar to banks | based on ECRA rating | |
(b) claims on securities and investment entities that are not subject to capital requirements similar to banks | based on ECRA rating | |
7 | claims on corporates | based on ECRA rating |
8 | claims on small and medium enterprises | 100 |
9 | claims on securitisation exposures | based on ECRA rating |
10 | claims secured against mortgages | |
(a) residential mortgages | ||
(i) if the loan-to-value ratio is 0% to 80% | 35 | |
(ii) if the loan-to-value ratio is more than 80% but less than 100% | 75 | |
(iii) if the loan-to-value ratio is 100% or more | 100 | |
(b) commercial mortgages | 100 | |
11 | Unsettled and failed transactions— delivery-versus-payment transactions: | |
(a) 5 to 15 days | 100 | |
(b) 16 to 30 days | 625 | |
(c) 31 to 45 days | 937.5 | |
(d) 46 or more days | 1250 | |
12 | Unsettled and failed transactions—non-delivery-versus-payment transactions | 100 |
13 | Investments in funds | |
(a) rated funds | based on ECRA rating | |
(b) unrated funds that are listed | 100 | |
(c) unrated funds that are unlisted | 150 | |
14 | Equity exposures | |
(a) equity exposures that are not deducted from capital and are listed on a regulated exchange | 300 | |
(b) equity exposures that are not deducted from capital and are not listed on a regulated exchange | 400 | |
15 | Investment property | 150 |
16 | all other items | 100 |
Table 5C Risk-weights based on ratings determined by ECRAs
Note In table 5C, the ratings are shown according to Standard & Poor’s conventions. If a claim or asset is not rated by Standard & Poor’s, its rating must be mapped to the equivalent Standard & Poor’s rating.
item | description of claim or asset | AAA to AA- | A+ to A- | BBB+ to BBB- | BB+ to BB- | B+ to B- | below B- | unrated |
1 | claims on other sovereigns including central bank | 0 | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 100 |
2 | claims on other sovereign non- commercial public sector enterprises - | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 100 |
3 | claims on commercial public sector enterprises | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 100 |
4 | claims on multilateral development banks not eligible for 0% risk- weight | 20 | 50 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 50 |
5 | claims on banks with an original maturity of more than 3 months | 20 | 50 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 50 |
6 | claims on banks with an original maturity of 3 months or less | 20 | 20 | 20 | 50 | 50 | 150 | 20 |
7 | claims on securities and investment entities that are subject to capital requirements similar to banks | 20 | 50 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 50 |
8 | claims on securities and investment entities that are not subject to capital requirements similar to banks | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | 100 |
9 | claims on corporates | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | 100 |
10 | securitisation exposures | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | 250 | 150 |
11 | investments in rated funds | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | n/a |
5.8. Specialised lending
A specialised lending exposure is risk-weighted one rating less favourable than the rating that would apply, under table 5C, to the counterparty to the transaction (or to the party to whom that counterparty has the right of recourse).
5.9. Risk-weights for unsecured part of claim that is past due for more than 90 days
(1) The risk-weight for the unsecured part of a claim (other than a claim secured by an eligible residential mortgage) that is past due for more than 90 days is:
- (a) 150% if the specific provisions are less than 20% of the past due claim;
- (b) 100% if the specific provisions are 20% or more, but less than 50%, of the past due claim; or
- (c) 50% if the specific provisions are 50% or more of the past due claim.
(2) The risk-weight for the unsecured part of a claim secured by an eligible residential mortgage that is past due for more than 90 days is:
- (a) 100% if the specific provisions are less than 20% of the past due claim; or
- (b) 50% if the specific provisions are 20% or more of the past due claim.
5.10. Calculation of RWAs – for Off-Balance Sheet Exposures
(1) A Bank’s total risk-weighted off-balance-sheet items is the sum of the risk-weighted amounts of its market-related and non- market-related off-balance-sheet items. An off-balance-sheet item must be converted to a credit equivalent amount before it can be risk- weighted.
(2) The risk-weighted amount of an off-balance-sheet item is calculated using the following steps in the same sequence:
- (a) convert the notional principal amount of the item to its on-balance-sheet equivalent (credit equivalent amount).
- (b) multiply the resulting credit equivalent amount by the risk-weight in table 5B or 5C, as applicable to the claim or asset.
(3) A Bank must include derivatives and all market-related off-balance-sheet items (including onbalance-sheet unrealised gains on market-related off-balance-sheet items) in calculating its riskweighted credit exposures. A market-related item must be valued at its current market price.
5.11. Credit equivalent amounts for market-related items
(1) A Bank must calculate the credit equivalent amount of each of its market-related items. Unless the item is covered by an eligible netting agreement, the credit equivalent amount of a market- related off-balance-sheet item is the sum of the current credit exposure and the potential future credit exposure from the item.
(2) The procedure, formula and the credit conversion factors for this rule are provided in Section E (14) of Chapter 5 of the BPG.
(3) Potential future credit exposure must be based on an effective, rather than an apparent, notional principal amount. If the stated notional principal amount of an item is leveraged or enhanced by the structure of the item, the Bank must use the effective notional principal amount in calculating the potential future credit exposure. No potential future credit exposure is calculated for a singlecurrency floating/floating interest rate swap. The credit exposure from such an interest rate swap must be based on mark-to-market values.
5.12. Calculation of credit equivalent amounts
(1) Credit conversion factors for items with terms subject to reset: In case of an item structured to settle outstanding exposures after specified payment dates on which the terms are reset (that is, the mark- to-market value of the item becomes zero on the specified dates), the period up to the next reset date must be taken as the item’s residual maturity. For an interest rate item of that kind that is taken to have a residual maturity of more than 1 year, the credit conversion factor to be applied must not be less than 0.5% even if there are reset dates of a shorter maturity. For an item with 2 or more exchanges of principal, the credit conversion factor must be multiplied by the number of remaining exchanges under the item.
(2) The procedure, formula and the credit conversion factors for the calculation of risk-weighted assets for single-name swaps are detailed in Section E (15) of Chapter 5 of the BPG.
(3) A Bank must calculate the credit equivalent amount of each of its non-market-related items. The procedure, formula and the credit conversion factors for the calculation of risk-weighted assets for single-name swaps are detailed in Section E (16) of Chapter 5 of the BPG.
(4) In calculating the credit equivalent amount of a non-market-related off- balance-sheet item that is an undrawn (or partly drawn) commitment, a Bank must use the undrawn amount of the commitment.
(5) For an irrevocable commitment to provide an off-balance-sheet facility, the original maturity must be taken to be the period from the commencement of the commitment until the associated facility expires.
5.13. Policies—foreign exchange rollovers
(1) A Bank must have policies for entering into and monitoring rollovers on foreign exchange transactions and the policies must restrict the Bank’s capacity to enter into such rollovers. The Bank must notify the AFSA if it enters into a rollover in breach of its policy. Such rollovers must be approved by the Governing Body of the Bank. The AFSA may direct how the rollover is to be treated for capital adequacy purposes.
(2) A Bank should have systems and controls to identify, monitor, control and report off-market transactions.
(3) A Bank must not enter into a transaction at an off-market price, unless the transaction is a historical rate rollover on a foreign exchange transaction. A historical rate rollover on a foreign exchange transaction may be entered into at an off-market price (instead of current market price).
Credit Risk Mitigation
5.14 Requirements—Credit Risk Mitigation techniques
(1) A Bank’s Credit Risk management policy must set out the conditions under which Credit Risk Mitigation techniques may be used. The policy must enable the Bank to manage Credit Risk Mitigation techniques and the risks associated with their use.
(2) The Bank must analyse the protection given by Credit Risk Mitigation techniques to ensure that any residual Credit Risk is identified, measured, evaluated, managed and controlled or mitigated. If the Bank accepts collateral, its policy must state the types of collateral that it will accept, and the basis and procedures for valuing collateral.
(3) If the Bank uses netting agreements, it must have a netting policy that sets out its approach. The netting policy must provide for monitoring netting agreements and must enable the Bank to monitor and report netted transactions on both gross and net bases.
(4) To obtain capital relief, the Credit Risk Mitigation technique and every document giving effect to it must be binding on all parties and enforceable in all the relevant jurisdictions. A Bank must review the enforceability of a Credit Risk Mitigation technique that it uses. The Bank must have a wellfounded legal basis for any conclusion about enforceability and must carry out further reviews to ensure that the technique remains enforceable.
(5) The effects of a Credit Risk Mitigation technique must not be double-counted. The Bank is not allowed to obtain capital relief if:
- (a) the risk-weight for the claim or asset is based on an issue-specific rating; and
- (b) the ECRA that determined the rating had taken the technique into consideration in doing so.
5.15. Standard haircuts for Credit Risk Mitigation calculations
(1) A Bank must use the standard haircuts (expressed in percentages) set out in this rule in any calculation relating to Credit Risk mitigation. The haircuts are applied after risk mitigation to calculate adjusted exposures and are intended to take into account possible future price fluctuations.
(2) In table 5 D: other issuers include banks, corporates, and public sector enterprises that are not treated as sovereigns. sovereign includes a multilateral development bank, and a non- commercial public sector enterprise, that has a zero per cent risk-weight.
Table 5 D Haircuts for debt securities
column 1 item | column 2 credit rating for debt securities | column 3 residual maturity % | column 4 sovereigns % | column 5 other issuers % |
1 | AAA to AA-/A- 1 (long-term and short-term) | ≤1 year | 0.5 | 1 |
>1 year, ≤ 5 years | 2 | 4 | ||
> 5 years | 4 | 8 | ||
2 | A+ to BBB-/ A- 2/A-3/P-3 (long- term and short- term) and unrated bank securities that are eligible financial collateral | ≤1 year | 1 | 2 |
>1 year, ≤ 5 years | 3 | 6 | ||
> 5 years | 6 | 12 | ||
3 | BB+ to BB- (long-term) | All | 15 | Not applicable |
4 | securities issued by the Republic of Kazakhstan or the National Bank of Kazakhstan | ≤1 year | 1 | Not applicable |
>1 year, ≤5 years | 3 | Not applicable | ||
>5 years | 6 | Not applicable |
Note Table 5 D item 3, column 5: securities rated BB+ or below are eligible financial collateral only if issued by a sovereign or non commercial public sector enterprise—see Rule 5.17 (1) (c) (i).
Table 5 E Haircuts for other instruments
Column 1 item | Column 2 Description of assets | Column 3 Haircut (%) |
1 | main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold | 15 |
2 | other equities (including convertible bonds) listed on a regulated exchange | 25 |
3 | units in listed trusts, undertakings for collective investments in transferable securities (UCITS), mutual funds and tracker funds | highest haircut applicable to any security in which the entity can invest |
4 | cash collateral denominated in the same currency as the collateralised exposure | 0 |
(3) The procedure, formulas and the methods for the calculation of haircuts for Credit Risk Mitigation techniques with various types of currency mismatches are detailed in Section F (8 to 10) of Chapter 5 of the BPG.
5.16. Collateral
(1) A Bank is able to obtain capital relief by accepting collateral only if the collateral is eligible financial collateral. Collateral may be lodged by the counterparty of the Bank holding a credit exposure (or by a third party on behalf of the counterparty). If collateral is lodged by a third party, the third party must guarantee the counterparty’s obligation to the Bank and must indemnify the Bank if the counterparty fails to fulfil its obligation. The Bank must ensure that the guarantee does not fail for lack of consideration.
(2) The Bank must enter into a written agreement with the party lodging the collateral. The agreement must establish the Bank’s direct, explicit, irrevocable and unconditional recourse to the collateral. The mechanism by which collateral is lodged must allow the Bank to liquidate or take possession of the collateral in a timely way. The Bank must take all steps necessary to satisfy the legal requirements applicable to its interest in the collateral.
(3) There must not be a significant positive correlation between the value of the collateral and the credit quality of the borrower.
5.17. Eligible financial collateral
(1) The following are eligible financial collateral if they satisfy the criteria in sub-rule (2):
- (a) gold bullion;
- (b) cash;
- (c) debt securities that are assigned, by an ECRA, a rating of:
- (i) for sovereign or non-commercial public-sector enterprise securities that are eligible for zero per cent risk-weight—at least BB-;
- (ii) for short-term debt securities—at least A-3/P-3; or
- (iii) for any other securities—at least BBB-;
- (d) subject to sub-rule (3), debt securities that have not been assigned a rating by an ECRA if:
- (i) the securities are issued by a bank (in or outside the AIFC) as senior debt and are listed on a regulated exchange;
- (ii) all rated issues of the same seniority issued by the bank have a credit rating of at least BBB-(for long-term debt instruments) or A-3/P-3 (for short-term debt instruments); and
- (iii) the Bank and the holder of the collateral have no information suggesting that the securities should have a rating below BBB- or A-3/P-3;
- (e) equities (including convertible bonds) that are included in a main index;
- (f) tracker funds, mutual funds and undertakings for collective investments in transferable securities (UCITS) if:
- (i) a price for the units is publicly quoted daily; and
- (ii) the funds or UCITS are limited to investing in instruments listed in this sub-rule;
- (g) equities (including convertible bonds) that are not included in a main index but are listed on a regulated exchange, and funds and UCITS described in paragraph (f) that include such equities.
(2) For collateral to be eligible financial collateral, it must be lodged for at least the life of the exposure and must be marked-to-market at least once a month. The release of collateral must be conditional on the repayment of the exposure, but collateral may be reduced in proportion to the amount of any reduction in the exposure.
(3) Collateral in the form of securities issued by the counterparty or a person connected to the counterparty is not eligible financial collateral. Insurance contracts, put options, and forward sales contracts or agreements are not eligible financial collateral.
(4) Cash collateral, in relation to a credit exposure, means collateral in the form of:
- (a) notes and coins;
- (b) certificates of deposit, bank bills and similar instruments issued by the Bank holding the exposure; or
- (c) cash-funded credit-linked notes issued by a Bank against exposures in its Banking Book, if the notes satisfy the criterion for credit derivatives in Rule 5.19(2).
(5) Eligible financial collateral must be held by:
- (a) the Bank;
- (b) a branch (in or outside the AIFC) of the Bank;
- (c) an entity that is a member of the financial group of which the Bank is a member;
- (d) an independent custodian; or
- (e) a central counterparty.
(6) The holder of cash collateral in the form of a certificate of deposit or bank bill issued by a Bank must keep possession of the instrument while the collateralised exposure exists. If the collateral is held by an independent custodian or central counterparty, the Bank must take reasonable steps to ensure that the holder segregates the collateral from the holder’s own assets.
(7) If collateral is held by a branch of a Bank and the branch is outside the AIFC, the agreement between the Bank and the party lodging the collateral must require the branch to act in accordance with the agreement. Risk-weight for cash collateral
(8) A Bank may apply a zero per cent risk-weight to cash collateral if the collateral is held by the Bank itself. The Bank may apply a zero per cent risk-weight to cash collateral held by another member of the financial group of which the Bank is a member if the agreement between the Bank and the party lodging the collateral requires the holder of the collateral to act in accordance with the agreement.
(9) If cash collateral is held by a bank under a non-custodial arrangement, and the collateral is lodged with the Bank under an agreement that establishes the Bank’s irrevocable and unconditional recourse to the collateral, the exposure covered by the collateral (after any necessary haircuts for currency risk) may be assigned the risk-weight of the bank.
(10) If cash collateral is held by an independent custodian (other than a central counterparty), the riskweight of the holder of the collateral must be used. However, the Bank may apply a zero per cent risk-weight to notes and coins held by an independent custodian.
(11) The secured part of a claim must be risk-weighted at whichever is the higher of 20% or the riskweight applicable to the eligible financial collateral. However, a risk-weight lower than 20% may be applied to the secured part if Rule 5.17(12) applies. The unsecured part of the claim must be weighted at the risk-weight applicable to the original counterparty.
(12) A zero per cent risk-weight may be applied to a collateralised transaction if:
- (a) there is no currency mismatch; and
- (b) any one of the following applies:
- (i) the collateral is in the form of sovereign securities that are eligible for zero per cent risk-weight;
- (ii) the collateral is in the form of cash collateral on deposit with the Bank; or
- (iii) if the collateral is in the form of non-commercial public sector enterprise securities:
(A) the securities are eligible for zero per cent risk-weight; and
(B) the market value of the collateral has been discounted by 20%.
(13) A 0 % risk-weight may be applied to an OTC derivative transaction if there is no currency mismatch and the transaction is fully collateralised by cash and marked-to-market daily.
(14) A 10% risk-weight may be applied to an over the counter derivative transaction to the extent that the transaction is collateralised by sovereign or non-commercial public sector enterprise securities that are eligible for 0 % risk-weight.
5.18. Guarantees
(1) Capital relief is allowed from a guarantee if the guarantor is an eligible guarantor and the guarantee satisfies the criteria in sub-rules (2) to (4). Before accepting a guarantee, a Bank must consider the legal and financial ability of the guarantor to fulfil the guarantee.
(2) A guarantee must be a direct claim on the guarantor and must clearly state the extent of the cover. A letter of comfort is not a guarantee for the purposes of this Division.
(3) A guarantee must be irrevocable and unconditional. It must not include a term or condition:
- (a) that allows the guarantor to cancel it unilaterally; or
- (b) that increases the effective cost of cover if the credit quality of the guaranteed exposure deteriorates; or
- (c) that allows the guarantor not to indemnify the Bank in a timely way if the counterparty defaults.
(4) If a claim on a counterparty is secured by a guarantee, the part of the claim that is covered by the guarantee may be weighted at the risk- weight applicable to the guarantor. The unsecured part of the claim must be weighted at the risk-weight applicable to the original counterparty. Eligible guarantors
(5) Eligible guarantor means:
- (a) the Republic of Kazakhstan or any other sovereign;
- (b) an entity that is treated as a sovereign in accordance with the Basel Accords; or
- (c) a public sector enterprise or other entity that has:
- (i) a risk-weight of 20% or lower; and
- (ii) a lower risk-weight than the counterparty.
(6) A parent entity, Subsidiary or affiliate of a counterparty may be an eligible guarantor if it has a lower risk-weight than the counterparty.
5.19 Credit derivatives
(1) Capital relief is allowed if a Bank uses an eligible credit derivative. Each of the following is an eligible credit derivative if it satisfies sub-rule (2):
- (a) a single-name credit-default swap;
- (b) a total-rate-of-return swap for which the Bank has recorded any deterioration in the value of the underlying exposure, in addition to recording the net payments received on the swap as net income;
- (c) a cash-funded credit-linked note;
- (d) a first and second-to-default credit derivative basket product.
(2) The credit derivative must not include a term or condition that terminates the credit protection, or increases the Bank’s costs for the protection, if the credit quality of the underlying exposure deteriorates.
(3) If a claim on a counterparty is protected by a credit derivative, the part of the claim that is protected may be weighted at the risk weight applicable to the issuer of the credit derivative. The unprotected part of the claim must be weighted at the risk-weight applicable to the original counterparty.
5.20. Netting agreements
(1) A Bank is able to obtain capital relief from a netting agreement with a counterparty only if the agreement is an eligible netting agreement. A Bank that has entered into a netting agreement must consistently net all the transactions included in the agreement. The Bank must not selectively pick which transactions to net.
(2) The eligibility criteria, conditions for enforceability, procedures, and the methods for the use of netting agreements as a Credit Risk mitigant to avail of eligible capital relief are detailed in Section G of Chapter 5 of the BPG. In order to avail of capital relief by using netting agreements to mitigate Credit Risk, a Bank is expected to fully comply with the provisions detailed in Section G of Chapter 5 of the BPG. Failure to do so, would be seen as attempts to unduly overstate the capital position of the Bank.
5.21. Securitisation and Re-securitisation
(1) The Part sets out the framework for determining a Bank’s minimum capital requirement to cover the Bank’s exposures arising from traditional and synthetic securitisations.
(2) The background and description of the use of securitisation to obtain capital relief as well as to ensure appropriate risk-weighting of securitisation positions held by a Bank, eligibility criteria, conditions for enforceability, procedures, and the methods for the capital treatment of securitisation and re-securitisation are detailed in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. In order to avail of capital relief while using securitisation or to ensure that the securitisation positions are appropriately riskweighted, a Bank is expected to fully comply with the provisions detailed in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. Failure to do so, would be seen as attempts to unduly overstate the capital position of the Bank.
Governance for securitisation
(3) A Bank’s Governing Body must oversee the Bank’s securitisation exposures. The governing body:
- (a) must understand, and set the scope and purpose of, the Bank’s securitisations; and
- (b) must be aware of the risks and other implications associated with securitisation.
(4) The Governing Body must ensure that the Bank’s senior management establishes and implements securitisation policies that include:
- (a) appropriate risk management systems to identify, measure, monitor, report on and control or mitigate the risks arising from the Bank’s involvement in securitisation; and
- (b) how the Bank monitors, and reports on, the effect of securitisation on its risk profile.
(5) A Bank must be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that the Bank’s ICAAP captures the following specific risks relating to securitisation:
- (a) Credit Risk, Market Risk, Liquidity Risk and reputation risk for each securitisation exposure;
- (b) potential delinquencies and losses on the exposures;
- (c) risks arising from the provision of credit enhancements and liquidity facilities; and
- (d) risks arising from guarantees provided by monoline insurers and other third parties.
Calculation of RWAs for securitisation
(6) A Bank that is an originator or sponsor of a traditional securitisation may exclude, from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets, exposures relating to the securitised assets only if:
- (a) the immediate transferee of the underlying assets is an SPE, and the holders of the legal or beneficial interests in the SPE have the right to pledge or exchange those interests without restriction;
- (b) substantially all Credit Risk associated with the securitised assets have been transferred;
- (c) the Bank has no direct or indirect control over the securitised assets;
- (d) the securitised assets are legally isolated from the Bank (through the sale of the assets or through sub-participation) so that the assets are beyond the reach of the Bank and its creditors even in case of bankruptcy or insolvency;
- (e) a qualified legal counsel (whether external or in-house) has given a written reasoned opinion that paragraph (d) is satisfied;
- (f) any clean-up call complies with rules in this section;
- (g) the securities issued are not obligations of the Bank, so that investors have a claim only on the securitised assets and have no claim against the Bank;
- (h) the securitisation does not include any term or condition that:
- (i) requires the Bank to alter the underlying exposures to improve the pool’s weighted average credit quality (unless the improvement is achieved by selling exposures at market prices to parties who are neither affiliated, connected or related to the Bank);
- (ii) allows increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement; or
- (iii) increases the yield payable to parties other than the Bank (for example, payments to investors and providers of credit enhancement) in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying assets; and
(i) the securitisation does not have:
(i) termination provisions for specific changes in tax and regulation;
(ii) termination options or triggers (except clean-up calls that comply with relevant rules in this section); or
(iii) early amortisation provisions that, according to rules in this section, would result in the securitisation not meeting the other requirements in paragraphs (a) to (h).
Due diligence requirements
(7) A Bank must not apply a risk-weight to a securitisation exposure using table 5 H, unless the Bank meets the following due diligence requirements:
- (a) The Bank must have, in relation to securitisation, appropriate policies:
- (i) to ensure that the economic substance of each securitisation is taken into account in managing the risks arising from the Bank’s involvement in securitisation;
- (ii) to document its systems and controls in relation to securitisation and the risks that arise from it; and
- (iii) that set out the effects of securitisation on capital.
- (b) The Bank must have, on an ongoing basis, a clear understanding of the risk characteristics of its individual securitisation exposures (whether on-balance-sheet or off-balance-sheet) and the risk characteristics of the pool underlying those exposures.
- (c) The Bank must understand, at all times, the structural features that may materially affect the performance of its securitisation exposures (such as contractual waterfall and waterfallrelated triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity facilities, market value triggers, and dealspecific definitions of default).
- (d) The Bank must have continuous access to performance information about its underlying assets.
(8) If the Bank fails to meet a due diligence requirement in relation to a securitisation exposure, the AFSA may direct the Bank:
- (a) to apply a risk-weight of 1,250% to the exposure; or
- (b) to deduct the amount of the exposure from its regulatory capital.
(9) For re-securitisation, the Bank must have not only information on the securitisation tranches (such as the issuer name and credit quality) but also the characteristics and performance of the pools underlying those tranches.
Capital treatment to be based on economic substance
(10) The capital treatment of a securitisation exposure must be determined on the basis of the economic substance, rather than the legal form, of the securitisation structure. If a Bank is uncertain about whether a transaction is a securitisation, the Bank must consult with the AFSA.
(11) Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may look through the structure to the economic substance of the transaction, and:
- (a) vary the capital treatment of a securitisation exposure; or
- (b) reclassify a transaction as a securitisation or not a securitisation and impose a capital requirement or limit on the transaction.
Retained securitisation exposures
(12) A Bank that is an originator or sponsor of a securitisation might, despite having transferred the underlying assets or the Credit Risk to those assets, continue to be exposed (through retained securitisation exposures) in relation to the securitisation. The Bank must hold regulatory capital against all of its retained securitisation exposures.
(13) The sources of retained securitisation exposures include:
- (a) investments in the securitisation;
- (b) investments in asset-backed securities (including mortgage- backed securities);
- (c) retention of a subordinated tranche;
- (d) credit enhancements provided by the Bank; and
- (e) liquidity facilities provided by the Bank. A repurchased securitisation exposure must be treated as a retained securitisation exposure.
(14) A Bank that is an originator or sponsor of a securitisation must retain 5% of the total issuance.
Effect of giving implicit support
(15) A Bank that gives implicit support to a securitisation:
- (a) must include the underwriting exposures of the securitisation in its calculation of riskweighted assets (as if those assets had not been securitised and had remained on its balance sheet);
- (b) must not recognise any gain-on-sale of the underlying assets; and
- (c) must disclose to investors that it has provided implicit support and the effect on regulatory capital of doing so.
Treatment of on-balance-sheet retained securitisation exposures
(16) The RWA amount of an on-balance-sheet retained securitisation exposure is calculated by multiplying the exposure by the applicable risk-weight in table 5 H.
Table 5 H Risk-weights based on ECRA rating
Note In the table, the ratings are given according to Standard & Poor’s conventions. If a claim or asset is not rated by Standard & Poor’s, its ratings must be mapped to the equivalent Standard & Poor’s rating.
long-term rating | securitisation exposure % | re-securitisation exposure % |
AAA to AA- | 20 | 40 |
A+ to A- | 50 | 100 |
BBB+ to BBB- | 100 | 225 |
BB+ to BB- | 350 | 650 |
B+ and below or unrated | As directed by the AFSA apply 1,250% risk-weight or deduct the amount of the exposure from the Bank’s regulatory capital | |
short-term rating | securitisation exposure % | re-securitisation exposure % |
A-1 | 20 | 40 |
A-2 | 50 | 100 |
A-3 | 100 | 225 |
Below A-3 | As directed by the AFSA, apply 1,250% risk-weight or deduct the amount of the exposure from the Bank’s regulatory capital |
(17) If an exposure is to be deducted from the Bank’s regulatory capital, the amount of the deduction may be calculated net of any specific provision taken against the exposure.
Exceptions to treatment of unrated securitisation exposures
(18) The rule that the treatment of unrated securitisation exposures is as directed by the AFSA (to either apply 1,250% risk- weight or deduct the amount) does not apply to:
- (a) the most senior exposure in a securitisation;
- (b) exposures:
- (i) that are in a second loss position or better in ABCP programmes; and
- (ii) that meet the requirements in paragraph 36 of Section H in the BPG; and
- (c) eligible liquidity facilities.
Treatment of off-balance-sheet retained securitisation exposures
(19) A 100% credit conversion factor must be applied to an off-balance-sheet retained securitisation exposure unless the exposure qualifies as:
- (a) an eligible liquidity facility, or
- (b) an eligible servicer cash advance facility.
(20) The description, operational requirements, eligibility criteria, terms and conditions, procedures, formulae, parameters and the methods for the treatment of eligible liquidity facilities referred in paragraph (19) above are detailed in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. In order to use such liquidity facilities and to assign appropriate capital requirements to the resulting risk exposures, a Bank must fully comply with the relevant paragraphs in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. Failure to do so, would be seen by the AFSA as attempts to overstate the capital position of the Bank.
Capital relief from Credit Risk Mitigation techniques obtained by Bank
(21) A Bank that has obtained a Credit Risk Mitigation technique (such as eligible financial collateral, an eligible credit derivative, a guarantee or an eligible netting agreement) applicable to a securitisation exposure may reduce its capital requirement for the exposure. Collateral pledged by an SPE as part of the securitisation may be used as a Credit Risk Mitigation technique if it is eligible financial collateral. However, an SPE of a securitisation cannot be an eligible protection provider in the securitisation. In this rule, collateral is used to hedge the Credit Risk of a securitisation exposure rather than to mitigate the underlying exposures of the securitisation. Note For eligible financial collateral see Rule 5.17. For eligible protection provider, see paragraph 47 in Chapter 5 of the BPG.
Treatment of Credit Risk Mitigation techniques provided by Bank
(22) If a Bank provides a Credit Risk Mitigation technique to a securitisation exposure, the calculation of its risk-weighted assets for Credit Risk must be in accordance with the Rules from 5.14 to 5.20 in this Chapter. The Bank must calculate the capital requirement as if it were an investor in the securitisation. If a Bank provides a Credit Risk Mitigation technique to an unrated credit enhancement, it must treat the protection provided as if it were directly holding the unrated credit enhancement.
Treatment of enhanced portions
(23) The RWA for a credit-enhanced portion of a securitisation must be calculated in accordance with the standardised approach in Rules 5.5 to 5.10 of this Chapter.
Effect of Credit Risk Mitigation techniques
(24) The description, operational requirements, eligibility criteria, terms and conditions, procedures, formulae, parameters and the methods for considering the effect of providing Credit Risk Mitigation to a securitisation in the calculation of RWAs are detailed in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. In order to calculate the RWAs appropriately in such cases, a Bank must fully comply with the relevant paragraphs in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. Failure to do so, would be seen by the AFSA as attempts to overstate the capital position of the Bank.
Early amortisation provisions
Definitions
(25) In relation to early amortization provisions, the following are the definitions used: excess spread, in relation to a securitisation, means finance charge collections and other income received by the SPV or trust, minus certificate interest, servicing fees, charge-offs, costs and expenses. Excess spread is also known as future margin income. securitisation involving revolving exposures means a securitisation in which 1 or more of the underlying exposures represents, directly or indirectly, current or future draws on a revolving credit facility (such as a credit card facility, home equity line of credit or commercial line of credit). uncommitted credit line is a credit line that may be cancelled at any time, without any condition and without any need to give advance notice. Any other credit line is a committed credit line.
(26) The description, operational requirements, eligibility criteria, terms and conditions, procedures, formulae, parameters and the methods for the treatment of securitisations with early amortization provisions and calculation of RWAs are detailed in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. In order to calculate the RWAs appropriately in such cases, a Bank must fully comply with the relevant paragraphs in Section H of Chapter 5 of the BPG. Failure to do so, would be seen by the AFSA as attempts to overstate the capital position of the Bank.
5.22. Provisioning requirements
(1) Provisioning means setting aside an amount to cover expected losses on special mention credits, impaired credits and other problem assets, based on loan-loss probability. Provisioning is made before profit is earned.
Policies on provisioning
(2) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of a Bank’s business, and of the credit it provides, the Bank’s provisioning policy must set out:
- (a) the areas of its business to which the policy applies;
- (b) whether the Bank uses different approaches to those areas, and the significant differences in approach;
- (c) who is responsible for regularly monitoring its assets, to identify problem or potential problem assets, and the factors it takes into account in identifying them;
- (d) the extent to which the value of any collateral, guarantees or insurance that the Bank holds affects the need for, or the level of, provisions;
- (e) the basis on which the Bank makes its provisions, including the extent to which their levels are left to managerial judgement or to a committee;
- (f) the methods, debt management systems or formulae used to set the levels of provisions and the factors that must be considered in deciding whether the provisions are adequate;
- (g) the reports to enable the Bank’s Governing Body and senior management to ensure that the Bank maintains adequate provisions;
- (h) the procedures and responsibilities for arrears management and the recovery of exposures in arrears or exposures that have had provisions made against them;
- (i) the procedures for writing off and writing back provisions; and
- (j) the procedures for calculating and making provisions for contingent and other liabilities (such as contingent liabilities that have crystallised from acceptances, endorsements, guarantees, performance bonds, indemnities, irrevocable letters of credit and the confirmation of documentary credits).
Adequacy of Provisions
(3) A Bank must ensure that the Bank maintains provisions that, taken together, are prudent, reasonable and adequate to absorb credit losses, given the facts and circumstances. The losses covered must include losses incurred, losses incurred but not yet reported, and losses estimated but not certain to arise, extending over the life of the individual credits that make up its credit portfolio.
(4) The Bank must also ensure that provisions and write-offs are timely and reflect realistic repayment and recovery expectations, taking into account market and macroeconomic conditions. The Bank must consider all the significant factors that affect the likelihood of collecting on the transactions that make up its credit portfolio and the estimated future credit losses on those transactions.
(5) The Bank must make minimum provisions which meet the requirements in table 5 K.
Table 5 K Provisioning requirements
Column 1 Item | Column 2 Category | Column 3 Minimum provisioning requirement (% of the unsecured part of the credit) |
1 | performing | 0 |
2 | special mention | 5 |
3 | substandard | 20 |
4 | doubtful | 50 |
5 | loss | 100 |
(6) Provisions may be general (assessed collectively against the whole of a portfolio) or specific (assessed against individual credits), or both. The Bank must take into account off-balance-sheet exposures in its categorisation of credits and in provisioning.
(7) The levels of provisions and write-offs must be reviewed regularly to ensure that they are consistent with identified and estimated losses.
(8) A Bank must not restructure, refinance or reclassify assets with a view to circumventing the requirements on provisioning.
(9) The AFSA may at any time require a Bank to demonstrate that the Bank’s classification of its assets, and its provisions, are adequate for prudential purposes.
(10) The AFSA may require the Bank to reclassify its assets or increase the levels of its provisions if the AFSA considers that the asset classifications are inaccurate, or the provisions are inadequate, for prudential purposes.
(11) A Bank’s Governing Body must obtain timely information on the condition of the Bank’s assets, including the classification of assets, the levels of provisions and problem assets. The information must include summary results of the latest asset review, comparative trends in the overall quality of problem assets, and measurements of existing or anticipated deterioration in asset quality and losses expected.
5.23. Transactions with related parties
(1) The detailed requirements specifying the description, additional clarifications on definition of related parties, methodologies, parameters, and controls formulae in respect of the primary regulations on related party transactions are provided in Section J of Chapter 5 of the Baking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. It is suggested that this rule on related party transactions, be read in conjunction with Chapter 5 of the BPG issued by the AFSA to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
Related parties
(2) Related parties, of a Bank, includes:
Related party transactions – governance and controls
(3) A Bank must establish and implement a documented policy for transactions with related parties, which is approved by its Governing Body and includes:
- (a) effective systems to identify, monitor and report individual and total exposures to, and transactions with, related parties;
- (b) procedures to prevent a member of the governing body, a member of the Bank’s senior management or any other person who stands to gain a benefit from a related-party transaction from being part of the process of granting and managing the transaction;
- (c) well-defined criteria for the write-off of exposures to related parties;
- (d) prudent and appropriate limits to prevent or address conflicts of interest; and
- (e) procedures for tracking and reporting exceptions to, and deviations from, limits or policies.
(4) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that the Bank’s policies relating to related-party transactions are complied with and that any exceptions are reported to the appropriate level of the senior management, and, if necessary, to the governing body.
(5) The Governing Body must also ensure that the Bank’s senior management monitors transactions with related parties, takes appropriate steps to control or mitigate the risks from such transactions and writes off exposures to related parties only in accordance with the Bank’s policies.
(6) The Governing Body must approve transactions with related parties, and the write-off of relatedparty exposures, if such transactions or write-off exceeds specified amounts or otherwise poses any special risk.
(7) A transaction with a related party must not be undertaken on terms more favourable to the party than a corresponding transaction with a non- related party.
Limits on lending to related parties
(8) A Bank must not enter into a transaction that would cause it to exceed the limits set out in table 5 L unless it has the written approval of the AFSA to do so.
Table 5 L Limits on Banks’ exposure to related partie
Column 1 Item | Column 2Kind of exposure | Column 3Limit (% of total assets) |
1 | exposures to a member of the Governing Body or senior management of the Bank, or a person connected to either of them | 0.5 |
2 | the total of exposures under item 1 | 3 |
3 | exposures to a significant shareholder of the Bank (other than exposures to a shareholder that is a Bank or an equivalent entity regulated in a way comparable to a Bank in the AIFC)) | 2 |
4 | the total of exposures under item 3 | 5 |
5 | exposures to a related party or a party connected to the related party (other than exposures to a Bank or an equivalent entity that is regulated in a way comparable to a Bank in the AIFC) | 2 |
6 | the total of exposures under item 5 | 5 |
_
Powers of the AFSA
(9) Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may, in writing, set specific limits on a Bank’s exposures to a related party or to related parties in total.
(10) The AFSA may direct such exposures to be deducted from regulatory capital when assessing capital adequacy or direct that such exposures be collateralised.
Part II Concentration risk and related matters
5.24 General
(1) This Chapter sets out the requirements for a Bank’s policy to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate concentrations of Credit Risk exposures. This Chapter also sets limits on a Bank’s Credit Risk exposures to individual counterparties and to groups of connected counterparties.
(2) The detailed requirements for managing the concentration risk including but not limited to methodologies, guidance, eligibility criteria, terms, parameters, and formulae which are required to comply with the primary regulations addressing concentration risk management and related regulatory limits outlined in this Part II of Chapter 5 of BBR are provided in section K of Chapter 5 of the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. The relevant sections of the BPG also provide the supervisory expectations of the AFSA in relation to management of concentration risk.
(3) Banks are expected to comply with the provisions outlined in Section K of Chapter 5 of the BPG, in order to ensure compliance with the rules in this Part II. Failure to do so, would be assessed by the AFSA as inadequate risk management and governance implying non compliance with basic regulatory requirements applicable to Banks. It is suggested that this Chapter of the BBR, be read in conjunction with Chapter 5 of the BPG issued by the AFSA to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
Concept of connected parties
(4) The concept of parties being connected to one another is used in these rules in relation to counterparties or issuers with which a Bank has exposures. Connected counterparties are the basis for the measurement of concentration risk and large exposures.
(5) In contrast, the concept of parties being related to the Bank (which is discussed with Credit Risk in part I of this Chapter) is primarily used in relation to the requirement that the Bank’s transactions be at arm’s length. It is of course possible for a Bank’s related parties to be connected counterparties (such as when the Bank has exposures to them). For purposes of concentration risk, the Bank’s exposure to connected counterparties (whether related or not) is taken to be a single risk.
Connected parties
(6) A party is connected to another party if they are linked by:
- (a) cross guarantees;
- (b) common ownership;
- (c) common management;
- (d) one having the ability to exercise control over the other, whether direct or indirect;
- (e) financial interdependency—that is, the financial soundness of one may affect the financial soundness of the other; or
- (f) any combination of the factors mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (e).
(7) A counterparty may be connected to another counterparty by other linkages that, in the Bank’s assessment, connect the counterparties as constituting a single risk. A connected party can be an individual or other entity.
Role of Governing Body - concentration risk
(8) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that the Bank’s concentration risk management policy gives a comprehensive bank-wide view of the significant sources of concentration risk (including onbalance-sheet exposures, off-balance-sheet exposures and exposures from contingent liabilities).
(9) The Governing Body must also ensure that the Bank’s senior management monitors the limits set in this Chapter and that those limits are not exceeded on a solo or consolidated basis.
5.25 Concentration risk
(1) Concentration risk to a Bank arises if the Bank is exposed to 1 counterparty, or to 2 or more counterparties that are not truly independent of each other, and the total of the exposures to the counterparty or counterparties is large enough to endanger the Bank’s liquidity or solvency.
Policies—Concentration risk policy
(2) A Bank’s concentration risk policy must set limits for acceptable concentrations of risk, consistent with the Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and capital. The limits must be made known to, and must be understood by, all relevant staff.
(3) The policy must ensure that:
- (a) the Bank’s information systems identify exposures creating risk concentrations and large exposures to single counterparties or connected counterparties, aggregate those exposures and facilitate their management; and
- (b) all significant such concentrations and exposures are reviewed regularly and reported to the Bank’s Governing Body or senior management.
Relation to stress-testing
(4) When carrying out stress-testing or review of stress scenarios, a Bank must take into account significant risk concentrations and large exposures, and the effects of changes in market conditions and risk factors on them.
5.26. Management of Concentration risk exposures
Calculating exposures
(1) Large exposure means a gross exposure to a counterparty or connected counterparties that is 10% or more of the Bank’s regulatory capital. In this rule: gross exposure to a counterparty or connected counterparties is the total of the following exposures:
- (a) on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet exposures;
- (b) debt securities held by the Bank;
- (c) equity exposures.
(2) In calculating the gross exposure, a Bank must include:
- (a) the outstanding balances of all loans and advances, including balances with other banks;
- (b) holdings of debt or equity securities;
- (c) unused off-balance-sheet commitments, whether revocable or irrevocable; and
- (d) the credit equivalent amounts of all market-related transactions (calculated in accordance with the rules in this Chapter).
(3) However, in calculating the gross exposure, a Bank must not include:
- (a) claims, equity investments and other exposures deducted from the Bank’s capital;
- (b) exposures arising in the course of settlement of market-related contracts; and
- (c) exposures that have been written off.
(4) For this Part II:
- (a) a Bank must treat an exposure as reduced (to the extent permitted by the provisions on Credit Risk Mitigation in part I of this chapter) by any applicable Credit Risk Mitigation technique; and
- (b) a Bank that is part of a financial group may offset intragroup amounts due to other deposit takers within the group.
Policies—large exposures
(5) A Bank’s large exposure policy must include:
- (a) exposure limits, commensurate with the Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and capital, for:
- (i) categories of counterparties (for example, sovereigns, other Banks and other financial entities, corporate and individual borrowers);
- (ii) connected counterparties;
- (iii) particular industries or sectors;
- (iv) particular countries; and
- (v) asset classes (for example, property holdings);
- (b) the circumstances in which the exposure limits may be exceeded;
- (c) the procedures for approving exceptions to, and deviations from, exposure limits or policies; and
- (d) the procedures for identifying, measuring, managing and reporting large exposures.
Limits on exposures
(6) A Bank must not become exposed without limit to a single counterparty. The Bank must not give a general guarantee of the obligations of a counterparty.
(7) The total of the Bank’s net exposures to any 1 counterparty or any 1 group of connected counterparties must not exceed 25% of the Bank’s regulatory capital.
(8) The total of all of the Bank’s net large exposures must not exceed 800% of that capital.
(9) A Bank may apply to the AFSA for approval for a proposed exposure in excess of the limits set out in this Chapter. An approval will be granted only in exceptional circumstances and only after the Bank satisfies the AFSA that the proposed exposure does not expose the Bank to excessive risk.
(10) The AFSA may impose a higher capital ratio on the Bank to compensate for the additional risk associated with the proposed exposure.
Obligation to measure
(11) A Bank must measure, classify and make provision for each large exposure individually.
(12) The Bank must immediately notify the AFSA if it is concerned that risk concentrations or large exposures might significantly affect its capital adequacy. The notice must describe the Bank’s proposed measures to address its concerns.
5.27 Powers of the AFSA
(1) If the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable to do so in the interest of effective supervision of a Bank, the AFSA may direct the Bank to treat a party as connected to another party.
The AFSA can set different limits and ratios
(2) Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may, in writing, set specific limits on a Bank’s exposure to particular counterparties, groups of counterparties, industries, sectors, regions, countries or asset classes on a case-by-case basis.
(3) If a Bank has 1 or more large exposures (excluding exposures to sovereigns and central banks) or if, in the AFSA’s opinion, the Bank is exposed to a significant level of risk concentration, the AFSA may impose a higher capital ratio on the Bank.
(4) In considering whether to increase the Bank’s capital ratio, the AFSA will take into account:
- (a) whether the increased capital ratio would be consistent with the Bank’s concentration risk and large exposure policies;
- (b) the number of exposures, and the size and nature of each; and
- (c) the nature, scale and complexity of the Bank’s business and the experience of its Governing Body and senior management.
(5) The AFSA may also direct the Bank to take measures to reduce its level of risk concentration.
CHAPTER 6. Market Risk
Introduction
Guidance
(1) This Chapter addresses the regulatory requirements in respect of managing the Market Risk exposures of a Bank. Market Risk refers to the risk of incurring losses on positions held by a Bank with trading intent (usually in its Trading Book), caused by adverse movements in market prices or in underlying value drivers. This chapter aims to ensure that a Bank engaging in activities exposing it to such Market risks adopts appropriate and effective risk management practices and holds adequate regulatory capital of the right quality required to support the level of such risks assumed.
(2) This Chapter includes requirements that a Bank:
- (a) implement a comprehensive Market Risk management framework to manage, measure and monitor Market Risk commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations; and
- (b) calculate and hold the Market Risk Capital Requirement, according to the methodologies provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(3) This Chapter includes rules requiring Banks to determine Market Risk Capital Requirement on exposures involving interest rate risk, equity risk, foreign exchange risk, commodities risk, options risk, collective investment fund risk and securities underwriting risk. The rules in this Chapter allow the use of standard pre-defined methodologies for estimating the Market Risk Capital Requirement as well as the use of AFSA-approved internal models to calculate a Bank’s Market Risk Capital Requirement.
(4) The detailed requirements specifying the calculation methodologies, parameters, metrics and formulae in respect of the primary requirements outlined in this chapter are provided in the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. The BPG also provides detailed guidance on criteria on Trading Book and inclusion of exposures in a Trading Book, criteria for approval of internal models for calculation of Market Risk Capital Requirement, incorporation of incremental risk charges in internal models, if allowed and guidance on the required level of stress testing.
6.1 Market Risk Management – Systems and Controls
(1) A Bank must implement and maintain a Market Risk management policy which enables it to identify, assess, monitor, control and mitigate Market Risk.
(2) The Market Risk management policy must be documented and include the Bank’s risk appetite for Market Risk exposures. The policy must also set out as to how the Bank identifies, assesses, mitigates, controls and monitors that risk.
(3) A Bank must:
- (a) identify, assess, monitor, mitigate and, control its Market Risk exposures;
- (b) hold adequate Capital, at all times, to support Market Risk exposures assumed as part of its Trading Book and Banking Book activities;
- (c) ensure that its risk management framework including but not limited to tools, methodologies and, systems enable it to implement its Market Risk management policy;
- (d) review and update its Market Risk management policy at a frequency appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its Trading Book activities.
(4) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that its Market Risk management policy enables it to obtain a comprehensive bank-wide view of its Market Risk exposures and takes into account the risk of a significant deterioration in market liquidity of its exposures. Guidance Guidance in respect of the contents of a Bank’s Market Risk management policy which is required to satisfy the regulatory requirement in the Rule 6.1 is provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
6.2. Trading Book
(1) A Bank’s Trading Book consists of the positions held by the Bank (whether on-balance-sheet or off-balance-sheet) that must be included in the Trading Book in accordance with these rules. Other positions held by the Bank must be included in its Banking Book. Note A Bank is required to have policies to distinguish consistently between trading activities and banking activities
(2) A Bank must have a Trading Book if:
- (a) it has positions that must be included in the Trading Book; and
- (b) the total value of the positions described in paragraph (a) has exceeded 5% of the total of the Bank’s on-balance-sheet and off- balance-sheet positions at any time in the previous 12 months.
(3) The Bank must include, in the Trading Book, positions and exposures of the following kinds:
- (a) a position in a financial instrument, commodity or commodity derivative;
- (b) a principal broking position in a financial instrument, commodity or commodity derivative;
- (c) a position taken to hedge an exposure in the Trading Book;
- (d) an exposure from a repurchase agreement, or securities or commodities lending, that is based on a position in a security or commodity included in the Trading Book;
- (e) an exposure from a reverse repurchase agreement, or securities and commodities borrowing, that is based on a position in a security or commodity included in the Trading Book;
- (f) an exposure from an unsettled transaction, a free delivery or an over the counter derivative;
- (g) an exposure in the form of a fee, commission, interest, dividend or margin on an exchangetraded derivative directly related to a position included in the Trading Book.
(4) The Bank must also include in its Trading Book:
- (a) total-rate-of-return swaps (except those that have been transacted to hedge a Banking Book credit exposure); and
- (b) open short positions in credit derivatives.
(5) The Bank must not include in its Trading Book:
- (a) positions held for liquidity management; and
- (b) loans (unless they are used to hedge a position in the Trading Book).
(6) The Bank’s positions must be valued in accordance with the relevant accounting standards and prudent valuation guidance provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(7) The Bank must have a well-documented Trading Book policy for keeping the Trading Book up-todate and to ensure the inclusion of appropriate positions accurately.
(8) The Trading Book policy must be approved by the Bank’s governing body, and the Bank must be able to demonstrate compliance with it if directed by the AFSA to do so.
Guidance
Guidance relating to the contents of a Bank’s Trading Book policy, the detailed requirements in relation to switching of positions between its Trading Book and Banking Book which are required to satisfy the regulatory requirement in the Rule 6.2 and the related supervisory expectations of the AFSA are provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
6.3 Switching of positions or instruments between Books
(1) A Bank must not switch a position or an instrument between its Trading Book and Banking Book, unless it has received a written approval from the AFSA, allowing it to do so. The AFSA may approve such a switch subject to 1 or more conditions.
(2) The Bank must not benefit from any lower regulatory capital requirement resulting from such a switch even if that is approved by the AFSA.
6.4 Valuation of positions
(1) A Bank must use the mark-to-market method to value its positions and exposures in its Trading Book, if there is a market to mark the positions and exposures to. Mark-to-market means a valuation that is based on current market value.
(2) A position that is marked-to-market must be revalued daily, based on independently sourced current market prices.
(3) If it is not possible to value any of the positions in the Trading Book on a mark-to-market basis (for example, in the case of unlisted securities or where the market is illiquid), a Bank may use the mark-to-model method to value its positions and exposures. Mark-to-model means a valuation that has to be benchmarked, extrapolated or otherwise calculated from a market input, using a predefined model.
(4) A Bank must be able to demonstrate that its marking-to-model is prudent.
(5) A Bank must independently verify market prices and model inputs, to check that those prices and inputs are accurate. The verification must be done at least once a month.
(6) A Bank must consider making adjustments for positions that cannot be prudently valued (such as those that have become concentrated, less liquid or stale). For example, valuation adjustment would be appropriate if pricing sources are more subjective (such as when there is only one available broker quote).
(7) A Bank must establish and maintain procedures for considering valuation adjustments, irrespective of whether:
- (a) the Bank uses the mark-to-market or mark-to-model method; and
- (b) whether the valuation is done internally by the Bank or by a third party. Guidance Detailed guidance relating to the different valuation methods for the positions in a Bank’s Trading Book, the AFSA’s expectations regarding the use of those methods, the expectations of the AFSA regarding independent price verification as well as the issues to be considered as part of the valuation adjustments, are provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
6.5. Calculation of the Market Risk Capital Requirement
(1) A Bank must calculate its Market Risk Capital Requirement as the sum of the following components:
- (a) Interest Rate Risk Capital Requirement;
- (b) Equity Risk Capital Requirement;
- (c) Foreign Exchange Risk Capital Requirement;
- (d) Commodities Risk Capital Requirement; and
- (e) Option Risk Capital Requirement.
(2) A Bank must calculate the Market Risk Capital Requirement for the following components, in respect of its Trading Book and Non-Trading Book positions for the relevant component, by applying the methodology, parameters, formulae and guidance set out in the BPG issued by the AFSA:
- (a) Foreign Exchange Risk Capital Requirement;
- (b) Commodities Risk Capital Requirement;
(3) A Bank must calculate the Market Risk Capital Requirement for the following components, in respect of its Trading Book positions for the relevant component, by applying the methodology, parameters, formulae and guidance set out in the BPG issued by the AFSA:
- (a) Interest Rate Risk Capital Requirement;
- (b) Equity Risk Capital Requirement; and
- (c) Option Risk Capital Requirement. Guidance Detailed guidance specifying the tools, methodologies, parameters and formulae for calculating the various components of the Market Risk Capital Requirement outlined in Rule 6.2 above are included in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
6.6 Foreign Exchange Risk Capital Requirement
(1) A Bank must, subject to (2), calculate its Foreign Exchange Risk Capital Requirement in respect of Trading Book and Non-Trading Book foreign exchange positions.
(2) A Bank need not calculate a Foreign Exchange Risk Capital Requirement if:
- (a) its foreign currency business, defined as the greater of the sum of its gross long positions and the sum of its gross short positions in all foreign currencies, does not exceed 100% of its Regulatory Capital as defined in Rule 4.13; and
- (b) its overall net open position as defined in the BPG does not exceed 2% of its Regulatory Capital as defined in Rule 4.13.
6.7. Standard method and use of Internal Models
(1) A Bank is expected to use the standard methods for calculation of any component of the MarketRisk Capital Requirement, which are detailed in the BPG.
(2) A Bank may use an internal model to calculate any specific component of its Market Risk Capital Requirement, if that internal model and its use have been approved in writing by the AFSA. Guidance Detailed Guidance in respect of criteria for approval and use of internal models for calculation of Market Risk capital requirement is provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(3) If the AFSA approves the use of an internal model, it may:
- (a) impose, withdraw or amend at any time conditions in respect of the use of the internal model; and
- (b) withdraw approval if it forms the view that the internal model or its use is no longer suitable for the calculation of the Bank’s Market Risk Capital Requirement or any component of it.
(4) A Bank which uses an internal model in accordance with Rule 6.7 (2) must have in place a rigorous and comprehensive stress-testing programme which meets the criteria set out in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(5) A Bank that has received approval for the use of an internal model may only revert to the use of standard method for calculating its Market Risk Capital Requirement or any component of it, with the prior written consent of the AFSA.
(6) In the standard method, capital requirement is the sum of the capital charges, calculated in accordance with this Chapter, for the risks included in Market Risk.
CHAPTER 7. Operational Risk
Introduction
Guidance
(1) This chapter sets out the regulatory requirements in respect of a Bank’s obligation to manage effectively its Operational Risk exposures. Operational Risk refers to the risk of incurring losses due to inadequate or failed internal systems, processes, and people, or from external events. Operational Risk losses also include losses arising out of legal risk but excludes strategic and reputational risk. This chapter aims to ensure that a Bank has a robust Operational Risk management framework commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations and that it holds sufficient regulatory capital against Operational Risk exposures.
(2) This chapter includes requirements that a Bank:
- (a) implement a comprehensive Operational Risk management framework to manage, measure and monitor its operational Risk exposures commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations;
- (b) address specific elements of an Operational Risk management framework relating to IT systems, information security, outsourcing, business continuity and disaster recovery and the management of Operational Risks in trading rooms; and
- (c) calculate and hold the Operational Risk Capital Requirement, according to the methodologies provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(3) The detailed requirements specifying the calculation methodologies, parameters, metrics and formulae in respect of the primary requirements outlined in this Chapter are provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA. The BPG also provides detailed guidance on the elements to be included in the policies, systems and controls for managing operational risk, qualitative guidance and standards to be followed in addressing specific components of operational risk like Business continuity risk, detailed parameters, formulae and methodology for calculation of Operational risk capital requirements mandated by this Chapter.
7.1. Operational Risk Management Framework and Governance
(1) A Bank must implement and maintain an Operational Risk management policy which enables it to identify, assess, monitor, control and mitigate its Operational Risk exposures.
(2) The Operational Risk management policy must be documented and include the Bank’s risk appetite for Operational Risk exposures. The policy must also set out as to how the Bank identifies, assesses, mitigates, controls and monitors Operational Risk.
(3) The Operational Risk management policy of a Bank must be approved by its Governing Body.
(4) A Bank must:
- (a) identify, assess, monitor, mitigate and, control its Operational Risk exposures;
- (b) ensure that its risk management framework including but not limited to tools, methodologies and, systems enable it to implement its Operational Risk management policy;
- (c) hold adequate Capital, at all times, to support its Operational risk exposures;
- (d) review and update its Operational Risk management policy at a frequency appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its Trading Book activities.
(5) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that its Operational risk management policy enables it to obtain a comprehensive bank-wide view of its Market Risk exposures and takes into account therisk of a significant deterioration in market liquidity of its exposures. Note:Guidance in respect of the contents of a Bank’s Operational Risk management policy, systems and controls which is required to satisfy the regulatory requirement in the Rule 7.1 is provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
7.2 Technology Risk and Business Continuity – Policies
(1) A Bank’s operational risk management policy must include effective and comprehensive procedures for disaster recovery and business continuity. The Bank must have a business continuity plan for possible scenarios of severe business disruption. The plan must provide for the Bank to continue to operate as a going concern, and to minimise losses (especially those from disturbances to payment and settlement systems), in those scenarios.
(2) A Bank must establish and implement appropriate information technology policies for the accurate and timely identification, measurement, evaluation, management and control or mitigation of operational risk. In particular, the policies must enable the Bank to maintain an adequate and sound information infrastructure:
- (a) that meets the Bank’s current and projected requirements (under normal circumstances and in times of stress);
- (b) that ensures that the data, and the system itself, remain secure and available; and
- (c) that supports integrated and comprehensive risk management
(3) The Bank’s information infrastructure must enable it to compile and analyse operational risk data, and must facilitate reporting to its Governing Body and senior management and the AFSA.
(4) A Bank must establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls to manage its information security risk.
7.3. Outsourcing risk - Policies
(1) A Bank must establish appropriate policies to assess, manage and monitor the operational risk associated with its outsourced activities. The management of those risks must include the following elements:
- (a) carrying out due diligence for selecting service providers
- (b) structuring outsourcing arrangements
- (c) managing and reporting the risks associated with an outsourcing
- (d) ensuring effective control over an outsourcing; and
- (e) contingency planning
(2) The outsourcing policies must require a Bank to have comprehensive contracts and service level agreements. The contracts and agreements must clearly state the allocation of responsibilities between service providers and the Bank.
7.4. Powers of the AFSA
Despite anything in these rules, if the AFSA identifies points of exposure or vulnerability to operational risk that are common to 2 or more Banks, it may impose specific capital requirements or limits on each affected Bank.
7.5. Operational Risk Management
(1) A Bank must:
- (a) ensure that it identifies and assesses the Operational Risks inherent in all the Bank’s products, activities, processes and systems;
- (b) ensure the inherent risks identified are understood by relevant Employees of the Bank;
- (c) systematically track Operational Risk events and any financial impact associated with such events; and
- (d) ensure that the tracking in (c) is consistent with the Operational Risk event types described in the Basel III framework.
- (e) regularly monitor material Exposures to Operational Risk losses;
- (f) ensure that appropriate reporting mechanisms are in place at its Governing Body, senior management, and business line levels to support effective management of the Bank’s Operational Risk;
- (g) have appropriate reporting procedures to keep the AFSA informed of developments affecting its operational risk profile; and
- (h) immediately notify the AFSA of any material Operational Risk event including notification of any resulting financial impact, positive or negative, associated with such event.
(2) A Bank must ensure that its Operational Risk management policy referred in the Rule 7.1 (1):
- (a) includes an approval process for all new products, activities, processes and systems; and
- (b) such a process enables the Bank to identify and assess the Operational Risk exposures inherent in its new products, activities, processes and systems.
7.6 Basic indicator approach
(1) A Bank must use the basic indicator approach to operational risk. Operational risk capital requirement is the amount of capital that the Bank must have to cover its operational risk.
(2) The Bank’s Operational Risk capital requirement is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
where:
GI is the Bank’s average annual gross income (as defined in sub-rule (3) or (4)) for those years (out of the previous 3 years) for which the Bank’s annual gross income is more than zero.
α is 15% or a higher percentage set by the AFSA.
n is the number of years out of the previous 3 years for which the Bank’s gross income is more than zero.
(3) Because of the definitions of GI and n in (2) above, figures for any year in which the annual gross income of a Bank is negative or zero must be excluded from both the numerator and denominator when calculating the average.
(4) For a Bank, gross income, for a year, means net interest income plus net non-interest income for the year. It must be gross of:
- (a) any provisions (including provisions for unpaid interest);
- (b) operating expenses; and
- (c) losses from the sale of securities in the ‘Held to Maturity’ and ‘Available for Sale’ categories in the Banking Book.
(5) For a Bank, gross income excludes:
- (a) realised profits from the sale of securities in the Banking Book;
- (b) realised profits from securities in the ‘Held to Maturity’ category in the Banking Book;
- (c) extraordinary or irregular items of income;
- (d) income derived from insurance;
- (e) any collection from previously written-off loans; and
- (f) income obtained from the disposal of real estate and other assets during the year.
CHAPTER 8. Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book
Introduction
Guidance
(1) Interest rate risk in the Banking Book or IRRBB is the risk to earnings or capital arising from movement of interest rates. IRRBB arises from changing rate relationships among yield curves that affect bank activities (basis risk), from changing rate relationships across the spectrum of maturities (yield curve risk), and from interest- rate-related options embedded in bank products (option risk).
(2) IRRBB is normally a major source of risk for a bank and for Broker Dealers that deal on their own account (including underwriting on a firm commitment basis). IRRBB is a significant risk driver for banks whose Banking Book assets equal or exceed 15% of their total assets. IRRBB may arise from a number of sources, for example:
- (a) risks related to the mismatch of repricing of assets and liabilities and off balance sheet short and long-term positions;
- (b) risks arising from hedging exposure to one interest rate with exposure to a rate which reprices under slightly different conditions;
- (c) risks related to the uncertainties of occurrence, timing, pricing or value of transactions, for example, when expected future transactions do not equal the actual transactions;
- (d) risks arising from consumers redeeming fixed rate products when market rates change; and
- (e) risks from underwriting on a firm-commitment basis
(4) This Chapter relates to Interest rate risk in the Banking Book. Interest rate risk in the Trading Book is addressed as part of Market Risk in Chapter 6 of BBR.
(5) This Chapter sets out the regulatory requirements in respect of a Bank’s obligation to manage effectively its exposure to Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book (IRRBB). This Chapter aims to ensure that a Bank has a robust framework commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations, for managing its exposure to IRRBB. In that regard, this Chapter sets out requirements that a Bank:
- (a) implement IRRBB management framework to manage, measure and monitor its exposure to IRRBB, in a manner commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations;
- (b) develop and implement policies to identify, measure, assess, manage, control and mitigate IRRBB;
- (c) address stress testing of the Bank’s exposures to IRRBB; and
- (d) address the relationship between IRRBB and the ICAAP.
(6) The detailed requirements specifying the methodologies, guidance and, parameters in respect of the primary requirements outlined in this chapter are provided in the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. The BPG also provides detailed guidance on the elements to be included in the policies, systems and controls for managing IRRBB, qualitative guidance and standards to be followed in meeting the rules in this chapter.
8.1. IRRBB - Risk Management Framework and Governance
Guidance
(1) Interest rate risk in the Banking Book or IRRBB is the risk to earnings or capital arising from movement of interest rates. IRRBB arises from changing rate relationships among yield curves that affect bank activities (basis risk), from changing rate relationships across the spectrum of maturities (yield curve risk), and from interest- rate-related options embedded in bank products (option risk).
(2) IRRBB is normally a major source of risk for a bank and for Broker Dealers that deal on their own account (including underwriting on a firm commitment basis). IRRBB is a significant risk driver for banks whose Banking Book assets equal or exceed 15% of their total assets. IRRBB may arise from a number of sources, for example:
- (a) risks related to the mismatch of repricing of assets and liabilities and off balance sheet short and long-term positions;
- (b) risks arising from hedging exposure to one interest rate with exposure to a rate which reprices under slightly different conditions;
- (c) risks related to the uncertainties of occurrence, timing, pricing or value of transactions, for example, when expected future transactions do not equal the actual transactions;
- (d) risks arising from consumers redeeming fixed rate products when market rates change; and
- (e) risks from underwriting on a firm-commitment basis
(4) This Chapter relates to Interest rate risk in the Banking Book. Interest rate risk in the Trading Book is addressed as part of Market Risk in Chapter 6 of BBR.
(5) This Chapter sets out the regulatory requirements in respect of a Bank’s obligation to manage effectively its exposure to Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book (IRRBB). This Chapter aims to ensure that a Bank has a robust framework commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations, for managing its exposure to IRRBB. In that regard, this Chapter sets out requirements that a Bank:
- (a) implement IRRBB management framework to manage, measure and monitor its exposure to IRRBB, in a manner commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations;
- (b) develop and implement policies to identify, measure, assess, manage, control and mitigate IRRBB;
- (c) address stress testing of the Bank’s exposures to IRRBB; and
- (d) address the relationship between IRRBB and the ICAAP.
(6) The detailed requirements specifying the methodologies, guidance and, parameters in respect of the primary requirements outlined in this chapter are provided in the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. The BPG also provides detailed guidance on the elements to be included in the policies, systems and controls for managing IRRBB, qualitative guidance and standards to be followed in meeting the rules in this chapter.
8.2. Powers of the AFSA
A Bank must hold adequate capital to effectively mitigate its exposure to IRRBB. The AFSA may impose a capital requirement on a Bank based on the Bank’s ICAAP, if the AFSA is of the view that the Bank’s capital is insufficient to cover its exposure to IRRBB.
8.3. IRRBB Management – Processes and Standards
(1) A Bank must not use an assumption or adjustment relating to the Bank’s exposure to IRRBB unless the assumption or adjustment has been approved by its governing body, or a relevant committee of its governing body. The AFSA may require a Bank to seek its explicit approval before using an assumption or adjustment.
(2) If required to do so by the AFSA, the Bank must demonstrate how the Bank used an assumption or adjustment (whether or not the AFSA required the assumption or adjustment to be approved).
(3) A Bank must set a prudent limit on the extent to which floating-rate exposures are funded by fixed-rate sources (and vice versa). In floating-rate lending, the Bank must set a prudent limit to the extent to which it runs any basis risk that would arise if lending and funding were not based on identical market interest rates.
(4) A Bank must set a prudent limit on the extent to which floating-rate exposures are funded by fixedrate sources (and vice versa). In floating-rate lending, the Bank must set a prudent limit to the extent to which it runs any basis risk that would arise if lending and funding were not based on identical market interest rates.
(5) A Bank must identify the effect of IRRBB before it introduces a new product or activity. The Bank must consider managing the effect through hedging (using swaps or other derivatives).
8.4. Stress Testing and IRRBB
(1) A Bank must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to IRRBB, in each currency in which 5% or more of its Banking Book assets or Banking Book liabilities is denominated. This evaluation must be carried out at least on an annual basis.
(2) A Bank must carry out stress-testing of its exposures to IRRBB at least on a quarterly basis. This stress-testing must:
- (a) determine the re-pricing gap between the Bank’s assets and liabilities, before and after the effect of derivative instruments is taken into consideration;
- (b) determine the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions, on the Bank’s net interest income from the forecast Banking Book; and
- (c) apply a 200 basis point shock to each material currency in which 5% or more of its Banking Book assets or Banking Book liabilities is denominated.
(3) The AFSA may, in writing, specify a different level of interest rate shock as compared to the standard 200 basis point shock, for specific Banks.
(4) A Bank must include appropriate scenarios in its stress-testing to measure the Bank’s vulnerability to loss under adverse interest rate movements. In determining the effect of a rate change on its net interest income, the Bank must not assume that the rate will become negative.
(5) A Bank must report the results of its stress-testing to the AFSA, in the form prescribed by the AFSA.
(6) A Bank must immediately notify the AFSA, if any stress-testing under this Chapter involving an interest rate shock described in (2) above, indicates a potential decline in the economic value of the bank by an amount exceeding 20% of its Total Capital as defined in Chapter 4 of BBR.
8.5 Frequency of stress testing
(1) A Bank must carry out the stress testing required by Rule 8.4 (2) as frequently as necessary for it to be reasonably satisfied that it has at all times a sufficient understanding of the degree to which it is exposed to the risks referred to in that rule and the nature of that exposure. In any case it must carry out those evaluations no less frequently than required by Rule 8.4 (2).
(2) In order to carry out effectively the stress testing requirements specified in Rule 8.4 (2), a Bank must include appropriate scenarios into its stress testing programmes for measuring its vulnerability to loss arising from the impact of adverse interest rate movements on its Banking Book structure.
8.6 IRRBB and Relation to ICAAP
(1) A Bank must be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that its ICAAP adequately captures its exposure to IRRBB.
(2) In order to meet effectively the obligations it faced under ICAAP which includes the need to address IRRBB exposures, a Bank is required to make a written record of its assessments and stress testing made under this Chapter and rules relating to ICAAP.
CHAPTER 9. Liquidity Risk
Introduction
Introduction
Guidance
(1) This Chapter addresses the regulatory requirements in respect of managing the Liquidity Risk exposures of a Bank. Liquidity risk is the risk that a Bank may not be able to meet its financial obligations as they fall due. Among all the prudential risks faced by a Bank, Liquidity Risk is highly related to group risk in that a Bank that is a member of a group could be called on to make good on commitments and guarantees in favour of the other members of its group, whether financial or non-financial members.
(2) This Chapter includes requirements that a Bank:
- (a) implement a comprehensive Liquidity Risk management framework to manage, measure and monitor Liquidity Risk commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of its operations;
- (b) adopt prudent practices in managing Liquidity Risk;
- (c) have adequate sources of stable long-term funding;
- (d) have sufficient resources and funding to withstand severe liquidity stress; and
- (e) maintain an adequate level of liquidity, according to the norms, methodologies, standards and guidance provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(3) The detailed requirements specifying the calculation methodologies, parameters, metrics and formulae in respect of the primary liquidity requirements outlined in this Chapter are provided in the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. The BPG also provides detailed guidance on calculation methodologies, formulae, parameters and norms involved in calculation of quantitative liquidity requirements like the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) and the Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR). It is suggested that this Chapter of the BBR, be read in conjunction with Chapter 9 of the BPG issued by the AFSA, to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
9.1. Liquidity Risk Management – Systems and Controls
(1) A Bank must:
- (a) identify, assess, monitor, mitigate and, control its Liquidity Risk;
- (b) implement and maintain a comprehensive Liquidity Risk management framework that is appropriate for the nature and level of its Liquidity Risk;
- (c) hold adequate liquid assets, at all times, to ensure that it can meet all liabilities as they arise in the course of its business;
- (d) maintain sufficient amount of high- quality liquid assets to enable it to withstand any reasonably foreseeable liquidity stress;
- (e) develop and maintain a robust funding strategy to ensure that its activities are, and will continue to be, funded from stable sources;
- (f) be able to identify potential liquidity shortfalls by constructing maturity ladders based on appropriate periods and monitoring them;
- (g) prepare a contingency funding plan to meet liquidity shortfalls; and
- (h) implement and maintain a Liquidity Risk management policy which enables it to identify, assess, monitor, control and mitigate Liquidity Risk.
(2) The Liquidity Risk management policy must:
- (a) be documented and include the Bank’s risk appetite for Liquidity risk;
- (b) be appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its activities;
- (c) must establish procedures, systems, processes, controls and approaches to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate its Liquidity Riskand to ensure the integrity of its Liquidity Riskmanagement;
- (d) establish, and must provide for the regular review of, the Bank’s Liquidity Risktolerance and other quantitative and qualitative limits to control Liquidity Risk exposures and vulnerabilities;
- (e) must set out the organizational structure, and must define the responsibilities and roles, for managing Liquidity Risk
- (f) ensure that its risk management framework including but not limited to tools, methodologies and, systems enable it to implement its Liquidity Risk management policy; and
- (g) be reviewed and updated at a reasonable frequency, but at least on an annual basis.
(3) The Liquidity Risk management policy must enable the Bank to carry out stress-tests using various scenarios based on appropriate assumptions. The policy must take into account the Bank’s Liquidity Risk profile (including on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet risks) and tolerance in the context of the markets and macroeconomic conditions in which the Bank operates.
(4) The Bank must have specific policies on:
- (a) the composition and maturity of assets and liabilities;
- (b) the diversity and stability of funding sources; and
- (c) the approach to managing liquidity in different currencies, across borders, and across business lines and legal entities. Note Guidance in respect of the contents of a Bank’s Liquidity Risk management policy which is required to satisfy the regulatory requirement in the Rule 9.1 is provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
9.2. Role of Governing Body—Liquidity Risk
(1) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that its Liquidity risk management policy enables it to obtain a comprehensive bank-wide view of its Liquidity risk exposures and is consistent with the Bank’s risk profile and systemic importance.
(2) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that a comprehensive Liquidity Risk management framework is implemented and maintained; and that it is documented, and reviewed at least annually;
(3) A Bank must ensure that its Governing Body is responsible for monitoring the nature and level of Liquidity Risk assumed by it and for monitoring the Liquidity Risk management process.
(4) The Governing Body of the Bank must also ensure that:
- (a) an appropriate senior management structure with clearly defined responsibilities and roles for Liquidity Risk management and for compliance with the Bank’s Risk strategy, is established and maintained;
- (b) the Bank’s senior management and other relevant staff have the necessary experience to manage Liquidity Risk and to effectively implement the Liquidity Riskmanagement policy;
- (c) appropriate liquidity limits covering Liquidity Risk management in both day-to-day and stressed conditions are set;
- (d) stress-tests, funding strategies, contingency funding plans and holdings of high-quality liquid assets are effective and appropriate for the Bank;
(5) The Governing Body must regularly review reports on the Bank’s liquidity and, where necessary, information on new or emerging Liquidity Risks, with a particular view towards monitoring Liquidity Risk. The Governing Body of the Bank must also review the Liquidity Risk tolerance and strategy at least on an annual basis.
(6) The Governing Body must approve:
- (a) the Bank’s Liquidity Risk management policy;
- (b) its Liquidity Risk tolerance and risk strategy;
- (c) its funding strategy; and
- (d) its contingency funding plan.
9.3. Role of senior management – Liquidity Risk
In order to ensure sound management of the Bank’s Liquidity Risk profile, the senior management of a Bank, must do all of the following:
- (a) develop a Liquidity Riskmanagement policy in accordance with the Bank’s approved Liquidity Risktolerance;
- (b) develop and implement a liquidity management strategy, processes and procedures, taking into account the Bank’s approved Liquidity Risktolerance;
- (c) ensure that the Bank maintains sufficient liquidity at all times;
- (d) determine the structure, responsibilities and controls for managing Liquidity Risk, and for overseeing the liquidity positions, of the Bank and all of its branches and subsidiaries in all of the jurisdictions in which the Bank and its branches and subsidiaries are active, and set out that structure and those responsibilities and controls clearly in the Bank’s liquidity policies;
- (e) continuously monitor information on the Bank’s liquidity developments and report to the Governing Body regularly.
- (f) monitor market trends that could present significant, unprecedented or complex challenges for managing Liquidity Risk so that appropriate and timely changes can be made to its Liquidity Riskmanagement policy.
- (g) ensure that the Bank has adequate internal controls to ensure the integrity of its Liquidity Risk management processes;
- (h) determine, and set out in the Bank’s liquidity risk management policy, the structure, responsibilities and controls for managing Liquidity Risk and for overseeing the liquidity positions of all legal entities, branches and subsidiaries in the jurisdictions in which the Bank is active; and
- (i) ensure that stress tests, contingency funding plans and holdings of high-quality liquid assets are effective and appropriate for the Bank;
- (j) establish reporting criteria specifying the scope, manner and frequency of reporting for various recipients (such as the Bank’s Governing Body and senior management and any relevant committee of the governing body) and fix who is responsible for preparing the reports; and
- (k) establish the specific procedures and approvals necessary for making exceptions to policies and limits, including the escalation procedures and follow-up actions to be taken for breaches of limits.
9.4 Liquidity Risk tolerance
(1) A Bank’s Liquidity Risk tolerance must be appropriate for the Bank’s operations and strategy and its role in the financial systems in which it operates.
(2) The Bank must review its Liquidity Risk tolerance at least annually to reflect the Bank’s financial condition and funding capacity.
(3) The Bank’s Governing Body and senior management must ensure that the Bank’s Liquidity Risk tolerance allows the Bank to effectively manage its liquidity in such a way that the Bank can withstand prolonged liquidity stress.
(4) The Bank must document its Liquidity Risk tolerance in a way that clearly states the trade-off between risks and profits.
9.5 Liquidity Risk Management – Processes and Procedures
(1) A Bank must have a sound process for identifying, measuring, monitoring and controlling Liquidity Risk. The process must include a robust framework for comprehensively projecting cashflows arising from assets, liabilities and off-balance-sheet items over an appropriate set of time horizons.
(2) A Bank must set limits to control its Liquidity Risk exposure and vulnerabilities. The limits and the corresponding escalation procedures must be reviewed regularly. The limits must be relevant to the business in terms of its location, the complexity of its operations, the nature of its products, and the currencies and markets it serves. If a limit is breached, the Bank must implement a plan of action to review the exposure and reduce it to a level that is within the limit.
(3) A Bank must actively manage its collateral positions, distinguishing between encumbered and unencumbered assets. The Bank must monitor the legal entity in which, and the physical location where, collateral is held and how collateral can be mobilised in a timely manner.
(4) A Bank must design a set of early warning indicators to help its daily Liquidity Risk management processes to identify the emergence of increased risk or vulnerabilities in its liquidity position or potential funding needs. The indicators must be structured so as to help identify negative trends in the Bank’s liquidity position and to lead to an assessment and a potential response by management to mitigate the Bank’s exposure to the trends.
(5) A Bank must have a reliable management information system that provides the governing body, senior management and other appropriate personnel with timely and forward-looking information on the Bank’s liquidity position. A Bank must actively manage its intraday liquidity positions to meet payment and settlement obligations on a timely basis under both normal and stressed market conditions, thus contributing to the orderly functioning of payment and settlement systems.
(6) A Bank must develop and implement a costs and benefits allocation process for funding and liquidity. The process must appropriately apportion the costs of prudent liquidity management to the sources of Liquidity Risk, and must provide appropriate incentives to manage Liquidity Risk.
(7) A Bank that is active in multiple currencies:
- (a) must assess its aggregate foreign currency liquidity needs and determine an acceptable level of currency mismatches; and
- (b) must undertake a separate analysis of its strategy for each significant currency, considering possible constraints during periods of liquidity stress.
(8) Such a Bank must also maintain a portfolio of high-quality liquid assets consistent with the distribution of its liquidity needs by currency. A currency is considered as significant for a Bank if its liabilities denominated in that currency amount to 5% or more of its total liabilities.
9.6 Delegation of day-to-day Liquidity Risk Management
(1) A Bank may delegate the day-to-day management of its Liquidity Risk to another entity in the same Group for management on a Group basis only if:
- (a) the Governing Body of the Bank has formally approved the delegation and keeps the delegation under review; and
- (b) the Bank notifies the AFSA in writing of the delegation on a priori basis.
(2) If a Bank delegates the management of its Liquidity Risk in accordance with (1), the requirements in this Chapter continue to apply to the Bank.
9.7 Notification about liquidity concerns
(1) A Bank must ensure that its Governing Body and senior management are informed immediately of new and emerging liquidity concerns.
(2) The Bank must notify the AFSA of any significant concerns that the Bank may have about its current or future liquidity. In particular, the Bank must immediately notify the AFSA if the Bank experiences a severe liquidity stress. The notice must describe any remedial action taken, or planned, to address the concerns or liquidity stress.
9.8. Funding Strategy
(1) A Bank must establish, and must regularly review, strategies for the ongoing measurement and monitoring of funding requirements. The resultant funding strategy must provide effective diversification in the source and nature of its funding.
Note Subrule (1) of Rule 9.8 does not apply to Credit Providers.
(2) A Bank must ensure that the funding strategy is documented and is approved by its Governing Body. A Bank must ensure that its funding strategy is reviewed regularly and at least annually and is updated as necessary in light of changed funding conditions and any change in the Bank’s strategy.
(3) The Bank must promptly inform the AFSA of any material changes to its funding strategy.
(4) A Bank must assess regularly its capacity to raise funds quickly. A Bank must assess market access under a variety of normal and stressed conditions.
(5) A Bank must:
- (a) develop and document a 3-yearly funding strategy;
- (b) identify the main factors that affect its ability to raise funds;
- (c) monitor those factors closely to ensure that estimates of fund raising capacity remain valid;
- (d) maintain a continuing presence in its chosen funding markets; and
- (e) maintain strong relationships with funds providers.
9.9 Stress-testing and Liquidity Risk tolerance
(1) A Bank must carry out stress-testing using various short-term and long-term Bank-specific and market-wide liquidity stress scenarios, to identify sources of potential liquidity strain and to ensure that the Bank’s exposures remain within its Liquidity Risk tolerance. The tests must be carried out at intervals appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the Bank’s business and for its risk profile.
(2) In respect of the stress testing, a Bank must
- (a) use conservative and regularly-reviewed assumptions;
- (b) use scenarios based on varying degrees of short-term and protracted institution-specific and systemic market-wide stress (individually and in combination); and
- (c) include a cash-flow projection for each scenario tested, based on reasonable estimates of the impact (both on and off-balance sheet) of that scenario on the Bank's funding needs and sources.
(3) A Bank’s stress test scenarios and related assumptions must be fully documented and frequently reviewed to ensure they remain appropriate
(4) The Bank must report to the AFSA, in the form that the AFSA directs, the results of its stresstesting. The Bank must use results to adjust its positions, to review its Liquidity Risk management policy, and to develop effective contingency funding plans.
9.10 Contingency Funding Plan
(1) A Bank must have a documented Contingency Funding Plan (CFP) that sets out clearly its strategies for addressing liquidity shortfalls in emergency situations. The plan must set out available funding sources and the amount of funds that the Bank estimates can be obtained from those sources. A Bank must ensure that its CFP is approved by its Governing Body.
(2) The CFP must be flexible enough to enable the Bank to respond quickly in various situations. It must address the issues over various periods (including intraday) and must establish clear lines of responsibility and communication.
(3) The Bank must review and update its CFP every year (or more often as changing business or market circumstances require) for the governing body’s approval.
(4) The CFP must be commensurate with a Bank’s complexity, risk profile and scope of operations and its role in the financial systems in which it operates. Note Detailed standards and guidance in respect of a Bank’s Contingency Funding Plan which is required to satisfy the regulatory requirement in the Rule 9.10 is provided in the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(5) A Bank must review and update its CFP, at least annually for approval by its Governing Body, or more frequently if required by business or market circumstances. It must test its CFP regularly to ensure it is effective and operationally feasible.
(6) A Bank must ensure that its CFP is consistent with its business continuity and disaster recovery arrangements and can operate in situations where business continuity arrangements have been invoked.
9.11 Relation to Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)
A Bank must be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that its ICAAP adequately captures Liquidity Risk. This is so even if the effect of Liquidity Risk on the Bank’s capital is indirect (for example, by reducing the value of the Bank’s assets at the time they are realised).
9.12 Liquidity Risk in foreign currency business
(1) This rule applies to a Bank if:
- (a) the Bank’s foreign currency business is significant; or
- (b) the Bank has significant exposure in a particular foreign currency.
(2) A Bank’s business in a currency is significant, and the Bank’s exposure in a currency is significant, if 5% or more of the gross value of its balance-sheet assets, balance-sheet liabilities or off-balancesheet financial activities is denominated in the currency.
(3) A Bank to which this rule applies must undertake separate analysis of its policies (and monitor its liquidity needs) for each significant currency.
(4) The Bank must carry out regular stress-testing to determine the extent of mismatches in each significant currency and, if appropriate, to set limits on its cash flow mismatches for each such currency and for all those currencies in total.
(5) The Bank must monitor its liquidity needs in each significant currency and must be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that it can transfer liquidity from one currency to another across jurisdictions and legal entities.
9.13 Management of encumbered assets
A Bank must set a prudent limit for encumbered assets. The Bank must keep adequate records to enable it to disclose the level of its encumbered assets to the AFSA, if required to do so.
9.14 Consequences of breaches and changes
(1) If a Liquidity Risk limit is breached, a Bank must review the exposure and reduce it to a level that is within the limit.
(2) The Bank must make appropriate adjustments to the management of its Liquidity Risk in the light of the Bank’s changing risk profile, funding strategy, and developments in the markets and macroeconomic conditions in which it operates.
9.15 Liquidity Requirements
(1) The quantitative liquidity requirements and liquid asset maintenance requirements defined in this Chapter, apply to a Bank on a solo basis, unless specified.
(2) The AFSA may require a Bank to comply with the liquidity requirements defined in this Chapter to its Financial Group, if the Bank and its Financial Group are subject to consolidated supervision.
(3) A Bank must calculate and comply with the following liquidity requirements, which are detailed in the remaining sections of this Chapter.
- (a) Liquidity Coverage Ratio
- (b) Net stable funding ratio
- (c) Maturity Mismatch Limits
9.16 Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)
(1) The Rules 9.16 to 9.18 apply only to Banks licensed to conduct the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits. These rules, regarding compliance with LCR requirement are not applicable to Broker Dealers or Credit Providers.
Note Although the references in these rules are made to Banks, for the sake of clarity it is reiterated that the use of the term Bank in Rules 9.16 to 9.18 only apply to Banks conducting the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits.
(2) A Bank must, except as provided in Rule 9.17, maintain a LCR of at least 100% from 1st January 2019 and a LCR of at least 90% till 31st December 2018.
(3) A Bank must calculate its LCR using the following formula and in accordance with the methodology, formulae, parameters and guidance set out in Chapter 9 of the BPG issued by the AFSA. LCR is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
Note Detailed guidance specifying the tools, methodologies, parameters and formulae for calculating the LCR are set out in Section D of Chapter 9 of the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(4) A Bank must calculate its LCR on an ongoing basis and separately for each material currency, in which it does banking business. A Bank must report to the AFSA its aggregate LCR calculation in USD.
(5) The AFSA may by written notice to A Bank in relation to the LCR Requirement applying to it:
- (a) adjust the LCR Requirement;
- (b) adjust requirements under section D of Chapter 9 of the BPG for calculating its stock of HQLA or the Total Net Cash Outflows;
- (c) alter the calculation methodologies or parameters for the purposes of the LCR Requirement;
- (d) disapply the LCR Requirement; or
- (e) impose additional requirements based on its assessment of the Liquidity Risk exposure of that Bank.
(6) If the AFSA amends a requirement under (4)(a), (b), (c) or (e), the Bank must comply with the requirement as amended. If the AFSA disapplies a requirement under (1)(d), the Bank need not comply with that requirement.
(7) The procedures in Schedule 1 of the AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations No 18 of 2017, will apply to a decision of the AFSA under (4)(a),(b),(c) or (e).
(8) If the AFSA decides to exercise its power under (4)(a),(b),(c) or (e), the Bank may refer the matter to the AIFC Court for review.
(9) If the AFSA considers that a Bank is overly reliant on cash inflows from a single wholesale counterparty or a small number of wholesale counterparties, the AFSA may direct the Bank as to how such cash flows are to be treated in the calculation of its LCR.
(10) The AFSA may allow a Bank that is a branch, or is a Subsidiary of an entity established outside the AIFC, to recognise, as cash inflow, access to its parent entity’s funds by way of a committed funding facility, up to a limit specified in the facility documentation. The facility:
- (a) must be an irrevocable commitment; and
- (b) must be appropriately documented.
9.17 Liquidation of assets during periods of stress
During a period of financial or liquidity stress, a Bank may liquidate part of its stock of HQLA and use the cash generated to cover cash outflows. Its level of HQLA may fall below the levels required under its LCR Requirement to the extent necessary to deal with cash outflows during that period.
9.18 Notification if LCR Requirement not met
A Bank must notify the AFSA in writing immediately if it does not meet or becomes aware of circumstances that may result in it not meeting, its LCR Requirement. This obligation applies even during a period of stress referred to in Rule 9.17.
9.19 Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR)
(1) The Rules 9.19 to 9.20 apply only to Banks licensed to conduct the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits. These rules, regarding compliance with NSFR requirement are not applicable to Broker Dealers or Credit Providers.
Note Although the references in these rules are made to Banks, for the sake of clarity it is reiterated that the use of the term Bank in Rules 9.19 to 9.20 only apply to Banks conducting the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits.
(2) A Bank must calculate its NSFR using the following formula and in accordance with the methodology, formulae, parameters and guidance set out in Section E of Chapter 9 of the BPG issued by the AFSA. NSFR is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
The ASF and RSF used in this calculation of NSFR are to be determined in accordance with the methodology, formulae and guidance provided in Section E of Chapter 9 of the BPG.
(3) A Bank must maintain a NSFR of at least 100%, at all times. That is, its ASF must always be equal to or greater than its RSF.
9.20 Notification of breach of NSFR Requirement
(1) A Bank must notify the AFSA in writing immediately if it fails to meet, or becomes aware of circumstances that may result in it not meeting, its NSFR Requirement. In the notification the Bank must clearly explain:
- (a) why it ceased to meet, or thinks it may cease to meet, the requirement;
- (b) when it expects to again be able to meet the requirement; and
- (c) what it has done and will do to ensure that it meets the requirement in future, or continues to meet it, as the case requires.
(2) A Bank that gives such a notification should discuss with the AFSA what further steps it should take to deal with the situation.
9.21 The Maturity Mismatch approach
(1) A Bank must use the Maturity Mismatch approach, as set out in this rule, to measure liquidity. Under this approach, a Bank must determine the net cumulative Maturity Mismatch position for each time band by:
- (a) determining, in accordance with the methodology in section F of Chapter 9 of the BPG, the inflows (assets) and outflows (liabilities) which are, subject to their falling within one of the time bands, to be included in the Maturity Ladder and at what maturities;
- (b) inserting each inflow (asset) and outflow (liability) into one or more of the following time bands on the Maturity Ladder:
- (i) sight – 8 days; or
- (ii) sight – 1 month; and
- (c) subtracting outflows (liabilities) from inflows (assets) in each time band. Note Detailed guidance specifying the tools, methodologies, parameters and formulae for calculating the LCR are set out in Section F of Chapter 9 of the BPG issued by the AFSA.
(2) A Bank must determine a net cumulative Maturity Mismatch position for each time band in respect of each of the deposits it has raised as a means of funding.
(3) A Bank must calculate its net cumulative Maturity Mismatch position as a percentage of the means of funding in each time band in accordance with the following formula:
Total deposit liabilities net cumulative Maturity Mismatch (%) =
(4) A Bank must ensure that its net cumulative Maturity Mismatch position as calculated in (3) above in each time band does not exceed the following:
- (a) sight – 8 days, negative 15%; and
- (b) sight – 1 month, negative 25%.
A Bank must notify the AFSA in writing immediately if it exceeds these net cumulative Maturity Mismatch limits.
9.22 Recognition of funding facility from parent entity
(1) This rule applies to a Bank that is operating as a branch in the AIFC.
(2) The AFSA may allow such a Bank to recognise, as an asset, access to its parent entity’s funds by way of a committed funding facility, up to a limit specified in the facility documentation. The facility:
- (a) must be an irrevocable commitment; and
- (b) must be appropriately documented.
CHAPTER 10. Group Risk
Introduction
Guidance
(1) This Chapter deals with management of Group Risk exposure of a Bank. Group Risk refers to the risk of potential losses incurred by a Bank on account of its relationship with other members of its Financial Group, if it were to be part of one.
(2) This Chapter includes requirements that a Bank implement:
- (a) an effective management framework for Group Risk exposure;
- (b) a specified methodology for the calculation of Financial Group Capital Resources and Financial Group Capital Requirements.
(3) This Chapter also includes requirements limiting Financial Group exposures.
(4) The detailed requirements specifying the calculation methodologies, parameters, and guidance in respect of the primary rule requirements outlined in this Chapter are provided in Chapter 10 of the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. It is suggested that this Chapter of the BBR, be read in conjunction with Chapter 10 of the BPG issued by the AFSA, to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
10.1 Financial Group – definition
(1) The AFSA may require a Bank to:
- (a) form a Financial Group with any other entity within its Group; or
- (b) include within its Financial Group any other entity within its Group;where the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable to do so in the interests of effectivesupervision of the Bank.
(2) A Bank may, for the purposes of this section, exclude from its Financial Group any entity the inclusion of which would be misleading or inappropriate for the purposes of Financial Group supervision, provided the Bank has obtained the AFSA’s prior written approval.
(3) A Bank must provide to the AFSA, if requested, any of the following information in relation to its Group or Financial Group:
- (a) details as to the entities within the Group or Financial Group;
- (b) the structure of the Group or Financial Group; and
- (c) the systems and controls in place to manage Group Risk.
10.2 Group Risk – Systems and Controls
(1) A Bank that is a member of a Group must establish and maintain systems and controls for the purpose of:
- (a) monitoring the effect on the Bank of:
- (i) its relationship with other members of its Group;
- (ii) its membership in its Group; and
- (iii) the activities of other members of its Group;
- (b) monitoring compliance with Financial Group supervision requirements below, including systems for the production of relevant data;
- (c) monitoring funding within the Group; and
- (d) monitoring compliance with Financial Group reporting requirements.
(2) A Bank must have systems and controls to enable it to determine and monitor:
- (a) its Financial Group Capital Requirement; and
- (b) whether its Financial Group Capital Resources is, and is likely to remain, in compliance with the regulatory capital ratios specified in Chapter 4 of BBR.
(3) Such systems and controls referred in (2), must include an analysis of:
- (a) realistic scenarios which are relevant to the circumstances of the Financial Group; and
- (b) the effects on the Financial Group Capital Requirement and on the Financial Group Capital Resources if those scenarios occurred.
(4) A Bank’s Governing Body must ensure that the Bank’s group risk management policy addresses, on a group-wide basis, all risks arising from the Bank’s relationship with every other member of its group.
10.3 Financial Group Capital Requirement
(1) The Financial Group Capital requirements specified in this rule does not apply to a Bank if:
- (a) the Bank’s Financial Group is already the subject of Financial Group prudential supervision by the AFSA as a result of the authorisation of another Financial Group member;
- (b) the AFSA has confirmed in writing, in response to an application from the Bank, that it is satisfied that the Bank’s Group is the subject of consolidated prudential supervision by an appropriate regulator; or
- (c) except where the AFSA has directed the inclusion of an entity pursuant to Rule 10.1, the percentage of total assets of Banks and Financial Institutions in the Financial Group is less than 40% of the total Financial Group assets.
(2) If a Bank receives confirmation in writing from the AFSA in accordance with (1)(b) above, it must immediately advise the AFSA in writing if there is any change in the circumstances upon which such a confirmation was based.
(3) The regulatory capital ratios specified in Rule 4.12, which applies to a Bank, also apply to its Financial Group. A Bank forming part of a Financial Group, must ensure that its Financial Group meets or exceeds the minimum level of regulatory capital ratios, as defined in Rule 4.12, calculated on a consolidated basis for the entire Financial Group.
(4) A Bank must ensure at all times that its Financial Group capital resources exceed its Financial Group capital requirement.
(5) For the purpose of (3) above, Financial Group capital resources and Financial Group capital requirement must be calculated for the Financial Group as a whole, using the methods specified in Chapter 4 of BBR.
(6) An Bank must calculate its Financial Group Capital Requirement by applying the accounting consolidation method, which calculates the Capital Requirement of the Financial Group based on the Financial Group’s consolidated financial statements, and using applicable prudential rules in BBR. For the purposes of this rule, the consolidated financial statements of the Financial Group must be prepared in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards.
(7) A Bank must calculate its Financial Group Capital Resources by applying either of the following methods:
(a) the accounting consolidation method, which calculates the Capital Resources of the Financial Group based on the Financial Group’s consolidated financial statements; or
(b) the aggregation method, which is the sum of:
- (ii) subject to (2), the Capital Resources of any Banks and Financial Institutions included in the Financial Group, less amount of investments made by one Financial Group member in another; and
- (iii) the Financial Group’s proportionate share of Capital Resources in Financial Institutions not included in the Financial Group in which any member of the Financial Group has a participation.
(i) the Capital Resources of the Parent of the Financial Group;
(8) In calculating its financial group capital resources, the Bank must not include capital resources or adjusted capital resources (as the case may be) of subsidiaries or participations of that group to the extent that those capital resources or adjusted capital resources exceed the capital requirement for that Subsidiary or participation and are not freely transferable within the group.
(9) Deductions for Qualifying Holdings under Rule 4.29 may be calculated based on the Financial Group’s total T1 and T2 Capital.
10.4 Financial Group Concentration Risk limits
(1) Unless the AFSA directs otherwise, a prudential limit imposed in the BBR rules that applies to a Bank, also applies to the Bank’s Financial Group.
(2) A Bank must ensure that its Financial Group’s Exposure, to a Counterparty or group of Closely Related Counterparties does not exceed 25% of its Financial Group’s Capital Resources.
(3) A Bank must ensure that the sum of its Financial Group Large Exposures, to a Counterparty or group of Closely Related Counterparties does not exceed 800% of its Financial Group’s Capital Resources.
CHAPTER 11. Supervisory Review and Evaluation Processes
Introduction
Guidance
(1) This Chapter implements the critical Pillar II of the Basel III framework. Pillar II offers an avenue for addressing all the risk exposures faced by a Bank, which have not been covered in the estimation of capital requirements to absorb potential unexpected losses. The rules in this Chapter set out the regulatory requirements for Banks to carry out a self-assessment of their risks which can be reviewed and assessed by the regulator. This Chapter details the rules stipulating the need for Banks to complete internal risk assessments followed by an internal capital adequacy assessment process (ICAAP). The AFSA will review the results of the ICAAP. This Chapter also sets out how the AFSA may impose an additional capital requirement on a bank-specific basis in addition to the minimum capital requirement specified in Chapter 4 of the BBR.
(2) The detailed requirements specifying the methodologies, parameters, and guidance in respect of the ICAAP and Supervisory review process requirements for a Bank are provided in Chapter 11 of the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. It is suggested that this Chapter of the BBR, be read in conjunction with Chapter 11 of the BPG issued by the AFSA, to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
11.1 Application to a Financial Group
Where a Bank to which this Chapter applies is part of a Financial Group, this Chapter applies on a consolidated basis in relation to all the entities within the Financial Group.
11.2 Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)
(1) A Bank must implement and maintain an ICAAP which details the processes and procedures by which the Bank will assess and maintain adequate Capital Resources in relation to the risks faced by it.
(2) The Bank must conduct an ICAAP assessment at least annually giving due regard to the guidance in Chapter 11 of the BPG.
(3) The ICAAP assessment conducted by the Bank pursuant to (2) must be approved by its Governing Body and then submitted to the AFSA within four months from the end of the Bank’s financial year.
(4) In addition to (2), the Bank must conduct an ICAAP assessment:
- (a) whenever there is material change to the business, strategy, nature or scale of the activities of the Bank which may have a significant impact on its risk profile or adequacy of its regulatory capital; or
- (b) as and when required by the AFSA.
(5) The ICAAP assessment conducted by the Bank pursuant to (4) must be approved by its Governing Body and then submitted to the AFSA within two months from the date of such material change or requirement.
(6) A Bank must ensure that an ICAAP assessment is documented in writing and includes details of:
- (a) the calculations and models used in the determination of the level of Capital Requirements which it considers will be adequate to cover all the risks identified by its ICAAP assessment;
- (b) the Bank’s strategies and plans to ensure availability of the level of capital determined by the ICAAP;
- (c) specifications of any models used in the ICAAP, including the underlying assumptions, parameters, and results of back-testing; and
- (d) any other relevant information, giving due and appropriate regard to the guidance in Chapter 11 of the BPG.
(7) A Bank must retain the records of an ICAAP assessment for at least six years.
11.3 Imposition of an Individual Capital Requirement
(1) The AFSA may, subject to (3) and (4), at any time by written notice to a Bank:
- (a) impose an Individual Capital Requirement; or
- (b) vary or withdraw an Individual Capital Requirement.
(2) The AFSA may impose or vary an Individual Capital Requirement by written notice, on its own initiative, where the AFSA forms the view that the Bank’s Capital Requirement is insufficient to address adequately all its risks.
(3) The AFSA will, in addition to prescribing an Individual Capital Requirement, also specify in the notice the types and amounts of Capital Resources required to meet the Individual Capital Requirement.
(4) Any decisions made under this Rule 11.3 will be subject to the decision-making procedures set out in Schedule 1 of the AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations (FSFR).
(5) If the AFSA decides to exercise its power under (2) after a Licence has been granted, the Bank may refer the matter to the AIFC Court for review.
(6) A Bank must have and maintain, at all times, regulatory capital as defined in by the rules in Chapter 4 of BBR as well as capital meeting the types and amounts specified in the notice issued to it under this rule to meet its Individual Capital Requirement.
CHAPTER 12. Public Disclosures Requirements
Introduction
Guidance
(1) This Chapter implements the Pillar III of the Basel III framework. Pillar III is aimed at facilitating market discipline which is considered as one of the effective mechanisms to achieve safety and soundness of banks. The rules in this Chapter set out the regulatory requirements for Banks to make periodic disclosures of relevant and material information about their business activities and data on risk exposures assumed by them.
(2) The detailed public disclosure requirements specifying the data items to be disclosed and related guidance are provided in Chapter 12 of the Banking Prudential Guideline (BPG) issued by the AFSA. It is suggested that this Chapter of the BBR, be read in conjunction with Chapter 12 of the BPG issued by the AFSA, to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
12.1 Application to a Financial Group
(1) A Bank, which is a member of a Financial Group, according to Chapter 10 of BBR, must ensure that the detailed disclosures specified in Chapter 12 of the BPG are made on a consolidated basis, at the level of the Financial Group.
(2) A Bank which is a Subsidiary of a regulated bank or financial institution or another Bank, which is already subject to equivalent public disclosure requirements, does not need to comply with the requirements in this Chapter to the extent that it meets those equivalent public disclosure requirements.
12.2 Disclosure policy
(1) A Bank must implement and maintain a written disclosure policy that:
- (a) sets out the Bank’s approach for determining which of the disclosures set out in Chapter 12 of the BPG it needs to make;
- (b) details the processes and procedures and its internal controls in relation to such disclosure details the medium for disclosure that most appropriately meets the purposes of this chapter; and
- (c) is approved by the Governing Body of the Bank.
(2) A Bank must ensure that appropriate verification, whether internal or external, is performed in relation to any disclosure, and take all reasonable steps to ensure its accuracy and timeliness.
(3) To the extent that any required disclosure is substantially similar to a disclosure required of the Bank under the International Financial Reporting Standards, a disclosure under such standards must be taken to meet the requirement for disclosure under this Chapter.
12.3 Disclosure frequency, locations and omissions
Frequency
(1) The disclosures set out in this Chapter must be made by the Bank at least once a year, other than disclosures of CET1 Capital, T1 Capital and T2 Capital, deductions from Capital Resources, Liquidity Coverage Ratio and Leverage Ratios which must be made on a quarterly basis.
(2) Reporting deadlines must be in accordance with quarterly and annual reporting obligations under Chapter 3 of BBR. Locations
(3) A Bank must, subject to (2), make these disclosures either in its annual report or periodic financial statements.
(4) A Bank may disclose the items marked as quantitative in Chapter 12 of the BPG in a medium or location other than its annual report or periodic financial statements, provided that:
- (a) it has prior approval of the AFSA to do so;
- (b) the annual report or periodic financial statements contain clear references to the location of such disclosures; and
- (c) such disclosures are readily accessible by the market. Omissions
(5) A Bank may omit certain disclosures if the omitted item is:
- (a) not material, in accordance with the concept of materiality under the International Financial Reporting Standards,
- (b) proprietary in nature, and the disclosure of the relevant information to the public would undermine the Bank’s competitive position or render the Bank’s investments in products and systems less valuable, or
- (c) confidential in nature, and the disclosure of the relevant information would violate or jeopardise confidentiality agreements with Clients or Counterparties.
(6) Where in reliance upon (5)(b) or (c) above, a Bank omits an item that is marked as a quantitative disclosure in Chapter 12 of the BPG, it must disclose general qualitative information about the subject matter of that particular requirement, together with the reasons for the omission.
PRUDENTIAL RULES FOR INVESTMENT FIRMS
Prudential Rules for Investment Firms
Guidance: Purpose of this Rulebook
The purpose of this Rulebook, “PRU(INV)”, is to complement the regulatory framework established by the Financial Services Framework Regulations (“the Framework Regulations”). It sets out the requirements for PRU Investments Firms to hold Capital Resources and other financial resources sufficient to cover the risks arising from their business. If the Rules operate as intended, a PRU Investment Firm should have a sufficient buffer of assets in excess of its liabilities so that there is only a very remote chance that it will become insolvent and thereby cause a loss to its customers and the wider financial markets (although the Rules do not guarantee that this will never happen). The Rules will also provide a legal basis on which the AFSA may take action against a PRU Investment Firm which it considers does not have sufficient capital and other financial resources - for example by requiring it to stop transacting any new business, so as to minimise the losses to clients and/or potential market participants that might result from a failing PRU Investment Firm. Such action would also further the AFSA's objectives to avert any potential harm to wider market stability and manifestation of systemic risk.
1. APPLICATION
1.1 Introduction
(1) This Chapter sets out the scope of application of PRU(INV).
(2) These PRU(INV) Rules create:
- (a) a general financial resources requirement in accordance with Chapter 2;
- (b) a minimum capital requirement in accordance with Chapter 3; and
- (c) a minimum net liquid assets requirement in accordance with Chapter 4.
(3) Chapter 5 provides for the requirements in PRU(INV) to apply at the level of the Financial Group of a PRU Investment Firm.
(4) Chapter 6 imposes reporting and notification requirements that relate to the matters covered by these PRU(INV) Rules.
1.2 Commencement
These PRU(INV) Rules commence on 1 January 2018.
1.3 Application of PRU(INV) Rules
(1) These PRU(INV) Rules apply to PRU Investment Firms.
(2) A "PRU Investment Firm" can be either a PRU Dealing Investment Firm or a PRU Intermediary Investment Firm.
(3) A "PRU Dealing Investment Firm" is an entity that has an Authorisation to conduct any of the following regulated activities:
- (a) Dealing In Investments as Principal; or
- (b) Dealing In Investments as Agent.
(4) A "PRU Intermediary Investment Firm" is an entity that has an Authorisation to conduct any of the following Regulated Activities:
- (a) Managing Investments;
- (b) Managing A Collective Investment Scheme, except for Managing a Collective Investment Scheme in relation to a Corporate Treasury Centre Fund;
- (c) Providing Custody Services;
- (d) Arranging Custody Services;
- (e) Providing Trust Services;
- (f) Providing Fund Administration;
- (g) Acting as A Trustee of A Fund;
- (h) Advising on Investments;
- (i) Arranging Deals in Investments; or
- (j) Managing Restricted Profit-Sharing Investment Accounts.
(5) The activities in Rule 1.3(3) and 1.3(4) are referred to as "PRU Investment Business".
(6) These PRU(INV) Rules do not apply to entities that have an Authorisation to conduct any of the following activities unless they are PRU Investment Firms, and the following activities are not PRU Investment Business:
- (a) Insurance Intermediation;
- (b) Representative Offices;
- (c) Market Activities; or
- (d) Ancillary Services;
- (e) Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility; or
- (f) Operating an Organised Trading Facility.
(7) The activities in Rule 1.3(6) are referred to as "Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business".
(8) If a PRU Investment Firm holds both an Authorisation to carry on PRU Investment Business and an Authorisation to carry on Non PRU(INV) Investment Business, it will be subject to these PRU(INV) Rules in relation to the whole of its business, including its Non PRU(INV) Investment Business. However, the AFSA may direct that the PRU Investment Firm will be deemed to satisfy:
- (a) some or all of these PRU(INV) Rules where it satisfies the rules thatapply to it by reason of the Authorisation to carry on Non PRU(INV) Investment Business; or
- (b) some or all of the rules that apply to it by reason of the Authorisation to carry on Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business where it satisfies these PRU(INV) Rules.
(9) Where a PRU Investment Firm makes an application to the AFSA for this Rule 1.3(9) to apply, and the AFSA is satisfied that:
- (a) the PRU Investment Firm is a legal entity that is authorised and regulated to carry out the same regulated activities by the Financial Services Regulator in the jurisdiction in which it is incorporated;
- (b) the PRU Investment Firm is subject to prudential regulation by that Financial Services Regulator in respect of the whole of its business, including the business carried on through its AIFC Operation; and
- (c) the level of prudential regulation is at least equivalent to the level of prudential regulation under these PRU(INV) Rules, as assessed by the AFSA, then the AFSA may direct that the PRU Investment Firm shall be an "Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm".
(10) Chapter 2 applies to an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm except as provided otherwise therein. Chapters 3 and 4 of these PRU(INV) Rules do not apply to Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firms. In Chapter 5, only Rule 5.3 applies to Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firms, and in Chapter 6, only Rule 6.6 applies to Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firms.
(11) Irrespective of whether a PRU Investment Firm is an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm, it must comply with these PRU(INV) Rules and with the rules of any other Financial Services Regulator, in each case to the extent applicable.
(12) Where it is satisfied that the business of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm is subject to risks that are not adequately addressed by the rules in PRU(INV), the AFSA may direct that PRU(INV) shall not apply to that PRU Dealing Investment Firm and that, instead, that PRU Dealing Investment Firm shall be subject to the rules that it has made in relation to the prudential regulation of entities that have an Authorisation from the AFSA to carry on banking business in the AIFC.
2. GENERAL FINANCIAL RESOURCES REQUIREMENTS
2.1 General
2.1.1 Governing Body’s responsibilities
(1) The Governing Body of a PRU Investment Firm, other than an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm, must consider whether the minimum Capital Resources and Liquid Assets required by these PRU(INV) Rules are adequate to ensure that there is no significant risk that the firm’s liabilities cannot be met as they fall due. The firm must obtain additional Capital Resources and Liquid Assets if its Governing Body considers that the minimum required does not adequately reflect the risks of its business.
(2) The Governing Body is also responsible for:
- (a) ensuring that the management of the firm’s Capital Resources and Liquid Assets is part of the firm’s overall risk management, and is aligned with the nature, scale and complexity of its business and its risk profile;
- (b) ensuring that the firm complies with these PRU(INV) Rules; and
- (c) monitoring the adequacy and appropriateness of the firm’s systems and controls and the firm’s compliance with them.
(3) The Governing Body of a PRU Investment Firm, including an Externally Regulated PRU
Investment Firm, shall identify any future circumstances and events that it considers to have a realistic probability of occurring and which would create a material risk that the PRU Investment Firm would become insolvent. For each set of circumstances and events, it shall assess how the financial position of the PRU Investment Firm would be affected, and what management actions it would expect to take in anticipation of, and as a result of, those circumstances and events in order to try to ensure that the PRU Investment Firm does not become insolvent and continues to comply with these PRU(INV) Rules.
(4) In addition, the Governing Body of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm, including an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm, shall conduct an annual internal capital adequacy assessment to examine how the PRU Dealing Investment Firm would be affected by adverse stresses and scenarios that might reasonably be expected to occur in a future period of three years and, in doing so, it shall take into account management actions that it would expect to take, and cashflows that it would expect to receive and pay, in anticipation of, and as a result of, those stresses and in those scenarios.
2.1.2 Systems and controls
(1) A PRU Investment Firm, other than an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm, must have adequate systems and controls to enable it to calculate and monitor its Capital Resources and Liquid Assets and its compliance with the requirements of these PRU(INV) Rules.
(2) The systems and controls must be in writing and must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the firm’s business and its risk profile.
(3) The systems and controls must enable the firm to demonstrate its compliance with these PRU(INV) Rules at all times.
(4) The systems and controls must enable the firm to manage its Capital Resources and Liquid Assets in anticipation of events or changes in market conditions.
(5) The firm must have contingency arrangements to maintain or increase its Capital Resources and Liquid Assets in times of stress.
2.2 Financial Resources
2.2.1 Financial resources
(1) A PRU Investment Firm, other than an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm, must have and maintain, at all times, Capital Resources and Liquid Assets of at least the minimum kinds and amounts required by, and calculated in accordance with, these PRU(INV) Rules.
(2) A PRU Investment Firm to which Rule 2.2.1(1) applies must have and maintain, at all times, Capital Resources and Liquid Assets that are adequate in relation to the nature, scale and complexity of its business and its risk profile, to ensure that there is no significant risk that its liabilities cannot be met as they fall due.
2.2.2 Financial resources—Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firms
An Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm must:
- (a) ensure that its AIFC Operation has, and maintains, at all times, access to financial resources that are adequate in relation to the nature, scale and complexity of the business of its AIFC Operation and its risk profile, to ensure that there is no significant risk that any liabilities assumed by or through the AIFC Operation cannot be met as they fall due;
- (b) if and to the extent so directed by the AFSA, hold some or all of the resources in paragraph
- (a) in one or more bank accounts or custody accounts maintained in Kazakhstan in the name of the AIFC Operation, on terms whereby those resources may be withdrawn and applied only by authorised representatives of the AIFC Operation; and
- (c) comply with the prudential requirements set by its home Financial Services Regulator.
2.2.3 Intervention power of AFSA
If the AFSA is not satisfied that a PRU Investment Firm is in compliance with Rule 2.2.1 or 2.2.2 (as applicable) then it may impose a requirement on that PRU Investment Firm to have and maintain additional amounts of Capital Resources and/or Liquid Assets, and/or to hold additional financial resources in one or more bank accounts or custody accounts maintained in Kazakhstan, and the PRU Investment Firm must comply with that requirement.
3. MINIMUM CAPITAL REQUIREMENT
3.1 Application of Chapter 3
This Chapter does not apply to a PRU Investment Firm that is an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm.
3.2 References to Capital Resources and currencies
(1) In these PRU(INV) Rules, "Capital Resources" must be calculated as the sum of the following capital elements, subject to deductions listed in (2) below:
- (a) the ordinary equity share capital of the PRU Investment Firm, to the extent fully paid up;
- (b) share premium accounts related to the equity share capital referred in paragraph (a);
- (c) any retained earnings and reserves created out of earnings of past periods of the Insurance Intermediary, and accumulated other comprehensive income, as defined in the International Financial Reporting Standards, to the extent shown in its audited financial statements and accounts; and
- (d) any amount directed by the AFSA under Rule 3.2(3).
(2) In determining its Capital Resources, a PRU Investment Firm must deduct the following items from the sum of the capital elements in (1) above:
- (a) any interim losses incurred by the PRU Investment Firm in the current financial year, irrespective of whether or not shown in audited financial statements and accounts;
- (b) each of the following, to the extent that its value contributes to the sum of the capital elements in (1) above:
- (i) goodwill and other intangible assets as defined in the International Financial Reporting Standards;
- (ii) tangible fixed assets, including equipment and vehicles;
- (iii) deferred tax assets that rely on future profitability;
- (iv) defined benefit pension fund assets of the Insurance Intermediary;
- (v) investments by the PRU Investment Firm or by any of its Subsidiaries in the Insurance Intermediary's own shares;
- (vi) holdings of equity shares of Affiliates or Related Persons which a reciprocal cross holding with the PRU Investment Firm which have the effect of artificially inflating the Capital Resources of the PRU Investment Firm;
- (vii) any investments in, and loans to, Affiliates or Related Persons; and
- (viii) holdings of other investments and assets that are not readily realisable into cash; and
- (c) any amount to be deducted from Capital Resources as directed by the AFSA.
(3) Where the AFSA is satisfied that a capital instrument issued by the PRU Investment Firm, and in respect of which the PRU Investment Firm has received the issuance proceeds in full, has characteristics of permanence and loss absorption that are sufficient to ensure that it would be available to absorb unexpected losses of the PRU Investment Firm, it may direct that some or all of the liabilities created by that instrument may be included in the Capital Resources of the PRU Investment Firm under Rule 3.2(1)(d).
Guidance
In deciding whether to exercise discretion under Rule 3.2(3), the AFSA will take into account whether the Basel Requirements are satisfied.
3.3 Minimum Capital Requirement
(1) A PRU Investment Firm must ensure that it maintains at all times Capital Resources of at least its Minimum Capital Requirement.
(2) The Minimum Capital Requirement of:
- (a) a PRU Intermediary Investment Firm is equal to its Base Capital Requirement;
- (b) a PRU Dealing Investment Firm is equal to the sum of:
- (i) its Base Capital Requirement;
- (ii) its Credit Risk Capital Requirement;
- (iii) its Market Risk Capital Requirement; and
- (iv) its Operational Risk Capital Requirement.
(3) The Base Capital Requirement of a PRU Investment Firm shall be the amount specified in Table 3.3 by reference to the activity that the PRU Investment Firm is authorised to conduct or, if the PRU Investment Firm is authorised to conduct more than one such activity, the amount that is the higher or highest of the relevant amounts of in Table 3.3.
Table 3.3 Base Capital Requirement
Regulated Activity |
Base Capital Requirement (USD) |
Dealing In Investments as Principal, unless such activities are limited to matching client orders and the AFSA determines that it is appropriate in all the circumstances to apply a lower Base Capital Requirement |
500,000 |
Dealing In Investments as Principal, where such activities are limited to matching client orders and the AFSA determines that it is appropriate in all the circumstances to apply a lower Base Capital Requirement than above |
50,000 |
Dealing In Investments As Agent |
50,000 |
Managing Investments |
150,000 |
Managing A Collective Investment Scheme, that is an Exempt Fund and that has an appointed Eligible Custodian, unless the appointment of an Eligible Custodian is not required (a) due to the nature of the Fund and the type of assets which it holds; or (b) because the Fund is a Single Family Office Fund |
50,000 |
Managing A Collective Investment Scheme, which is a Non-Exempt Fund |
150,000 |
Managing A Collective Investment Scheme, which is a Self-managed Fund and has an appointed Eligible Custodian, unless the appointment of an Eligible Custodian is not required due to the nature of the Fund and the type of assets which it holds |
300,000 |
Managing A Collective Investment Scheme, which does not have an appointed Eligible Custodian, except where an Eligible Custodian is not required due to the nature of the Fund and the type of assets which it holds |
500,000 |
Providing Custody Services |
500,000 |
Arranging Custody Services |
10,000 |
Providing Trust Services |
200,000 |
Providing Fund Administration |
10,000 |
Acting as A Trustee of A Fund |
200,000 |
Advising on Investments |
10,000 |
Arranging Deals In Investments |
10,000 |
Managing Profit-Sharing Investment Accounts |
200,000 |
4) The Credit Risk Capital Requirement of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm must be calculated in accordance with rules imposed on the PRU Dealing Investment Firm individually as part of its authorisation by the AFSA.
(5) The Market Risk Capital Requirement of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm must be calculated in accordance with rules imposed on the PRU Dealing Investment Firm individually as part of its authorisation by the AFSA.
(6) The Operational Risk Capital Requirement of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm must be calculated in accordance with rules imposed on the PRU Dealing Investment Firm individually as part of its authorisation by the AFSA.
Guidance
The rules imposed under paragraphs (4), (5) and (6) will apply the relevant parts of the Basel Requirements to the PRU Dealing Investment Firm, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the PRU Dealing Investment Firm's business. This will include:
- (a) rules providing for the Credit Risk Capital Requirement to be determined using a riskweighted assets calculation in respect of on- and off- balance sheet exposures of the PRU Dealing Investment Firm using the standardised approach of the Basel Requirements, and allowing for reliance on credit risk mitigation techniques and providing for more onerous treatment of exposures to securitisations and over-thecounter derivatives in each case in accordance with Basel Requirements to the extent applicable to the PRU Dealing Investment Firm's business;
- (b) rules providing for the Market Risk Capital Requirement to be determined using the standardised measurement method of the Basel Requirements, reflecting interest rate risk, equity position risk, foreign exchange risk, commodities risk and the treatment of options, in each case in accordance with the Basel Requirements to the extent applicable to the PRU Dealing Investment Firm's business;
- (c) rules providing for the Operational Risk Capital Requirement to be determined using the basic indicator approach or the standardised approach of the Basel Requirements to the extent applicable to the PRU Dealing Investment Firm's business.
_
4. LIQUID ASSETS REQUIREMENT
4.1 Application of Chapter 4
This Chapter does not apply to a PRU Investment Firm that is an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm.
4.2 Liquid Assets requirement
(1) A PRU Investment Firm must have, at all times, Liquid Assets whose value is at least equal to 25% of the firm’s Annual Operating Expenditure (as defined in Rule 4.4).
(2) If at any time the AFSA considers that because of the nature, scale and complexity of a particular PRU Investment Firm's business, or its risk profile, it is appropriate to require the PRU Investment Firm to hold a greater amount of Liquid Assets than is required by Rule 4.2(1), the AFSA may require the PRU Investment Firm to hold Net Liquid Assets to a specified higher percentage of its Annual Operating Expenditure, and the PRU Investment Firm must comply with that requirement.
4.3 Calculating Liquid Assets
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the "Liquid Assets" of a PRU Investment Firm means each of the following, to the extent it is beneficially owned by the PRU Investment Firm free from any security interest or other claim of any third party, other than a banker's lien or custodian's lien arising in the ordinary course of business:
- (a) cash in hand;
- (b) money deposited with a regulated bank or deposit-taker which has a short-term credit rating of A1 or P1 (or equivalent) and above from an Approved ECAI;
- (c) demand deposits with a tenor of 1 year or less with a bank or deposit-taker in (b);
- (d) time deposits with a tenor of 1 year or less which have an option to redeem the deposit at any time; in such cases, the deposit amount eligible to be included as Liquid Assets must be calculated as net of any costs associated with such early redemption;
- (e) cash receivable from a regulated clearing house and cash deposits with such clearing houses, other than any fees or contributions to guarantee or reserve funds of such clearing houses; and
- (f) any other asset which may be approved by the AFSA as comprising a Liquid Asset for the purpose of this Rule.
(2) For the purpose of paragraph (1), Liquid Assets do not include:
- (a) any investment, asset or deposit which has been pledged as security or collateral for any obligations or liabilities assumed by it or by any other Person; or
- (b) cash held in Client Money or Insurance Money accounts.
4.4 Calculating Annual Operating Expenditure
(1) Subject to Rule 4.4(2), a PRU Investment Firm's Annual Operating Expenditure at any time, which shall be calculated as at the end of the most recently ended financial year for which audited accounts are available, is the total of:
- (a) the expenses reported in those audited annual accounts of the PRU Investment Firm for the period of the financial year covered by those accounts that arose in the normal course of the firm’s business arising from PRU Investment Business or Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business (including from any such activities carried out by a branch of the PRU Investment Firm in any other jurisdiction); plus
- (b) the amount by which the Governing Body, acting reasonably, expects the corresponding annual operating expenses in any financial year after the financial year covered by those accounts to exceed the amount in paragraph (a).
(2) In the period between being authorised as a PRU Investment Firm and the date of publication of the audited accounts in respect of its first full financial year as a PRU Investment Firm, a PRU Investment Firm must calculate its Annual Operating Expenditure using its budgeted or forecast accounts for its first twelve months that it submitted to the AFSA as part of its application for authorisation as a PRU Investment Firm, and must make adjustments to take into account the amount by which the Governing Body, acting reasonably, expects the annual operating expenses to exceed the amounts included in those budgeted or forecast accounts.
5. FINANCIAL GROUPS
5.1 Application of Chapter 5
Other than Rule 5.3, this Chapter does not apply to a PRU Investment Firm that is an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm.
5.2 Application of Chapters 3 and 4 to Financial Groups
(1) Where the AFSA directs that the PRU Investment Firm should comply with Chapters 3 and 4 at the level of its Financial Group, the PRU Investment Firm must, in addition to complying with those Rules on a solo basis, ensure that the financial position of its Financial Group on a consolidated basis is compliant with those Rules (as if the Financial Group, treated as a single entity, were a PRU Investment Firm).
(2) The Financial Group of a PRU Investment Firm is made up of:
- (a) the PRU Investment Firm;
- (b) any Subsidiary (direct or indirect) of the PRU Investment Firm that carries on any PRU Investment Business in any jurisdiction; and
- (c) any other entity that the AFSA directs should be included in the Financial Group due to there being a high degree of financial interdependence between the PRU Investment Firm and that entity.
(3) A PRU Investment Firm may apply to the AFSA for approval to exclude an entity from its Financial Group. The AFSA will grant such an approval only after the PRU Investment Firm satisfies the AFSA that inclusion of the entity would not materially alter the risk profile of the PRU Investment Firm and/or its Financial Group and that the exclusion of that entity would not hinder AFSA’s ability to effectively supervise the PRU Investment Firm and its Financial Group.
Guidance
The AFSA would consider a range of factors when requiring a PRU Investment Firm to treat another entity as part of its Financial Group. These factors would include direct and indirect participation, influence or contractual obligations, interconnectedness, intra-group exposures, intra-group services, regulatory status and nature of business of other entities in the group and the legal framework.
5.3 Accepting deposits
No PRU Investment Firm shall be, or shall have a Subsidiary that is, authorised to accept deposits in any jurisdiction.
6. REPORTING AND NOTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
6.1 Introduction
(1) This Chapter sets out the prudential reporting requirements for a PRU Investment Firm.
(2) Other than Rules 6.5 and 6.6, this Chapter does not apply to an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm.
6.2 Preparing Returns
(1) A PRU Investment Firm, other than an Externally Regulated Investment Firm, must submit quarterly and annual prudential returns to the AFSA using the templates prescribed for this purpose by the AFSA from time to time.
(2) Annual prudential returns of a PRU Investment Firm must contain a certification by the same auditor that is responsible for auditing the PRU Investment Firm's annual financial statements. The certification must relate to the annual prudential returns and each set of unaudited quarterly returns that have been submitted to the AFSA by the PRU Investment Firm in the previous year.
6.3 Signing Returns
(1) A prudential return must be signed by 2 individuals, and in each case:
- (a) one of those individuals must be the individual approved to exercise the Finance Officer Function; and
- (b) the other individual must be either the individual approved to exercise the Senior Executive Officer Function for the PRU Investment Firm or one of the individuals approved to exercise the Director Function for the PRU Investment Firm.
(2) In paragraph (1), Senior Executive Officer Function and Director Function have the same meanings as in GEN.
6.4 Reductions in paid-up share capital and other capital instruments
A PRU Investment Firm, other than an Externally Regulated Investment Firm, must not reduce its paid-up share capital, or repay or redeem any part of any capital instrument the liabilities under which are included in its Capital Resources in accordance with Chapter 3, without the AFSA’s written approval.
6.5 Breaches of PRU(INV)
(1) If a PRU Investment Firm becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that it is or may be (or may be about to be) in breach of any of the rules in PRU(INV) that applies to it, it must:
- (a) notify the AFSA in writing about the breach and the relevant circumstances immediately and not later than within 1 Business Day; and
- (b) subject to paragraph (2) below, not make any cash transfers or payments or transfer of liquid assets to its Affiliates or Related Persons, whether by way of dividends or otherwise, without the AFSA’s written permission.
(2) In the case of an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm, the restriction in paragraph (1)(b) shall apply only to assets within the control of the AIFC Operation of the Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm.
Guidance
In dealing with a breach, or possible breach, of this part, the AFSA’s primary concern will be the interests of existing and prospective Clients and potential adverse impact on market participants as well as market stability. The AFSA recognises that there will be circumstances in which a problem may be resolved quickly, for example by support from a parent entity, without jeopardising the interests of Clients and stakeholders. In such circumstances, it will be in the interests of all parties to minimise the disruption to the firm’s business. The AFSA's will normally seek to work cooperatively with the Authorised Firms in such stressed situations to deal with any problems. There will, however, be circumstances in which it is necessary to take regulatory action to avoid exposing market participants, stakeholders and Clients to the potential adverse consequences of the firm’s Failure, and the AFSA will not hesitate to take appropriate action if it considers this necessary.
6.6 Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firms
(1) The AFSA may require an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm to give it a copy of any report that the Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm is required to provide to any other Financial Services Regulator to demonstrate compliance with capital and liquidity requirements.
(2) The AFSA may require an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm to provide information to it setting out, in a level of detail satisfactory to the AFSA:
- (a) what financial resources are available to it in respect of its AIFC Operation, including those available to satisfy Rule 2.2.2;
- (b) what liabilities and other financial commitments it is subject to in respect of its AIFC Operation.
(3) If an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm breaches (or expects to breach) a prudential requirement set by the Financial Services Regulator in its jurisdiction of incorporation, it must immediately notify the AFSA and must give the AFSA copies of any relevant documents (including all relevant documents submitted to that Financial Services Regulator).
PRUDENTIAL RULES FOR INSURANCE INTERMEDIARIES
Prudential Rules for Insurance Intermediaries
Guidance: Purpose of this Rulebook
The purpose of this Rulebook, “PRU(INT)”, is to complement the regulatory framework established by the Financial Services Framework Regulations (“the Framework Regulations”). It sets out the requirements for Insurance Intermediaries and Insurance Managers to hold adequate capital and financial resources, and professional indemnity insurance, sufficient to cover the risks arising from their business. If the Rules operate as intended, an Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager should have a sufficient buffer of assets in excess of its liabilities, and other financial protections, so that there is only a very remote chance that it will become insolvent and thereby cause a loss to its customers and the wider financial markets (although the Rules do not guarantee that this will never happen). The Rules also provide a legal basis on which the AFSA may take action against an Insurance Intermediary or an Insurance Manager which it considers does not have sufficient capital and financial resources and other financial protections - for example by requiring it to stop transacting any new business, so as to minimise the losses to clients and/or potential market participants that might result from a failing Insurance Intermediary or Insurance Manager. Such action would also further the AFSA's objectives to avert any potential harm to wider market stability and manifestation of systemic risk.
1. APPLICATION
1.1 Introduction
(1) This Chapter sets out the scope of application of these PRU(INT) Rules.
(2) These PRU(INT) Rules create:
- (a) a general financial resources requirement in accordance with Chapter 2;
- (b) a minimum capital requirement in accordance with Chapter 3; and
- (c) a requirement to maintain professional indemnity insurance in accordance with Chapter 4.
(3) Chapter 5 imposes reporting and notification requirements that relate to the matters covered by these PRU(INT) Rules.
1.2 Commencement
These PRU(INT) Rules commence on 1 January 2018.
1.3 Application of these PRU(INT) Rules
(1) These PRU(INT) Rules apply to Insurance Intermediaries and Insurance Managers. The term “Authorised Firm” is used where rules apply to both Insurance Intermediaries and Insurance Managers.
(2) If an Insurance Intermediary holds both an Authorisation to carry on Insurance Mediation and an Authorisation to carry on PRU Investment Business or other Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business, it will be subject to these PRU(INT) Rules in relation to the whole of its business, including its PRU Investment Business and other Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business. However, the AFSA may direct that the Insurance Intermediary will be deemed to satisfy:
- (a) some or all of these PRU(INT) Rules where it satisfies the rules that apply to it by reason of the Authorisation to carry on PRU Investment Business or other Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business; or
- (b) some or all of these PRU(INT) Rules that apply to it by reason of the Authorisation to carry on PRU Investment Business or other Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business where it satisfies these PRU(INT) Rules.
(3) Where an Authorised Firm is also regulated by another Financial Services Regulator (in addition to being regulated by the AFSA), it must comply with these PRU(INT) Rules and with the rules of any other Financial Services Regulator, in each case to the extent applicable.
2. GENERAL FINANCIAL RESOURCES REQUIREMENTS
2.1 General
2.1.1 Governing Body’s responsibilities
(1) An Authorised Firm's Governing Body must consider whether the minimum Capital Resources and professional indemnity insurance required by these PRU(INT) Rules are adequate to ensure that there is no significant risk that the firm’s liabilities cannot be met as they fall due. The firm must obtain additional Capital Resources and professional indemnity insurance if its Governing Body considers that the minimum required does not adequately reflect the risks of its business.
(2) The Governing Body is also responsible for:
- (a) ensuring that the management of the firm’s financial resources (including the firm's Capital Resources, liquid assets and professional indemnity insurance) is part of the firm’s overall risk management, and is aligned with the nature, scale and complexity of its business and its risk profile;
- (b) ensuring that the firm complies with these PRU(INT) Rules; and
- (c) monitoring the adequacy and appropriateness of the firm’s systems and controls and the firm’s compliance with them.
2.1.2 Systems and controls
(1) An Authorised Firm must have adequate systems and controls to enable it to calculate and monitor its Capital Resources, liquid assets and professional indemnity insurance, and its compliance with the requirements of these PRU(INT) Rules.
(2) The systems and controls must be in writing and must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the firm’s business and its risk profile.
(3) The systems and controls must enable the firm to demonstrate its compliance with these PRU(INT) Rules at all times.
(4) The systems and controls must enable the firm to manage its Capital Resources, liquid assets and professional indemnity insurance in anticipation of events or changes in market conditions.
2.2 Financial Resources
(1) An Authorised Firm must at all times have Capital Resources and professional indemnity insurance of at least the minimum kinds and amounts required by, and calculated in accordance with, these PRU(INT) Rules.
(2) An Authorised Firm must have, at all times:
- (a) sufficient liquid assets; and
- (b) Capital Resources and professional indemnity insurance (including those required by paragraph (1)), that are adequate in relation to the nature, scale and complexity of its business and its risk profile to ensure that there is no significant risk that its liabilities cannot be met as they fall due.
(3) If the AFSA is not satisfied that an Authorised Firm is in compliance with paragraph (2) then it may impose a requirement on that Authorised Firm to hold additional amounts of Capital Resources, liquid assets and professional indemnity insurance, and the Authorised Firm must comply with that requirement.
3. MINIMUM CAPITAL REQUIREMENT
3.1 References to Capital Resources
(1) In these PRU(INT) Rules, "Capital Resources" must be calculated as the sum of the following capital elements, subject to deductions listed in (2) below:
- (a) the ordinary equity share capital of the Authorised Firm, to the extent fully paid up;
- (b) share premium accounts related to the equity share capital referred in paragraph (a); and
- (c) any retained earnings and reserves created out of earnings of past periods of the Authorised Firm, and accumulated other comprehensive income, as defined in the International Financial Reporting Standards, to the extent shown in its audited financial statements and accounts.
(2) In determining its Capital Resources, an Authorised Firm must deduct the following items from the sum of the capital elements in (1) above:
- (a) any interim losses incurred by the Authorised Firm in the current financial year, irrespective of whether or not shown in audited financial statements and accounts;
- (b) each of the following, to the extent that its value contributes to the sum of the capital elements in (1) above:
- (i) goodwill and other intangible assets as defined in the International Financial Reporting Standards;
(ii) tangible fixed assets, including equipment and vehicles;
(iii) deferred tax assets that rely on future profitability;
(iv) defined benefit pension fund assets of the Authorised Firm;
- (v) investments by the Authorised Firm or by any of its Subsidiaries in the Authorised Firm's own shares;
(vi) holdings of equity shares of Affiliates or Related Persons which give rise to a reciprocal cross holding with the Authorised Firm which has the effect of artificially inflating the Capital Resources of the Authorised Firm; and
(vii) holdings of other investments and assets that are not readily realisable into cash; and
- (c) any amount to be deducted from Capital Resources as directed by the AFSA.
3.2 Minimum Capital Requirement
(1) An Authorised Firm must at all times have and maintain Capital Resources of an amount not less than its Minimum Capital Requirement.
(2) The Minimum Capital Requirement:
- (a) for an Insurance Intermediary that is not permitted to hold Client Money, is the greater of:
- (i) USD 7,000 ; and
- (ii) 2.5 per cent of the annual income of the Insurance Intermediary.
- (b) for an Insurance Intermediary that is permitted to hold Client Money, is the greater of:
- (i) USD 13,000; and
- (ii) 5 per cent of the annual income of the Insurance Intermediary.
- (c) for an Insurance Manager that is not permitted to hold Client Money, is the greater of
- (i) USD 7,000 ; and
- (ii) 2.5 per cent of the annual income of the Insurance Manager.
- (d) for an Insurance Manager that is permitted to hold Client Money, is the greater of
- (i) USD 13,000; and
- (ii) 5 per cent of the annual income of the Insurance Manager.
(3) The "annual income" of an Authorised Firm means the income of the Authorised Firm arising from its Insurance Intermediation or Insurance Management activities, but excluding premiums received from clients which are due to be paid on to the insurance produce provider.
(4) Annual income shall be assessed by reference to the Authorised Firm's most recent annual financial statements or, in the case of an Authorised Firm whose most recent financial statements do not represent a full financial year as an Authorised Firm, by reference to the business plan of the Authorised Firm submitted as part of its application for authorisation as an Authorised Firm.
4. PROFESSIONAL INDEMNITY INSURANCE
4.1 Firms must take out and maintain professional indemnity insurance
(1) Subject to Rule 4.1(2), an Authorised Firm must take out and maintain professional indemnity insurance cover that is appropriate to the nature, scale, complexity and risk profile of its business and activities in accordance with this Chapter 4.
(2) An Authorised Firm need not take out or maintain professional indemnity insurance if the AFSA gives written approval for some other form of financial protection, such as a guarantee provided by another Authorised Firm, that the AFSA considers to provide at least the same financial strength and legal certainty as professional indemnity insurance otherwise required under this Chapter 4.
4.2 Who is suitable to provide professional indemnity insurance?
(1) Before an Authorised Firm takes out or renews a professional indemnity insurance policy with an insurer, the Insurance Intermediary must be satisfied, on reasonable grounds after conducting an appropriate assessment, that the insurer is a suitable Person to provide the insurance policy to the Insurance Intermediary and that the insurer is financially sound and capable to meet any liabilities related to claims.
(2) If, at any time after the Authorised Firm has taken out or renewed a professional indemnity insurance policy with an insurer, the AFSA considers that the insurer is, or is likely to become, unsuitable to provide the insurance policy, the AFSA may, by written notice given to the Authorised Firm, require the Authorised Firm to cancel the insurance policy and take out equivalent professional indemnity insurance with another insurer in accordance with this Rule.
(3) If the Authorised Firm is given a notice under Rule 4.2(2), the Authorised Firm must comply with the notice within:
- (a) the time stated in the notice; or
- (b) if the AFSA allows additional time to comply with the notice, the additional time.
4.3 Requirements for professional indemnity insurance policies
(1) A professional indemnity insurance policy taken out or renewed by an Authorised Firm for this part must make provision for:
- (a) an appropriate level of cover in relation to claims for which the Insura Authorised Firm may be liable as a result of its conduct or the conduct of its Employees and agents, taking into account the aggregate limit of indemnity, the limit of indemnity for individual claims, the excess that applies in relation to any individual claim under the policy, and the extent to which the benefit of the policy is shared with any other entity;
- (b) appropriate cover in relation to legal defence costs;
- (c) continuous cover for claims arising from work carried out from when the Authorised Firm was Authorised to conduct Insurance Intermediation or Insurance Management in or from the AIFC; and
- (d) awards made against the Authorised Firm under any applicable consumer protection or ombudsman scheme.
(2) The Authorised Firm must not take out professional indemnity insurance that makes provision for the payment of fines imposed by the AFSA.
5. REPORTING AND NOTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
5.1 Introduction
This Chapter sets out the prudential reporting requirements for Insurance Intermediaries and Insurance Managers.
5.2 Preparing Returns
(1) An Authorised Firm must submit quarterly and annual prudential returns to the AFSA using the templates prescribed for this purpose by the AFSA from time to time.
(2) Annual prudential returns of an Authorised Firm must contain a certification by the same auditor that is responsible for auditing the Authorised Firm's annual financial statements. The certification must relate to the annual prudential returns and each set of unaudited quarterly returns that have been submitted to the AFSA by the PRU Investment Firm in the previous year.
5.3 Signing Returns
(1) A prudential return must be signed by 2 individuals, and in each case:
- (a) one of those individuals must be the individual approved to exercise the Finance Officer Function; and
- (b) the other individual must be either the individual approved to exercise the Senior Executive Officer Function for the Authorised Firm or one of the individuals approved to exercise the Director Function for the Authorised Firm.
(2) In paragraph (1), Senior Executive Officer Function and Director Function have the same meanings as in GEN.
5.4 Reductions in paid-up share capital and other capital instruments
An Authorised Firm must not reduce its paid-up share capital, or repay or redeem any part of any capital instrument the liabilities under which are included in its Capital Resources in accordance with Chapter 3, without the AFSA’s written approval.
5.5 Breaches of PRU(INT)
If an Authorised Firm becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that it is or may be (or may be about to be) in breach of any of the rules in PRU(INT), it must:
- (a) notify the AFSA in writing about the breach and the relevant circumstances immediately and not later than within 1 Business Day; and
- (b) not make any cash transfers or payments or transfer of liquid assets to its Affiliates or Related Persons, whether by way of dividends or otherwise, without the AFSA’s written permission.
Guidance
In dealing with a breach, or possible breach, of this part, the AFSA’s primary concern will be the interests of existing and prospective policyholders and Clients. The AFSA recognises that there will be circumstances in which a problem may be resolved quickly, for example by support from a Parent Entity, without jeopardising the interests of policyholders and Clients. In such circumstances, it will be in the interests of all parties for there to be minimum disruption to the firm’s business. The AFSA’s normal approach will be to seek to work cooperatively with firms to deal with any problems. There will, however, be circumstances in which it is necessary to take regulatory action to avoid exposing further policyholders and Clients to the risk of the firm’s Failure, and the AFSA will not hesitate to take appropriate action if it considers this necessary.
INSURANCE AND REINSURANCE PRUDENTIAL RULES
Insurance and Reinsurance Prudential Rules
1. General provisions
1.1. Introduction
1.1.1. Name of rules
These rules are the AIFC Insurance and Reinsurance Prudential Rules (or PINS).
1.1.2. Application of PINS
These rules apply to every Insurer except where otherwise provided.
1.1.3. Key Definitions
(1) An Insurer is an Authorised Firm with a Licence to conduct Insurance Business.
(2) Insurance Business is the business of conducting either or both of the following Regulated Activities: (a) Effecting Contracts of Insurance; (b) Carrying out Contracts of Insurance.
(3) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is an Insurer that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC.
Guidance: Branches
Note that certain of the obligations set out in this rulebook do not apply to Insurers that are Branches of entities established and regulated outside the AIFC. The term AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is used to refer to an Insurer that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC and thus excludes Branches of legal entities incorporated outside the AIFC.
Guidance: Reinsurance
Note that the term Insurer includes any reinsurer and the term Contract of Insurance includes any Contract of Reinsurance.
1.2. Insurance Business
1.2.1. Types of Insurance Business
(1) General Insurance Business is Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts.
(2) Long-Term Insurance Business is Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts.
1.2.2. Types of Insurance Contracts
(1) A General Insurance Contract is a Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 1.
(2) A Long-Term Insurance Contract is a Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 2.
1.3. Classification of Contracts of Insurance
1.3.1. Classification of contracts
An Insurer must, in its own records, classify all Contracts of Insurance carried out by it as Insurer, including all Contracts of Reinsurance entered into by it as cedant, according to the category to which the Contracts of Insurance relate.
1.3.2. Classification of contracts falling into two or more categories
Where a Contract of Insurance relates to more than one category, the Insurer must record separately the portions of the Contract of Insurance that relate to each category, except that immaterial portions need not be separately recorded.
1.4. Restrictions in respect of Insurance Business
1.4.1. Restriction on combining certain kinds of Insurance Business
An Insurer must not carry on, in or from the AIFC, both Long-Term Insurance Business and General Insurance Business unless the General Insurance Business is restricted to General Insurance Categories 1 (accident) and 2 (sickness).
1.4.2. Restriction on Insurers carrying on non-insurance business
(1) An Insurer must not carry on any activity other than Insurance Business unless the activity is directly connected with, or carried on for the purposes of, Insurance Business.
(2) For the avoidance of doubt, Managing Investments is not an activity directly connected with, or carried on for the purposes of, Insurance Business.
1.5. Core obligations of Insurers
1.5.1. Obligation to establish and maintain systems and controls
An Insurer must establish and maintain systems and controls in accordance with the requirements of PINS 2 (Systems and Controls) and GEN 5 (Systems and Controls).
1.5.2. Obligation to maintain a risk management strategy
An Insurer must establish and implement a Risk Management Strategy in accordance with the requirements of PINS 3 (Risk Management Strategy).
1.5.3. Obligation to conduct Own Risk and Solvency Assessment
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must conduct an Own Risk and Solvency Assessment and submit a report thereon to AFSA in accordance with the requirements of PINS 4 (Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA)).
1.5.4. Obligation to maintain Eligible Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must at all times maintain Eligible Capital in an amount and of a quality required by PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements).
1.5.5. Obligations in respect of Investments
An Insurer must make investments in accordance with the requirements of PINS 6 (Investment).
1.5.6. Obligation to maintain Long-Term Insurance Funds
An Insurer carrying on Long-Term Insurance Business must segregate its Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities in accordance with PINS 7 (Segregation of Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities).
1.5.7. Obligations in respect of Assets and Liabilities
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must value its assets and liabilities in accordance with the requirements of PINS 8 (Valuation).
1.5.8. Obligation to produce actuarial reports
An Insurer must prepare and submit to the AFSA the actuarial reports that it is required to produce pursuant to the requirements of PINS 9 (Actuarial reporting).
1.5.9. Obligations in respect of groups
An Insurer that is a member of a group must comply with the requirements of PINS 10 (Insurers that are members of Groups).
1.5.10. Obligations in respect of Insurance Business Transfers
An Insurer that is party to an Insurance Business Transfer must comply with the requirements of PINS 11 (Transfer of insurance business).
2. Systems and Controls
Guidance: systems and controls requirements in GEN As an Authorised Person, an Insurer is required to comply with the Systems and Controls requirements in GEN 5. The requirements of this Chapter are in addition to the requirements of GEN 5.
2.1. Systems for risk management and internal controls
2.1.1. Risk management function
An Insurer must establish and maintain an effective risk management function capable of assisting the Insurer to identify, assess, monitor, mitigate and report on its key risks in a timely way; and to promote and sustain a sound risk culture. Guidance: additional requirements in GEN An Insurer is also subject to obligations in respect of operational risk, legal risk and fraud risk pursuant to GEN 5.8 (Management of risks).
2.1.2. Actuarial function
An Insurer must establish and maintain an effective actuarial function capable of evaluating and providing advice regarding, at a minimum, technical provisions, premium and pricing activities, capital adequacy, reinsurance and compliance with related statutory and regulatory requirements.
2.2. Controlled Functions
2.2.1. Designation of roles as Controlled Functions
The following functions are prescribed as Controlled Functions within the meaning of section 20 of the FSFR:
- (a) Insurance Risk Manager;
- (b) Insurance Internal Audit Manager; and
- (c) Approved Actuary.
2.2.2. Mandatory appointments
(1) An Insurer must make the following appointments and ensure that they are held by one or more Approved Individuals at all times:
- (a) Insurance Risk Manager; and
- (b) Insurance Internal Audit Manager.
(2) An Insurer must also appoint an Approved Actuary and ensure that such role is held at all times by an Approved Individual if:
- (a) it conducts Long-Term Insurance Business; or
- (b) it conducts General Insurance Business and;
- (i) more than 15% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Contracts of Insurance for General Insurance Business in General Insurance Categories 1 (Accident) or 2 (Sickness); or
- (ii) more than 20% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Contracts of Insurance for General Insurance Business in General Insurance Categories 10 (Motor vehicle liability), 11 (Aircraft liability), 12 (Liability of ships), 13 (General liability), 14 (Credit) or 15 (Suretyship).
2.2.3. Insurance Risk Manager
The Insurance Risk Manager is an individual who has responsibility for the Insurer’s risk management function.
2.2.4. Insurance Internal Audit Manager
The Insurance Internal Audit Manager is an individual who has responsibility:
- (a) for the Insurer’s internal audit policies, procedures and controls; and
- (b) for taking appropriate steps to ensure the implementation of and compliance with those policies, procedures and controls.
2.2.5. Approved Actuary
(1) The Approved Actuary is an individual who has responsibility:
- (a) for the Insurer’s actuarial policies, procedures and controls; and
- (b) for taking appropriate steps to ensure the implementation of and compliance with those policies, procedures and controls.
(2) The Approved Actuary must not be an individual who:
2.3. Outsourcing
2.3.1. Outsourcing of risk management function (PINS 2.1.1)
An Insurer may only outsource its risk management function to an Insurance Manager, subject to the rules relating to outsourcing in GEN 5.2 (Outsourcing).
2.3.2. Outsourcing of actuarial function (PINS 2.1.2)
An Insurer may only outsource its actuarial function to an Insurance Manager, subject to the rules relating to outsourcing in GEN 5.2 (Outsourcing).
2.3.3. Outsourcing of Controlled Functions (PINS 2.2 and GEN 2.2)
An Insurer may appoint an Employee of an Insurance Manager to perform the Controlled Function of Insurance Risk Manager, Insurance Internal Audit Manager, Approved Actuary, Finance Officer and/or Compliance Officer, provided that such Employee is an Approved Individual.
3. Risk Management Strategy
3.1. Risk Management Strategy
3.1.1. Core obligations
(1) An Insurer must establish, document and implement a Risk Management Strategy that is appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its business.
(2) An Insurer must not intentionally deviate in a material way from its Risk Management Strategy unless such deviation has been
- (a) approved by its Governing Body in accordance with PINS 3.1.5 (Approval of Risk Management Strategy) below; and
- (b) notified to the AFSA in accordance with PINS 3.1.6 (Notification of the AFSA) below.
3.1.2. Contents of Risk Management Strategy
An Insurer’s Risk Management Strategy must:
- (a) provide for the identification and quantification of material risks under a sufficiently wide range of outcomes using techniques which are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the risks it bears;
- (b) include a Risk Management Policy that complies with PINS 3.1.3 (Contents of Risk Management Policy);
- (c) include a Risk Tolerance Statement that complies with the requirements of PINS 3.1.4 (Contents of Risk Tolerance Statement);
- (d) be supported by accurate documentation;
- (e) describe how the Insurer will:
- (i) ensure that relevant staff have an awareness of risk issues and the accessibility of the Risk Management Strategy; and
- (ii) instil an appropriate risk culture; and
- (f) include a business continuity plan for ensuring that critical business operations can be maintained or recovered in a timely fashion in the event of disruption.
- (g) be responsive to changes in its risk profile; and
- (h) incorporate a feedback loop, based on appropriate and good quality information, management processes and objective assessment, which enables it to take the necessary action in a timely manner in response to changes in its risk profile.
3.1.3. Contents of Risk Management Policy
An Insurer’s Risk Management Policy must:
- (a) describe how all relevant and material categories of financial and non-financial risk are monitored, measured and managed, both in the Insurer’s business strategy and its dayto-day operations, including at least the following risks:
- (i) credit risk;
- (ii) balance sheet and market risk (including investment, asset-liability management, liquidity and derivatives risks);
- (iii) reserving risk;
- (iv) insurance risk (including underwriting, product design, pricing and claims settlement risks);
- (v) reinsurance risk;
- (vi) operational risk (including business continuity, outsourcing, fraud, technology, legal and project management risks);
- (vii) concentration risk;
- (viii) group risk.
- (b) describe the relationship between the Insurer’s tolerance limits, regulatory capital requirements, economic capital and the processes and methods for monitoring risk;
- (c) include the following specific policies:
- (i) a policy regarding investment that specifies the nature, role and extent of the Insurer’s investment activities and how the Insurer complies with the investment requirements under these rules;
- (ii) a policy regarding asset-liability management that specifies the nature, role and extent of asset-liability management activities and their relationship with product development, pricing and investment management;
- (iii) a policy regarding underwriting that specifies the risks to be accepted by the Insurer as part of its insurance business, the processes for underwriting, pricing and claims settlement;
- (iv) a policy ensuring that any Contract of Reinsurance to which it is a party is finalised (and the material documents supporting the contract are completed) before the start of reinsurance cover (the start date), or as soon as possible after the start date (but in no case later than 60 calendar days after the start date);
- (v) a policy regarding procedures for business continuity that enable the Insurer to manage any initial disruption of business and to recover critical business operations following such a disruption.
3.1.4. Contents of Risk Tolerance Statement
An Insurer’s Risk Tolerance Statement must:
- (a) set out its overall quantitative and qualitative risk tolerance levels;
- (b) define risk tolerance limits which take into account all relevant and material categories of risk and the relationships between them.
3.1.5. Approval of Risk Management Strategy
(1) An Insurer’s Risk Management Strategy must be approved by its Governing Body.
(2) Any material change to or deviation from an Insurer’s Risk Management Strategy must be approved by its Governing Body.
(3) In giving its approval to a Risk Management Strategy, or to any amendment to or deviation from a Risk Management Strategy, the Governing Body of an Insurer must be satisfied that:
- (a) the strategy and any changes to it mitigate and control the risks included in the Insurer’s Risk Management Policy; and
- (b) the Risk Management Policy is appropriate and gives reasonable assurance that all material risks facing the Insurer are prudently and soundly managed having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of the Insurer’s business.
3.1.6. Notification of the AFSA
(1) An Insurer must give to the AFSA a copy of its Risk Management Strategy, and any subsequently amended version of that strategy, within 10 business days after its approval.
(2) An Insurer must notify the AFSA of any material deviation from its Risk Management Strategy at least 10 business days before the deviation.
4. Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA)
4.1. The ORSA
4.1.1. Obligation to conduct an Own Risk and Solvency Assessment
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must:
- (a) conduct an Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA) in accordance with PINS 4.1.2 (ORSA – requirements) at least annually; and
- (b) submit a report to the AFSA on its ORSA (an ORSA Report) in accordance with PINS 4.2.1 (ORSA Report - requirements).
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must conduct a fresh ORSA and submit a revised ORSA report to the AFSA if there is a change to its Risk Management Strategy, strategic plan or business plan and the change results, or there are reasonable grounds to believe that the change will result, in a material change in the capital adequacy or solvency of the AIFC -Incorporated Insurer.
4.1.2. ORSA – requirements
(1) In conducting an ORSA, an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must assess:
- (a) its overall solvency needs, including its own view of the adequacy of its capital resources to meet the regulatory capital requirements;
- (b) the actions it has taken to manage the risks to which it is exposed;
- (c) the financial resources needed:
- (i) to manage its business prudently; and
- (ii) to meet the capital adequacy requirements in PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements);
- (d) the nature and quality of the capital resources needed, having regard to their loss-absorbing capacity and liquidity;
- (e) the effect on the Insurer’s solvency position of all reasonably foreseeable and relevant changes in its risk profile (including group-specific risks); and
- (f) its ability to meet its Minimum Capital Requirements and Prescribed Capital Requirement and continue in business, and the financial resources needed, over periods longer than those typically used for calculating its capital adequacy requirements under PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements).
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must include as part of any quantitative evaluation in its ORSA:
- (a) stress and scenario tests;
- (b) the occurrence of extreme events to which the Insurer is exposed; and
- (c) other unlikely but possible adverse scenarios that would render the Insurer’s business model unviable.
(3) The ORSA must be appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the AIFCIncorporated Insurer’s business.
4.2. The ORSA Repor
4.2.1. ORSA Report - requirements
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s ORSA Report must present all of the following:
- (a) the qualitative and quantitative results of the ORSA and the conclusions drawn by the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer from those results;
- (b) the methods and main assumptions used in the ORSA;
- (c) information on the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer's overall solvency needs and a comparison of those solvency needs with its capital adequacy requirements under PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements) and its Eligible Capital;
- (d) qualitative and (if relevant) quantitative information on the extent to which quantifiable risks to which the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is exposed are not reflected in the calculation of the Prescribed Capital Requirement.
4.2.2. ORSA Report – approval by the Governing Body
An ORSA Report must include a statement that the Governing Body of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer participated in the ORSA and approved the ORSA Report.
5. Capital adequacy requirements
5.1. Application
5.1.1. Application
This Chapter applies to an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer.
5.2. Calculation of Eligible Capital and capital requirements
5.2.1. Obligation to calculate Eligible Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate its Eligible Capital on an ongoing basis in accordance with the rules set out in Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital).
5.2.2. Obligation to calculate MCR
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate its Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR) on an ongoing basis in accordance with the rules set out in Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)).
5.2.3. Obligation to calculate PCR
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must:
- (a) calculate its Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR) at least once a year in accordance with the rules set out in Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)); and
- (b) recalculate its PCR without delay if its risk profile deviates significantly from the risk profile detailed in its last reported PCR.
5.3. Use of Internal models to calculate capital requirements
5.3.1. Approval by AFSA
The AFSA may, by written notice, allow an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer to use its own internal model to calculate a component or components of its PCR.
Guidance
Note that the AFSA is not currently in a position to consider applications for the use of internal models. The AFSA will notify Insurers when this position changes.
5.3.2. Criteria for approving use of internal models
The AFSA will only consider allowing an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer to use its internal model if it is satisfied that the model:
- (a) operates within a risk management environment that is conceptually sound and supported by adequate resources;
- (b) addresses all material risks to which the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer could reasonably be expected to be exposed and is commensurate with the relative importance of those risks, based on the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s business mix;
- (c) is closely integrated into the day-to-day management process of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer;
- (d) is supported by appropriate audit and compliance procedures;
- (e) is subjected to, as a minimum, three tests: “statistical quality test”, “calibration test” and “use test”, the results of the which demonstrate that the model is appropriate for regulatory capital purposes; and
- (f) is subject to adequate processes established by the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer to validate the accuracy of the calculations made using the internal model, as well as for monitoring and assessing its ongoing performance.
5.3.3. Statistical quality test
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer seeking approval for its internal model must demonstrate:
- (a) that the PCR or component(s) of the PCR calculated using the internal model addresses the overall risk position of the AIFC Incorporated Insurer subject to the nature, scale and complexity of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer and its risk exposures;
- (b) the theoretical validity of the internal model including:
- (i) the suitability of model structure, data (including completeness and accuracy), and estimation within the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s business context;
- (ii) the appropriateness of the internal model basis within the industry context, including methodological benchmarking to alternatives and best practice;
- (iii) the appropriateness of the parameter estimations. It should be demonstrated that the parameter estimations are appropriate within the market and industry context and parameter uncertainty is addressed to the extent possible; and
- (iv) the consistency, soundness and justification of the methodologies, distributions, aggregation techniques and dependencies (within and among risk categories) adopted.
- (c) the analytical validity of the internal model including:
- (i) the statistical process for validating that the results of the model are fit for the purpose for which they are used;
- (ii) the implementation of the model given the theoretical basis, goodness of fit, forecasting capability for out-of sample observations (backtesting), sensitivity to changes in key underlying assumptions and stability of outputs;
- (iii) the backtesting applied at various levels of the business activity;
- (iv) the sensitivity analysis undertaken, which should validate the parts of the internal model where expert judgement is used and should examine whether the model output is sensitive to changes in key assumptions;
- (v) the convergence of the model to demonstrate that model outputs are statistically significant;
- (vi) the processes of monitoring the model’s performance; and
- (vii) where possible, benchmarking the model results and techniques with peers, available literature and research.
5.3.4. Calibration test
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must demonstrate that the PCR or component(s) of the PCR produced by its internal model is consistent with the specified modelling criteria.
5.3.5. Use test
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must demonstrate that the internal model (its methodologies and results) is fully integrated within its risk and capital management and system of governance processes and procedures.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Governing Body is required to:-
- (a) have overall control of and responsibility for the construction and use of the internal model for risk management purposes;
- (b) have sufficient understanding of the model’s construction at appropriate levels within the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s organisational structure;
- (c) have an understanding of the consequences of the internal model’s outputs and limitations for risk and capital management decisions.
(3) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must have adequate governance and internal controls in place with respect to the internal model.
5.3.6. Documentation
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must document, at a minimum:
- (a) the design, construction, modelling criteria and governance of the internal model;
- (b) the justification for and details of the underlying methodology, assumptions and quantitative and financial bases;
- (c) if applicable, why it has chosen to only use a partial internal model for certain risks or business lines; and
- (d) if applicable, the reliance on and appropriateness of the use of external vendors/suppliers.
(2) The documentation must be sufficiently detailed to demonstrate compliance with the statistical quality test, calibration test and use test.
(3) The documentation of the internal model must be timely and up to date.
5.3.7. Ongoing validation and supervisory approval of the internal model
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer using an internal model must:
- (a) monitor the performance of its internal model and regularly review and validate the ongoing appropriateness of the model’s specifications against the criteria set out in 5.3.2 to 5.3.5;
- (b) notify the AFSA of material changes to the internal model made by it for review and continued approval of the use of the model for regulatory capital purposes;
- (c) properly document internal model changes;
- (d) report information necessary for supervisory review and ongoing approval of the internal model on a regular basis, as determined appropriate by the AFSA.
5.4. Solvency control levels
5.4.1. Obligation to maintain Eligible Capital at or above MCR
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must at all times have Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its MCR.
5.4.2. Obligation to maintain Eligible Capital at or above PCR
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must at all times have Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its PCR.
5.4.3. Non-Compliance with the PCR
If an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer becomes aware that it does not have, or there is a risk that within the following three months it will not have, Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its PCR, it must:
(1) immediately inform the AFSA;
(2) within one month, submit to the AFSA for its approval a short-term realistic finance scheme which complies with the requirements of PINS 5.4.6 (Contents of recovery plans and finance schemes);
(3) within six months (or such longer period as the AFSA may specify), take the measures necessary to achieve the re-establishment of Eligible Capital covering the PCR, or the reduction of its risk profile to ensure compliance with the PCR; and
(4) take such steps (if any) as the AFSA may require, which steps may be specified by the ASFA as in addition to, or instead of, the measures in (3).
5.4.4. Non-Compliance with the MCR
If an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer becomes aware that it does not have, or there is a risk that within the following three months it will not have, Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its MCR, it must
(1) immediately inform the AFSA;
(2) within two months, submit to the AFSA for its approval a short-term realistic finance scheme which complies with the requirements of PINS 5.4.6 (Contents of recovery plans and finance schemes);
(3) within six months (or such longer period as the AFSA may allow), take the measures necessary to achieve the re-establishment of the level of Eligible Capital covering the MCR, or the reduction of its risk profile to ensure compliance with the MCR; and
(4) take such steps (if any) as the AFSA may require, which steps may be specified by the ASFA as in addition to, or instead of, the measures in (3).
5.4.5. Other regulatory actions not precluded
The fact that an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer has Eligible Capital equal to or in excess of its PCR or its MCR does not preclude the AFSA from intervention, or from requiring action by the AIFCIncorporated Insurer for other reasons, such as weaknesses in the risk management or governance of the Insurer.
5.4.6. Contents of recovery plans and finance schemes
Any recovery plan or finance scheme must as a minimum include:
- (a) estimates of management expenses, in particular current general expenses and commissions;
- (c) estimates of income and expenditure in respect of direct business, reinsurance acceptances and reinsurance cessions;
- (d) a forecast balance sheet;
- (e) information about the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s overall policy regarding reinsurance; and
- (f) such other information as the AFSA may specify in writing.
5.4.7. Eligible Capital below the level of the Capital Floor
If at any time an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer becomes aware that it does not have Eligible Capital in excess of the amount of the Capital Floor specified in Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)), it must immediately
- (a) stop effecting new Contracts of Insurance; and
- (b) inform the AFSA.
5.5. Reduction of Eligible Capital
5.5.1. Tier 1 Capital not to be reduced without approval
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must not reduce the Tier 1 Capital component of its Eligible Capital without the prior written approval of the AFSA.
5.5.2. Capital plan to be provided
When seeking approval for a reduction of its Tier 1 Capital under PINS 5.5.1 (Tier 1 Capital not to be reduced without approval), an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must provide to the AFSA a capital plan that has incorporated the effects of the proposed reduction and:
- (a) demonstrates that the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer will remain in excess of its MCR for 2 years without relying on new capital issues;
- (b) is consistent with the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s business plan; and
- (c) takes account of any possible acquisitions, locked-in capital in subsidiaries and the possibility of exceptional losses.
5.5.3. Notice to be given of proposed reduction of Tier 2 Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must notify the AFSA of its intention to reduce its Tier 2 Capital at least 6 months before the actual date of the proposed reduction, providing details of how it will meet its MCR after the proposed reduction.
5.6. Notification of dividends and distributions
5.6.1. Dividends and distributions to be reported
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must report to the AFSA all dividends and other distributions to shareholders within 15 business days following the declaration of the dividend or distribution.
6. Investment
6.1. Admissible assets
6.1.1. Security, liquidity, location and diversification
An Insurer when, investing in assets, must consider whether, for the portfolio as a whole -
- (a) its assets are sufficiently secure having regard to their capacity to protect their value and preserve their economic substance;
- (b) its assets are sufficiently liquid to ensure that the Insurer is able to make payments to policyholders and creditors as they fall due
- (c) its assets are held in the appropriate location for their availability; and
- (d) its assets are sufficiently diversified subject to the nature, scale and complexity of the business.
6.1.2. Assets appropriate to liabilities
(1) An Insurer must invest in a manner that is appropriate to the nature of its liabilities.
(2) In particular, an Insurer must:
- (a) consider the extent to which the cash flows from its investments match the liability cash flows in both timing and amount and how these changes in varying conditions;
- (b) consider the investment guarantees and embedded options that are contained in its policies;
- (c) consider the currency or currencies of its liabilities and the extent to which they are matched by the currencies of the assets;
- (d) manage conflicts of interest (e.g. between the Insurer’s corporate objectives and disclosed insurance policy objectives) to ensure assets are invested appropriately;
- (e) for with-profits liabilities, hold an appropriate mix of assets to meet policyholders’ reasonable expectations; and
- (f) if it is part of an insurance group, hold investments tailored to the characteristics of its liabilities and its needs and not be subject to undue influence from the wider objectives of the group.
6.1.3. Ability to assess risks
(1) An Insurer must only invest in assets whose risks it can properly assess and manage.
(2) In particular, an Insurer must:
- (a) ensure its investments, including those in collective investment funds, are sufficiently transparent and limit its investments to those where the associated risks of the asset can be properly managed by it (b) ensure that it understands all of the risks involved in an investment before any investments are undertaken;
- (d) if it is able to look through the structure of an investment to the underlying assets, consider the risk characteristics of the underlying assets and how this affects the risk characteristics of the investments itself;
- (e) if it is not able to look through the structure of an investment to the underlying assets, develop appropriate techniques to assess the risks associated with the investment.
6.2. Investment restrictions
6.2.1. Assets not admitted to trading on a regulated financial market
An Insurer must ensure that assets and securities that are not admitted to trading on a regulated financial market are kept to prudent levels.
6.2.2. Derivatives
(1) An Insurer must not use a Derivative instrument for speculation or proprietary trading.
(2) An Insurer may only use a Derivative instrument:
- (a) to apply an index tracking strategy to part or all of a portfolio;
- (b) to apply capital protected strategies to part or all of a portfolio;
- (c) to apply efficient portfolio management techniques to a portfolio; or
- (d) to reduce investment risk currently employed on a portfolio.
6.2.3. Forward foreign exchange transactions
An Insurer must not invest in forward foreign exchange transactions save to the extent that they hedge currency exposures to currencies other than the reporting currency in its prudential returns.
6.3. Investment policy and procedures
6.3.1. Investment policy
An Insurer must establish and maintain an investment policy which specifies
- (a) the nature, role and extent of its investment activities; and
- (b) how it complies with PINS 6.1 (Admissible assets).
6.3.2. Procedures for complex and non-transparent investments
An Insurer must establish procedures for managing the risk associated with more complex and less transparent classes of asset and investment in markets or instruments that are subject to less governance or regulation.
7. Segregation of Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities
7.1. Establishment of Long-Term Insurance Funds
7.1.1. Long-Term Insurance Funds to be established
An Insurer conducting Long-Term Insurance Business must either:
- (a) establish and maintain one or more Long-Term Insurance Funds; or
- (b) notify the AFSA that the Insurer is deemed to constitute a single Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.1.2. Long-Term Insurance Fund
(1) Unless (2) applies, all the Long-Term Insurance Assets of an Insurer constitute its LongTerm Insurance Fund.
(2) Where an Insurer identifies particular Long-Term Insurance Assets in connection with different parts of its Long-Term Insurance Business, the assets identified in relation to each such part constitute separate Long-Term Insurance Funds of the Insurer.
7.1.3. Long-Term Insurance Assets
(1) An Insurer’s Long-Term Insurance Assets are the items in (2), adjusted to take account of:
- (a) outgo in respect of the Insurer’s Long-Term Insurance Business; and
- (b) any transfers made out of the Long-Term Insurance Fund in accordance with PINS
7.5.2 (Transfers of assets out of Long-Term Insurance Funds).
(2) The items are:
- (a) admissible assets identified by the Insurer as being available to cover liabilities arising under or in connection with Long-Term Insurance Business with due regard to generally accepted actuarial practice (including assets into which those assets have been converted) but excluding any assets identified as being held to cover liabilities in respect of subordinated debt;
- (b) any other assets identified by the Insurer as being available to cover its liabilities arising from Long-Term Insurance Business (including assets into which those assets have been converted) including, if the Insurer so elects, assets which are excluded under (a);
- (c) premiums and other receivables in respect of Long-Term Insurance Business;
- (d) other receipts of the Long-Term Insurance Business; and
- (e) all income and capital receipts in respect of the items set out in (2).
7.1.4. Insurer deemed to constitute Long-Term Insurance Fund to be treated as though it had established such fund
An Insurer that is deemed, in accordance with PINS 7.1.1(b), to constitute a single Long-Term Insurance Fund shall be treated for all purposes relating to these rules as though the Insurer had established a Long-Term Insurance Fund to which all of the assets and liabilities of the Insurer are attributed.
7.1.5. Treatment of Branches
An Insurer that is a Branch and that is subject to a regulatory requirement in another jurisdiction to arrange its affairs in a manner that is equivalent or substantially equivalent to the requirements of PINS 7.1.1 may make an application to the AFSA for that arrangement of its affairs to be deemed to constitute a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
Guidance
If the AFSA approves an application under PINS 7.1.5, it will give a written notice to the Branch stating the manner in which the arrangement will be deemed to constitute a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.2. Attribution of contracts to a Long-Term Insurance Fund
7.2.1. Business to be attributed to Long-Term Insurance Funds
An Insurer must attribute all Long-Term Insurance Business that it conducts to a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.2.2. Attribution of General Insurance Contracts
(1) Except as allowed for in (2), an Insurer may not attribute General Insurance Contracts to a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
(2) An Insurer may attribute Contracts of Insurance in General Insurance Category 1 (Accident) and General Insurance Category 2 (Sickness) to a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.3. Segregation of assets and liabilities
7.3.1. Separate identification of assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses
An Insurer that is required under PINS 7.1.1 (Long-Term Insurance Funds to be established) to establish and maintain one or more Long-Term Insurance Funds, or has attributed Contracts of Insurance in General Insurance Category 1 (Accident) or General Insurance Category 2 (Sickness) to a Long-Term Insurance Fund under PINS 7.2.2(2) (Attribution of General Insurance Contracts), must:
- (a) identify separately in its books and records the assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses attributable to that business; and
- (b) ensure those assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses are recorded separately and accounted for as Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.3.2. Recording of assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses
An Insurer must record all assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses in respect of a Contract of Insurance that is attributed to a Long-Term Insurance Fund as assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses of that Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.3.3. Attribution of assets not already attributed
An Insurer may at any time attribute any of its assets to a Long-Term Insurance Fund that were not previously attributed to such a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.3.4. Recording of revenues and expenses
All revenues and expenses arising by way of earnings, revaluation or other change to the assets and liabilities of a Long-Term Insurance Fund must be recorded as revenues and expenses, or movements in capital, of that Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.4. Recordkeeping: attribution of assets and liabilities to Long-Term Insurance Fund
7.4.1. Accounting and other records to be maintained
An Insurer must maintain adequate accounting and other records to identify
(1) the Contracts of Insurance attributed to a Long-Term Insurance Fund in accordance with PINS 7.2 (Attribution of contracts to a Long-Term Insurance Fund); and
(2) the assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses attributed to a Long-Term Insurance Fund in accordance with PINS 7.3 (Segregation of assets and liabilities).
7.5. Limitation on use of assets in Long-Term Insurance Fund
7.5.1. Application of assets
An Insurer must ensure that, except as provided in PINS 7.5.2 to 7.5.6, assets that are attributable to a Long-Term Insurance Fund are applied only for the purposes of the business attributed to the Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.5.2. Transfers of assets out of Long-Term Insurance Funds
An Insurer must ensure that assets attributable to a Long-Term Insurance Fund are not transferred so as to be available for other purposes of the Insurer except:
- (a) where the transfer constitutes appropriation of a surplus determined in accordance with PINS 9.1.3(4)(g) (Requirements for Financial Condition Report) and the transfer is performed within four months of the reference date of the Financial Condition Report that this determination forms part of;
- (b) where the transfer constitutes a payment of dividend or return of capital, in accordancewith PINS 7.5.4 (Payment of dividends by Insurer constituting a single Long-Term Insurance Fund);
- (c) where the transfer is made in exchange for other assets at fair value;
- (d) where the transfer constitutes reimbursement of expenditure borne on behalf of the LongTerm Insurance Fund and in respect of expenses attributable to the Long-Term Insurance Fund; or
- (e) where the transfer constitutes reattribution of assets attributed to the Long-Term Insurance Fund in error.
7.5.3. Assets of Long-Term Insurance Funds not to be distributed
An Insurer must not make any distribution by way of dividend, or return of capital assets attributable to a Long-Term Insurance Fund, if by doing so that would result in a breach of its obligations under PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements).
7.5.4. Payment of dividends by Insurer constituting a single Long-Term Insurance Fund
An Insurer that is deemed to constitute a single Long-Term Insurance Fund may only make a dividend or return of capital where:
- (a) the dividend or return of capital constitutes appropriation of a surplus determined in accordance with PINS 9.1.3(4)(g) (Requirements for Financial Condition Report), and either
- (b) the payment is made within four months of the reference date of the Financial Condition Report determining that surplus and does not cause the total aggregate amount of the dividends or returns of capital made by the Insurer since that reference date to exceed the amount of that surplus; or
- (c) the payment is made more than four months after the reference date of Financial Condition Report determining that surplus and does not cause the total aggregate amount of the dividends or returns of capital made by the Insurer since that reference date to exceed 50% of the amount of that surplus.
7.5.5. Assets not to be lent
An Insurer must not lend or otherwise make available for use for any other purposes of the Insurer, or any purposes of any party related to the Insurer, assets attributable to a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
7.5.6. Certain reinsurance-like arrangements prohibited
An Insurer may not enter into any arrangement, whether or not described as a Contract of Reinsurance, whereby a Long-Term Insurance Fund of the Insurer stands in the same relation to the Insurer as though the Insurer were the reinsurer in a Contract of Reinsurance in which the Long-Term Insurance Fund is the cedant.
8. Valuation
8.1. Matching assets and liabilities
8.1.1. Value of Insurer’s assets to match its Insurance Liabilities
(1) An Insurer must hold supporting assets of a value at least equal to the amount of its Insurance Liabilities.
(2) Such asset must be of a sufficient amount, and of an appropriate currency and term, to ensure that the cash inflows from the assets meet the expected cash outflows from the Insurer’s Insurance Liabilities as they fall due.
8.1.2. Projecting cash flows - treatment of options
In determining the expected cash outflows from its Insurance Liabilities for the purposes of PINS 8.1.1, an Insurer must take into account any options that exist in the Insurer’s Contracts of Insurance including:
- (a) any unilateral option available to the policyholder to extend a Contract of Insurance; and
- (b) any unilateral right available to the Insurer to either cancel or renew a Contract of Insurance.
8.1.3. Projecting cash flows - Long-Term Insurance Business
In projecting cash flows in relation to Long-Term Insurance Business for the purposes of PINS 8.1.1, an Insurer carrying on Long-Term Insurance Business must take into account the nature of the projections and the factors relevant to its Long-Term Insurance Business, including:
- (a) expected investment earnings;
- (b) expected reinsurance recoveries;
- (c) mortality and morbidity;
- (d) expenses;
- (e) options and guarantees; and
- (f) persistency.
8.2. Recognition and measurement of assets and liabilities
8.2.1. General provisions
(1) An Insurer may:
- (a) measure the value of an asset at less than the value determined in accordance with this Chapter; and
- (b) measure the value of a liability at more than the value determined in accordance with this Chapter.
(2) However, if the AFSA directs an Insurer to measure an asset or a liability in accordance with principles that differ from those specified in this Chapter, the Insurer must measure such assets or liability in accordance with those principles as directed.
8.2.2. Basis of accounting
Save where directed otherwise by the AFSA or where inconsistent with the rules in this Chapter, an Insurer must recognise its assets and liabilities and measure their value in accordance with the IFRS basis of accounting.
8.2.3. Methods and assumptions that may be used
In measuring assets and liabilities, an Insurer must use methods and prudent assumptions that:
- (a) are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the Insurer’s business;
- (b) are made using professional judgement, training and experience;
- (c) are made having regard to reasonably available statistics and other information;
- (d) are consistent from year to year and without arbitrary changes;
- (e) include appropriate margins for adverse deviation of relevant factors;
- (f) recognise the distribution of profits or emerging surplus in an appropriate way over the duration of each Contract of Insurance;
- (g) are in accordance with generally accepted actuarial practice; and
- (h) do not reflect the Insurer’s own credit rating.
8.2.4. Changes in methods and assumptions on which valuations depend
(1) Where the valuation of an asset or liability is dependent upon the adoption of assumptions or the adoption of a calculation method, an Insurer must ensure that any change in the assumptions or methods adopted is reflected immediately in the value attributed to the asset or liability concerned.
(2) The recognition of the effects of changes in assumptions or methods may not be deferred to future reporting periods.
8.2.5. Actuarial principles
The AFSA may specify actuarial principles to be used by an Insurer in measuring assets and liabilities.
8.2.6. Derecognising liabilities
(1) An Insurer must not derecognise an Insurance Liability (or a part of an Insurance Liability) until the obligation giving rise to the liability expires or is discharged or cancelled.
(2) To avoid doubt, if reinsurance covering the liability (or part of the liability) is purchased, the liability must not be derecognised unless the purchase results in the discharge or cancellation of the obligation giving rise to the liability.
8.2.7. Discount rate
In calculating the present value of an Insurance Liability, the discount rate must be a prudent estimate of the yield expected to be earned by assets of the Insurer that are sufficient in value and appropriate in nature to cover the provisions for the liability being discounted.
8.2.8. Valuation of expected future payments
Where this Chapter requires an Insurer to recognise as a liability the value of expected future payments, that liability must be measured as the net present value of those expected future payments.
8.2.9. Valuation of expected future receipts
Where this Chapter requires an Insurer carrying on General Insurance Business to recognise as an asset the value of expected future receipts, that asset must be measured as the net present value of those expected future receipts.
8.3. Treatment of particular assets and liabilities - General Insurance Business
8.3.1. Treatment of premium liability
An Insurer carrying on General Insurance Business must recognise as a liability the value of future claims payments and associated direct and indirect settlement costs, arising from future events insured under policies that are in force as at the Solvency Reference (premium liability).
8.3.2. Treatment of value of future claims payments
An Insurer carrying on General Insurance Business must recognise as a liability the value of future claims payments and associated direct and indirect settlement costs, arising from insured events that have occurred as at the Solvency Reference Date.
8.3.3. Treatment of expected recoveries
An Insurer carrying on General Insurance Business must recognise as an asset the value of reinsurance and other recoveries expected to be received in respect of claims referred to in PINS 8.3.1 (Treatment of premium liability) and PINS 8.3.2 (Treatment of value of future claims payments).
8.4. Treatment of particular assets and liabilities - Long-Term Insurance
8.4.1. Treatment of policy benefits due before Solvency Reference Date
An Insurer carrying on Long-Term Insurance Business must recognise as a liability the amount of policy benefits that are due for payment on or before the Solvency Reference Date.
8.4.2. Treatment of net value of future policy benefits
An Insurer carrying on Long-Term Insurance Business must recognise as a liability the net valueof future policy benefits under policies that are in force as at the Solvency Reference Date, taking into account all prospective liabilities as determined by the policy conditions for each existing contract, and taking credit for premiums payable after the Solvency Reference Date.
8.4.3. Measuring net value of policy benefits as liability
In measuring the liability associated with future policy benefits, an Insurer carrying on LongTerm Insurance Business must:
- (a) use actuarial principles;
- (b) provide for all liabilities based on assumptions that meet the general requirements for prudent assumptions in PINS 8.2.3 (Methods and assumptions that may be used) including appropriate margins for adverse deviation of relevant factors that are sufficient to ensure that there is no significant foreseeable risk that liabilities to policyholders for long-term insurance contracts will not be met as they fall due; and
- (c) take into account:
- (i) all guaranteed policy benefits, including guaranteed surrender values;
- (ii) vested, declared or allotted bonuses to which policyholders are already either collectively or individually contractually entitled;
- (iii) all options available to the policyholder under the terms of the contract;
- (iv) discretionary charges and deductions from policy benefits, in so far as they do not exceed the reasonable expectations of policyholders;
- (v) expenses, including commissions; and
- (vi) any rights under contracts of reinsurance in respect of Long-Term Insurance Business.
8.4.4. Negative values for reserves—Long-Term Insurance
An Insurer carrying on Long-Term Insurance Business must not value its mathematical reserves for a Long-Term Insurance Contract at less than zero unless:
- (a) the calculation is based on assumptions that meet the general requirements for prudent assumptions in PINS 8.2.3 (Methods and assumptions that may be used);
- (b) the contract does not have a guaranteed surrender value at the actuarial valuation date; and
- (c) the total mathematical reserves established by the Insurer have a value of at least:
- (i) if the Insurer’s Long-Term Insurance Contracts include linked long-term contracts—the sum of the surrender values of all its linked long-term contracts at the actuarial valuation date; and
- (ii) in any other case—zero.
9. Actuarial reporting
9.1. Insurers that are required to have Approved Actuaries
9.1.1. Application
PINS 9.1.2 to 9.1.5 apply to an Insurer that is required to have an Approved Actuary. Note: For the Insurers that are required to have an Approved Actuary, see PINS 2.2.2 (Obligation to appoint Approved Individuals to certain roles).
9.1.2. Financial Condition Reports
(1) The Approved Actuary for the Insurer must annually carry out an actuarial investigation to enable him or her to prepare a report about the Insurer’s financial condition (a Financial Condition Report).
(2) The Insurer must ensure that the Approved Actuary is given appropriate access (that is, such access as the actuary reasonably believes to be necessary to prepare the report) to:
- (a) all relevant data, information, reports and staff of the Insurer; and
- (b) so far as possible, any contractor of the Insurer.
(3) The Approved Actuary must prepare, sign and date the report.
(4) The Approved Actuary must give the report to the Insurer sufficiently in advance of the Insurer’s next annual return date to allow the Insurer’s Governing Body a reasonable opportunity to consider and use it in preparing the Insurer’s next annual prudential return.
(5) The Insurer’s Governing Body must give a copy of the report to the AFSA on or before the Insurer’s next annual return date.
(6) In this rule: next annual return date for an Insurer means the date on which it must give its next annual prudential return to the AFSA under PINS 13.1.1 (Obligation to prepare prudential returns).
9.1.3. Requirements for Financial Condition Report
(1) A Financial Condition Report must set out an objective assessment of the overall financial condition of the Insurer concerned.
(2) For an Insurer conducting Long-Term Insurance Business, such a report must include an objective assessment of the financial condition of each Long-Term Insurance Fund established by the Insurer.
(3) In preparing a Financial Condition Report, an Approved Actuary must act in accordance with the relevant professional actuarial standards, and must use appropriate actuarial valuation principles, techniques and methodologies.
(4) The Approved Actuary must ensure that the report covers at least the following matters (so far as relevant):
- (a) an overview of the Insurer’s business;
- (b) an assessment of the Insurer’s recent experience and profitability, including the experience during the year ending on the valuation date;
- (c) an assessment of the value of the Insurer’s Insurance Liabilities that fall within PINS 8.4.1 (Treatment of policy benefits due before Solvency Reference Date) and PINS 8.4.2 (Treatment of net value of future policy benefits);
- (d) for an Insurer to which subrule (5) applies, an assessment of the value of the Insurer’s Insurance Liabilities that fall within PINS 8.3.1 (Treatment of premium liability) and PINS 8.3.2 (Treatment of value of future claims payments), using the relevant professional actuarial standards and appropriate actuarial valuation principles, techniques and methodologies;
- (e) an assessment of whether the Insurer’s past estimates of the liabilities referred to in paragraphs (c) and (d) were adequate, especially if there has been a change in the assumptions or the valuation method from that adopted at the previous valuation;
- (f) an explanation, in relation to the valuation of those liabilities, of:
- (i) the assumptions used in the valuation process;
- (ii) the adequacy and appropriateness of data made available to the Approved Actuary by the Insurer;
- (iii) how the Approved Actuary assessed the reliability of the data;
- (iv) the model or models used by the Approved Actuary;
- (v) the approach taken to estimate the variability of the estimate; and
- (vi) the sensitivity analyses undertaken;
- (g) a determination of the value of the surplus in each Long-Term Insurance Fund established by the Insurer;
- (h) an assessment of asset and liability management, including the Insurer’s investment strategy;
- (j) an assessment of the Insurer’s pricing, including the adequacy of its premiums;
- (k) an assessment of the suitability and adequacy of the Insurer’s reinsurance arrangements, including the documentation of those arrangements and the existence and impact of any limited risk transfer arrangements;
- (l) an assessment of the suitability and adequacy of the Insurer’s Risk Management Policy.
(i) an assessment of the Insurer’s current and future capital adequacy and adiscussion of its approach to capital management;
(5) This subrule applies to an Insurer if it engages in General Insurance Business and:
- (a) more than 15% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Contracts of Insurance for General Insurance Business in General Insurance Categories 1 (Accident) or 2 (Sickness); or
- (b) more than 20% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Contracts of Insurance for General Insurance Business in General Insurance Categories 10 (Motor vehicle liability), 11 (Aircraft liability), 12 (Liability of ships), 13 (General liability), 14 (Credit) or 15 (Suretyship).
(6) The Approved Actuary:
- (a) must consider the implications and outlook for the Insurer of each matter mentioned in subrule (4); and
- (b) if the implications for the Insurer are adverse, must make recommendations to address the problem.
(7) A Financial Condition Report for a Branch must be prepared in relation to the Insurer’s AIFC operations but must take into account the financial position of the head office.
9.1.4. AFSA may direct more frequent Financial Condition Reports
(1) The AFSA may direct an Insurer that the Insurer’s Approved Actuary is to prepare a Financial Condition Report more frequently than PINS 9.1.2 (Financial Condition Reports) requires if the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable, for the prudential supervision of the Insurer, to receive such a report more frequently.
(2) An Insurer must comply with a direction under subrule (1).
9.1.5 AFSA may direct special review
(1) The AFSA may direct an Insurer that the Insurer’s Approved Actuary:
- (a) is to carry out a review of matters specified by the AFSA relating to the Insurer’s operations, risk management or financial affairs; and
- (b) is to prepare a report on the basis of that review.
(2) The Insurer must bear the cost of the review.
(3) An Insurer must comply with a direction under subrule (1).
(4) The Insurer’s Approved Actuary must give the report simultaneously to the AFSA and the Insurer within 3 months of the date of the direction, unless the AFSA grants an extension of time in writing.
9.2. Insurers that are not required to have an Approved Actuary
9.2.1. Application
PINS 9.2.2 to 9.2.5 apply to an Insurer that is not required to have an Approved Actuary. Note: For the Insurers that are required to have an Approved Actuary, see PINS 2.2.2 (Mandatory appointments).
9.2.2. Actuarial reporting requirements for general insurance business
The Governing Body of an Insurer to which this Rule applies:
- (a) must consider annually whether to commission an independent actuary to report on its business; but
- (b) must commission such a report at least once every 3 years.
9.2.3. Qualifications of independent actuary
(1) If an Insurer decides to commission an actuarial report, it must appoint, to prepare the report, an individual who:
- (a) has the qualifications set out in subrule (2); and
- (b) satisfies the criteria set out in subrule (3).
(2) The qualifications are:
- (a) that he or she has appropriate formal qualifications and is a member of a recognised professional body;
- (b) that he or she has at least 5 years’ relevant experience in providing actuarial services to Insurers, either in the AIFC or in other jurisdictions; and
- (c) that the experience is sufficiently recent to ensure that he or she is familiar with current issues in the provision of such services to Insurers.
(3) The criteria are the following:
- (a) that he or she does not exercise any Controlled Function or Designated Function for the Insurer or a related body corporate (except a related body corporate that is a subsidiary of the Insurer);
- (b) that he or she is not:
- (i) an auditor (under section 136(1) of the Companies Regulations for the Insurer;
- (ii) an Employee or Director of an entity of which that auditor is an Employee or Director; nor
- (iii) a partner of that auditor.
9.2.4. Actuarial reports
(1) The actuary who prepares an actuarial report for the purposes of PINS 9.2.2 must sign it.
(2) The Insurer concerned must ensure that the actuary is given appropriate access (that is, such access as the actuary reasonably believes to be necessary to prepare the report) to:
- (a) all relevant data, information, reports and staff of the Insurer; and
- (b) so far as possible, any contractor of the Insurer.
(3) The report must give details, for each category of General Insurance Business that the Insurer conducts, of the following matters:
- (a) recent trends in the business;
- (b) the actuary’s estimate of the value of the Insurance Liabilities and assets arising in respect of those liabilities, determined in accordance with PINS 8 (Valuation);
- (c) if the assumptions or the valuation method used for that estimate differ from those adopted for the previous valuation of those assets and liabilities, the effect, as at the date on which the actuary signs the report, of those changes on the value of those liabilities and assets;
- (d) the adequacy and appropriateness of the data that the Insurer made available to the actuary;
- (e) the procedures that the actuary used to assess the reliability of that data;
- (f) the model or models that the actuary used;
- (g) the assumptions that the actuary used in the valuation process (including, without limitation, assumptions made as to inflation and discount rates, future expense rates and, if relevant, future investment income);
- (h) how the actuary estimated the variability of the estimate;
- (i) the nature and findings of sensitivity analyses that the actuary undertook.
(4) The Insurer’s Governing Body must give a copy of the signed report to the AFSA on or before the date on which the Insurer must give its next annual prudential return to the AFSA under PINS 13.1.1 (Obligation to prepare prudential returns).
9.2.5. Additional powers of the AFSA
(1) If at any time the AFSA believes it is necessary that an Insurer to which this Rule applies should obtain an actuarial report relating to the Insurer’s operations, risk management or financial affairs, it may direct the Insurer to do so at the Insurer’s expense.
(2) The Insurer:
- (a) must appoint, to prepare the report, an actuary who has the qualifications, and satisfies the criteria, in PINS 9.2.3 (Qualifications of independent actuary); and
- (b) must notify the AFSA of the name, qualifications and experience of the actuary appointed.
(3) If the AFSA is not satisfied that the actuary appointed by the Insurer has those qualifications or satisfies those criteria, the AFSA may direct the Insurer to appoint an actuary nominated by the AFSA to prepare the report.
(4) The Insurer must submit the report to the AFSA within 3 months of the direction, unless the AFSA allows an extension of time in writing.
10. Insurers that are members of Groups
10.1.1. Application
10.1.1 Application PINS 10 applies to every Insurer that is a member of a Group.
Guidance
Group is defined in the Glossary as a group of entities which includes an entity (the ‘first entity’) and: (a) any parent of the first entity; and (b) any subsidiaries (direct or indirect) of the parent or parents in (a) or the first entity.
10.1.2. Purpose
PINS 10 imposes additional requirements on an Insurer that is a member of a Group to ensure that:
- (a) the Insurer is capitalised adequately to protect itself against the risks arising from its membership of the Group, and is otherwise protected against those risks;
- (b) it can be properly supervised by the AFSA;
- (c) it provides the AFSA with information about the structure and financial position of the Group; and
- (d) it assesses the effect of, and notifies the AFSA of, certain transactions within the Group.
10.1.3. Group structure
(1) The structure of the Insurer’s Group must be transparent and must not hinder the effective supervision of the Insurer.
(2) The structure and risk profile of the Group must not hinder the Insurer’s stability and solvency.
(3) The overall governance, high-level controls and reporting lines within the Group must be clear so far as they affect the Insurer.
(4) An Insurer must not be subject to material control or influence from another Group member that is exercised through informal or undocumented channels.
(5) There must be clear and certain protocols for the performance of functions for the Insurer at the Group level.
10.1.4. Direction regarding capital resources
(1) An Insurer must hold such additional capital as the AFSA may direct (above the amount of capital that the Insurer would otherwise be required by these rules to hold) to cover risks arising because of its Group membership.
(2) If the AFSA directs an Insurer to hold additional capital, the Insurer must increase its capital by the amount directed by the AFSA within such period as the AFSA may specify.
(3) A direction under subrule (1) may specify that the additional capital is to take a particular form.
10.1.5. Intra-group transactions
(1) An Insurer must ensure that any material transaction with another member of its Group:
- (a) is entered into on an ‘arm’s-length’ basis; and
- (b) is on fair and reasonable terms.
(2) The Insurer must ensure that its books, accounts and records clearly and accurately disclose the nature and details of the transaction, including any accounting information necessary to demonstrate that the terms were fair and reasonable.
10.1.6. Certain transactions to be inquired into by Insurer’s Governing Body
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must not enter into a transaction of a kind described in subrule (2) unless its Governing Body is satisfied, after reasonable inquiry, that the transaction does not adversely affect the interests of policyholders.
(2) The kinds of transaction are the following:
- (a) an intra-group transaction (including a sale, purchase, exchange, loan, guarantee or investment) the amount of which is 3% (or more) of the Insurer’s Eligible Capital;
- (b) a loan to a person not related to the Insurer, if there is an agreement or understanding that the proceeds of the loan, or a substantial part of those proceeds, will be used to make loans to purchase assets of, or make investments in, another Group member, and the amount of the loan is 3% (or more) of the Insurer’s Eligible Capital;
- (c) an intra-group reinsurance agreement, or a modification to such an agreement, if the reinsurance premium or change in the Insurer’s liabilities is 5% (or more) of the Insurer’s Eligible Capital;
- (d) a reinsurance agreement, or a modification to such an agreement, involving the transfer of assets from the Insurer to a person not related to it, if:
- (i) there is an agreement or understanding between the Insurer and that person that any part of the assets will be transferred to one or more other persons related to the Insurer; and
- (ii) the reinsurance premium or change in the Insurer’s liabilities is 5% (or more) of the Insurer’s Eligible Capital;
- (e) an intra-group management agreement, service contract or cost-sharing arrangement.
(3) A reference in subrule (2) to an Insurer’s Eligible Capital is a reference to that capital as at the end of the last standard quarter before the relevant transaction.
(4) An Insurer’s Governing Body may delegate its responsibility under subrule (1) to the Insurer’s senior management if the Insurer’s Risk Management Strategy and internal control framework permit the Governing Body to do so.
(5) In this rule: loan includes the extension of credit. standard quarter means each 3-month period ending on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December.
10.1.7. Specific obligations of Group members
(1) If an Insurer is a member of a Group, the Insurer’s senior management should monitor any functions performed for the Insurer at the Group level.
(2) The Insurer’s senior management should establish and maintain procedures and controls to identify and monitor the effect on the Insurer of its relationship with the other members of the Group and the activities of those other members.
(3) The procedures and controls should include procedures to monitor:
- (a) changes in relationships between Group members;
- (b) changes in the activities of Group members;
- (c) conflicts of interest arising within the Group;
- (d) events in the Group, particularly those that might affect the Insurer’s own regulatory compliance (for example, any failure of control or compliance in another Group member);
- (e) the effect on it of:
- (i) its relationship with the other members of the Group;
- (ii) its membership in the Group; and
- (iii) the activities of the other members of the Group; and
- (f) the Group’s compliance with:
- (i) the supervision requirements applicable to it, including systems for the production of relevant data; and
- (ii) Group reporting requirements.
(4) The Insurer should have procedures to insulate it, so far as practicable, from the adverse effects of other Group activities (for example, transfer pricing or fronting) or Group events that might expose the Insurer to risk.
(5) The Insurer’s senior management should take reasonable steps to ensure that:
11. Transfer of insurance business
11.1 Introduction
11.1.1. Application
PIN 11 applies to every AIFC-Incorporated Insurer.
11.1.2. AIFC Insurance Business Transfer Scheme - definition
An AIFC Insurance Business Transfer Scheme is a scheme for transfer of the whole or part of the Insurance Business undertaken by an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer.
11.2. Sanction Order
11.2.1. Requirement for order of the AIFC Court
No AIFC Insurance Business Transfer Scheme is to have effect unless an order sanctioning the scheme (a Sanction Order) has been made by the AIFC Court under section 112 of the FSFR.
11.2.2. Application for a Sanction Order
An application for a Sanction Order must be made by:
(1) whichever of the transferor or transferee concerned is an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer; or
(2) by both transferor and transferee, if both are AIFC-Incorporated Insurers.
11.2.3. Requirements on the applicant
Subject to such directions as the AFSA may give pursuant to section 112(2) of the FSFR, the applicant for a Sanction Order must ensure that:
- (a) the application for a Sanction Order is accompanied by
- (i) a written report on the terms of the scheme (the Scheme Report) that complies with rule 11.3.2; and
- (ii) a written summary of the scheme (the Scheme Summary) that complies with rule 11.3.3;
- (b) notice of the application for the Sanction Order is given to every policyholder resident in Kazakhstan who is affected by the scheme, in accordance with rule 11.4.1; and
- (c) notice of the application for the Sanction Order is published in accordance with rule 11.4.2.
11.3. The Scheme Report
11.3.1. The Skilled Person
A Scheme Report may only be made by a person (the Skilled Person):
11.3.2. The Scheme Report
A Scheme Report must
- (a) be in a form approved by the AFSA;
- (b) include a reasoned opinion as to whether or not the scheme (if it is sanctioned by the Court) is expected to have any material adverse impact on any of the policyholders of the transferor or the transferee; and
- (c) include a reasoned conclusion as to whether (if the scheme is sanctioned by the Court) each AIFC-Incorporated Insurer concerned with the scheme (whether as transferee or as transferor) will, taking the scheme into account, comply with the requirements of PINS.
11.3.3. The Scheme Summary
The Scheme Summary must
- (a) contain sufficient information, in language that is clear, fair and not misleading, to enable policyholders to understand how they may be affected if the scheme is sanctioned by the Court;
- (b) be prepared or approved by the Skilled Person; and
- (c) be approved by the AFSA.
11.4. Notice requirements
11.4.1. Notice given to policyholders
(1) The notice given to policyholders must include:
- (a) Details of the place or places and times at which and the period during which an affected policyholder may obtain a copy of the scheme and any associated documentation; and
- (b) the Scheme Summary referred to in rule 11.8.
(2) The period in (1) must be not less than 30 days, or such other period as the AFSA may direct in writing.
11.4.2. Publication of notice
(1) The applicant must publish notice of the application for the Sanction Order.
(2) The notice in (1) must
- (a) be approved by the AFSA before publication;
- (b) be published not less than three months (or such other period as the AFSA may direct in writing) before the hearing at which the Court will be asked to sanction the scheme; and
- (c) be published in two national papers in Kazakhstan, or in such other publications as the AFSA may direct in writing.
12. Insurers in run-off
12.1. Application and purpose
12.1.1. Application
PINS 12 applies to:
- (a) every AIFC-Incorporated Insurer; and
- (b) every Branch in respect of its AIFC Insurance Business operations.
12.1.2. Meanings of terms relating to run-off
In this Chapter:
- (a) an Insurer in Run-off means an Insurer that has ceased to effect Contracts of Insurance in respect of the whole or a category of its Insurance Business (or, in the case of a Branch, the whole or a category of its AIFC Insurance Business), and a Long-Term Insurance Fund in run-off is construed accordingly; and
- (b) going into run-off or placing Insurance Business into run-off means ceasing to effect Contracts of Insurance, and placing a Long-Term Insurance Fund into run-off is construed accordingly.
12.1.3. Compliance with PINS 15 by Insurer directed to go into run-off
An Insurer in Run-off by virtue of a decision or notice of the AFSA to the effect that the Insurer is to cease to effect Contracts of Insurance shall comply with PINS 12 except to the extent the AFSA acting under its powers in the FSFR directs otherwise.
12.1.4. Certain contracts to be disregarded
For the purposes of this Chapter, in determining whether an Insurer is effecting Contracts of Insurance or has ceased to effect Contracts of Insurance, including Contracts of Insurance effected through a Long-Term Insurance Fund, Contracts of Insurance effected under a term of an existing Contract of Insurance will be ignored unless the AFSA decides otherwise in respect of any particular contract.
12.2 Insurers ceasing to effect Contracts of Insurance in a category
12.2.1. Application
PINS 12.2.2 (Insurers to give notice of decision to cease business) and PINS 12.2.3 (Insurers in run-off not to effect certain contracts) apply to an Insurer that ceases or decides to cease to effect new Contracts of Insurance or to renew Contracts of Insurance:
- (a) in a category in which the Insurer has previously effected Insurance Business; or
- (b) in respect of a Long-Term Insurance Fund, in a category in which the Insurer has previously effected Insurance Business through that Long-Term Insurance Fund.
12.2.2 Insurers to give notice of decision to cease business
An Insurer to which this Rule applies must, within 28 days of a decision to cease to effect new Contracts of Insurance in a category, notify the AFSA of its decision, in a notice specifying the following details:
- (a) the effective date of the decision to cease effecting Contracts of Insurance;
- (b) the category to which the decision relates; and
- (c) where relevant, the Long-Term Insurance Fund to which the decision relates.
12.2.3 Insurers in run-off not to effect certain contracts
(1) An Insurer who has provided a notice to the AFSA in accordance with PINS 12.2.2 must not effect any Contracts of Insurance in that category without the written permission of the AFSA.
(2) Where the notice referred to in PINS 12.2.2 relates to a Long-Term Insurance Fund of the Insurer, the restriction set out in this rule applies only to that Long-Term Insurance Fund.
12.3. Run-off plans
12.3.1. Application
PINS 12.3.2 to 12.3.7 apply to:
- (a) Insurers that go into, or are in, run-off, or that maintain Long-Term Insurance Funds that are in run-off;
- (b) Insurers that make a decision to go into run-off or to place a Long-Term Insurance Fund into run-off; and
- (c) Insurers whose Licence to effect Contracts of Insurance in respect of their entire Insurance Business or in respect of the entire business of a Long-Term Insurance Fund is withdrawn by the AFSA.
12.3.2. Insurer voluntarily in run-off to provide run-off plan
If an Insurer decides to go into run-off or to place a Long-Term Insurance Fund into run-off, the Insurer must, at the same time as the notice referred to in PINS 12.2.2, provide the AFSA with a written run-off plan in respect of the Insurance Business being placed into run-off.
12.3.3. Insurer directed to go into run-off to provide run-off plan
If the AFSA withdraws an Insurer’s Licence to effect Contracts of Insurance in respect of the Insurer’s whole, or a category of, Insurance Business or the whole, or a category of, Insurance Business of a Long-Term Insurance Fund, the Insurer must, within 28 calendar days after the day the Insurer is given the written notice of withdrawal of its Licence (or, if later, the period specified in that notice), provide the AFSA with a written run-off plan in respect of that Insurance Business.
12.3.4. What run-off plans must cover
An Insurer must ensure a run-off plan provided to the AFSA in accordance with this Part covers the period until all liabilities to policyholders relating to the Insurance Business in run-off are met and includes:
- (a) an explanation of how, or the extent to which, all liabilities to policyholders will be met in full as they fall due;
- (b) an explanation of how, or the extent to which, the Insurer will maintain its compliance with the requirements of these rules until such time as all liabilities to policyholders are met;
- (c) a description, appropriate to the scale and complexity of the Insurer’s business, of the Insurer’s business strategy;
- (d) financial projections showing, in a form appropriate to the scale and complexity of the Insurer’s operations, the forecast financial position of the Insurer as at the end of each reporting period during the period to which the run-off plan relates;
- (e) an assessment of the sensitivity of the financial position of the Insurer to stress arising from realistic scenarios relevant to the circumstances of the Insurer;
- (f) details of the planned run-off reinsurance protections and the extent to which the planned reinsurance protections match the run-off realistic scenarios;
- (g) details of the claims handling and reserving strategy; and
- (h) details of the cost of the management of the run-off.
12.3.5. Application of run-off plan to fund
Where an Insurer’s Insurance Business in run-off relates to a Long-Term Insurance Fund of that Insurer, the run-off plan must deal with the matters set out in PINS 12.3.4 so far as they relate to that Long-Term Insurance Fund.
12.3.6. Insurer to monitor run-off plan etc
(1) This rule applies to an Insurer that has given a run-off plan to the AFSA.
(2) The Insurer must monitor the matters provided in the run-off plan.
(3) If there is a significant departure from the run-off plan, the Insurer must tell the AFSA immediately, but by no later than the second business day after the day the departure happens or starts.
12.3.7. AFSA may direct Insurer to amend run-off plan
(1) Where an Insurer has notified a matter to the AFSA in accordance with PINS 12.3.6, the AFSA may by notice in writing require the Insurer to provide an amended run-off plan.
(2) The Insurer must provide an amended run-off plan within 28 days of receipt of the notice, unless the notice specifies a longer period.
12.4. Provisions in respect of contracts relating to Insurance Business in run-off
12.4.1. Application
PINS 12.4.2 (Insurer with business in run-off to notify AFSA of certain contracts) applies only to an Insurer that:
- (a) is in run-off as regards its entire Insurance Business or the entire Insurance Business of a Long-Term Insurance Fund;
- (b) has provided a notice to the AFSA in accordance with PINS 12.2.2 (Insurers to give notice of decision to cease business) in respect of its entire Insurance Business or the entire Insurance Business of a Long-Term Insurance Fund; or
- (c) has received a written notice from the AFSA withdrawing the Insurer’s Licence to effect Contracts of Insurance in respect of its entire Insurance Business or the entire Insurance Business of a Long-Term Insurance Fund.
12.4.2. Insurer with business in run-off to notify AFSA of certain contracts
(1) An Insurer to which this rule applies must:
- (a) within 10 business days after the day its Insurance Business enters into run-off, tell the AFSA about the existence and principal features of any notifiable contract that existed at the time the business entered into run-off; and
- (b) within 10 business days after the day it enters into a notifiable contract in relation to its Insurance Business in runoff, tell the AFSA about the existence and principal features of the contract.
(2) To remove any doubt, subrule (1) (b) applies whether or not the Insurance Business is conducted through a Long-Term Insurance Fund that is in run-off.
(3) In this rule: notifiable contract means:
- (a) a contract with a person related to the Insurer, other than a Contract of Insurance effected by the Insurer before going into run-off;
- (b) a contract with any person relating to the management of all or any of the Insurance Business in run-off;
- (c) a contract with any person for reinsurance of all or any of the Insurance Business in run-off; or
- (d) any other contract with a person mentioned in paragraph (b) or (c) or a person related to such a person.
12.5. Limitations on distributions by AIFC-incorporated Insurers in run-off
12.5.1. Insurer in run-off not to make distributions
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer in run-off must not make any distribution to shareholders or members of the Insurer, whether by way of dividends or otherwise, or any payment of management fees (other than fees payable under a contract notified to the AFSA in accordance with PINS 12.4.2), without the written consent of the AFSA.
(2) Any such distribution or return of capital or payment of management fees must be made within the period, if any, specified in the written notice of consent given by the AFSA.
13. Prudential returns
13.1.1. Obligation to prepare prudential returns
(1) An Insurer must prepare and submit to the AFSA the annual, biannual and quarterly prudential returns set out in Schedule 6 (Prudential returns by Insurers).
(2) The AFSA may, by notice given to an AIFC Insurer require the AIFC Insurer to prepare additional prudential returns.
13.1.2. Deadlines for provision of returns
(1) An Insurer must give an annual prudential return to the AFSA within 4 months after the day the relevant financial year of the Insurer ends.
(2) An Insurer must give a biannual prudential return to the AFSA within 1 month after the day the relevant standard biannual period ends.
(3) An Insurer must give a quarterly prudential return to the AFSA within 1 month after the day the relevant standard quarter ends.
(4) In this rule:
- (a) standard biannual period means the 6-month period ending on 30 June or 31 December; and
- (b) standard quarter means the 3-month period ending on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September or 31 December.
14. Captive Insurers
14.1. Introduction
14.1.1. Definition of Captive Insurer
A Captive Insurer is an Authorised Firm with a Licence to carry on Insurance Business as a Class 1, Class 2 or Class 3 Captive Insurer
14.1.1-1. Classification of Captive Insurer
(1) A class 1 Captive Insurer is an AIFC Captive Insurer that is permitted under the conditions of its authorisation to effect or carry out Contracts of Insurance only for risks related to or arising out of the business or operations of the group to which the Insurer belongs.
(2) A class 2 Captive Insurer is an AIFC Captive Insurer that is permitted under the conditions of its authorisation to obtain no more than 20% of its gross written premium from third-party risks arising from business or operations that are closely linked to the business or operations of the group to which the Insurer belongs.
(3) A class 3 Captive Insurer is an AIFC Captive Insurer that:
(a)is permitted under the conditions of its authorisation to effect or carry out Contracts of Insurance only for risks related to or arising out of the business or operations of persons who engage in similar, related or common:
i.businesses; or
ii.activities; or
iii.trade; or
iv.services; or
v.operations; and
(b)is owned by the persons mentioned in paragraph (i) or by a body corporate of which all such persons are members such as group captives.
14.1.2. Definition of Captive Insurance Business
(1) Captive Insurance Business is the business of Effecting or Carrying out Contracts of Insurance as a Class 1, Class 2 or Class 3 Captive Insurer.
(2) General Captive Insurance Business is Captive Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts.
(3) Long-Term Captive Insurance Business is Captive Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts.
14.1.3. Captive Insurer to be incorporated in the AIFC
(1) Only an Authorised Firm which is incorporated under the laws of the AIFC may apply to the AFSA for a Licence to conduct Captive Insurance Business.
(2) A Captive Insurer may either be self-managed or managed by an Insurance Manager authorised by AFSA.
14.2. Protected Cell Companies
14.2.1. Captive Insurer may be a Protected Cell Company
(1) An Authorised Firm which is a Protected Cell Company (PCC) incorporated under the Companies Regulations may apply to the AFSA for a Licence to conduct Captive Insurance Business.
(2) A Protected Cell Company may not otherwise carry on Insurance Business.
14.2.2. Captive insurers that are PCCs not to create cells without consent
A Captive Insurer that is a Protected Cell Company must not create a Cell without the written consent of the AFSA.
14.2.3. Captive insurers that are PCCs to conduct Captive Insurance Business only through cells
A Captive Insurer that is a Protected Cell Company must ensure that, when it conducts Captive Insurance Business, each Contract of Insurance is attributable to a particular Cell of the Captive Insurer.
14.2.4. Captive insurers that are PCCs not to conduct General and Long-Term Captive Insurance Business through same Cell
A Captive Insurer that is a Protected Cell Company must not conduct both General Captive Insurance Business and Long-Term Captive Insurance Business through the same Cell.
14.3. Application of PINS to Captive Insurers
14.3.1. Application of PINS 2 (Systems and Controls)
(1) A Captive Insurer must comply with the requirements of PINS 2 (Systems and Controls) in full subject to (2).
(2) A Captive Insurer may appoint an Insurance Manager authorised by AFSA to perform the Controlled Function of Senior Executive Officer provided that such Employee is an Approved Individual and the Designated Function of Money Laundering Reporting Officer.
14.3.2. Application of PINS 3 (Risk Management Strategy).
A Captive Insurer must comply with PIN 3 (Risk Management Strategy) in full.
14.3.3. Application of PINS 4 (Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA)).
A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 4 (Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA)) in full.
14.3.4. Application of PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements)
A Captive Insurer must comply with the requirements of PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements) in full, subject to the rules in PINS 14.4 (Capital adequacy requirements for Captive Insurers).
14.3.5. Application of PINS 6 (Investment)
A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 6 (Investment) in full.
14.3.6. Application of PINS 7 (Segregation of Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities)
A Captive Insurer carrying on Long-Term Captive Insurance Business must comply with PINS 7 (Segregation of Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities) in full.
14.3.7 Application of PINS 8 (Valuation)
A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 8 (Valuation) in full.
14.3.8 Application of PINS 9 (Actuarial Reporting)
A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 9 (Actuarial reporting) in full.
14.3.9 Application of PINS 10 (Insurers that are members of Groups)
A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 10 (Insurers that are members of Groups) in full.
14.3.10 Application of PINS 11 (Transfers of Business)
A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 11 (Transfer of insurance business) in full.
14.3.11. Application of PINS 12 (Insurers in run-off)
A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 12 (Insurers in run-off) in full.
14.3.12. Application of PINS 13 (Prudential Returns)
(1) A Captive Insurer must comply with PINS 13 (Prudential returns) in full.
(2) Unless required otherwise by AFSA in writing, Class 1 Captive Insurer may submit Prudential Returns semi-annually instead of quarterly as stated in Schedule 6.
14.4. Capital adequacy requirements for Captive Insurers
14.4.1. Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR) for a Captive Insurer
(1) For the purposes of Schedule 4 of PINS, the Capital Floor for a Captive Insurer is the highest of the following:
(a) the Base Capital Requirement;
(b) the Premium Risk Component;
(c) the Technical Provision Risk Component.
(2) Base Capital Requirement (BCR) for a Captive Insurer is
(a) US$100,000 for a Class 1 Captive Insurer;
(b) US$200,000 for a Class 2 Captive Insurer;
(c) US$300,000 for a Class 3 Captive Insurer.
(3) Premium Risk Component for a Captive Insurer
(a) The Premium Risk Component for Class 1, Class 2 or Class 3 Captive Insurers conducting general insurance business or life insurance business is the amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
[18% ´ firm’s net written premium up to US$ 5 million]
+
[16% ´ firm’s net written premium in excess of US$ 5 million]
(4) Technical Provision Risk Component for a Captive Insurer
(a) The Technical Provision Risk Component for Class 1, Class 2 or Class 3 Captive Insurers conducting general insurance business is the amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
[5% ´ firm’s net claims reserve under general Contracts of Insurance]
-
[15% ´ the amount of firm’s reinsurance and other recoveries expected
to be received in respect of those claims]
(b) The technical provision risk component for Class 1, Class 2 or Class 3 Captive Insurers conducting long-term insurance business is the amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
[2.5% ´ Policyholder liabilities calculated using actuarial methods for long-term insurance]
14.4.2. Minimum Capital Requirement for a Protected Cell Company
(1) Subject to (2), each Cell of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Minimum Capital Requirement in accordance with PINS 5.2.2 (Obligation to calculate MCR) as if it were a stand-alone Insurer.
(2) For a Captive Insurer that is a Protected Cell Company, the Capital Floor only applies to the overall Protected Cell Company and there is no Capital Floor for each Cell or the Core.
14.4.3. Prescribed Capital Requirement for a Protected Cell Company
(1) Class 1, Class 2 and Class 3 Captive Insurers are not required to calculate Prescribed Capital Requirement;
(2) For a Protected Cell Company each Cell of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Prescribed Capital Requirement in accordance with PINS 5.2.3 (Obligation to calculate PCR) as if it were a stand-alone Insurer.
14.4.4. Eligible Capital of a Protected Cell Company
(1) Each Cell of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Eligible Capital in accordance with PINS 5.2.1 (Obligation to calculate Eligible Capital).
(2) The Core of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Eligible Capital in accordance with PINS 5.2.1 (Obligation to calculate Eligible Capital).
(3) In calculating its Eligible Capital, a Cell may only rely upon Non-Cellular Assets where it has entered into a recourse agreement with the Core pursuant to which it is entitled to rely upon such Non-Cellular Assets.
(4) The Core of a Protected Cell Company must not enter into a recourse agreement with a Cell where the total capital thereby made available to Cells of the Protected Cell Company would exceed the Eligible Capital of the Core.
SCHEDULE 1. Categories of General Insurance
A Contract of Insurance will be a General Insurance Contract if it falls within one or more of the following categories:
General Insurance Category 1: Accident
Contracts of Insurance providing fixed pecuniary benefits or benefits in the nature of indemnity (or a combination of both) against risks of the Person insured:
(1) sustaining injury as the result of an accident or of an accident of a specified class;
(2) dying as a result of an accident or of an accident of a specified class; or
(3) becoming incapacitated in consequence of disease or of disease of a specified class, including contracts relating to industrial injury and occupational disease but excluding contracts falling within Long-Term Insurance Category 4 (Permanent Health).
General Insurance Category 2: Sickness
Contracts of Insurance providing fixed pecuniary benefits or benefits in the nature of indemnity (or a combination of both) against risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to sickness or infirmity but excluding contracts falling within Long-Term Insurance Category 4 (Permanent Health).
General Insurance Category 3: Land vehicles
Contracts of Insurance against loss of or damage to vehicles used on land, including motor vehicles but excluding railway rolling stock.
General Insurance Category 4: Railway rolling stock
Contract of Insurance against loss of or damage to railway rolling stock.
General Insurance Category 5: Aircraft
Contracts of Insurance upon aircraft or upon the machinery, tackle, furniture or equipment of aircraft.
General Insurance Category 6: Ships
Contracts of Insurance upon vessels used on the sea or on inland water, or upon the machinery, tackle, furniture or equipment of such vessels.
General Insurance Category 7: Goods in transit
Contracts of Insurance against loss of or damage to merchandise, baggage and all other goods in transit, irrespective of the form of transport.
General Insurance Category 8: Fire and natural forces
Contracts of Insurance against loss of or damage to property (other than property to which categories 3 to 7 relate) due to fire, explosion, storm, natural forces other than storm, nuclear energy or land subsidence.
General Insurance Category 9: Damage to property
Contracts of Insurance against loss of or damage to property (other than property to which General Insurance Categories 3 to 7 relate) due to hail or frost or any other event (such as theft) other than those mentioned in General Insurance Category 8 (Fire and natural forces).
General Insurance Category 10: Motor vehicle liability
Contracts of Insurance against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of motor vehicles on land, including third-party risks and carrier’s liability.
General Insurance Category 11: Aircraft liability
Contracts of Insurance against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of aircraft, including third-party risks and carrier’s liability.
General Insurance Category 12: Liability of ships
Contracts of Insurance against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of vessels on the sea or on inland water, including third party risks and carrier’s liability.
General Insurance Category 13: General liability
Contracts of Insurance against risks of the persons insured incurring liabilities to third parties, the risks in question not being risks to which General Insurance Categories 10, 11, 12 or 20 relate.
General Insurance Category 14: Credit
Contracts of Insurance against risks of loss to the Persons insured arising from the insolvency of debtors of theirs or from the failure (otherwise than through insolvency) of debtors of theirs to pay their debts when due.
General Insurance Category 15: Suretyship
(1) Contracts of Insurance against the risks of loss to the Persons insured arising from their having to perform contracts of guarantee entered into by them.
(2) Fidelity bonds, performance bonds, administration bonds, bail bonds or customs bonds or similar contracts of guarantee, where these are:
- (a) effected or carried out by a Person not carrying on the business of Accepting Deposits;
- (b) not effected merely incidentally to some other business carried on by the Person effecting them; and
- (d) effected in return for the payment of one or more premiums.
General Insurance Category 16: Miscellaneous financial loss
Contracts of Insurance against any of the following risks, namely:
(1) risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to interruptions of the carrying on of business carried on by them or to reduction of the scope of business so carried on;
(2) risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to their incurring unforeseen expense (other than loss such as is covered by contracts falling within General Insurance Category 18 (Assistance)); or
(3) risks which do not fall within sub-paragraph (1) or (2) and which are not of a kind such that Contracts of Insurance against them fall within any other General Insurance Category.
General Insurance Category 17: Legal expenses
Contracts of Insurance against risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to their incurring legal expenses (including costs of litigation).
General Insurance Category 18: Assistance
Contracts of Insurance providing either or both of the following benefits, namely:
(1) assistance (whether in cash or in kind) for Persons who get into difficulties while travelling, while away from home or while away from their permanent residence; or
(2) assistance (whether in cash or in kind) for Persons who get into difficulties otherwise than as mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
General Insurance Category 19: Space
Contracts of Insurance against loss of or damage to spacecraft and space objects (including satellites).
General Insurance Category 20: Space liability
Contracts of Insurance against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of spacecraft and space objects, including third-party risks and carrier’s liability.
SCHEDULE 2 Categories of Long-Term Insurance
A Contract of Insurance will be a Long-Term Insurance Contract if it falls within one or more of the following categories:
Long-Term Insurance Category 1: Life and annuity
Contracts of Insurance on human life or contracts to pay annuities on human life, but excluding (in each case) contracts within Long Term Insurance Category 3.
Long-Term Insurance Category 2: Marriage and birth
Contract of Insurance to provide a sum on marriage or on the birth of a child, being contracts expressed to be in effect for a period of more than one year.
Long-Term Insurance Category 3: Linked long-term
Contracts of insurance on human life or contracts to pay annuities on human life where the benefits are wholly or partly to be determined by reference to the value of, or the income from, property of any description (whether or not specified in the contracts) or by reference to fluctuations in, or in an index of, the value of property of any description (whether or not so specified).
Long-Term Insurance Category 3: Permanent health
Contracts of Insurance providing specified benefits against risks of Persons becoming incapacitated in consequence of sustaining injury as a result of an accident or of an accident of a specified class or of sickness or infirmity, being contracts that:
(1) are expressed to be in effect for a period of not less than five years, or until the normal retirement age for the Persons concerned, or without limit of time; and
(2) either are not expressed to be terminable by the Insurer, or are expressed to be so terminable only in special circumstances mentioned in the contract.
SCHEDULE 3. Calculation of Eligible capital
1. Application and purpose
1.1. Application
This Schedule applies to every AIFC-Incorporated Insurer.
2. Calculation of Eligible Capital
2.1. Calculating Eligible Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate its Eligible Capital in accordance with the Eligible Capital Calculation Table in rule 2.2 (Eligible Capital Calculation Table) and the provisions in this Schedule.
2.2. Eligible Capital Calculation Table
The Eligible Capital Calculation Table is as follows:
(A) Tier 1 Capital: |
Permanent Share Capital |
Undistributable Reserves |
Fund for future appropriations |
(B) Deductions from Tier 1 Capital |
Investments in own shares |
Intangible assets |
Interim net losses |
(C) Tier 1 Capital after deductions = A-B |
(D) Tier 2 Capital: |
Perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instruments |
Fixed dividend ordinary shares |
Subordinated debt |
Fixed term preference shares |
Any other item approved for inclusion as Tier 2 Capital at the discretion of the AFSA |
(E) Total Tier 1 Capital plus Tier 2 Capital = C+D |
(F) Deductions from Total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital: |
Investments in subsidiaries and associates |
Connected lending of a capital nature |
Inadmissible assets |
(G) Total Tier 1 Capital plus Tier 2 Capital after deductions = E-F = Total Eligible Capital |
3. Components of Tier 1 Capital
3.1. Permanent Share Capital
Permanent Share Capital means ordinary paid-up share capital, or equivalent however called, which meets the following conditions:
- (a) it is fully paid up;
- (b) any dividends in relation to it are non-cumulative;
- (c) it is available to absorb losses on a going concern basis;
- (d) it ranks for repayment upon winding up or insolvency after all other debts and liabilities;
- (e) it is undated;
- (f) the proceeds of an issue of permanent share capital is immediately and fully available to the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer;
- (g) the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is not obliged to pay any dividends on the shares (except in the form of shares that themselves comply with this rule);
- (h) the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer does not have any other obligation or commitment to transfer any economic benefit in relation to that permanent share capital;
(i) dividends and other charges on the shares can only be paid out of accumulated realised profits;
3.2. Undistributable Reserves
(1) Undistributable Reserves has the meaning attributed to it by section 72(7) of the AIFC Companies Regulations namely any of the following:
- (a) a Company’s share premium account;
- (b) a Company’s capital redemption reserve;
- (c) the amount by which a Company’s accumulated, unrealised profits (so far as not previously utilised by Distribution or capitalisation) exceeds its accumulated, unrealised losses (so far as not previously written off in a reduction or reorganisation of capital duly made);
- (d) any other reserve that the Company is prohibited from distributing by its Articles of Association or under any applicable AIFC Regulations or AIFC Rules.
(2) Undistributable Reserves also include capital contributions if:
- (i) the capital contributions satisfy the requirements of rule 3.1 (a) to (i); and
- (ii) the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer told the AFSA of its intention to include the capital contributions at least 1 month before the day they were included.
3.3. Fund for future appropriations
Fund for future appropriations means the fund comprising all funds the allocation of which either to policyholders or to shareholders has not been determined by the end of the financial year, or the balance sheet items under international accounting standards which in aggregate represent as nearly as possible that fund.
3.4. Intangible assets
Intangible assets include goodwill, capitalised development costs, brand names, trademarks and similar rights and licences.
4. Components of Tier 2 Capital
4.1. Perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instruments
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer may only include perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instruments as part of its Tier 2 Capital if:
- (a) they are unsecured, subordinated and fully paid-up;
- (b) they are perpetual; and
- (c) they are available to absorb losses on a going concern basis.
4.2. Subordinated debt
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must not include subordinated debt as part of its Tier 2 Capital unless it meets the following conditions:
- (a) the claims of the subordinated creditors must rank behind those of all unsubordinated creditors;
- (b) no interest or principal may be payable:
- (i) at a time when the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is in breach of its minimum capital requirement; or
- (ii) if the payment would mean that the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer would be in breach of these rules;
- (c) the only events of default must be non-payment of any interest or principal under the debt agreement or the winding-up of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer;
- (d) the remedies available to the subordinated creditor in the event of non-payment in respect of the subordinated debt must be limited to petitioning for the winding up of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer or proving for the debt and claiming in the liquidation of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer;
- (e) any events of default and any remedy described in paragraph (d) must not prejudice the matters in paragraphs (a) and (b);
- (f) in addition to the requirements about repayment in paragraphs (a) and (b), the subordinated debt must not become due and payable before its stated final maturity date except on an event of default complying with paragraph (c);
- (g) the agreement and the debt are governed by the laws of a jurisdiction:
- (i) under which the other conditions mentioned in this subrule can be met; or
- (ii) that is otherwise acceptable, generally or in a particular case, to the AFSA;
- (h) to the fullest extent permitted under the law of the relevant jurisdictions, creditors must waive their right to set off amounts they owe the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer against subordinated amounts owed to them by the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer;
- (a) to (h);
- (j) the debt must be unsecured and fully paid up;
- (k) the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer has notified the AFSA that it intends to include subordinated debt as part of its Eligible Capital and the AFSA has not advised the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer in writing within thirty days of the date of the notification that the subordinated debt must not form part of its Eligible Capital.
(i) the terms of the subordinated debt must be set out in a written agreement or instrument that contains terms that provide for the conditions set out in paragraphs
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must not include in its Eligible Capital subordinated debt issued with step-ups in the first 5 years following the date of issue.
(3) For the purposes of calculating the amount of subordinated debt that may be included in its Eligible Capital, an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must amortise the principal amount on a straight-line basis by 20% per annum in its final 4 years to maturity.
4.3. Legal opinions on Tier 2 Capital instruments
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must obtain a written external legal opinion stating that the requirements of rules 4.1 or 4.2 have been met in respect of any perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instrument or subordinated debt that the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is proposing to include as Eligible Capital.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must provide copies of the opinions referred to in subrule
4.4. Other Tier 2 Capital instruments
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer may include additional items in its Tier 2 Capital with the written approval of the AFSA.
5. Deductions from total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital
5.1. Investments in subsidiaries and associates
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must deduct investments in subsidiaries and associates from the total of Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital.
5.2. Connected lending of a capital nature
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must deduct connected lending of a capital nature from the total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital.
5.3. Inadmissible assets
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must deduct the following inadmissible assets from the total of Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital:
- (a) tangible fixed assets, including inventories, plant and equipment and vehicles;
- (b) deferred acquisition costs;
- (c) deferred tax assets;
- (d) deficiencies of net assets in subsidiaries;
- (f) any investment by a subsidiary of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer in the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s own shares;
- (g) holdings of other investments which are not readily realisable investments; and
- (h) any other assets to be deducted from Eligible Capital as directed by the AFSA.
6. Limits on the use of different forms of capital
6.1. Instruments not to be included in Tier 2 Capital—exceeding 100% of Tier 1 Capital
A capital instrument is not eligible for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital to the extent that its inclusion will result in the aggregate amount of Tier 2 Capital exceeding 100% of eligible Tier 1 Capital (net of deductions).
SCHEDULE 4. Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)
1. Minimum capital requirement (MCR)
1.1. The Capital Floor
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must maintain a paid up share capital of not less than the Capital Floor, or an equivalent sum in any currency acceptable to the AFSA.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must maintain minimum shareholders’ funds of at least 75% of the Capital Floor or an equivalent sum in any currency acceptable to the AFSA.
(3) The Capital Floor is:
- (a) US$7,000,000 for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer carrying on General Insurance Business;
- (b) US$7,000,000 for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer carrying on Long-term Insurance Business; or
- (c) An amount specified in writing by the AFSA.
1.2. The MCR for General Insurance Business
(1) The MCR for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer carrying on General Insurance Business is an amount not less than the higher of:
- (a) 12% of that Insurer’s gross written premiums during the previous financial year, net of:
- (i) the amount of any premium taxes, rebates, refunds, and commissions accrued by the Insurer, and
- (ii) the gross amount of any reinsurance premiums (after deduction of any rebates or commissions receivable by the Insurer) ceded by the Insurer in respect of General Insurance Business during that preceding financial year;
- (b) 12% of the value of claims reserves and premium reserves, net of reinsurance and amounts reserved to maximum; and
- (c) the Capital Floor applicable to that Insurer.
(2) For the purposes of rule 1.2(1)(a) any funds received by an Insurer in return for the assumption of insurance obligations under a novation, portfolio transfer or other scheme or arrangement must be included in the gross written premium income computation at a value:
- (a) determined on a basis acceptable to the AFSA; and
- (b) supported by an actuarial opinion acceptable to the AFSA.
(3) Reinsurance ceded by an Insurer to an Associated Party shall not be taken into account for the purposes of the MCR calculation unless:
- (a) the Associated Party is an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer and meets the solvency requirements in these rules, or
- (b) the AFSA, in any particular case, consents in writing to that reinsurance being taken into account.
1.3. The MCR for Long-term Insurance Business
(1) The MCR of a an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer carrying on Long-term Insurance Business is an amount not less than the higher of -
- (a) 2.5% of that Insurer’s total reserves, net of reinsurance; and
- (b) the Capital Floor applicable to that Insurer.
(2) Where an Insurer has entered into Contracts of Insurance falling within Long-Term Insurance Category 3 (Linked long-term business), the value of the total reserves in rule 1.3(1)(a) should be reduced by the value of the linked liabilities.
(3) Reinsurance ceded by an Insurer to an Associated Party shall not be taken into account for the purposes of the MCR calculation unless -
- (a) the Associated Party is an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer and meets the solvency requirements in these rules, or
- (b) the AFSA, in any particular case, consents in writing to that reinsurance being taken into account.
SCHEDULE 5. Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)
1. Prescribed capital requirement (PCR)
1.1. Calculation of the PCR
The PCR for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is the higher of:
- (a) 150% of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s MCR; and
- (b) the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Risk-Based Capital Requirement.
2. Definitions
2.1. Risk-Based Capital Requirement
(1) The Risk-Based Capital Requirement for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer that, under PINS 5.3.1 (Approval by AFSA), has been approved to use its own internal model to calculate its Risk-Based Capital Requirement is the amount calculated using that model.
(2) The Risk-Based Capital Requirement for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer that, under PINS 5.3.1 (Approval by AFSA), has been approved to use its own internal model to replace 1 or more components of its Investment, Insurance and Operational Risk Requirements is the amount calculated using those components as replaced and the other components of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Investment, Insurance and Operational Risk Requirements.
(3) The Risk-Based Capital Requirement for any other AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is the sum of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s:
2.2. Investment Risk Requirement
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Investment Risk Requirement is the sum of its:
2.3. Insurance Risk Requirement
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Insurance Risk Requirement is the sum of its:
- (a) Premium Risk Component;
- (b) Outstanding Claims Risk Component;
- (c) Long-Term Insurance Risk Component; and
- (d) Insurance Concentration Risk Component.
2.4. Operational Risk Requirement
(1) The amount of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Operational Risk Requirement is 2% of whichever is the higher of:
- (a) the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s gross written premiums in the 12 months ending on the Solvency Reference Date; and
- (b) its technical provisions (without deduction for reinsurance) as at the Solvency Reference Date.
(2) However, if the amount calculated under subrule (1) is more than a ceiling, calculated as: then the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Operational Risk Requirement is the amount of the ceiling.
then the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Operational Risk Requirement is the amount of the ceiling.
3. Counterparty Grades
3.1. Meaning of Counterparty Grade
(1) In this Schedule:
- (a) Counterparty Grade (or Grade) has the meaning given by subrule (2); and
- (b) Invested Asset means an asset, right or interest held by an Insurer for the primary purpose of generating revenue or for directly providing funds to meet the Insurer’s cash outflows in the future.
(2) For this Schedule, the Grade of an asset is its Grade according to the rating of its counterparty, in accordance with table A. Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings
Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings
Item | Rating of counterparty by: | Grade of asset | ||||
Standard & Poor’s | Moody’s | A. M. Best | Fitch |
| ||
1 | AAA | Aaa | A++ | AAA | 1 |
|
2 | AA+ AA AA- | Aa1 Aa2 Aa3 | A+ | AA+ AA AA- | 2 |
|
3 | A+ A A- | A1 A2 A3 | A A- | A+ A A- | 3 |
|
4 | BBB+ BBB BBB- | Baa1 Baa2 Baa3 | B++ B+ | BBB+ BBB- | 4 |
|
5 | BB+ or below | Ba1 or below | B or below | BB+ or below | 5 |
|
(3) Unrated assets, exposures and counterparties must be classified as Grade 5.
3.2. Using different credit rating agencies
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must rely on the ratings issued by the same credit rating agency for determining Counterparty Grades unless the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer has good reason to use a different credit rating agency or agencies.
(2) If a counterparty or debt obligation has been rated by more than 1 rating agency and there are 2 or more ratings that lead to different capital charges, the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must use the credit rating that results in the highest capital charge.
(3) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must not use the rating of an agency that is not in table A unless the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer has the written permission of the AFSA.
4. Asset Risk Component
4.1. Asset Risk Component
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Asset Risk Component is the sum of the amounts obtained by multiplying the value of each asset of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, Graded according to the Counterparty Grade of the asset, by the percentage applicable to that asset, under:
- (a) for assets that are not reinsurance assets—table B1;
- (b) for assets that are reinsurance assets where the reinsurer is subject to prudential supervision by a subrule (2) regulator—table B2; or
- (c) for assets that are reinsurance assets where the reinsurer i
(2) A regulator is a subrule (2) regulator if it is located:
- (a) in the AIFC or the Republic of Kazakhstan;
- (b) in 1 of the member states of the European Union;
- (c) in Australia, Canada, Hong Kong, Iceland, Japan, Norway, Singapore, Switzerland, the United States of America; or
- (d) in any other jurisdiction that is a signatory to the Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding on Cooperation and Information Exchange initiated by the International Association of Insurance Supervisors.
Note 1: For the list of the member states of the European Union, see http://europa.eu/about-eu/countries/index_en.htm.
Note 2: For the list of signatories to the Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding on Cooperation and Information Exchange, see http://www.iaisweb.org/MMoU-signatories-605.s not subject to prudential supervision by a subrule (2) regulator—table B3.
Table B1: Percentage applicable to assets that are not reinsurance assets
Item | Asset | % |
1 | cash, bank deposits and other cash equivalents Grade 1 sovereign bonds | 0.50 |
2 | bonds that mature, or are redeemable, in less than 1 year issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1 or 2 (excluding subordinated debt and government debt obligations dealt with anywhere else in this table) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 1 or 2 | 1.00 |
3 | unpaid premiums due 6 months or less previously from a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1, 2 or 3 bonds that mature, or are redeemable, in 1 year or more issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1 or 2 (excluding subordinated debt and government debt obligations dealt with anywhere else in this table) | 2.00 |
4 | unpaid premiums due 6 months or less previously from an unrated counterparty or a counterparty with a rating of Grade 4 or 5 bonds issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 3 (excluding subordinated debt) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 3 secured loans | 4.00 |
5 | unpaid premiums due more than 6 months previously from a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1, 2 or 3 bonds issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 4 (excluding subordinated debt) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 4 | 6.00 |
6 | unpaid premiums due more than 6 months previously from an unrated counterparty or a counterparty with a rating of Grade 4 or 5 bonds issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 5 (excluding subordinated debt) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 5 listed subordinated debt | 8.00 |
7 | unlisted subordinated debt preference shares | 10.00 |
8 | listed equity investment listed trusts | 16.00 |
9 | direct holdings of real estate unlisted equity investment unlisted trusts | 20.00 |
10 | loans to: (a) directors of the Insurer; (b) directors of related parties; or (c) dependent relatives of such directors unsecured loans to employees (except loans of less than US$1,000) assets subject to a fixed or floating charge | 100.00 |
11 | other non-reinsurance assets not mentioned in this table | 20.00 |
Table B2: Percentage applicable to reinsurance assets—reinsurer supervised by subrule (2) regulator.
Item | Asset | % |
1 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 1 | 1.00 |
2 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 2 | 2.00 |
3 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 3 | 4.00 |
4 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 4 | 6.00 |
5 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 5 | 8.00 |
Table B3: Percentage applicable to reinsurance assets—reinsurer not by supervised by subrule (2) regulator.
Item | Asset | % |
1 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 1 | 1.20 |
2 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 2 | 2.40 |
3 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 3 | 4.80 |
4 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 4 | 7.20 |
5 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurers with a counterparty rating of Grade 5 | 9.60 |
4.2. Effect of guarantee or collateral
(1) Assets that have been explicitly, unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed for their remaining term to maturity by a guarantor with a counterparty rating in Grades 1, 2 or 3 who is not a related party to the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer may be assigned the asset risk charge that would apply to a debt instrument issued from the guarantor.
(2) Where an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer holds collateral against an asset, and this collateral takes the form of a charge, mortgage or other security interest in, or over, cash, or any debt security whose issuer has a counterparty rating of Grades 1, 2 or 3, the AIFCIncorporated Insurer may apply the asset risk charge relevant to the collateral (instead of applying the asset risk charge that would otherwise apply to the asset).
(3) The provisions in subrules (1) and (2) above apply only to so much of the asset that is covered by the guarantee or the collateral.
4.3. Assets subject to mortgage or charge
(1) Subject to (2), assets of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer that are under a fixed or floating charge, mortgage or other security are subject to an asset risk charge of 100% to the extent of the indebtedness secured on those assets. This would replace the asset risk charge that would otherwise apply to the secured assets.
(2) Where the security supports an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Insurance Liabilities, the asset risk charge of 100% is applicable only to the amount by which the market value of the charged assets exceeds the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s supported liabilities.
4.4. Excluded assets
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer need not include an amount in the asset risk charge for any asset excluded from Eligible Capital in accordance with the table B1 in paragraph 4.1.
5. Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component
5.1. When Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component must be calculated
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate an Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component, if the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is, as of the Solvency Reference Date, a party to a Derivative contract, including a forward, future, swap, option or other similar contract, but not:
- (a) a put option serving as a guarantee;
- (b) a foreign exchange contract which has an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less; or
- (c) an instrument traded on a futures or options exchange which is subject to daily mark-tomarket and margin payments.
5.2. How to calculate Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate its Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component as the sum of the amounts obtained by applying the calculations set out in paragraph 5.3 in respect of each Derivative contract entered into by the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer that meets the description in paragraph 5.1.
5.3. Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component for Derivative contract
To calculate the amount of the Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component, the asset equivalent value of each Derivative (as determined in paragraph 5.4) is multiplied by the Asset Risk Component as though the asset equivalent value were a debt obligation due from the Derivative counterparty.
5.4. Asset equivalent value
(1) The asset equivalent value is the current mark-to-market exposure of the Derivative (where positive) and a potential exposure add-on.
(2) The potential exposure add-on is determined by multiplying the notional principal amount of the Derivative in accordance with the following table, according to the nature and residual maturity of the Derivative.
Residual maturity |
Interest rate contracts |
Foreign exchange & gold contracts |
Equity contracts |
Precious metal contracts (except gold) |
Other contracts |
Less than 1 year |
Nil |
1.0% |
6.0% |
7.0% |
10.0% |
1 year to less than 5 years |
0.5% |
5.0% |
8.0% |
7.0% |
12.0% |
5 years or more |
1.5% |
7.5% |
10.0% |
8.0% |
15.0% |
_
6. Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component
6.1. How to calculate Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate its Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component by applying, to the face value of any credit substitute it has issued (including letters of credit, guarantees and put options serving as guarantees) the asset risk component that would be applied to the obligation or asset over which the credit substitute has been written.
(2) Where the credit substitute is supported by collateral or a guarantee, the provisions of paragraph 4.2 (Effect of guarantee or collateral) may be applied by the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer.
7. Premium Risk Component
7.1. Application
Paragraphs 7.2 to 7.4 apply to General Insurance Business.
7.2. Premium Risk Component
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Premium Risk Component is the sum of the amounts obtained by multiplying the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s net premium liability that falls within each Category of General Insurance Business by the percentage applicable to that liability under table C.
Table C Percentage factor—Premium Risk Component
Item | Category of General Insurance Business | Direct insurance % | Reinsurance: proportional % | Reinsurance: non-proportional % |
1 | Category 1, 2 | 16 | 18 | 21 |
2 | Category 3, 18 | 13 | 15 | 18 |
3 | Category 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 16, 17, 19 | 16 | 18 | 21 |
4 | Category 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 20 | 21 | 23 | 26 |
(2) In this rule: net premium liability means premium liability less any expected reinsurance and nonreinsurance recoveries in respect of that premium liability as at the Solvency Reference Date.
7.3. AIFC-Incorporated Insurer may apply for different percentages
(1) The AFSA may, on application of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer conducting General Insurance Business in Category 1, give written consent to the use of percentages other than those in table C if the AFSA is satisfied that:
- (a) adequate mortality and morbidity information exists in respect of that business; and
- (b) the information provides a reasonable basis for reliance on actuarial principles.
(2) The percentages that may be used must be those stated in the notice but may not be lower than:
- (a) 12% in the case of direct insurance and proportional reinsurance; and
- (b) 16% in the case of non-proportional reinsurance.
7.4. Certain contracts not included
(1) If an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer underwrites Contracts of Insurance in General Insurance Categories 1 and 2 that are Long-Term Insurance Contracts, the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer need not calculate a Premium Risk component in respect of those contracts.
(2) For Contracts of Insurance in General Insurance Categories 1 and 2 that are Long-Term Insurance contracts, the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate a Long-Term Insurance Risk Component.
8. Outstanding Claims Risk Component
8.1. Application
Paragraphs 8.2 to 8.4 apply to General Insurance Business.
8.2. Outstanding Claims Risk Component
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Outstanding Claims Risk Component is the sum of the amounts obtained by multiplying the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s net liability for outstanding claims that falls within each Category of Insurance Business by the percentage applicable to that liability under table D.
Table D Percentage factor— Outstanding Claims Risk Component
Item | Categories | Direct insurance % | Reinsurance: proportional % | Reinsurance: non-proportional % |
1 | Category 1, 2 | 11 | 12 | 14 |
2 | Category 3, 18 | 9 | 10 | 12 |
3 | Category 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 16, 17, 19 | 11 | 12 | 14 |
4 | Category 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 20 | 14 | 15 | 17 |
2) In this rule:
net liability for outstanding claims means the liability in respect of future claims referred in PINS 8.3.2 (Treatment of value of future claims payments), less any expected reinsurance and non-reinsurance recoveries in respect of that liability as at the Solvency Reference Date.
8.3. AIFC-Incorporated Insurer may apply for different percentages
(1) The AFSA may, by written notice, allow the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer to use percentages other than those in table D if the AFSA is satisfied that:
- (a) adequate mortality and morbidity information exists in respect of that business; and
- (b) the information provides a reasonable basis for reliance on actuarial principles.
(2) The percentages that may be used must be those stated in the notice but may not be lower than 8%.
8.4. Certain contracts not included
(1) If an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer underwrites Contracts of Insurance in Categories 1 and 2 that are Long-Term Insurance Contracts, the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer need not calculate an Outstanding Claims Risk Component in respect of those contracts.
(2) For Contracts of Insurance in Categories 1 and 2 that are Long-Term Insurance Contracts, the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must calculate a Long-Term Insurance Risk Component.
9. Long-Term Insurance Risk Component
9.1. Application
Paragraphs 9.2 and 9.3 apply to Long-Term Insurance Business.
9.2. Long-Term Insurance Risk Component
An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Long-Term Insurance Risk Component is the sum of the following amounts, so far as they relate to the Long-Term insurance business of the AIFCIncorporated Insurer:
- (a) 1.25% of the amount of provisions in respect of Long-Term Insurance Business that is [investment-linked insurance, where the contracts are subject to a capital guarantee;]
- (b) 0.5% of the amount of provisions in respect of Long-Term Insurance Business that is investment-linked insurance, where the contracts are not subject to a capital guarantee;
- (c) 3% of the amount of provisions in respect of Long-Term Insurance Business other than business described in paragraphs (a) and (b);
- (d) the amount obtained by multiplying the amount of capital at risk under paragraph 9.3 by 0.1%;
- (e) if the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer issues policies that are contingent on mortality—the amount of anticipated claims cost arising from a 0.5 per thousand increase in the rate of lives insured dying over the following year.
9.3 Capital at risk
(1) Capital at risk of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer means the total amount of sums assured on Long-Term Insurance Contracts issued by the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, less:
- (a) the total amount of mathematical reserves for those contracts; and
- (b) any expected reinsurance and non-reinsurance recoveries as at the Solvency Reference Date.
(2) For an annuity, the sum assured must be taken to be the present value of the annuity payments.
(3) The contribution of each contract to capital at risk must be determined separately. If the capital at risk calculated for a contract is less than zero, the capital at risk for that contract is taken to be zero.
10. Insurance Concentration Risk Component
10.1. Application
Paragraphs 10.2 and 10.3 apply to General Insurance Business.
10.2. Insurance Concentration Risk Component
(1) The Insurance Concentration Risk Component for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is: MER + CoR (if any) – RP (if any) where:
MER has the meaning given in paragraph 10.3 (Maximum event retention). CoR or cost of reinstatement, in relation to an extreme event, means:
- (a) the rate that an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer has, under contract, agreed to pay the reinsurer concerned to reinstate the reinsurance cover relating to the extreme event; or
- (b) if the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer has not agreed on the rate for the reinsurance cover—the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s estimate of the cost of reinstating that cover based on current reinsurance market conditions (but no less than the original rate of reinsurance cover). RP or reinstatement premiums, for an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer that also writes reinsurance, means the amount of inward reinstatement premiums from cedants in respect of catastrophe reinsurance cover if the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer has a binding netting arrangement with the cedant.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must seek advice from its Approved Actuary about estimating its MER if the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer:
- (a) issues policies that do not have a maximum amount insured;
- (b) insures risks in multiple lines of business; or
- (c) has a complex portfolio of insurance risks.
10.3. Maximum event retention
(1) MER or maximum event retention, in relation to an extreme event, is the maximum amount of loss to which the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer will be exposed due to an accumulation of exposures, after netting out any potential reinsurance recoveries.
(2) In calculating its MER, an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer must:
- (a) set the amount based on the accumulation of exposures of the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer to a single extreme event;
- (b) assume a return period of 1 in 250 years (or greater), where the return period is the expected average period within which the extreme event will re-occur; and
- (c) take into account:
- (i) its risk profile and risk tolerance;
- (ii) its claims history (using available internal and external data);
- (iii) the capital resources available to it;
- (iv) its current and future solvency needs;
- (v) its reinsurance programme;
- (vi) the classes of insurance business underwritten by it; and
- (vii) the areas where it conducts business.
(3) If an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer is exposed to more than 1 extreme event, its MER is the largest of the MERs calculated by the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer for those events.
(4) Despite anything in this rule, the AFSA may require the AIFC-Incorporated Insurer to make adjustments in calculating its MER.
SCHEDULE 6. Prudential returns by Insurers
Item |
Title of return |
Form number |
Frequency for AIFC-Incorporated Insurers. |
Frequency for Insurers which are not AIFC-Incorporated |
1 |
Statement of financial position / balance sheet |
INS100 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
2 |
Statement of comprehensive income / income statement |
INS200 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
3 |
Analysis of Derivative activities |
INS111 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
4 |
Analysis of investment concentrations in foreign currency |
INS113 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
5 |
Analysis of investment concentrations risk |
INS114 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
6 |
Supplementary information |
INS210 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
7 |
Calculation of Eligible Capital |
INS300 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
8 |
Calculation of prescribed capital requirement (PCR) |
INS310 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
9 |
Calculation of asset risk component |
INS320 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
10 |
Calculation of off balance sheet asset risk component |
INS330 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
11 |
Calculation of off balance sheet liability risk component |
INS340 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
12 |
Calculation of premium risk component |
INS350 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
13 |
Calculation of technical provisions risk component |
INS360 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
14 |
(For Long-Term Insurers only) Calculation of long-term insurance risk component |
INS370 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
15 |
Calculation of insurance concentration risk component |
INS380 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
16 |
Statement of reinsurance |
INS400 |
Annually |
Annually and quarterly |
17 |
Statement of premium information |
INS500 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
18 |
Statement of technical provisions and claims |
INS600 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
19 |
(For Long-Term Insurers only) Statement of changes in long-term business |
INS610 |
Annually |
n/a |
20 |
Statement of intra-group transactions |
INS700 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
21 |
Statement of largest clients |
INS800 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
_
WORKING SCHEDULE 1 - List of Defined Terms for PINS and associated rulebooks
AIFC-Incorporated Insurer |
an Insurer that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC |
Approved Actuary |
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.5 (Approved Actuary). |
Asset Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 4.1 of PINS Schedule 5 (Asset Risk Component) |
Associated Party |
(a) a holding company, subsidiary or related company of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, (b) a subsidiary or related company of a holding company of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, (c) a holding company of a subsidiary of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, or (d) a company that, alone or with associates, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, more than 50% of the voting power in the general meeting of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer. |
Capital Floor |
The minimum paid up share capital, or equivalent in any currency acceptable to the AFSA, which must be maintained by an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer pursuant to paragraph 1.1 (The Capital Floor) of PINS Schedule 4(Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)). |
Captive Insurer |
an Authorised Firm with a Licence to carry on Insurance Business only for the business or operations of the Group to which it belongs |
Captive Insurance Business |
the business of Effecting or Carrying out Contracts of Insurance only for the business or operations of the Group to which the Captive Insurer belongs. |
Contract of Insurance |
any enforceable contract under which a 'provider' undertakes: (1) in consideration of one or more payments; (2) to pay money or provide a corresponding benefit (including in some cases services to be paid for by the provider) to a 'recipient'; (3) in response to a defined event the occurrence of which is uncertain (either as to when it will occur or as to whether it will occur at all) and adverse to the interests of the recipient |
Contract of Reinsurance |
a Contract of Insurance covering all or part of a risk to which a Person is exposed under a Contract of Insurance |
Counterparty Grade |
the grade of an asset according to the rating of its counterparty, in accordance with the table at paragraph 3.1 (Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Eligible Capital |
the capital instruments that may be recognised by an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer for the purpose of meeting its MCR and PCR in accordance with PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) |
Financial Condition Report |
the report identified in PINS 9.1.2 (Financial Condition Reports) |
General Captive Insurance Business |
Captive Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts. |
General Insurance Business |
Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts |
General Insurance Contract |
a Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 1 of PINS. |
Insurance Business |
the business of conducting either or both of the following regulated activities: (a) effecting Contracts of Insurance; (b) carrying out Contracts of Insurance. |
Insurance Liabilities |
liabilities of an Insurer arising out of its General Insurance Business and Long-Term Insurance Business. |
Insurance Risk Requirement |
The capital component identified in 2.3 (Insurance Risk Requirement) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Insurer |
an Authorised Firm with an authorisation to conduct Insurance Business. |
Internal Auditor |
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.4 (Internal Auditor). |
Investment Risk Requirement |
the sum of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Asset Risk Component, Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component and Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component |
Life Policy |
a Long-Term Insurance Contract (other than aContract of Reinsurance or a Pure Protection Contract) and includes a Long-Term Care Insurance Contract |
Long-Term Captive Insurance Business |
Captive Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts |
Long-Term Care Insurance Contract |
a Long-Term Insurance Contract:(a) that satisfies the following conditions:(i) it provides (or would at the Policyholder’s option provide) benefits for the Policyholder in the event that the Policyholder’s mental or physical health deteriorates to the extent that he or she is incapacitated, is unable to live independently without assistance, and is not expected to recover to the extent that he or she could live independently without assistance;(ii) those benefits are payable or provided for services,accommodation or goods that are necessary or desirable for the continuing care of the Policyholder because of thatincapacity;(iii) those benefits can be paid periodically for all or part of the period during which the Policyholder is unable to liveindependently without assistance; or(b) that is sold or held out as providing benefits for the Policyholder as set out in paragraph (a). |
Long-Term Insurance Business |
Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts |
Long-Term Insurance Contract |
a Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 2 of PINS |
Long-Term Insurance Fund |
A fund established by an Insurer for the purposes of PINS 7 (Segregation of Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities) |
Long-Term Insurance Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 9.2 (Long-Term Insurance Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
MCR |
Minimum Capital Requirement |
Non-Investment Insurance Contract |
a Contract of Insurance that is a General Insurance Contract or a Pure Protection Contract but is not a Long-Term Care Insurance Contract |
Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 5 (Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 6 (Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Operational Risk Requirement |
The capital component identified in paragraph 2.4 (Operational Risk Requirement) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Outstanding Claims Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 8 (Outstanding Claims Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Packaged Product |
(a) a Life Policy; or(b) a Unit in a Collective Investment Scheme |
PCR |
Prescribed Capital Requirement |
Policyholder |
the Person who for the time being is the legal holder of a Contract of Insurance, including any Person to whom, under the Contract of Insurance, a sum is due, a periodic payment is payable or any other benefit is to be provided or to whom such a sum, payment or benefit is contingently due, payable or to be provided |
Premium Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 7 (Premium Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Product Disclosure Document |
for a Packaged Product produced by anAuthorised Firm: a statement in writing prepared by the firm for the product in accordance with COB 5.6 (Packaged products - additional disclosure) |
Pure Protection Contract |
a Long-Term Insurance Contract that meets all of the following conditions:(a) the benefits under the contract are payable only on death or for incapacity due to injury, sickness or infirmity;(b) the contract has no surrender value, or the consideration consists of a single premium and the surrender value does not exceed that premium;(c) the contract makes no provision for its conversion or extension in a way that would result in it ceasing to comply with paragraph (a) or (b);(d) the contract is not a Contract of Reinsurance. |
Risk Management Policy |
a written policy that complies with the requirements of PINS 3.1.3 (Contents of Risk Management Policy) |
Risk Management Strategy |
a written strategy document that complies with the requirements of PINS 3.1.2 (Contents of Risk Management Strategy) |
Risk Officer |
the Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.3 (Risk Officer) |
Solvency Reference Date |
The date at which an Insurer’s compliance with the requirements of PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements) is assessed. |
Tier 1 Capital |
The components of capital identified at paragraph 3 (Components of Tier 1 Capital) of PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) |
Tier 2 Capital |
The components of capital identified at paragraph 4 (Components of Tier 2 Capital) of PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) |
_
ISLAMIC BANKING BUSINESS PRUDENTIAL RULES
Islamic Banking Business Prudential Rules
1. GENERAL
1.1. Introduction
The purpose of this IBB Rules is to establish the prudential framework for Authorised Firms carrying out Islamic Banking Business, Providing Islamic Financing or carrying out other Regulated Activities which involve assuming prudential risks by way of employing Islamic Financial Contracts. These rules are based on:
- (a) the standards and guidelines issued by the Islamic Financial Services Board on Capital adequacy;
- (b) the Basel Accords; and
- (c) the Basel Core Principles for Effective Banking Supervision, issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
1.2. Commencement
These rules commence on 1 January 2018.
1.3. Effect of definitions, notes, examples and references
A definition in the glossary to these rules also applies to any instructions or document made under these rules.
- (a) A note in or to these rules is explanatory and is not part of these rules. However, examples and guidance are part of these rules.
- (b) An example is not exhaustive, and may extend, but does not limit, the meaning of these rules or the particular provision of these rules to which it relates.
- (c) Unless the contrary intention appears, a reference in these rules to an accord, principle, standard or other similar instrument is a reference to that instrument as amended from time to time.
1.4. Islamic Banking Business
Islamic Banking Business is defined in Schedule 1 of the AIFC GEN Rules as a Regulated Activity, which means carrying out the following activities, in a Shari’ah-compliant manner:
- (a) Raising, accepting and managing funds or money placements; and/or
- (b) Managing Unrestricted Profit Sharing Investment Accounts (UPSIAs); and
- (c) Providing financing or making Investments by entering as principal or agent into any Islamic Financial Contract.
Guidance
A firm that conducts any of the activities that make up Islamic Banking Business, or a combination of Islamic banking with other Shari’ah-compliant activities, will need to consider the extent to which its business model is subject to the prudential requirements set out in these rules. These rules are designed to address the different risks that could arise from the broad range of business models, risk appetites and risk profiles of Islamic Banks.
For example, a firm that solely conducts the activity of dealing in investments as principal in a Shari’ah-compliant manner, (that is, an Islamic Broker Dealer) will need to consider the extent to which its activities in buying, selling, subscribing to or underwriting investments attract risks that are subject to the requirements of these rules. In contrast, a firm that is an Islamic bank and that also deals in investments as principal would be subject to a broader range of prudential requirements. In both examples, these rules apply in accordance with the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic business.
1.5. Islamic Bank
(1) An Authorised Firm is an Islamic Bank if it is an Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window as defined in IFR Rules, which is authorised to conduct Islamic Banking Business, as defined in GEN Rules.
(2) An Islamic Financial Institution is an Islamic Bank even if it is also authorised to conduct any other Regulated Activity. An Authorised Firm does not cease to be an Islamic Bank only because it conducts other Regulated Activities included in its authorisation (provided an Islamic Bank conducts them in accordance with Shari’ah).
1.6. Islamic Broker Dealer
(1) An Authorised Firm is an Islamic Broker Dealer if it is an Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window, that is authorised to conduct the Regulated Activity of Dealing in Investments as principal in a Shari’ah-compliant manner and it is not an Islamic bank.
(2) An Islamic Broker Dealer may raise funds using Islamic Financial Contracts but must not manage UPSIAs.
(3) An Authorised Firm is an Islamic Broker Dealer even if it is also authorised to conduct any other activity that is not Islamic Banking Business. An Authorised Firm does not cease to be an Islamic Broker Dealer only because it conducts other activities included in its authorisation.
(4) An Islamic Broker Dealer may provide financing using Islamic Financial Contracts, if it receives the necessary authorisation from the AFSA.
1.7. Islamic Financing Company (IFC)
(1) An Authorised Firm is an Islamic Financing Company (IFC) if it is an Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window, that is authorised to conduct the Regulated Activity of Providing Islamic Financing and it is neither an Islamic Bank nor an Islamic Broker Dealer.
(2) IFCs may raise funds using Islamic Financial Contracts but must not manage UPSIAs.
(3) An Authorised Firm is an IFC even if it is also authorised to conduct any Regulated Activity other than Providing Islamic Financing. An Authorised Firm does not cease to be an IFC only because it conducts other activities included in its authorisation.
(4) An IFC may conduct the Regulated Activity of dealing in Investments as principal using Islamic Financial Contracts, if it receives the necessary authorisation from the AFSA.
1.8. Legal form that Islamic Banks must take
(1) An Islamic Bank must take any one of the following legal forms:
- (a) a limited liability company incorporated under the Companies Regulations of AIFC;
- (b) a limited liability partnership incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Regulations of AIFC;
- (c) a branch that is registered with the AIFC Companies Regulations.
1.9. Application of these rules—general
(1) Except as stated otherwise, these rules apply to a Person that has, or is applying for, an authorisation to conduct Islamic Banking Business, Providing Islamic Financing or to act as an Islamic Broker Dealer.
(2) Except as stated otherwise, all references to Islamic Bank in the rest of this IBB Rules must be taken as referring also to Islamic Broker Dealers and Islamic Financing Companies (IFCs). Consequently, all the regulatory requirements imposed by rules in this IBB module apply to entities licensed to carry out Islamic Banking Business, Providing Islamic Financing and dealing in Investments as principal in a Shari’ah-compliant manner, except for specific rules wherein their applicability is defined.
Guidance
It is possible for an Authorised Firm to be authorised both as an Islamic Bank under these rules and to hold authorisations for carrying out Regulated Activities defined in Schedule 1 of the AIFC GEN Rules. Both these rules and the relevant rules for those activities could apply to such an Authorised Firm in relation to the activities they are involved in. In relation to such an Authorised Firm, however, the Capital requirements in these rules apply. If that Authorised Firm complies with the Capital requirements in these rules, it is taken to comply with the prudential rule requirements specified in PRU Rules of the AFSA rulebook.
1.10. Application of these rules—branches
(1) Chapter 4 (Capital adequacy and Capital requirements) does not apply to an Authorised Firm carrying out Islamic Banking Business in the form of a branch in so far as that Chapter would require the branch to hold Capital.
(2) However, the AFSA may require a branch to have Capital resources or to comply with any other Capital requirement if the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable to do so in the interest of effective supervision of the branch.
1.11. Stress-testing
In carrying out stress-testing and developing its stress-testing scenarios, an Islamic Bank must consider the IFSB’s guiding principles on stress-testing for institutions offering Islamic financial services and the Basel Committee’s recommended standards for stress-testing.
2. PRINCIPLES RELATING TO AN ISLAMIC BANK
2.1. Principle 1—Capital Adequacy
An Islamic Bank must have Capital, of adequate amount and appropriate quality, for the nature, scale and complexity of its business and for its risk profile.
2.2. Principle 2—Credit risk and problem assets
(1) An Islamic Bank must have an adequate credit risk management policy that takes into account an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, its risk profile and the market and macroeconomic conditions.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have adequate policies for the early identification and management of problem assets, and the maintenance of adequate provisions and reserves.
2.3. Principle 3—Transactions with related parties
An Islamic Bank must enter into transactions with related parties on an arm’s-length basis in order to avoid conflicts of interest.
2.4. Principle 4—Concentration risk
An Islamic Bank must have adequate policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate concentrations of risk in a timely way.
2.5. Principle 5—Market risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must have an adequate market risk management policy that takes into account an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, its risk profile, the market and macroeconomic conditions and the risk of a significant deterioration in market liquidity.
(2) An Islamic bank must have adequate policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate market risk in a timely way.
2.6. Principle 6—Operational risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must have an adequate operational risk management policy that takes into account an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, its risk profile and the market and macroeconomic conditions.
(2) An Islamic bank must have adequate policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate operational risk in a timely way.
2.7. Principle 7—Liquidity risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must have prudent and appropriate quantitative and qualitative liquidity requirements. It must have policies that ensure compliance with those requirements and to manage liquidity risk prudently, in a manner that takes into account its risk tolerance, its risk profile and the market and macroeconomic conditions.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have adequate policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate liquidity risk in a timely way
2.8. Principle 8—Group risk
An Islamic Bank must effectively manage risks arising from its membership in a group.
2.9. Principle 9—Equity participation risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must have an adequate equity participation risk management policy that takes into account its risk tolerance and its risk profile.
(2) The Islamic Bank must have adequate policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate equity participation risk in a timely way (including exit strategies for its investment activities).
2.10. Principle 10—Rate of return risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must have an adequate management policy for rate of return risk in the banking book that takes into account its risk tolerance, its risk profile and the market and macroeconomic conditions. The Islamic Bank must have policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate rate of return risk (and any resulting withdrawal risk or displaced commercial risk) in a timely way.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have sound investment policies that are aligned with the risk and return expectations of its Profit Sharing Investment Account holders (or PSIAs), taking into consideration the distinction between restricted and unrestricted PSIAs. An Islamic Bank must be transparent in smoothing any profit pay-outs.
2.11. Principle 11—Shari’ah governance and compliance
An Islamic Bank must have a Shari’ah governance policy that is adequate for the nature, scale and complexity of its business and for its risk profile, and to ensure that an Islamic Bank complies with Shari’ah.
3. PRUDENTIAL REPORTING REQUIREMENTS
3.1. Introduction
(1) This Chapter sets out the prudential reporting requirements for an Islamic Bank.
(2) Prudential returns of an Islamic Bank must reflect its management accounts, financial statements, risk reports or ancillary reports, as appropriate for every return. An Islamic Bank’s returns, accounts, statements and reports must all be prepared using the same standards and practices, and must be easily reconcilable with one another.
(3) A return is referred to as a solo return if it reflects one Islamic Bank’s accounts, statements and reports.
(4) A consolidated return deals with the accounts, statements and reports of an Islamic Bank consolidated with those of the other members of its Financial Group.
Guidance
Financial Group is defined in Rule 11.2 and is used for consolidated reporting instead of ‘corporate group’.
3.2. Information about Financial Group
If directed by the AFSA, an Islamic Bank must give AFSA the following information about its Financial Group:
- (a) details about the entities in the group;
- (b) the structure of the group;
- (c) how the group is managed;
- (d) any other information that the AFSA requires.
Guidance
(1) The AFSA needs to know about the following activities of the members of an Islamic Bank’s Financial Group:
- (a) regulated activities;
- (b) activities that are not regulated activities but are financial in nature and have an effect on an Islamic Bank’s supervision by the AFSA
3.3. Financial Group and risks
1) If an Islamic Bank is part of a Financial Group, credit risk, market risk, operational risk, liquidity risk, equity participation risk and risk of return risk apply on a consolidated basis to that Islamic Bank and to Financial Group as a whole.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have systems to enable it to calculate its Financial Group Capital requirement and Financial Group Capital resources. The Islamic Bank must ensure that its Financial Group Capital resources exceed its Financial Group Capital requirement, at all times.
3.4. Reporting to the AFSA
(1) An Islamic Bank must comply with the accounting and prudential reporting requirements set out in this chapter and elsewhere in this IBB Rules.
(2) The AFSA may impose additional reporting requirements on an Islamic Bank.
(3) An Islamic Bank must prepare the prudential returns that it is required to prepare in accordance with the provisions of this IBB Rules, the instructional guidelines provided by the AFSA, as specified in a notice published by the AFSA or notified by way of a directive by the AFSA.
(4) An Islamic Bank must submit the return to the AFSA within the period stated in the notice.
(5) The AFSA may, by written notice:
- (a) require an Islamic Bank to prepare additional prudential returns;
- (b) exempt an Islamic Bank from a requirement to prepare annual, biannual, quarterly or monthly returns (or a particular return); or
- (c) extend the period within which to give a return.
(6) An exemption referred in (b) above may be subject to one or more conditions. The Islamic Bank must comply with any condition attached to an exemption.
(7) An Islamic Bank must submit prudential returns in accordance with the AFSA’s instructions. The instructions may require that the return be prepared and/or submitted through specially designated electronic/online submission systems designated for that purpose by the AFSA.
(8) The instructions may be set out in the return itself, in a separate document published by the AFSA on its website or by written notice.
(9) The AFSA may by way of a written notice direct an Islamic Bank to submit its returns in a form, manner or frequency other than as prescribed in Rule 3.4.3. An Islamic Bank must continue to submit its returns in accordance with this direction until the AFSA by way of written notice directs otherwise.
3.5. Giving information
(1) The AFSA may, by written notice, require an Islamic Bank to give to it information additional to that required under these rules.
(2) An Islamic Bank must give information to the AFSA in accordance with the instructions provided by it and within the period stated in the notice.
3.6. Accounts and statements to use international standards
An Islamic Bank must prepare and keep its financial accounts and statements in accordance with accounting standards specified in the AIFC GEN Rules.
3.7. Signing returns
A prudential return must be signed by the Finance Officer and the Chief Executive Officer of the Islamic Bank. If either or both of those individuals is or are unable to sign, the return must be signed by the chief risk officer of the Islamic Bank or any of its Approved Individuals.
3.8. Notification to the AFSA
(1) An Islamic Bank must notify the AFSA if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that an Islamic Bank has breached, or is about to breach, a prudential requirement.
(2) In particular, the Islamic Bank must notify the AFSA as soon as practicable of:
- (a) any breach (or foreseen breach) of its minimum Capital requirement;
- (b) any concern (including because of projected losses) it has about its Capital adequacy;
- (c) any indication of significant adverse change in the market pricing of, or trading in, the Capital instruments of an Islamic Bank or its Financial Group (including pressure on an Islamic Bank to purchase its own equity or debt);
- (d) any other significant adverse change in its Capital; and
- (e) any significant departure from its ICAAP.
(3) The Islamic Bank must also notify the AFSA about any measures taken or planned to deal with any breach, prospective breach or concern.
4. CAPITAL ADEQUACY
4.1. General
(1) An Islamic Bank’s total Capital Resources are defined as the sum of its Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital. The categories and elements of regulatory Capital, and the limits, restrictions and adjustments to which they are subject are set out in this Chapter.
(2) Capital supports an Islamic Bank’s operation by providing a buffer to absorb unexpected losses from its activities and, in the event of problems, it enables an Islamic Bank to continue to operate in a sound and viable manner while the problems are resolved. Capital management must be an integral part of an Islamic Bank’s enterprise-wide risk management process and must align an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance and risk profile with its capacity to absorb losses.
4.2. Application to branches
(1) This Chapter does not apply to an Islamic Bank that is operating as a branch insofar as this Chapter would require the branch to hold Capital Resources to meet Capital Requirements.
(2) A branch is required to comply with the reporting requirements under this Chapter.
4.3. Governing Body’s responsibilities
(1) An Islamic bank’s Governing Body must consider whether the Capital and liquidity requirements specified by these rules are adequate to ensure that there is no significant risk that an Islamic Bank’s liabilities cannot be met as they fall due. The Islamic Bank must obtain additional Capital or liquid assets if its Governing Body considers that the minimum requirements do not adequately reflect the risks of its business.
(2) The Governing Body is also responsible for:
- (a) ensuring that Capital management is part of an Islamic Bank’s overall risk management and is aligned with its risk tolerance and risk profile;
- (b) ensuring that the Islamic Bank has, at all times, Capital and liquid financial resources of the kinds and amounts required by these rules;
- (c) ensuring that the Islamic Bank has Capital, of adequate amount and appropriate quality, for the nature, scale and complexity of its business and for its risk profile;
- (d) ensuring that the amount of Capital Resources it has exceeds its minimum Capital Requirement;
- (e) approving the Islamic Bank’s ICAAP and any significant changes to it; and
- (f) monitoring the adequacy and appropriateness of the Islamic Bank’s systems and controls and the Islamic Bank’s compliance with them.
Guidance
(1) An Islamic bank’s risk management strategy will usually refer to risk tolerance although risk appetite may also be used. The terms ‘risk tolerance’ and ‘risk appetite’ embrace all relevant definitions used by different institutions and supervisory authorities. These 2 terms are used interchangeably to describe both the absolute risks a firm is open to take (which some may call risk appetite) and the actual limits within its risk appetite that a firm pursues (which some call risk tolerance).
(2) If an Islamic Bank is a member of a Financial Group, the AFSA expects the Capital of the Financial Group to be apportioned among the group’s members, based on the allocation of risks between them.
4.4. Systems and controls
(1) An Islamic Bank must have adequate systems and controls in place to enable it to calculate and monitor its minimum Capital requirement.
(2) The systems and controls must be documented in writing and must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of its business and for its risk profile.
(3) The systems and controls must enable an Islamic Bank to demonstrate, at all times, whether it complies with this Chapter.
(4) The systems and controls must enable an Islamic Bank to manage available Capital in anticipation of events or changes in market conditions.
(5) The systems and controls must include ICAAP, and an Islamic Bank must have contingency arrangements to maintain or increase its Capital in times of stress.
4.5. Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)
(1) An Islamic Bank’s Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process or ICAAP is the process by which an Islamic Bank continuously demonstrates that it has implemented methods and procedures to ensure that it has adequate Capital resources to support the nature and level of its risks.
(2) An Islamic bank’s ICAAP (and any significant changes to it) must be documented in writing and must have been approved by an Islamic Bank’s Governing Body. A copy of the ICAAP must be given to the AFSA on request.
(3) An ICAAP must reflect the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s operations and must include:
- (a) adequate policies and staff to continuously identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate the risks arising from its activities, and monitor the Capital held against such risks;
- (b) a strategy for ensuring that adequate Capital is maintained over time, including specific Capital targets set out in the context of its risk tolerance, risk profile and Capital requirements;
- (c) plans for how Capital targets are to be met and the means available for obtaining additional Capital, if required;
- (d) procedures for monitoring its compliance with its Capital requirements and Capital targets;
- (e) triggers to alert senior management to, and specified actions to avert and rectify, possible breaches of Capital requirements;
- (f) procedures for reporting on the ICAAP and its outcomes to an Islamic Bank’s Governing bBody and senior management, and for ensuring that the ICAAP is taken into account in making business decisions;
- (g) policies about the effect on Capital of significant risks not covered by explicit Capital requirements;
- (h) triggers, scope and procedures for reviewing the ICAAP and in the light of changed conditions and factors affecting an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and Capital;
- (i) procedures for reporting the results of reviews;
- (j) an adequate recovery plan for restoring an Islamic Bank’s financial situation after a significant deterioration; and
- (k) procedures for stress-testing and the review of stress scenarios.
(4) An Islamic Bank’s ICAAP must be reviewed by an appropriately qualified person at least once every 3 years. The person must be independent of the conduct of an Islamic Bank’s Capital management.
4.6. Initial and ongoing Capital requirements
(1) An Islamic Bank is expected to meet minimum risk-based Capital requirements for exposure to credit risk, market risk and operational risk. An Islamic Bank’s Capital adequacy ratios (consisting of CET 1 ratio, Tier 1 Capital ratio and Total Capital ratio), calculated by dividing relevant levels of its Regulatory Capital by total Risk-Weighted Assets.
(2) Total Risk-Weighted Assets of an Islamic Bank is the sum of:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s credit risk-weighted on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet items calculated in accordance with chapter 6 of this Rules; and
- (b) 12.5 times the sum of an Islamic Bank’s market and operational risk Capital requirements (to the extent that each of those requirements applies to an Islamic Bank).
4.7. Base Capital requirement
The Base Capital Requirement is defined as:
- (a) for an Islamic Bank— USD 10 million;
- (b) for an Islamic Broker Dealer— USD 2 million; and
- (c) for an Islamic Financing Company – USD 2 million.
4.8. Required Tier 1 Capital on authorisation
(1) An entity must have, at the time of its authorisation and at all times thereafter, CET 1 Capital of at least equal to its Base Capital Requirement, defined in Rule 4.7 above.
(2) The AFSA will not grant an authorisation unless it is satisfied that the entity complies with this requirement.
4.9. Required ongoing Capital
(1) An Islamic Bank must have, at all times, Regulatory Capital which exceeds the amount of its Capital Requirement.
(2) The Capital Requirement for an Islamic Bank is determined as the higher of the two amounts set out below:
- (a) the applicable Base Capital Requirement as set out in Rule 4.7; or
- (b) its Risk Capital Requirement as set out in Rule 4.10.
(3) In case of an Islamic Bank whose Capital Requirement is determined by Risk Capital Requirement, and the AFSA has imposed additional capital requirements imposed on it, then the Capital Requirement applicable to it is determined as the sum of such additional capital requirements imposed by the AFSA and its Risk Capital Requirement.
Guidance
(1) An Islamic Bank whose minimum Capital requirement is its risk-based Capital requirement is subject to the additional requirement to maintain a Capital Conservation Buffer—see rule 5.2.
(2) The minimum amount of Regulatory Capital that a firm must have at all times is its Capital Requirement.
4.10. Risk Capital requirement
The Risk Capital requirement for an Islamic Bank is calculated as the sum of:
- (a) its credit risk Capital requirement;
- (b) its market risk Capital requirement; and
- (c) its operational risk Capital requirement.
4.11. Capital adequacy ratios
(1) An Islamic bank’s Capital adequacy is measured in terms of 3 Capital ratios expressed as percentages of its total Risk-Weighted Assets (RWA).
(2) An Islamic Bank must maintain at all times, the following Capital adequacy ratios, at a minimum level of:
- (a) 4.5% of RWA for CET 1 Capital ratio;
- (b) 6% of RWA for Tier 1 Capital ratio; and
- (c) 8% of RWA for Total Capital ratio.
(3) The AFSA may, if it believes it is prudent to do so, increase any or all of a firm’s minimum Capital adequacy ratios. The AFSA will notify an Islamic Bank in writing about a new Capital adequacy ratio and the timeframe for meeting it.
(4) An Islamic Bank must maintain, at all times, Capital adequacy ratios higher than the required minimum levels specified in Rule 4.11 (2) above, so that adequate Capital is maintained in the context of the Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and Capital requirements, and as an additional buffer to absorb losses and preclude any potential breach of Capital adequacy rules. These higher ratios are the Islamic Bank’s risk-based Capital adequacy ratios.
4.12. Elements of regulatory Capital
(1) The Regulatory Capital of an Islamic Bank is the sum of its Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital.
(2) Tier 1 Capital is the sum of an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital and Additional Tier 1 Capital. Tier 1 Capital is also known as going concern Capital because it is meant to absorb losses while an Islamic Bank is viable.
(3) Tier 2 Capital is the sum of the elements set out in Rule 4.17. Tier 2 Capital is also known as gone-concern Capital because it is meant to absorb losses after an Islamic Bank ceases to be viable.
(4) For these rules, the 3 categories of Regulatory Capital are CET 1 Capital, additional Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital.
Guidance Funds collected or forming part of PSIAs managed by an Islamic Bank do not form part of its
Regulatory Capital, because they do not satisfy the criteria for inclusion as either CET 1, Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 Capital. Neither are the PER and IRR part of the Regulatory Capital of the Islamic Bank.
4.13. Common Equity Tier 1 Capital
Common Equity Tier 1 Capital (or CET 1 Capital) is the sum of the following elements:
- (a) common shares, issued by an Islamic Bank, that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.14 for classification as common shares (or the equivalent for non-joint stock companies);
- (b) share premium (also known as stock surplus) resulting from the issue of instruments included in CET 1 Capital;
- (c) retained earnings;
- (d) accumulated other comprehensive income and other disclosed reserves;
- (e) common shares, issued by a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank and held by third parties, that satisfy the criteria in rule 4.23 for inclusion in CET 1 Capital;
- (f) regulatory adjustments applied in the calculation of CET 1 Capital in accordance with Rule 4.30.
Guidance
Retained earnings and other comprehensive income include appropriated profit or loss. Even though they are called reserves, the PER and IRR are not part of Tier 1 Capital of an Islamic bank. They are part of the equity of PSIA investors and, as such, do not have the requisite loss absorbency.
4.14. Criteria for classification as common shares
(1) An instrument issued by an Islamic Bank is classified as a common share and included in CET 1 Capital if all of the criteria in parts (2) to (15) of this Rule are satisfied.
(2) The instrument is the most subordinated claim in case of the liquidation of an Islamic Bank.
(3) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets that is proportional to its share of issued Capital, after all senior claims have been repaid in liquidation. The claim must be unlimited and variable and must be neither fixed nor capped.
(4) The principal amount of the instrument is perpetual and never repayable except in liquidation. Discretionary repurchases and other discretionary means of reducing Capital allowed by law do not constitute repayment.
(5) An Islamic Bank does nothing to create an expectation at issuance that the instrument will be bought back, redeemed or cancelled. The statutory or contractual terms do not provide anything that might give rise to such an expectation.
(6) Distributions are paid out of distributable items of an Islamic Bank (including retained earnings) and the amount of distributions:
- (a) is not tied or linked to the amount paid in at issuance; and
- (b) is not subject to a contractual cap (except to the extent that a firm may not pay distributions that exceed the amount of its distributable items).
(7) There are no circumstances under which the distributions are obligatory. Non-payment of distributions do not constitute default.
(8) Distributions are paid only after all legal and contractual obligations have been met and payments on more senior Capital instruments have been made. There are no preferential distributions and in particular none for any other elements classified as the highest quality issued Capital.
(9) It is the issued Capital that takes the first and proportionately greatest share of any losses as they occur. Within the highest quality Capital, each instrument absorbs losses on a going-concern basis proportionately and equally with all the others.
(10) The paid-in amount is recognised as equity Capital (rather than as a liability) for determining balance-sheet insolvency.
(11) The paid-in amount is classified as equity in accordance with the relevant accounting standards.
(12) The instrument is directly issued and paid-in, and an Islamic Bank has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
(13) The paid-in amount is neither secured nor covered by a guarantee of an Islamic Bank or a related party, nor subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the holder’s claim in relation to the claims of an Islamic Bank’s creditors.
(14) The instrument is issued only with the approval of the owners of an Islamic Bank, either given directly by the owners or, if permitted by the applicable law, given by its governing body or by other persons authorised by the owners.
(15) The instrument is clearly and separately disclosed on an Islamic Bank’s balance sheet. Guidance This criterion is taken to be satisfied even if the instrument includes a permanent write-down mechanism.
4.15. Additional Tier 1 Capital
Additional Tier 1 Capital is the sum of the following elements:
- (a) instruments, issued by an Islamic Bank, that satisfy the criteria in rule 4.16 for inclusion in Additional Tier 1 Capital (and are not included in CET 1 Capital);
- (b) share premium (also known as stock surplus) resulting from the issue of instruments included in Additional Tier 1 Capital;
- (c) instruments, issued by consolidated subsidiaries of an Islamic Bank and held by third parties, that satisfy the criteria in rule 4.24 for inclusion in Additional Tier 1 Capital (and are not included in CET 1 Capital);
- (d) regulatory adjustments applied in the calculation of Additional Tier 1 Capital in accordance with Rules specified later in this chapter.
4.16. Criteria for inclusion in Additional Tier 1 Capital
(1) An instrument issued by an Islamic Bank is included in Additional Tier 1 Capital if all of the criteria in parts (2) to (16) of this Rule are satisfied.
(2) The instrument must be structured using unrestricted non-exchange-based contracts (such as musharakah) and must comply with other Shari’ah requirements.
(3) The instrument is paid-in.
(4) The instrument is the most subordinated claim after those of depositors, general creditors and holders of the subordinated debt of an Islamic Bank.
(5) The paid-in amount is neither secured nor covered by a guarantee of an Islamic Bank or a related party, nor subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the holder’s claim in relation to the claims of an Islamic Bank’s creditors.
(6) The instrument is perpetual. It has no maturity date and there are no step-ups or other incentives to redeem.
(7) If the instrument is callable by an Islamic Bank, it can only be called 5 years or more after the instrument is paid-in and only with the approval of the AFSA. An Islamic Bank must not do anything to create an expectation that the exercise of the option will be approved, and, if the exercise is approved, an Islamic Bank:
- (a) must replace the called instrument with Capital of the same or better quality and at conditions sustainable for the income capacity of an Islamic Bank; or
- (b) must demonstrate to the AFSA that its Capital will significantly exceed an Islamic Bank’s minimum Capital requirement after the option is exercised.
(8) A repayment of principal through repurchase, redemption or other means must be approved by the AFSA. An Islamic Bank must not assume, or create a market expectation, that such approval will be given.
(9) The instrument must provide for an Islamic Bank to have, at all times, discretion not to make a distribution or pay a dividend. The exercise of the discretion must not impose restrictions on an Islamic Bank (except in relation to distributions to common shareholders) and must not constitute default.
(10) Dividends and profits must be paid out of distributable items.
(11) The instrument must not have a credit-sensitive-dividend feature under which a dividend or profit is periodically reset based (wholly or partly) on an Islamic Bank’s credit standing.
(12) The instrument must not contribute to an Islamic Bank’s liabilities exceeding its assets if such a balance-sheet test forms part of any insolvency law applying in the jurisdiction where the instrument was issued.
(13) An instrument classified as a liability for accounting purposes must have principal loss absorption through conversion to common shares, or a write-down mechanism that allocates losses to the instrument, at a pre-specified trigger point. The conversion must be made in accordance with Rule 4.20.
(14) Neither an Islamic Bank nor a related party over which an Islamic Bank exercises control has purchased the instrument, nor has an Islamic Bank directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
(15) The instrument has no features that hinder re-capitalisation. For example, it must not require an Islamic Bank to compensate investors if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified period.
(16) If the instrument is not issued out of an operating entity (such as a special purpose vehicle (or SPV)) or the holding company in the group of which an Islamic Bank is a member, the proceeds are immediately available without limitation to an operating entity or the holding company through an instrument that satisfies the other criteria for inclusion in additional Tier 1 Capital.
4.17. Tier 2 Capital
Tier 2 Capital is the sum of the following elements:
- (a) instruments, issued by an Islamic Bank, that satisfy the criteria in rule 4.18 for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital (and are not included in Tier 1 Capital);
- (b) share premium (also known as stock surplus) resulting from the issue of instruments included in Tier 2 Capital;
- (c) instruments, issued by consolidated subsidiaries of an Islamic Bank and held by third parties, that satisfy the criteria in Rule 4.25 for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital (and are not included in Tier 1 Capital);
- (d) regulatory adjustments applied in the calculation of Tier 2 Capital in accordance with Rules specified later in this chapter;
- (e) general provisions or general reserves held against future, presently unidentified losses (but only up to a maximum of 1.25% of risk weighted assets for credit risk, calculated using the standardised approach). Guidance
(1) General provisions and reserves are freely available to meet losses that subsequently materialise and therefore qualify for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital. In contrast, provisions for identified deterioration of particular assets or known liabilities, whether individual or grouped, should be excluded because they would not be available to meet losses.
(2) Even though they are called reserves, the PER and IRR are not part of Tier 2 Capital of an Islamic bank. They are part of the equity of PSIA investors and, as such, do not have the requisite loss absorbency.
4.18. Criteria for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital
(1) An instrument issued by an Islamic Bank is included in Tier 2 Capital if all the criteria in sub-rules (2) to (11) are satisfied.
(2) The instrument is paid-in.
(3) The instrument is the most subordinated claim after those of depositors, general creditors and holders of the subordinated debt of an Islamic Bank.
(4) The paid-in amount is neither secured nor covered by a guarantee of an Islamic Bank or a related party, nor subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the holder’s claim in relation to the claims of an Islamic Bank’s depositors and general creditors.
(5) The original maturity of the instrument is at least 5 years.
(6) The recognition in Regulatory Capital in the remaining 5 years before maturity is amortised on a straight line basis and there are no step-ups or other incentives to redeem.
(7) If the instrument is callable by an Islamic Bank, it can only be called 5 years or more after the instrument is paid-in and only with the approval of the AFSA. An Islamic Bank must not do anything to create an expectation that the exercise of the option will be approved, and, if the exercise is approved, an Islamic Bank:
- (a) must replace the called instrument with Capital of the same or better quality and at conditions sustainable for the income-generating capacity of an Islamic Bank; or
- (b) must demonstrate to the AFSA that its Capital will exceed an Islamic Bank’s minimum Capital requirement after the option is exercised.
(8) The holder has no right to accelerate future scheduled payments of profit or principal, except in bankruptcy or liquidation.
(9) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive-dividend feature under which a dividendor profit is periodically reset based (wholly or partly) on an Islamic Bank’s credit standing.
(10) Neither an Islamic Bank nor a related party over which an Islamic Bank exercises control has purchased the instrument, nor has an Islamic Bank directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
(11) If the instrument is not issued out of an operating entity (such as an SPV) or the holding company in the group of which an Islamic Bank is a member, the proceeds are immediately available without limitation to an operating entity or the holding company through an instrument that satisfies the other criteria for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital.
4.19. Mudarabah sukuk or wakalah sukuk as Tier 2 Capital
(1) Subject to compliance with Shari’ah, an Islamic Bank may issue Mudarabah Sukuk or Wakalah Sukuk that qualify for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital under rule 4.20. For the sukuk, the underlying assets are convertible to common equity at the point of non-viability.
(2) The sukuk contract must state the terms of conversion, trigger point and conversion ratio. The conversion must be made in accordance with Rule 4.20.
4.20. Requirements—loss absorption at point of non-viability
(1) This rule applies to an Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 instrument issued by an Islamic bank. It sets out additional requirements to ensure loss absorption at the point of non-viability.
(2) The terms and conditions of an instrument must give the AFSA the discretion to direct that the instrument be written-off or converted to common equity on the occurrence of a trigger event.
(3) An Islamic Bank must be able to issue the required number of shares specified in the instrument if a trigger event happens. The issuance of any new shares because of a trigger event must happen before any public sector injection of Capital so that Capital provided by the public sector is not diluted.
(4) Trigger event, in relation to an Islamic Bank that issued the instrument, is the earliest of:
- (a) a decision of the AFSA that a write-off (without which an Islamic Bank would become non-viable) is necessary; and
- (b) a decision by the relevant authority in AIFC to make a public sector injection of Capital, or give equivalent support (without which injection or support an Islamic Bank would become non-viable, as determined by that authority).
(5) If an Islamic Bank is a member of a Financial Group and an Islamic Bank wishes the instrument to be included in the Group’s Capital in addition to its solo Capital, the trigger event must be the earliest of:
- (c) the decision in part (4) (a) of this Rule 4.20;
- (d) the decision in part (4) (b) of this Rule 4.20;
- (e) a decision, by the relevant authority in the parent’s home jurisdiction, that a writeoff (without which an Islamic Bank would become non-viable) is necessary; and
- (f) a decision, by the relevant authority in the jurisdiction of the financial regulator that regulates any parent of the Islamic Bank, to make a public sector injection of Capital, or give equivalent support, in that jurisdiction (without which injection or support an Islamic Bank would become non-viable, as determined by that authority).
(6) Any compensation paid to the holder of an instrument because of a write-off must be paid immediately in the form of common shares (or the equivalent for non-joint-stock companies).
(7) If an Islamic Bank is a member of a Financial Group, any common shares paid as compensation to the holder of the instrument must be common shares of an Islamic Bank or of the parent entity of the group.
Guidance
Conversion or write-off under this rule would be limited to the extent necessary to enable the AFSA to conclude that an Islamic Bank is viable without further conversion or write-off.
4.21. Requirements for writing-off
(1) For an instrument that is to be written-off under Rule 4.20:
- (a) the write-off must reduce:
- (i) the claim of the instrument in liquidation;
- (ii) the amount repaid when a call option is exercised; and
- (iii) dividend or profit payments on the instrument;
- (b) the write-off must be permanent;
- (c) the provisions governing the issuance of the instrument must specify that a writeoff does not constitute default or trigger cross-default clauses; and
- (d) the write-off must generate CET 1 Capital under the relevant accounting standards and the instrument will only receive recognition in Tier 2 Capital up to the minimum level of CET 1 Capital generated by a full write-off of the instrument.
(2) The write-off of an instrument using a murabahah contract must be through the investor (as creditor):
- (a) making a promise (wa’ad) to waive rights on debts at the point of non-viability; or
- (b) agreeing, in the relevant legal documents, to waive rights on debts at the point of non-viability.
(3) The write-off of an instrument using an ijarah contract must be through the investor (as lessor):
- (a) making a promise (wa’ad) to transfer ownership of the underlying asset (beneficial or otherwise) to the lessee without consideration; or
- (b) agreeing, in the relevant legal documents, to waive rights on accrued rental at the point of non-viability.
(4) An Islamic Bank may apply to the AFSA for approval to use a write-off mechanism other than those in sub-rules (2) and (3) above.
4.22. Inclusion of third parties’ interests
This Section of Chapter 4 sets out the criteria and formulae for the inclusion, in an Islamic bank’s Regulatory Capital, of interests held by third parties.
4.23. Criteria for third party interests—Common Equity Tier 1 Capital
(1) For Rule 4.13, a common share, issued by a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank and held by a third party as a non-controlling interest, may be included in the Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital if:
(a) the share would be included in the Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital had it been issued by the Islamic Bank itself; and
(b) the subsidiary that issued the share is itself an Islamic bank or Islamic Broker Dealer (or an equivalent entity in its home jurisdiction).
(2) The amount to be included in the consolidated CET 1 Capital of an Islamic Bank is calculated in accordance with the following formula: NCI – ((CET1s – Min) × SS) where: NCI is the total of the non-controlling interests of third parties in a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank. CET1s is the amount of CET 1 Capital of the subsidiary.
Min is the lower of:
(a) 1.07 × (minimum CET 1 Capital requirement of the subsidiary); and
(b) 1.07 × (the part of the consolidated minimum CET 1 Capital requirement that relates to the subsidiary). SS means the percentage of the shares in the subsidiary (being shares included in CET 1 Capital) held by those third parties.
4.24. Criteria for third party interests—Additional Tier 1 Capital
(1) For Rule 4.15 (c ), an instrument (including a common share) issued by a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank and held by a third party as a non-controlling interest may be included in an Islamic Bank’s additional Tier 1 Capital if the instrument would be included in an Islamic Bank’s additional Tier 1 Capital had it been issued by an Islamic Bank.
(2) Any amount already included in CET 1 Capital must not be included in Additional Tier 1 Capital.
(3) The amount to be included in the consolidated Additional Tier 1 Capital of an Islamic Bank is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
NCI – ((T1s – Min) × SS)
where:
NCI is the total of the non-controlling interests of third parties in a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank.
T1s is the amount of Additional Tier 1 Capital of the subsidiary.
Min is the lower of:
(a) 1.07 × (minimum Additional Tier 1 Capital requirement of the subsidiary); and
(b) 1.07 × (the part of the consolidated minimum Additional Tier 1 Capital requirement that relates to the subsidiary). SS means the percentage of the shares in the subsidiary (being shares included in Additional Tier 1 Capital) held by those third parties.
4.25. Criteria for third party interests—Tier 2 Capital
(1) For rule 4.17 (c), an instrument (including a common share and any other Tier 1 Capital instrument) issued by a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank and held by a third party as a non-controlling interest may be included in the Islamic Bank’s Tier 2 Capital if the instrument would be included in the Islamic Bank’s Tier 2 Capital had it been issued by the Islamic Bank.
(2) Any amount already included in CET 1 Capital or Additional Tier 1 Capital must not be included in Tier 2 Capital.
(3) The amount to be included in the consolidated Tier 2 Capital of an Islamic Bank is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
NCI – ((T2s – Min) × SS)
where:
NCI is the total of the non-controlling interests of third parties in a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank.
T2s is the amount of Tier 2 Capital of the subsidiary.
Min is the lower of:
(a) 1.07 × (minimum Tier 2 Capital requirement of the subsidiary); and
(b) 1.07 × (the part of the consolidated minimum Tier 2 Capital requirement that relates to the subsidiary). SS means the percentage of the shares in the subsidiary (being shares included in Tier 2 Capital) held by those third parties.
4.26. Treatment of third party interests from SPVs
(1) An instrument issued out of an SPV and held by a third party must not be included in an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital. Such an instrument may be included in an Islamic Bank’s Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 Capital (and treated as if it had been issued by an Islamic Bank itself directly to the third party) if:
(a) the instrument satisfies the criteria for inclusion in the relevant category of Regulatory Capital; and
- (b) the only asset of the SPV is its investment in the Capital of an Islamic Bank and that investment satisfies the criterion in rule 4.16 or 4.18 for the immediate availability of the proceeds.
2) An instrument described in part (1) of this Rule that is issued out of a SPV through a consolidated subsidiary of an Islamic Bank may be included in an Islamic Bank’s consolidated Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 Capital if the instrument satisfies the criteria in rule 4.16 or 4.18, as the case requires. Such an instrument is treated as if it had been issued by the subsidiary itself directly to the third party.
4.27. Regulatory adjustments
(1) Regulatory adjustments to an Islamic bank’s Capital may be required to avoid doublecounting, or artificial inflation, of its Capital. They may also be required in relation to assets that cannot readily be converted into cash.
(2) Adjustments can be made to all 3 categories of Regulatory Capital, but most of them are to CET 1 Capital.
4.28. Approaches to valuation and adjustment
(1) An Islamic Bank must use the same approach for valuing regulatory adjustments to its Capital as it does for balance-sheet valuations. An item that is deducted from Capital must be valued in the same way as it would be for inclusion in an Islamic Bank’s balance sheet.
(2) An Islamic Bank must use the corresponding deduction approach and the threshold deduction rule in making adjustments to its Capital.
4.29. Definitions
Entity concerned means:
- (a) a financial entity (including an Islamic Bank and a takaful entity); or
- (b) any other entity over which, under the relevant accounting standards, an Islamic Bank can exercise control.
Significant investment, by an Islamic Bank in an entity concerned, means an investment of 10% or more in the common shares, or other instruments that qualify as Capital, of the entity concerned. Investment includes a direct, indirect and synthetic holding of Capital instruments.
Guidance
(1) The notion of exercising control in this chapter is different from that in the definition of exercise control in the glossary. The term as defined in the glossary is used in relation to related parties and connected parties as they relate to credit risk, concentration risk and large exposures.
(2) The relevant accounting standards referred to (primarily AAOIFI and IFRS) use control in a much broader sense, so that an investor should consider all relevant facts and circumstances in assessing whether it controls an investee.
(3) Under IFRS 10, for example, an investor controls an investee if the investor has all of the following:
- (ii) exposure, or rights, to variable returns from its involvement with the investee
- (iii) ability to use its power over the investee to affect the amount of the investor’s returns.
(i) power over the investee (that is, the investor has existing rights that give it the ability to direct the activities that significantly affect the investee’s returns)
(4) Another example would be control through agreement with the entity’s other shareholders or with the entity itself. The agreement could result in control even if the investor holds less than majority voting rights, so long as those rights are substantive (that is, exercisable by the investor who has the practical ability to exercise them when relevant decisions are required to be made).
4.30. Adjustments to Common Equity Tier 1 Capital
Adjustments to CET 1 Capital must be made in accordance with the Rules specified in the following Rules 4.31 to 4.45. Regulatory adjustments are generally in the form of deductions, but they may also be in the form of recognition or de-recognition of items in the calculation of an Islamic Bank’s Capital.
4.31. Goodwill and intangible assets
An Islamic Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the amount of its goodwill and other intangible assets (except mortgage servicing rights). The amount must be net of any related deferred tax liability that would be extinguished if the goodwill or assets become impaired or derecognised under the relevant accounting standards.
4.32. Deferred tax assets
(1) An Islamic Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the amount of deferred tax assets (except those that relate to temporary differences) that depend on the future profitability of an Islamic Bank.
(2) A deferred tax asset may be netted with a deferred tax liability only if the asset and liability relate to taxes levied by the same taxation authority and offsetting is explicitly permitted by that authority. A deferred tax liability must not be used for netting if it has already been netted against a deduction of goodwill, other intangible assets or defined benefit pension assets.
Guidance
Any deferred tax liability that may be netted must be allocated pro rata between deferred tax assets under this rule and those under the threshold deduction rule. For the treatment of deferred tax assets that relate to temporary differences (for example, allowance for credit losses).
4.33. Cash flow hedge reserve
In the calculation of CET 1 Capital, an Islamic Bank must derecognise the amount of the cash flow hedge reserve that relates to the hedging of items that are not fair-valued on the balance sheet (including projected cash flows).
4.34. Cumulative gains and losses from changes to own credit risk
In the calculation of CET 1 Capital, an Islamic Bank must derecognise all unrealised gains and unrealised losses that have resulted from changes in the fair value of liabilities that are due to changes in an Islamic Bank’s own credit risk.
4.35. Defined benefit pension fund assets
(1) An Islamic Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the amount of a defined benefit pension fund that is an asset on an Islamic Bank’s balance sheet. The amount must be net of any related deferred tax liability that would be extinguished if the asset becomes impaired or derecognised under the relevant accounting standards.
(2) An Islamic Bank may apply to the AFSA for approval to offset from the deduction any asset in the defined benefit pension fund to which an Islamic Bank has unrestricted and unfettered access. Such an asset must be assigned the risk-weight that would be assigned if it were owned directly by an Islamic Bank.
4.36. Securitisation gains on sale
In the calculation of CET 1 Capital, an Islamic Bank must derecognise any increase in Equity Capital or CET 1 Capital from a securitisation or re-securitisation transaction (for example, an increase associated with expected future margin income resulting in a gain-on-sale).
4.37. Assets lodged or pledged to secure liabilities
(1) An Islamic Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the amount of any assets lodged or pledged by it, if:
- (a) the assets were lodged or pledged to secure liabilities incurred by the Islamic Bank;
and
- (b) the assets are not available to meet the liabilities of the Islamic Bank.
(2) The AFSA may determine that, in the circumstances, the amount of assets lodged or pledged need not be deducted from an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital.
4.38. Acknowledgments of debt
(1) An Islamic Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital the net present value of an acknowledgement of debt outstanding issued by it to directly or indirectly fund instruments that qualify as CET 1 Capital.
(2) This rule does not apply if the acknowledgement is subordinated in rank similar to that of instruments that qualify as CET 1 Capital.
4.39. Accumulated losses
An Islamic Bank must deduct from its CET 1 Capital the amount of any accumulated losses.
4.40. Deductions from categories of Regulatory Capital
(1) The deductions that must be made from CET 1 Capital, Additional Tier 1 Capital or Tier 2 Capital under the corresponding deduction approach are set out in this section of IBB Rules. An Islamic Bank must examine its holdings of index securities and any underlying holdings of Capital to determine whether any deductions are required as a result of such indirect holdings.
(2) Deductions must be made from the same category for which the Capital would qualify if it were issued by the Islamic Bank itself or, if there is not enough Capital at that category, from the next higher category.
(3) The corresponding deduction approach applies regardless of whether the positions or exposures are held in the banking book or trading book.
(4) If the amount of Tier 2 Capital is insufficient to cover the amount of deductions from that category, the shortfall must be deducted from additional Tier 1 Capital and, if additional Tier 1 Capital is still insufficient, the remaining amount must be deducted from CET 1 Capital.
4.41. Investments in own shares and Capital instruments
(1) An Islamic Bank must deduct direct or indirect investments in its own common shares or own Capital instruments (except those that have been derecognised under the relevant accounting standards). The Islamic Bank must also deduct any of its own common shares or instruments that it is contractually obliged to purchase.
(2) The gross long positions may be deducted net of short positions in the same underlying exposure only if the short positions involve no counterparty risk. However, gross long positions in its own shares resulting from holdings of index securities may be netted against short positions in its own shares resulting from short positions in the same underlying index, even if those short positions involve counterparty risk.
4.42. Reciprocal cross holdings
An Islamic Bank must deduct reciprocal cross holdings in shares, or other instruments that qualify as Capital, of an entity concerned.
4.43. Non-significant investments—aggregate is less than 10% of firm’s Common Equity Tier 1 Capital
(1) This rule applies if:
- (a) an Islamic Bank makes a non-significant investment in an entity concerned;
- (b) the entity concerned is an unconsolidated entity (that is, the entity is not included in an Islamic Bank’s consolidated returns);
- (c) an Islamic Bank does not own 10% or more of the common shares of the entity concerned; and
- (d) after applying all other regulatory adjustments, the total of the deductions required to be made under this rule is less than 10% of an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital.
(2) An Islamic Bank must deduct any investments in common shares, or other instruments that qualify as Capital, of an entity concerned.
(3) The amount to be deducted is the net long position (that is, the gross long position net of short positions in the same underlying exposure if the maturity of the short position either matches the maturity of the long position or has a residual maturity of at least 1 year).
(4) Underwriting positions held for more than 5 business days must also be deducted.
(5) If a Capital instrument is required to be deducted and it is not possible to determine whether it should be deducted from CET 1 Capital, Additional Tier 1 Capital or Tier 2 Capital, the deduction must be made from CET 1 Capital.
4.44. Non-significant investments—aggregate is 10% or more of firm’s Common Equity Tier 1 Capital
(1) This rule applies if, after applying all other regulatory adjustments, the total of the deductions required to be made under rule 4.43 is 10% or more of an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital.
(2) An Islamic Bank must deduct the amount by which the total of the deductions required to be made under rule 4.43 exceeds 10% of an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital. This amount to be deducted is referred to as the excess.
(3) The excess to be deducted from each category of Regulatory Capital under the corresponding deduction approach is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
where:
A is the amount of CET 1 Capital, additional Tier 1 Capital or Tier 2 Capital of the Islamic bank, as the case requires.
B is the total Capital holdings of the Islamic Bank.
4.45. Significant investments
(1) This rule applies if:
- (a) an Islamic Bank makes a significant investment in an entity concerned;
- (b) the entity concerned is an unconsolidated entity (that is, the entity is not included in an Islamic Bank’s consolidated returns); and
- (c) an Islamic Bank owns 10% or more of the common shares of the entity concerned.
(2) An Islamic Bank must deduct the total amount of investments in the entity concerned (other than investments in common shares, or other instruments that qualify as CET 1 Capital, of the entity).
(3) For the treatment of investments in common shares, or other instruments that qualify as CET 1 Capital, of an entity concerned, see Rule 4.46 (Deductions from Common Equity Tier 1 Capital).
(4) The amount to be deducted is the net long position (that is, the gross long position net of short positions in the same underlying exposure if the maturity of the short position either matches the maturity of the long position or has a residual maturity of at least 1 year).
(5) Underwriting positions held for more than 5 business days must also be deducted.
(6) If a Capital instrument is required to be deducted and it is not possible to determine whether it should be deducted from CET 1 Capital, Additional Tier 1 Capital or Tier 2 Capital, the deduction must be made from CET 1 Capital.
4.46. Deductions from Common Equity Tier 1 Capital
(1) In addition to the other deductions to CET 1 Capital under this Chapter, deductions may be required to CET 1 Capital under the threshold deduction rule.
(2) The threshold deduction rule provides recognition for particular assets that are considered to have some limited capacity to absorb losses. The following items come within the threshold deduction rule:
- (a) significant investments in the common shares, or other instruments that qualify as CET 1 Capital, of an unconsolidated entity concerned;
- (b) mortgage servicing rights;
- (c) deferred tax assets that relate to temporary differences (for example, allowance for credit losses).
(3) Instead of full deduction, the items that come within the threshold deduction rule receive limited recognition when calculating CET 1 Capital. The total of each of the items in (2) above, do not require adjustment from CET 1 Capital and are risk-weighted at 300% (for items listed on a recognised exchange) or 400% (for items not so listed) provided that:
- (a) each item is no more than 10% of an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital (net of all regulatory adjustments except those under this section); or
- (b) in total, the 3 items are no more than 15% of an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital (net of all regulatory adjustments except those under this Subdivision).
- (c) An Islamic Bank must deduct from CET 1 Capital any amount in excess of the threshold in (3) (a) or (b).
5. CAPITAL BUFFERS AND OTHER REQUIREMENTS
5.1. Introduction
(1) The Basel III capital adequacy framework contains 2 additional measures for conserving Capital through the Capital Conservation Buffer and the Counter-Cyclical Capital Buffer.
(2) The Capital Conservation Buffer promotes the conservation of Capital and the build-up of a buffer above the minimum in times of economic growth and credit expansion leading to profitability, so that the buffer can be drawn down in periods of stress. It imposes an obligation to restrict a firm’s distributions when Capital falls below the Capital conservation buffer minimum.
(3) The rules requirements relating to application of Capital Conservation Buffer are set out in this Chapter.
5.2. Capital Conservation Buffer
(1) An Islamic Bank whose Risk-based Capital requirement is higher than its Base Capital Requirement must maintain a minimum Capital Conservation Buffer of:
- (a) 2.5% of its total RWA; or
- (b) a higher amount that the AFSA may, by written notice, set from time to time.
(2) A firm’s Capital Conservation Buffer must be made up of CET 1 Capital above the amounts used to meet an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital ratio, Tier 1 Capital ratio and Regulatory Capital ratio in rule 4.11).
(3) Capital raised through the issuance of sukuk cannot form part of the Capital Conservation Buffer because that Capital does not qualify as CET 1 Capital.
5.3. Capital Conservation Ratio
(1) If an Islamic bank’s Capital Conservation Buffer falls below the required minimum, the Islamic Bank must immediately conserve its Capital by restricting its distributions.
(2) This rule sets out, in column 3 of table 5.1, the minimum Capital Conservation Ratios for Islamic bank that are required to maintain a Capital Conservation Buffer. Capital Conservation ratio is the percentage of earnings that a firm must not distribute if its CET 1 Capital ratio falls within the corresponding ratio in column 2 of that table.
(3) Earnings means distributable profits calculated before deducting elements subject to the restrictions on distributions. Earnings must be calculated after notionally deducting the tax that would have been payable had none of the distributable items been paid.
(4) If the Islamic Bank is a member of a Financial Group, the Capital Conservation Buffer applies at group level.
(5) A payment made by a firm that does not reduce its CET 1 Capital is not a distribution for the purposes of this Part. Distributions include, for example, dividends, share buybacks and discretionary bonus payments.
(6) The effect of calculating earnings after tax is that the tax consequence of the distribution is reversed out.
(7) An Islamic Bank must have adequate systems and controls to ensure that the amount of distributable profits and maximum distributable amount are calculated accurately. An Islamic Bank must be able to demonstrate that accuracy if directed by the AFSA.
Guidance: Examples of application of table
Assume that a firm’s minimum CET 1 Capital ratio is 4.5% and an additional 2.5% Capital conservation buffer (which must be made up of CET 1 Capital) is required for a total of 7% CET 1 Capital ratio. Based on table 5.1:
- (i) If a firm’s CET 1 Capital ratio is 4.5% or more but less than 5.125%, an Islamic Bank needs to conserve 100% of its earnings.
- (ii) If a firm’s CET 1 Capital ratio is 5.125% or more but less than 5.75%, an Islamic Bank needs to conserve 80% of its earnings and must not distribute more than 20% of those earnings by way of dividends, share buybacks and discretionary bonus payments.
- (iii) A firm with a CET 1 Capital ratio of more than 7% can distribute 100% of its earnings.
Table 5.1 Minimum Capital conservation ratios
item | CET 1 Capital ratio | Minimum Capital conservation ratio (% of earnings) |
1 | 4.5% to 5.125% | 100 |
2 | ≥5.125% to 5.75% | 80 |
3 | ≥5.75% to 6.375% | 60 |
4 | ≥6.375% to 7.0% | 40 |
5 | ≥7% | 0 |
5.4. Powers of the AFSA
(1) The AFSA may impose a restriction on Capital distributions by an Islamic Bank even if the amount of an Islamic Bank’s CET 1 Capital is greater than its CET 1 Capital ratio and required Capital Conservation Buffer.
(2) The AFSA may, by written notice, impose a limit on the period during which an Islamic Bank may operate within a specified Capital Conservation Ratio.
(3) An Islamic Bank may apply to the AFSA to make a distribution in excess of a limit imposed by this Part. The AFSA will grant approval only if it is satisfied that an Islamic Bank has appropriate measures to raise Capital equal to, or greater than, the amount an Islamic Bank wishes to distribute above the limit.
5.5. Capital reductions
(1) An Islamic Bank must not reduce its Capital and reserves without the AFSA’s written approval.
(2) An Islamic Bank planning a reduction must prepare a forecast (for at least 2 years) showing its projected Capital after the reduction. The Islamic Bank must satisfy the AFSA that its Capital will still comply with the IBB rules after the reduction.
Guidance: Examples of ways to reduce Capital
1) a share buyback or the redemption, repurchase or repayment of Capital instruments issued by an Islamic Bank
2) trading in an Islamic Bank’s own shares or Capital instruments outside an arrangement agreed with the AFSA.
3) a special dividend.
5.6. AFSA can require other matters
Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may require an Islamic Bank to have Capital resources, comply with any other Capital requirement or use a different approach to, or method for, Capital management. The AFSA may also require a firm to carry out stress-testing at any time.
6. CREDIT RISK
6.1. General
(1) This Chapter sets out the requirements for an Islamic bank’s credit risk management policy (including credit risk assessments and the use of ratings from ECRAs):
- (a) to implement the risk-based framework for Capital adequacy; and
- (b) to ensure the early identification and management of problem assets.
(2) This Chapter also deals with the following means to determine Regulatory Capital and control or mitigate credit risk:
- (a) the Risk-Weighted Assets approach;
- (b) CRM techniques;
- (c) provisioning.
(3) To guard against abuses and to address conflicts of interest, this Chapter requires transactions with related parties to be at arm’s length.
6.2. Credit risk
Credit risk is:
- (a) the risk of default by counterparties; and
- (b) the risk that an asset will lose value because its credit quality has deteriorated.
Guidance
Credit risk may result from on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet exposures, including loans and advances, investments, inter-bank lending, securities financing transactions and trading activities. It can exist in a firm’s trading book or banking book.
Examples of sources of credit risks in Islamic Bank
- (ii) counterparty risk in salam contracts
- (iii) accounts receivable and counterparty risk in istisna contracts
- (iv) lease payments receivable in ijarah contracts
- (vi) Capital impairment from investments, based on mudarabah or musharakah contracts, held in the banking book.
(i) accounts receivable in murabahah contracts
(v) sukuk held in the banking book
6.3. Requirements—management of credit risk and problem assets
(1) An Islamic Bank must manage credit risk by adopting a prudent credit risk management policy that allows its credit risk to be identified, measured, evaluated, managed and controlled or mitigated.
(2) The policy must also provide for problem assets to be recognised, measured and reported. The policy must set out the factors that must be taken into account in identifying problem assets.
(3) Problem asset includes impaired credit and other assets if there is reason to believe that the amounts due may not be collectable in full or in accordance with their terms.
6.4. Role of Governing Body—credit risk
An Islamic bank’s governing body must ensure that the Islamic Bank’s credit risk management policy gives an Islamic Bank a comprehensive bank-wide view of its credit risk and covers the full credit lifecycle (including credit underwriting, credit evaluation, and the management of the Islamic bank).
6.5. Credit risk management policy
(1) An Islamic Bank must establish and implement a credit risk management policy:
- (a) that is appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of its business and for its risk profile; and
- (b) that enables an Islamic Bank to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate credit risk.
- (c) The objective of the policy is to give an Islamic Bank the capacity to absorb any existing and estimated future losses arising from credit risk.
6.6. Policies—general credit risk environment
An Islamic bank’s credit risk management policy must include:
- (a) a well-documented and effectively-implemented process for assuming credit risk that does not rely unduly on external credit ratings;
- (b) well-defined criteria for approving credit (including prudent underwriting standards), and renewing, refinancing and restructuring existing credit;
- (c) a process for identifying the approving AFSA for credit, given its size and complexity;
- (d) effective credit risk administration, including:
- (i) periodic analysis of counterparties’ ability and willingness to repay; and
- (ii) monitoring of documents, legal covenants, contractual requirements, and collateral and other CRM techniques;
- (e) effective systems for the accurate and timely identification, measurement, evaluation, management and control or mitigation of credit risk, and reporting to an Islamic Bank’s governing body and senior management;
- (f) procedures for tracking and reporting exceptions to, and deviations from, credit limits or policies;
- (g) prudent and appropriate credit limits that are consistent with an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and Capital; and
- (h) effective controls for the quality, reliability and relevance of data and validation procedures.
Guidance
Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic bank’s credit risk, and how often it provides credit or incurs credit risk, its credit risk management policy should include:
(1) how an Islamic Bank defines and measures credit risk;
(2) an Islamic Bank’s business aims in incurring credit risk, including:
- (a) identifying the types and sources of credit risk that an Islamic Bank will permit itself to be exposed to (and the limits on that exposure) and those that it will not
- (b) setting out the degree of diversification that an Islamic Bank requires, an Islamic Bank’s tolerance for risk concentrations and the limits on exposures and concentrations
- (c) stating the risk-return trade-off that an Islamic Bank is seeking to achieve;
(3) the kinds of credit to be offered, and ceilings, pricing, profitability, maximum maturities and ratios for each kind of credit;
(4) a ceiling for the total credit portfolio (in terms, for example, of loan-to-deposit ratio, undrawn commitment ratio, maximum amount or percentage of an Islamic Bank’s Capital);
(5) portfolio limits for maximum gross exposures by region or country, by industry or sector, by category of counterparty (such as banks, non-bank financial entities and corporate counterparties), by product, by counterparty and by connected counterparties;
(6) limits, terms and conditions, approval and review procedures and records kept for lending to connected counterparties;
(7) types of collateral, loan-to-value ratios and criteria for accepting guarantees;
(8) the detailed limits for credit risk, and a credit risk structure, that:
- (a) takes into account all significant risk factors, including intra-group exposures
- (b) is commensurate with the scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s activities
- (c) is consistent with an Islamic Bank’s business aims, historical performance, and the amount of Capital it is willing to risk;
(9) procedures for:
- (a) approving new products and activities that give rise to credit risk
- (b) regular risk position and performance reporting
- (c) approving and reporting exceptions to limits;
(10) allocating responsibilities for implementing the credit risk management policy and monitoring adherence to, and the effectiveness of, the policy; and
(11) the required information systems, staff and other resources.
6.7. Credit Risk Management Policy
(1) An Islamic bank’s credit risk management policy must require that credit decisions are free of conflicts of interest and are made on an arm’s-length basis. In particular, the credit approval and credit review functions must be independent of the credit initiation function.
(2) An Islamic bank’s credit risk management policy must provide for monitoring the total indebtedness of each counterparty and any risk factors that might result in default (including any significant unhedged foreign exchange risk).
(3) The policy must include stress-testing an Islamic Bank’s credit exposures at intervals appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business and for its risk profile. It must also include a yearly review of stress scenarios, and procedures to make any necessary changes arising from the review.
(4) The policy must state that decisions relating to the following are made at the appropriate level of the Islamic Bank’s senior management or governing body:
- (a) exposures exceeding a stated amount or percentage of an Islamic Bank’s Capital;
- (b) exposures that, in accordance with criteria set out in the policy, are especially risky;
- (c) exposures that are outside an Islamic Bank’s core business.
(5) An Islamic Bank must give the AFSA full access to information in its credit portfolio, including access to staff involved in assuming, managing and reporting on credit risk.
Guidance
(1) This rule excludes arrangements such as an employee loan scheme, so long as the policy ensures that the scheme’s terms, conditions and limits are generally available to employees and adequately addresses the risks and conflicts that arise from loans under it.
(2) The credit risk management policy of an Islamic Bank should clearly set out who has the authority to approve loans to employees.
(3) The authority of a credit committee or credit officer should be appropriate for the products or portfolio and should be commensurate with the committee’s or officer’s credit experience and expertise.
(4) Each authority to approve should be reviewed regularly to ensure that it remains appropriate for current market conditions and the committee’s or officer’s performance.
(5) An Islamic bank’s remuneration policy should be consistent with its credit risk management policy and should not encourage officers to attempt to generate short-term profits by taking an unacceptably high level of risk.
(6) The level at which credit decisions are made should vary depending on the kind and amount of credit and the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business. For some firms, a credit committee with formal terms of reference might be appropriate; for others, individuals with pre-assigned limits would do.
(7) An Islamic Bank should ensure, through periodic independent audits, which the credit approval function is properly managed and that credit exposures comply with prudential standards and internal limits. The results of audits should be reported directly to the governing body, credit committee or senior management, as appropriate.
6.8. Credit risk assessment
Guidance
i) This section of IBB Rules sets out a standardised approach for credit risk assessment, and requires an Islamic Bank to establish and implement policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate credit risk and to calculate its credit risk Capital requirement.
ii) Credit risk assessment under this Part is different from the evaluation (often called credit assessment) made by a firm as part of its credit approval process.
iii) Credit assessment is part of an Islamic Bank’s internal commercial decisionmaking for approving or refusing credit; it consists of the evaluation of a prospective counterparty’s repayment ability. In contrast, credit risk assessment is done by an Islamic Bank (using ratings and risk-weights set out in these rules) as part of calculating its credit risk Capital requirement.
iv) An Islamic Bank involved in loan syndications or consortia should not rely on other parties’ assessments of the credit risk involved but should carry out a full assessment based on its own credit risk management policy.
An Islamic Bank must establish and implement appropriate policies to enable it to assess credit risk when the credit is granted or the risk is incurred, and afterwards. In particular, the policies must enable an Islamic Bank:
- (a) to measure credit risk (including the credit risk of off-balance-sheet items in credit equivalent terms);
- (b) to effectively use its internal credit risk assessment;
- (c) to rate and risk-weight a counterparty;
- (d) to monitor the condition of individual credits;
- (e) to administer its credit portfolio, including keeping the credit files current, getting upto-date financial information on counterparties, and the electronic storage of important documents;
- (f) to ensure that the value of collateral and the value of the other CRM techniques used by an Islamic Bank are assessed regularly
- (g) to assess whether its CRM techniques are effective; and
- (h) to calculate its credit risk Capital requirement.
6.9. Categories of credits
(1) An Islamic Bank must classify credits into 1 of the 5 categories in table 6.1. Nothing in the table prevents an Islamic Bank from classifying a credit under a higher risk category than the table requires.
(2) An Islamic Bank must allocate all credit exposures to the same counterparty to the same risk category.
Table 6.1 Categories of credit
column 1item |
column 2category |
column 3description |
1 |
performing |
In this category, there is no uncertainty about timely repayment of the outstanding amounts. This category comprises credits that are currently in regular payment status with prompt payments. |
2 |
special mention |
This category comprises:(a)credits with deteriorating or potentially deteriorating credit quality that may adversely affect the counterparty’s ability to make scheduled payments on time;(b)credits that are 30 to 90 days in arrears;(c)credits showing weakness arising from the customer’s financial position;(d)credits affected by market circumstances or any other industry-related concerns; and(e)credits that have been restructured and are not classified into a higher risk category. |
3 |
substandard |
This category comprises:(a)credits that show definite deterioration in credit quality and impaired repayment ability of the counterparty; or(b)credits that are 91 to 180 days in arrears. |
4 |
doubtful |
This category comprises:(a)credits that show significant credit quality deterioration, worse than those in the substandard category, to the extent that the prospect of full recovery of all the outstanding amounts is questionable and the probability of a credit loss is high (though the exact amount of loss cannot be determined yet); or(b)credits that are 181 to 270 days in arrears. |
5 |
loss |
This category comprises:(a)credits that are assessed as uncollectable;(b)credits where the probability of recovering the amount due is very low; or (c)credits that are more than 270 days in arrears. |
_
6.10. Policy on Non-performing assets
An Islamic bank’s credit risk management policy must facilitate the Islamic Bank’s collection of past-due obligations, and its management of problem assets through:
- (a) monitoring of their credit quality;
- (b) early identification and ongoing oversight; and
- (c) review of their classification, provisioning and write-offs.
6.11. Impaired credits
(1) Impaired credit means a credit that is categorised as substandard, doubtful or loss.
(2) A large exposure that is an impaired credit must be managed individually in terms of its valuation, categorisation and provisioning.
(3) The review of impaired credits and other problem assets may be done individually, or by class, but must be done at least once a month.
6.12. Restructuring, refinancing and re-provisioning of credits
(1) A credit is a restructured credit if it has been re-aged, extended, deferred, renewed, rewritten or placed in a workout program. Unless there is good reason to do so, a restructured credit can never be classified as performing.
(2) A restructured credit may be reclassified to a more favourable category, but only by 1 rating up from its category before the restructure. The credit may be reclassified 1 further category up after 180 days of satisfactory performance under the terms of the new contract.
(3) The refinancing of a special mention or impaired credit must not be used to reclassify the credit to a more favourable category.
(4) The AFSA may require a special mention credit to be managed individually, and may set a higher level of provision for the credit, if the AFSA is of the view that market circumstances or any other industry-related concerns require such action.
6.13. Using external credit rating agencies (ECRA)
(1) An Islamic Bank must use only a solicited credit risk rating determined by an ECRA.
(2) A rating is a solicited rating if the rating was initiated and paid for by the issuer of the instrument, the rated counterparty or any other entity in the same corporate group as the issuer or rated counterparty.
(3) An Islamic Bank must use the ratings determined by an ECRA consistently and in accordance with these rules and its credit risk management policy.
(4) A firm that chooses to use ratings determined by an ECRA for exposures belonging to a class must consistently use those ratings for all the exposures belonging to that class. An Islamic Bank must not selectively pick between ECRAs or ratings in determining riskweights.
(5) Unsolicited ratings must not be used except with the written approval of the AFSA or in accordance with a direction of the AFSA. The AFSA may give a written direction setting out conditions that must be satisfied before a firm may use an unsolicited rating.
(6) An Islamic Bank must ensure that the relevant rating takes into account the total amount of the exposure.
Guidance
i) In the standardised approach, external credit ratings from ECRAs are used in determining the risk-weights for exposures to:
- (a) sovereigns
- (b) central banking institutions
- (c) public sector enterprises
- (d) banks and other financial institutions
- (e) corporates.
ii) External credit ratings from ECRAs are not used in relation to:
- (a) regulatory retail portfolios
- (b) residential real estate financing
- (c) non-performing financing
- (d) high risk exposures.
6.14. Multiple assessments
(1) If there is only 1 assessment by an ECRA for a particular claim, that assessment must be used to determine the risk-weight of the claim.
(2) If there are 2 assessments by ECRAs and the assessments map into different riskweights, the higher risk-weight must be applied.
(3) If there are 3 or more assessments with different risk-weights, the assessments corresponding to the 2 lowest risk-weights should be referred to and the higher of those 2 risk-weights must be applied.
6.15. Choosing between issuer and issue ratings
(1) If an Islamic Bank invests in an instrument with an issue-specific rating, the risk-weight to be applied to the instrument must be based on that rating.
(2) If an Islamic Bank invests in an unrated instrument and the issuer of the instrument is assigned a rating that results in a lower risk-weight than the risk-weight normally applied to an unrated position, an Islamic Bank may apply the lower risk-weight to the instrument but only if the claim for the instrument has the same priority as, or is senior to, the claims to which the issuer rating relates. If the instrument is junior to the claims to which the issuer rating relates, an Islamic Bank must apply the risk-weight normally applied to an unrated position.
(3) If an Islamic Bank invests in an unrated instrument and the issuer of the instrument is assigned a rating that results in a higher risk-weight than the risk-weight normally applied to an unrated position, an Islamic Bank must apply the higher risk-weight to the instrument if the claim for that instrument has the same priority as, or is junior to, the claims to which the issuer rating relates.
6.16. Ratings within Financial Group
An Islamic Bank must not use a credit risk rating for 1 entity in a Financial Group to determine the risk-weight for an unrated entity in the same group. If the rated entity has guaranteed the unrated entity’s exposure to An Islamic Bank, the guarantee may be recognised for risk-weighting purposes if it satisfies the criteria for eligible credit risk mitigation.
6.17. Using foreign currency and domestic currency ratings
If an issuer rating is assigned to a counterparty and an Islamic Bank applies a risk-weight to an unrated position based on the rating of an equivalent exposure to the same counterparty:
(a) An Islamic Bank must use that counterparty’s domestic-currency rating for any exposure denominated in the currency of the counterparty’s place of residence or incorporation; and
(b) An Islamic Bank must use that counterparty’s foreign-currency rating for any exposure denominated in a foreign currency.
6.18. Using short-term ratings
(1) A short-term credit risk rating must be used only for short-term claims relating to banks and corporations (such as those arising from the issuance of commercial paper). The rating is taken to be issue-specific and must be used only to assign risk-weights for claims arising from a rated facility.
(2) If a short-term rated exposure is assigned a risk-weight of 50%, an unrated short-term exposure to the same counterparty cannot be assigned a risk-weight lower than 100%.
(3) If a short-term facility of an issuer is assigned a risk-weight of 150% based on the facility’s credit risk rating, all unrated claims of the issuer (whether long-term or short-term) must be assigned a risk-weight of 150%.
6.19. Risk-Weighted Assets (RWA) approach
(1) An Islamic Bank must apply risk-weights to its on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet items using the risk-weighted assets approach.
(2) Risk-weights are based on credit ratings or fixed risk-weights and are broadly aligned with the likelihood of counterparty default. An Islamic Bank may use the ratings determined by an ECRA if allowed to do so by these rules.
6.20. Relation to CRM techniques
If a claim or asset to which a risk-weight must be applied by an Islamic Bank is secured by collateral or a guarantee (or there is a Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument or netting agreement), the CRM techniques specified later in these Rules may be used to reduce an Islamic Bank’s credit risk capital requirement.
6.21. Risk-weight to be applied
(1) An Islamic Bank must apply the risk-weight set out in this section for a claim or asset.
(2) An Islamic Bank must assess all credit exposures (rated or unrated) to determine whether the risk-weights applied to them are appropriate. The determination must be based on each exposure’s inherent risk.
(3) If there are reasonable grounds to believe that the inherent risk of an exposure is significantly higher than that implied by the risk-weight assigned to it, an Islamic Bank must consider the higher risk (and apply a higher risk-weight) in calculating the credit risk Capital requirement.
(4) An Islamic Bank must not rely only on a rating determined by an ECRA to assess the risks associated with an exposure. An Islamic Bank must also carry out its own credit risk assessment of each exposure.
6.22. Commitments included in calculation
An Islamic Bank must take into account all commitments in calculating its credit risk Capital requirement, whether or not those commitments contain material adverse change clauses or other provisions that are intended to relieve an Islamic Bank of its obligations under particular conditions.
6.23. AFSA can determine risk-weights and impose requirements
(1) Despite anything stated in these IBB rules, the AFSA may determine the risk-weighted amount of a particular on-balance-sheet or off-balance-sheet item of an Islamic Bank if the AFSA considers that an Islamic Bank has not risk-weighted the item appropriately. The determination must be in writing.
(2) The AFSA may also impose specific Capital Requirements or limits on significant risk exposures, including those that the AFSA considers to have not been adequately transferred or mitigated.
6.24. Risk-weighted assets approach—on-balance-sheet items
(1) An Islamic Bank’s total risk-weighted on-balance-sheet items is the sum of the riskweighted amounts of each of its on-balance-sheet items.
(2) The risk-weighted amount of an on-balance-sheet item is calculated by multiplying its exposure (after taking into account any applicable CRM technique) by the applicable riskweight set out in table 6.2.
(3) If column 3 of table 6.2 states that the risk-weight is “based on ECRA rating”, the applicable risk-weight for the claim or asset is that set out in table 6.3. If a claim’s or asset’s risk-weight is to be based on the ECRA rating and there is no such rating from an ECRA, an Islamic Bank must apply the risk-weight set out in the last column of table 6.3.
(4) For table 6.2, investment property is land, a building or part of a building (or any combination of land and building) held to earn rentals or for Capital appreciation or both.
(5) Investment property does not include property held for use in the production or supply of goods or services, for administrative purposes, or for sale in the ordinary course of business. A real estate asset owned by an Islamic Bank as a result of a counterparty default is treated as ‘other item’ and risk-weighted at 100% but only for a period of 3 years starting from the date when an Islamic Bank records the asset on its books.
Table 6.2 Risk-weights for on-balance-sheet items
column 1item | column 2description of claim or asset | column 3risk-weight % |
1 | Cash | |
notes, gold bullion | 0 | |
cash items in the process of collection | 20 | |
2 | Claims on sovereigns | 0 |
claims on Kazakhstan and on National Bank of Kazakhstan | 0 | |
claims on other sovereigns including respective central banks | based on ECRA rating | |
3 | Claims on public sector enterprises | |
non-commercial public sector enterprises in Kazakhstan | 0 | |
non-commercial public sector enterprises in other countries—non-relevant domestic currency | based on ECRA rating | |
other sovereign non-commercial public sector enterprises | based on ECRA rating | |
commercial public sector enterprises | based on ECRA rating | |
4 | Claims on multilateral development banks | |
multilateral development banks eligible for 0% risk-weight | 0 | |
other multilateral development banks | based on ECRA rating | |
5 | Claims on banks (financial undertakings) | |
claims on banks with an original maturity of more than 3 months | based on ECRA rating | |
claims on banks with an original maturity of 3 months or less | based on ECRA rating | |
6 | Claims on securities and investment entities | |
claims on securities and investment entities that are subject to Capital requirements similar to Islamic banks | based on ECRA rating | |
claims on securities and investment entities that are not subject to Capital requirements similar to Islamic banks | based on ECRA rating | |
7 | Claims on corporates | based on ECRA rating |
8 | Claims on small and medium enterprises | 100 |
9 | Claims on securitisation exposures | based on ECRA rating |
10 | Claims secured against mortgages | |
residential mortgages | ||
if the loan-to-value ratio is 0% to 80% | 35 | |
if the loan-to-value ratio is more than 80% but less than 100% | 75 | |
if the loan-to-value ratio is 100% or more | 100 | |
commercial mortgages | 100 | |
11 | Unsettled and failed transactions—delivery-versus-payment transactions | |
5 to 15 days | 100 | |
16 to 30 days | 625 | |
31 to 45 days | 937.5 | |
46 or more days | 1250 | |
12 | Unsettled and failed transactions—non-delivery-versus-payment transactions | 100 |
13 | Investments in funds | |
rated funds | based on ECRA rating | |
unrated funds that are listed | 100 | |
unrated funds that are unlisted | 150 | |
14 | Equity exposures | |
equity exposures that are not deducted from Capital and are listed on a recognised exchange | 300 | |
equity exposures that are not deducted from Capital and are not listed on a recognised exchange | 400 | |
15 | Investment property | 400 |
16 | All other items | 100 |
Table 6.3 Risk-weights based on ratings determined by ECRAs
Guidance
In table 6.3, the ratings are given according to Standard & Poor’s conventions. If a claim or asset is not rated by Standard & Poor’s, its ratings must be mapped to the equivalent Standard & Poor’s rating.
item | Description of claim or asset | AAA to AA- | A+ to A- | BBB+ to BBB- | BB+ to BB- | B+ to B- | below B- | unrated |
1 | claims on other sovereigns including respective central banks | 0 | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 100 |
2 | claims on non-commercial public sector enterprises in other countries—non-relevant domestic currency | 0 | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 100 |
3 | claims on other sovereign non-commercial public sector enterprises | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 100 |
4 | claims on commercial public sector enterprises | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 100 |
5 | claims on multilateral development banks not eligible for 0% risk-weight | 20 | 50 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 50 |
6 | claims on banks with an original maturity of more than 3 months | 20 | 50 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 50 |
7 | claims on banks with an original maturity of 3 months or less | 20 | 20 | 20 | 50 | 50 | 150 | 20 |
8 | claims on securities and investment entities that are subject to capital requirements similar to Islamic banks | 20 | 50 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 50 |
9 | claims on securities and investment entities that are not subject to capital requirements similar to Islamic banks | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | 100 |
10 | claims on corporates | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | 100 |
11 | securitisation exposures | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | 250 | 150 |
12 | investments in rated funds | 20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 | n/a |
6.25. Specialised lending
(1) A specialised lending exposure is risk-weighted at one rating less favourable than the rating that would apply, under table 6.3, to the counterparty to the transaction (or to the party to whom that counterparty has the right of recourse).
(2) Specialised lending is a lending transaction that complies with the following requirements:
- (a) the purpose of the loan is to acquire an asset;
- (b) the cash flow generated by the collateral is the loan’s exclusive (or almost exclusive) source of repayment;
- (c) the loan represents a significant liability in the borrower’s Capital structure;
(d) the credit risk is determined primarily by the variability of the cash flow generated by the collateral (rather than the independent capacity of a broader commercial enterprise).
Guidance
Specialised lending is associated with the financing of projects where the repayment depends on the performance of the underlying collateral. There are 5 sub-classes of specialised lending:
(a) project finance—financing industrial projects based on the projected cash flows of the project;
(b) object finance—financing physical assets based on the projected cash flows obtained primarily through the rental or lease of the assets
(c) commodities finance—financing the reserves, receivables or inventories of exchange-traded commodities where the exposure is paid back based on the sale of the commodity (rather than by the borrower from independent funds);
(d) income-producing real estate finance—financing real estate that is usually rented or leased out by the debtor to generate cash flow to repay the exposure; and
(e) high-volatility commercial real estate finance—financing commercial real estate which demonstrates a much higher volatility of loss rates compared to other forms of specialised lending.
6.26. Risk-weights for unsecured part of claim that is past due for more than 90 days
(1) The risk-weight for the unsecured part of a claim (other than a claim secured by an eligible residential mortgage) that is past due for more than 90 days is:
- (a) 150% if the specific provisions are less than 20% of the past due claim;
- (b) 100% if the specific provisions are 20% or more, but less than 50%, of the past due claim; or
- (c) 50% if the specific provisions are 50% or more of the past due claim.
(2) The risk-weight for the unsecured part of a claim secured by an eligible residential mortgage that is past due for more than 90 days is:
- (a) 100% if the specific provisions are less than 20% of the past due claim; or
- (b) 50% if the specific provisions are 20% or more of the past due claim.
(3) In this rule, eligible residential mortgage means a mortgage on a residential property that is, or will be:
- (a) occupied by the counterparty for residential use; or
- (b) rented out (on a non-commercial basis) for residential use.
6.27. Risk-weighted assets approach—off-balance-sheet items
(1) An Islamic bank’s total risk-weighted off-balance-sheet items is the sum of the risk weighted amounts of its market-related and non market-related off-balance-sheet items.
An off-balance-sheet item must be converted to a credit equivalent amount before it can be risk-weighted.
(2) The risk-weighted amount of an off-balance-sheet item is calculated as follows:
- (a) first, convert the notional principal amount of the item to its on-balance-sheet equivalent (credit equivalent amount).
- (b) second, multiply the resulting credit equivalent amount by the risk-weight in Rule 6.24 (Risk-weighted assets approach—on-balance-sheet items) applicable to the claim or asset.
(3) An Islamic Bank must include all market-related off-balance-sheet items (including on balance-sheet unrealised gains on market-related off-balance-sheet items) in calculating its risk-weighted credit exposures.
(4) A market-related item must be valued at its current market price.
6.28. Conversion of notional amounts—market-related items
(1) An Islamic Bank must calculate the credit equivalent amount of each of its market-related items. Unless the item is covered by an eligible netting agreement, the credit equivalent amount of a market-related off-balance-sheet item is the sum of the current credit exposure and the potential future credit exposure from the item.
(2) Current credit exposure is the absolute mark-to-market value (or replacement cost) of the item.
(3) Potential future credit exposure (also known as ‘the add-on’) is the amount calculated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the item by the relevant credit conversion factor in table 6.4. The notional principal amount of an item is the reference amount used to calculate payment streams between counterparties to the item.
Table 6.4 Credit conversion factors for market-related off-balance-sheet items
(4) A potential future credit exposure must be based on an effective, rather than an apparent, notional principal amount. If the stated notional principal amount of an item is leveraged or enhanced by the structure of the item, an Islamic Bank must use the effective notional principal amount in calculating the potential future credit exposure.
(5) No potential future credit exposure is calculated for a single-currency floating/floating profit rate swap. The credit exposure from such a profit rate swap must be based on markto-market values.
column 1item |
column 2description of claim or asset |
column 3credit conversion factor% |
1 |
profit rate contracts |
|
|
(a)residual maturity 1 year or less |
0 |
|
(b)residual maturity > 1 year to 5 years |
0.5 |
|
(c)residual maturity > 5 years |
1.5 |
2 |
foreign exchange, gold and silver contracts |
|
|
(a)residual maturity 1 year or less |
1 |
|
(b)residual maturity > 1 year to 5 years |
5 |
|
(c)residual maturity > 5 years |
7.5 |
3 |
equity contracts |
|
|
(a)residual maturity 1 year or less |
6 |
|
(b)residual maturity > 1 year to 5 years |
8 |
|
(c)residual maturity > 5 years |
10 |
4 |
precious metal contracts (other than gold and silver) |
|
|
(a)residual maturity 1 year or less |
7 |
|
(b)residual maturity > 1 year to 5 years |
7 |
|
(c)residual maturity > 5 years |
8 |
5 |
other commodity contracts (other than preciousmetals) |
|
|
(a)residual maturity 1 year or less |
10 |
|
(b)residual maturity > 1 year to 5 years |
12 |
|
(c)residual maturity > 5 years |
15 |
6 |
other market-related contracts |
|
|
(a)residual maturity 1 year or less |
10 |
|
(b)residual maturity > 1 year to 5 years |
12 |
|
(c)residual maturity > 5 years |
15 |
_
6.29. Credit conversion factors for items with terms subject to reset
(1) For an item that is structured to settle outstanding exposures after specified payment dates on which the terms are reset (that is, the mark-to-market value of the item becomes zero on the specified dates), the period up to the next reset date must be taken to be the item’s residual maturity. For a profit rate item of that kind that is taken to have a residual maturity of more than 1 year, the credit conversion factor to be applied must not be less than 0.5% even if there are reset dates of a shorter maturity.
(2) For an item with 2 or more exchanges of principal, the credit conversion factor must be multiplied by the number of remaining exchanges under the item.
6.30. Credit conversion factors for single-name swaps
(1) The credit conversion factors for a protection buyer in a single-name total-rate-of-return swap are set out in column 3 of table 6.5. The credit conversion factors for a protection seller are set out in column 4 of that table.
(2) The protection seller in a single-name total-rate-of-return swap is subject to the add-on factor for a closed-out single-name swap only if the protection buyer becomes insolvent while the underlying asset is still solvent. The add-on must not be more than the amount of unpaid premiums.
(3) In this rule, qualifying reference obligation includes obligations arising from items relating to:
- (a) securities that are rated investment grade by at least 2 ECRAs; or
- (b) securities that are unrated (or rated investment grade by only 1 ECRA), but:
- (i) are approved by the AFSA, on application by the Islamic Bank, to be of comparable investment quality; and
- (ii) are issued by an issuer that has its equity included in a main index used in a recognised exchange.
Table 6.5 Credit conversion factors for single-name total-rate-of-return swaps
column 1item |
column 2type of swap |
column 3protection buyer% |
column 4protection seller% |
1 |
with qualifying reference obligation |
5 |
5 |
2 |
with non-qualifying reference obligation |
10 |
10 |
_
6.31. Policies for foreign exchange rollovers
(1) An Islamic Bank must have policies for entering into and monitoring rollovers on foreign exchange transactions. The policies must restrict an Islamic Bank’s capacity to enter into such rollovers, and must be approved by the AFSA.
(2) An Islamic Bank must notify the AFSA if it enters into a rollover outside the approved policy. The AFSA may direct how the rollover is to be treated for Capital adequacy purposes.
(3) An Islamic Bank must not enter into a transaction at an off-market price, unless the transaction is a historical rate rollover on a foreign exchange transaction.
(4) A historical rate rollover on a foreign exchange transaction may be entered into at an offmarket price (instead of current market price).
6.32. Conversion of contracted amounts—non-market-related items
(1) An Islamic Bank must calculate the credit equivalent amount of each of its non-marketrelated items. Unless the item is a default fund guarantee in relation to clearing through a central counterparty, the credit equivalent amount of a non-market-related off-balancesheet item is calculated by multiplying the contracted amount of the item by the relevant credit conversion factor in table 6.6.
(2) If an Islamic Bank arranges a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities lending or borrowing transaction between a customer and a third party and provides a guarantee to the customer that the third party will perform its obligations, an Islamic Bank must calculate the credit risk Capital requirement as if it were the principal.
Table 6.6 Credit conversion factors for non-market-related off-balance-sheet items
(3) For item 4 of table 6.6, an exposure from lending securities, or lodging securities as collateral, may be treated as a collateralised transaction.
column 1item |
column 2kind of item |
column 3credit conversion factor % |
1 |
direct credit substitutes |
100 |
2 |
performance-related contingencies |
50 |
3 |
trade-related contingencies |
20 |
4 |
lending of securities, or lodging securities as collateral |
100 |
5 |
assets sold with recourse |
100 |
6 |
forward asset purchases |
100 |
7 |
partly paid shares and securities |
100 |
8 |
placements of forward deposits |
100 |
9 |
note issuance and underwriting facilities |
50 |
10 |
commitments with certain drawdown |
100 |
11 |
commitments with uncertain drawdowns (for example, undrawn formal standby facilities and credit lines) with an original maturity of 1 year or less |
20 |
12 |
commitments with uncertain drawdowns with an original maturity of more than 1 year |
50 |
13 |
commitments that can be unconditionally cancelled at any time without notice (for example, undrawn overdraft and credit card facilities for which any outstanding unused balance is subject to review at least once a year) |
0 |
_
6.33. Credit equivalent amount of undrawn commitments
In calculating the credit equivalent amount of a non-market-related off-balance-sheet item that is an undrawn (or partly drawn) commitment, an Islamic Bank must use the undrawn amount of the commitment.
6.34. Irrevocable commitment—off-balance-sheet facilities
For an irrevocable commitment to provide an off-balance-sheet facility, the original maturity must be taken to be the period from the commencement of the commitment until the associated facility expires.
Example
An irrevocable commitment with an original maturity of 6 months with an associated facility that has a nine-month term is taken to have an original maturity of 15 months.
6.35. Risk-weightings for Islamic Financial Contracts
The Rules in the rest of this chapter describe and set out the risk-weights applicable to the main types of Islamic financial contracts employed in carrying out Islamic Banking Business. The risk weight to be applied to the exposure under a contract of a particular type may differ:
(a) at different stages of the contract; or
(b) depending on the enterprise or asset to which the contract relates. Sale-based contracts
6.36. Treatment of murabahah and related contracts
(1) An Islamic Bank is exposed to credit risk under a murabahah contract if the obligor fails to pay the agreed selling price under the contract. Therefore, an Islamic Bank is subject to a Capital charge for credit risk exposure once the asset is sold and payment is due to an Islamic Bank.
(2) For an MPO contract, an Islamic Bank is exposed to credit risk if the obligor (purchase orderer) defaults on its obligation to purchase the asset. Because an Islamic Bank has recourse against the obligor to purchase the asset at the agreed price, the credit risk exposure commences once an Islamic Bank acquires the asset.
(3) In an MPO contract, an Islamic Bank is also exposed to credit risk if the obligor fails to pay the agreed price in accordance with the agreed terms.
Table 6.7A Credit risk-weights for murabahah
Stage of Contract | Credit Risk-weight |
asset available for sale and on firm’s balance sheet | not applicable |
asset has been sold and title transferred, and selling price is due to an Islamic Bank | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
Table 6.7B Credit risk-weights for MPO
Stage of contract | Credit risk-weight |
asset available for sale and on firm’s balance sheet | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24, with the applicable risk-weight applied to the acquisition cost less any cash collateral |
asset has been sold and title transferred, and selling price is due to firm | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
Table 6.7C Credit risk-weights for MPO
Stage of contract | Credit risk-weight |
asset available for sale and on firm’s balance sheet | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24, with the applicable risk-weight applied to the acquisition cost less any cash collateral |
asset has been sold and title transferred, and selling price is due to firm | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
6.37. Treatment of bai bithaman ajil
A bai bithaman ajil (BBA) contract is risk-weighted based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24.
6.38. Treatment of salam and related contracts
(1) Under a salam contract, an Islamic Bank is exposed to credit risk if the obligor fails to deliver the relevant commodity in accordance with the agreed terms.
(2) An Islamic Bank undertaking parallel salam contracts is exposed to credit risk if the purchaser fails to pay for the relevant commodity. Nevertheless, if the seller under the first salam contract fails to deliver the commodity, an Islamic Bank is not relieved of its obligation to deliver the commodity to the purchaser under the parallel salam contract.
(3) An Islamic Bank must not net a salam exposure against a parallel salam exposure.
Table 6.8A Credit risk-weights for salam without parallel salam
Stage of contract | Credit risk-weight |
firm is expected to delivery the commodity salam at an agreed time | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
Table 6.8B Credit risk-weights for salam with parallel salam
Stage of contract | Credit risk-weight |
firm is expected to delivery the commodity salam at an agreed time Note: The parallel salam does not extinguish the requirement for capital from the first salam contract. | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
6.39. Treatment of istisna and related contracts
(1) Under an istisna contract, an Islamic Bank is exposed to credit risk if the obligor fails to pay the price, whether during the manufacturing or construction stage, or on completion of the asset.
(2) Under a parallel istisna contract, an Islamic Bank, as the purchaser of the asset, is exposed to credit risk if the seller fails to deliver the asset at the agreed time and in accordance with the initial istisna buyer’s specification.
(3) The parallel istisna seller’s failure to deliver the asset does not discharge an Islamic Bank’s obligation to deliver the asset to the obligor under the initial istisna contract. Thus, an Islamic Bank is also exposed to the potential loss of making good the shortcoming or acquiring the asset elsewhere.
(4) An Islamic Bank must not net an istisna exposure against a parallel istisna exposure.
Table 6.9A Credit risk-weights for istisna without parallel istisna
Stage of contract | Credit risk-weight |
unbilled work-in-process | 100% |
unpaid billed work-in-process | based on the ultimate customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
Table 6.9B Credit risk-weights for istisna with parallel istisna Lease-based contracts
Stage of contract | Credit Risk-weight |
unbilled work-in-process | based on the ultimate customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
unpaid billed work-in-process | based on the ultimate customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
6.40. Treatment of ijarah and related contracts
(1) An Islamic Bank that is the lessor under an ijarah contract is exposed to credit risk if the lessee fails to pay the rental amount in accordance with the agreement to lease.
(2) In addition, an Islamic Bank is exposed to credit risk if the lessee (lease orderer) defaults on its obligation to lease the asset. In this situation, an Islamic Bank may lease or dispose of the asset to another party, but an Islamic Bank is also exposed to credit risk if the lessee is not able to compensate it for the losses incurred arising from the disposal of the asset.
Table 6.10 Credit risk-weights for ijarah and IMB contracts Equity-based contracts
Stage of contract | Credit Risk-weight |
asset available for lease and on firm’s balance sheet | based on the lessee’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
lease contract has become binding and rental payments due from lessee | based on the lessee’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
6.41. Treatment of musharakah (non-diminishing)
(1) Except for diminishing musharakah contracts, all musharakah investments are treated as equity investments
(2) As an equity investment, a musharakah investment must be risk-weighted in accordance with table 6.11A.
Table 6.11A Credit risk-weights for musharakah (non-diminishing)
Item | Description of investment | Risk-weight, % |
1 | investments in funds | |
(a) rated funds | based on ECRA rating in table 6.11B | |
(b) unrated funds that are listed | 100 | |
(c) unrated funds that are unlisted | 150 | |
2 | equity exposures | |
(a) equity exposures that are not deducted from capital and are listed on a recognised exchange | 300 | |
(b) equity exposures that are not deducted from capital and are not listed on a recognised exchange | 400, except if rule 6.41(3) applies | |
3 | investment in real estate | 400 |
4 | investment in physical assets (such as commercial vehicles, passenger cars, ships, aircraft, railway machinery, computers, business machines and other types of equipment) | |
(a) if an Islamic Bank has majority ownership over the asset and can exit the investment at any time | 300 | |
(b) if an Islamic Bank does not have majority ownership over the asset or cannot exit the investment at any time | 400, except if rule 6.41(3) applies |
Table 6.11B Risk-weights for investments in rated funds based on ECRA ratings
AAA to AA- | A+ to A- | BBB+ to BBB- | BB+ to BB- | B+ to B- | below B- |
20 | 50 | 100 | 100 | 150 | 150 |
Guidance
- i) In the table, the ratings are given according to Standard & Poor’s conventions. If a claim or asset is not rated by Standard & Poor’s, its ratings must be mapped to the equivalent Standard & Poor’s rating.
(3) The lower risk-weight of 300% applies to an investment that would normally be riskweighted at 400% if, under the musharakah contract, the Islamic Bank is allowed to withdraw its participation within 5 days after giving notice of withdrawal. In any other case, an Islamic Bank may apply a risk-weight of 300% if it can demonstrate:
- (a) that the lower risk-weight is appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business;
- (b) that an Islamic Bank can effectively participate in the management of the investment and that such participation would not unduly increase operational risk;
- (c) an Islamic Bank’s ability to monitor the operations and performance of the investment;
- (d) that the valuation methods and exit strategies used by an Islamic Bank are appropriate; and
- (e) that an Islamic Bank has effective reporting and information-sharing systems.
6.42. Treatment of diminishing musharakah
The risk-weight for a diminishing musharakah contract depends on the category of the enterprise or asset to which the contract relates.
Table 6.12 Credit risk-weights for diminishing musharakah
Enterprise or asset | Credit Risk-weight |
private commercial enterprise to undertake trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities | not applicable |
private commercial enterprise to undertake business venture other than trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 (after customer agrees to buy out an Islamic Bank’s share on the investment) |
joint ownership of real estate or movable assets through musharakah with murabahah subcontract | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
joint ownership of real estate or movable assets through musharakah with ijarah subcontract | based on the lessee’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
6.43. Treatment of mudarabah and related contracts
This rule applies to risk-weighting for an exposure arising from a mudarabah contract, except if the AFSA examines the exposure and determines it to be an equity investment. If the AFSA determines that the exposure is an equity investment, the risk-weights set out in rule 6.41 for musharakah apply.
Table 6.13A Credit risk-weights for mudarabah investments (other than project finance)
Enterprise or asset | Credit Risk-weight |
private commercial enterprise to undertake trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities | not applicable |
private commercial enterprise to undertake business venture other than trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities | before maturity: 400% of the contributed amount less any specific provisions (or 300% if the funds may be withdrawn by an Islamic Bank at short notice) on maturity: after the mudarib has agreed to pay back an Islamic Bank’s initial investment, based on the mudarib’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
placement in the interbank market | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
Table 6.13B Credit risk-weights for mudarabah investments in project finanance
Stage of contract | Credit risk-weight |
before completion: unbilled work-in-process inventory | 400% on unbilled inventory less any amount held in the repayment account |
on completion: after certification from ultimate customer, where the amount is receivable by an Islamic Bank from the mudarib (for progress payment to the mudarib from the ultimate customer) | based on the ultimate customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 or based on the mudarib’s type and rating under Rule 6.24: (a) for any amount already paid by the ultimate customer to the mudarib; or (b) if the mudarib undertakes to bear the default risk of the ultimate customer as part of the mudarabah contract |
6.44. Treatment of qardh
Under a qardh contract, an Islamic Bank is exposed to credit risk if the borrower fails to repay the principal loan amount in accordance with the contract. Hence, the credit risk exposure arises at the time the contract becomes binding.
Table 6.14 Credit risk-weights for qardh Service-based contracts
Stage of contract | Credit Risk-weight |
amount receivable from customer | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
6.45. Treatment of wakalah
An Islamic Bank is exposed to credit risk if an Islamic Bank enters into a financing contract based on wakalah.
Table 6.15A Credit risk-weights for wakalah investments (other than project finance)
Enterprise or asset | Credit Risk-weight |
private commercial enterprise to undertake trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities | not applicable |
private commercial enterprise to undertake business venture other than trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities | not applicable |
placement in the interbank market | based on the customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 |
Table 6.15B Credit risk-weights for wakalah investments in project finance
Stage of contract | Credit Risk-weight |
before completion: unbilled work-in-process inventory | 400% on unbilled inventory |
on completion: after certification from ultimate customer, where the amount is receivable by an Islamic Bank from the wakeel (for progress payment to the wakeel from the ultimate customer) | based on the ultimate customer’s type and rating under Rule 6.24 or based on the wakeel’s type and rating under Rule 6.24: (a) for any amount already paid by the ultimate customer to the wakeel; or (b) if the wakeel undertakes to bear the default risk of the ultimate customer as part of the wakalah contract |
6.46. Credit risk mitigation
(1) An Islamic Bank is able to obtain Capital relief by using Shari’ah-compliant CRM techniques. The techniques must be viewed as complementary to, rather than a replacement for, thorough credit risk assessment.
(2) Eligible CRM techniques include:
- (a) accepting collateral, standby letters of credit and guarantees;
- (b) using Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments; and
- (c) using netting agreements.
Guidance
i) Credit risk mitigation using collateral and guarantees is usually dealt with at the time credit is granted. In contrast, hedging instruments and netting agreements are often used after the credit is granted, or used to manage an Islamic Bank’s overall portfolio risk.
ii) An Islamic Bank should not rely excessively on collateral or guarantees to mitigate credit risk. While collateral or guarantees may provide secondary protection to an Islamic Bank if the counterparty defaults, the primary consideration for credit approval should be the counterparty’s repayment ability.
iii) An Islamic Bank that provides mortgages at high loan-to-value ratios should consider the need for alternative forms of protection against the risks of such lending, in order to protect itself against the risk of a fall in the value of the property.
(3) In choosing a CRM technique, an Islamic Bank must consider:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s knowledge of, and experience in using, the technique;
- (b) the cost-effectiveness of the technique;
- (c) the type and financial strength of the counterparties or issuers;
- (d) the correlation of the technique with the underlying credits;
- (e) the availability, liquidity and realisability of the technique;
- (f) the extent to which documents in common use (for example, the ISDA Master Agreement) can be adopted; and
- (g) the degree of recognition of the technique by financial services regulators.
6.47. Requirements—CRM techniques
1) An Islamic bank’s credit risk management policy must set out the conditions under which CRM techniques may be used. The policy must enable an Islamic Bank to manage CRM techniques and the risks associated with their use.
(2) An Islamic Bank must analyse the protection given by CRM techniques to ensure that any residual credit risk is identified, measured, evaluated, managed and controlled or mitigated.
(3) The policy must include procedures for:
(a) setting mark-up rates according to the risk rating of the counterparties;
(b) taking account of governing laws for contracts relating to financing transactions; and
(c) assessing the risks and obligations from an Islamic Bank’s own exposures in parallel transactions such as those in salam and istisna.
(4) If an Islamic Bank accepts collateral, its policy must state the types of collateral that it will accept, and the basis and procedures for valuing collateral.
(5) If an Islamic Bank uses netting agreements, it must have a netting policy that sets out its approach. The netting policy must provide for monitoring netting agreements and must enable an Islamic Bank to monitor and report netted transactions on both gross and net bases.
6.48. Obtaining Capital relief
(1) To obtain Capital relief, the CRM technique and every document giving effect to it must be binding on all parties and enforceable in all the relevant jurisdictions.
Example
When accepting collateral, an Islamic Bank must ensure that any necessary legal procedures have been followed, to ensure that the collateral can be enforced.
(2) An Islamic Bank must review the enforceability of a CRM technique that it uses. An Islamic Bank must have a well-founded legal basis for any conclusion about enforceability, and must carry out further reviews to ensure that the technique remains enforceable.
(3) The effects of a CRM technique must not be double-counted. An Islamic Bank is not allowed to obtain Capital relief if:
- (a) the risk-weight for the claim or asset is based on an issue-specific rating; and
- (b) the ECRA that determined the rating had taken the technique into consideration in doing so.
Guidance
An Islamic Bank should consider whether independent legal opinion should be sought on the enforceability of documents. The documents should be ready before an Islamic Bank enters into a contractual obligation or releases funds.
6.49. Standard haircuts to be applied
(1) An Islamic Bank must use the standard haircuts (expressed in percentages) set out in tables 6.16A and 6.16B in any calculation relating to credit risk mitigation. The haircuts are applied after risk mitigation to calculate adjusted exposures and are intended to take into account possible future price fluctuations.
(2) In table 6.16A: other issuers include banks, corporates, and public sector enterprises that are not treated as sovereigns. sovereign includes a multilateral development bank, and a non-commercial public sector enterprise, that has a zero per cent risk-weight.
Table 6.16A Haircuts for sukuk
Item | Credit rating for debt securities | Residual maturity, % | Sovereigns, % | Other issuers, % |
1 | AAA to AA-/A-1 (long-term and short-term) | ≤1 year | 0.5 | 1 |
>1 year, ≤ 5 years | 2 | 4 | ||
> 5 years | 4 | 8 | ||
2 | A+ to BBB-/ A-2/A-3/P-3 (long-term and short-term) | ≤1 year | 1 | 2 |
| >1 year, ≤ 5 years | 3 | 6 | |
| > 5 years | 6 | 12 | |
3 | BB+ to BB- (long-term) | All | 15 | 25 |
4 | unrated | All | 25 | 25 |
Table 6.16B Haircuts for other instruments
Item | Description of instrument | Haircut,% |
1 | main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold | 15 |
2 | other equities (including convertible bonds) listed on a recognised exchange | 25 |
3 | units in Islamic collective investment schemes | depending on underlying assets, as above |
4 | physical assets pledged in accordance with rule 4.6.9 | 30 |
5 | units in listed trusts, undertakings for collective investments in transferable securities (UCITS), mutual funds and tracker funds | highest haircut applicable to any security in which the entity can invest |
6 | cash collateral denominated in the same currency as the collateralised exposure | 0 |
7 | a CRM technique with a currency mismatch | 8 |
(3) For item 7 of table 6.16B, if a guarantee is denominated in a currency different from that in which the exposure is denominated (that is, there is a currency mismatch), the amount of the exposure that is covered must be reduced using the following formula:
where:
G is the nominal amount of the guarantee.
Hfx is 8% or the haircut under whichever of subrule (1) or (4) applies.
Depending on the frequency of the revaluation of the guarantee, the 8% haircut (which is based on a 10-business-day holding period) must be scaled up using the following formula:
where:
H is the scaled-up haircut.
H10 is the standard haircut under table 6.16A or 6.16B.
N is the number of business days between revaluations for secured transactions.
(4) If the mismatched currencies are both pegged to the same reference currency, or if 1 of them is pegged to the other, Hfx is zero (and no haircut applies).
6.50. Capital relief from collateral
(1) An Islamic Bank may obtain Capital relief by accepting Shari’ah-compliant eligible collateral.
(2) Collateral may be lodged by the counterparty of an Islamic Bank holding a credit exposure (or by a third party on behalf of the counterparty).
(3) An Islamic Bank must enter into a written agreement with the party lodging the collateral. The agreement must establish an Islamic Bank’s direct, explicit, irrevocable and unconditional recourse to the collateral.
Guidance
In the case of cash collateral, the recourse may be in the form of a contractual right of set-off on credit balances. A common-law right of set-off is, on its own, insufficient to satisfy this rule.
(4) If collateral is lodged by a third party, the third party must guarantee the counterparty’s obligation to an Islamic Bank and must indemnify an Islamic Bank if the counterparty fails to fulfil its obligation. An Islamic Bank must ensure that the guarantee does not fail for lack of consideration.
(5) The mechanism by which collateral is lodged must allow an Islamic Bank to liquidate or take possession of the collateral in a timely way. An Islamic Bank must take all steps necessary to satisfy the legal requirements applicable to its interest in the collateral.
(6) There must not be a significant positive correlation between the value of the collateral and the credit quality of the borrower.
Guidance
(1) An Islamic Bank should have clear and robust procedures for the liquidation of collateral to ensure that the legal conditions for declaring default and liquidating the collateral are observed.
(2) An Islamic Bank should consider whether, in the event of default, notice to the party that lodged the collateral would be needed before an Islamic Bank could have recourse to it.
6.51. Valuing collateral
Collateral accepted by an Islamic Bank must be valued at its net realisable value, taking into account prevailing market conditions. That value must be monitored at appropriate intervals, and the collateral must be regularly revalued.
Guidance
(1) The net realisable value of some collateral may be readily available (for example, collateral that is marked-to-market regularly). Other collateral may be more difficult to value and may require knowledge and consideration of prevailing market conditions.
2) The method and frequency of monitoring and revaluation depend on the nature of the collateral. For example, commercial property might be revalued every year, whereas securities accepted as collateral are usually marked-to-market daily. Residential property may not need to be revalued every year, but information should be sought about general market conditions.
6.52. Eligible collateral for Islamic banks
(1) The following are eligible collateral if they satisfy the criteria in (2) below:
(a) gold bullion;
(b) cash;
(c) hamish jiddiyah or refundable security deposit taken by an Islamic Bank against damages if:
- (ii) a lease orderer in an ijarah contract defaults on its obligation to lease the asset;
(i) a purchase orderer in an MPO contract defaults on its obligation to purchase the asset; or
(d) urbun or earnest money held by a firm as collateral to guarantee contract performance;
(e) sukuk that are assigned, by an ECRA, a rating of:
- (ii) for short-term debt securities—at least A-3/P-3; or
- (iii) for any other securities—at least BBB-;
(i) for sovereign or non-commercial public sector enterprise securities that are eligible for zero per cent risk-weight—at least BB-;
(f) subject to sub-rule (3), sukuk that have not been assigned a rating by an ECRA, if:
- (ii) all rated issues of the same seniority issued by that firm or bank have a credit rating of at least BBB- (for long-term debt instruments) or A-3/P-3 (for shortterm debt instruments); and
- (iii) an Islamic Bank or bank and the holder of the collateral have no information suggesting that the securities should have a rating below BBB- or A 3/P-3;
(i) the securities are issued by an Islamic Bank (or by a conventional bank that is outside the AIFC and that has an Islamic window or subsidiary operation) as senior debt and are listed on a recognised exchange;
(g) Shari’ah-compliant equities (including convertible bonds) that are included in a main index;
(h) units in Islamic collective investment schemes;
- (i) a price for the units is publicly quoted daily; and
- (ii) the funds or UCITS are limited to investing in instruments listed in (i);
(i) tracker funds, mutual funds and undertakings for collective investments in transferable securities (UCITS) if:
(j) Shari’ah-compliant equities (including convertible bonds) that are not included in a main index but are listed on a recognised exchange, and funds and UCITS described in paragraph (i) that include such equities.
(2) For collateral to be eligible collateral, it must be lodged for at least the life of the exposure, and must be marked-to-market at least once every 6 months. The release of collateral must be conditional on the repayment of the exposure, but collateral may be reduced in proportion to the amount of any reduction in the exposure.
(3) Collateral in the form of securities issued by the counterparty or a person connected to the counterparty is not eligible collateral.
(4) Takaful contracts, put options, and forward sales contracts or agreements are not eligible collateral.
6.53. When physical assets may be eligible collateral
(1) An Islamic Bank may accept as eligible collateral, by way of pledge, a specified asset that can be lawfully owned, and is saleable and deliverable. The pledge must be enforceable and the asset must be free of encumbrance.
(2) An asset leased under an ijarah or IMB contract may be repossessed by an Islamic Bank as lessor in case of default by the lessee. As such, it fulfils the function of collateral for purposes of credit risk mitigation.
6.54. Forms of cash collateral
Cash collateral, in relation to a credit exposure, means collateral in the form of:
- (a) PSIAs, notes or coins on deposit with an Islamic Bank holding the exposure, if supported by an agreement that gives an Islamic Bank the right of set-off against the amount of receivables due from the customer;
- (b) certificates of deposit, bank bills and similar instruments issued by the Islamic Bank holding the exposure; or
- (c) cash-funded credit-linked notes issued by an Islamic Bank against exposures in its banking book, if the notes satisfy the criterion for Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments.
6.55. Holding eligible collateral
(1) Eligible collateral must be held by:
- (a) an Islamic Bank;
- (b) a branch of an Islamic Bank;
- (c) an entity that is a member of the financial group of which an Islamic Bank is a member;
- (d) an independent custodian; or
- (e) a central counterparty.
(2) The holder of cash collateral in the form of a certificate of deposit or bank bill issued by an Islamic Bank must keep possession of the instrument while the collateralised exposure exists.
(3) If the collateral is held by an independent custodian or central counterparty, an Islamic Bank must take reasonable steps to ensure that the holder segregates the collateral from the holder’s own assets.
(4) If collateral is held by a branch of an Islamic Bank which is not regulated by the AFSA, the agreement between an Islamic Bank and the party lodging the collateral must require the branch to act in accordance with the agreement.
6.56. Risk-weight for cash collateral
(1) An Islamic Bank may apply a zero per cent risk-weight to cash collateral if the collateral is held by an Islamic Bank itself.
(2) An Islamic Bank may apply a zero per cent risk-weight to cash collateral held by another member of the financial group of which an Islamic Bank is a member if the agreement between an Islamic Bank and the party lodging the collateral requires the holder of the collateral to act in accordance with the agreement.
(3) If cash collateral is held by another Islamic Bank under a non-custodial arrangement, and the collateral is lodged with an Islamic Bank under an agreement that establishes an Islamic Bank’s irrevocable and unconditional recourse to the collateral, the exposure covered by the collateral (after any necessary haircuts for currency risk) may be assigned the risk-weight of an Islamic Bank holding the collateral.
(4) If cash collateral is held by an independent custodian (other than a central counterparty), the risk-weight of the holder of the collateral must be used. However, an Islamic Bank may apply a zero per cent risk-weight to notes and coins held by an independent custodian.
6.57. Risk-weight for claims
(1) The secured part of a claim must be risk-weighted at whichever is the higher of 20% and the risk-weight applicable to the eligible collateral. However, a risk-weight lower than 20% may be applied to the secured part if rule 6.58 applies.
(2) The unsecured part of the claim must be weighted at the risk-weight applicable to the original counterparty.
6.58. Risk-weights less than 20%
(1) A zero per cent risk-weight may be applied to a collateralised transaction if:
- (a) there is no currency mismatch; and
- (b) any one of the following applies:
- (i) the collateral is in the form of sovereign securities;
- (ii) the collateral is in the form of cash collateral on deposit with the Islamic Bank; or
- (iii) if the collateral is in the form of non-commercial public sector enterprise securities, then the securities must be eligible for zero per cent risk-weight and the market value of the collateral must be discounted by 20%.
(2) A zero per cent risk-weight may be applied to an OTC Shari’ah-compliant hedging transaction if there is no currency mismatch and the transaction is fully collateralised by cash and marked-to-market daily.
(3) A 10% risk-weight may be applied to an OTC Shari’ah-compliant hedging transaction to the extent that the transaction is collateralised by sovereign or non-commercial public sector enterprise securities that are eligible for zero per cent risk-weight.
6.59. Capital relief from guarantees
(1) Capital relief is allowed from a guarantee if the guarantor is an eligible guarantor and the guarantee satisfies the criteria in (2) to (4) below. Before accepting a guarantee, an Islamic Bank must consider the guarantor’s legal and financial ability to fulfil the guarantee.
(2) A guarantee must be a direct claim on the guarantor and must clearly state the extent of the cover. A letter of comfort is not a guarantee for the purposes of this Division.
(3) A guarantee must be irrevocable. It must not include a term or condition:
(a) that allows the guarantor to cancel it unilaterally; or
(b) that increases the effective cost of cover if the credit quality of the guaranteed exposure deteriorates.
(4) A guarantee must be unconditional. It must not include a term or condition (outside the direct control of an Islamic Bank) that allows the guarantor not to indemnify an Islamic Bank in a timely way if the counterparty defaults.
(5) If a claim on a counterparty is secured by a guarantee, the part of the claim that is covered by the guarantee may be weighted at the risk-weight applicable to the guarantor. The unsecured part of the claim must be weighted at the risk-weight applicable to the original counterparty.
Guidance
i) The irrevocability condition does not require that the guarantee and the exposure be maturity matched. However, it does require that the agreed maturity should not be reduced by the guarantor after the Islamic Bank accepts the guarantee.
ii) This rule applies to a guarantee that provides part coverage under which an Islamic Bank and the guarantor share losses on a pro-rata basis.
6.60. Eligible guarantors
(1) Eligible guarantor means:
- (a) Republic of Kazakhstan, any other sovereign or any entity treated as a sovereign;
or
- (b) any other entity (including a public sector enterprise not treated as a sovereign) that has:
- (i) a risk-weight of 20% or lower; and
- (ii) a lower risk-weight than the counterparty.
(2) A parent entity, subsidiary or affiliate of a counterparty may be an eligible guarantor if it has a lower risk-weight than the counterparty.
6.61. Capital relief from hedging instruments
(1) Capital relief is allowed if an Islamic Bank uses a Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument.
Each of the following is a Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument if it satisfies (2) below:
- (a) a total-rate-of-return swap for which an Islamic Bank has recorded any deterioration in the value of the underlying exposure, in addition to recording the net payments received on the swap as net income;
- (b) a cash-funded credit-linked note;
- (c) a first and second-to-default hedging instrument basket product.
(2) The hedging instrument must not include a term or condition that terminates the credit protection, or increases an Islamic Bank’s costs for the protection, if the credit quality of the underlying exposure deteriorates.
(3) If a claim on a counterparty is protected by a Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument, the part of the claim that is protected may be weighted at the risk-weight applicable to the issuer of the instrument. The unprotected part of the claim must be weighted at the riskweight applicable to the original counterparty.
6.62. Capital relief from netting agreements
(1) An Islamic Bank is able to obtain Capital relief from a netting agreement with a counterparty only if the agreement is an eligible netting agreement.
(2) An Islamic Bank that has entered into a netting agreement must consistently net all the transactions included in the agreement. An Islamic Bank must not selectively pick which transactions to net.
(3) The following kinds of transactions may be netted:
(a) financing assets and deposits, but only if:
- (ii) the deposits satisfy the criteria for eligible collateral;
(i) an Islamic Bank is able to determine, at all times, the assets and deposits that are subject to netting under the agreement; and
(b) securities financing transactions;
(c) OTC Shari’ah-compliant hedging transactions.
(4) The transactions listed in Rule (3) above may be netted across both the banking and trading books of an Islamic Bank, if the netted transactions satisfy the criteria in rule 6.63 and across different market-related products to the extent that they are recognised as market-related transactions.
Guidance
i) Securities financing transactions are not included as part of market-related transactions.
ii) A netting agreement may include the netting of OTC Shari’ah-compliant hedging transactions:
6.63. Criteria for eligible netting agreements
(1) To be an eligible netting agreement, a netting agreement:
- (a) must be in writing;
- (b) must create a single obligation covering all transactions and collateral included in the agreement and giving the Islamic Bank the following rights:
- (i) the right to terminate and close-out, in a timely way, all the transactions included in the netting agreement;
- (ii) the right to net the gains and losses on those transactions (including the value of any collateral) so that an Islamic Bank either has a claim to receive, or an obligation to pay, only the net sum of the close-out values of the individual transactions;
- (iii) the right to liquidate or set-off collateral if either party to the agreement fails to meet its obligations because of default, liquidation, bankruptcy or other similar circumstances;
(c) must not be subject to a walkaway clause; and
(d) must be supported by a written and reasoned legal opinion that complies with rules 6.64 to 6.65.
(2) An Islamic Bank must not recognise a netting agreement as an eligible netting agreement if it becomes aware that a financial services regulator of the counterparty is not satisfied that the agreement is enforceable under the laws of the regulator’s jurisdiction. This rule applies regardless of any legal opinion obtained by an Islamic Bank.
(3) A netting agreement is not an eligible netting agreement if there is doubt about its enforceability.
6.64. Legal opinion must cover transaction
(1) An Islamic Bank must ensure that a netted transaction is covered by an appropriate legal opinion.
(2) In calculating the net sum due to or from a counterparty, an Islamic Bank must exclude netted transactions for which it has not obtained a satisfactory legal opinion applicable in the relevant jurisdiction. An excluded transaction must be reported on a gross basis.
6.65. Conclusion about enforceability
(1) For rule 6.63 (1) (d), the legal opinion must conclude that, in the event of default, liquidation, bankruptcy or other similar circumstances of a party to the netting agreement, the Islamic bank’s claims and obligations are limited to the net sum calculated under the netting agreement in accordance with the applicable law.
(2) In particular, the legal opinion must conclude that, in the event of insolvency or external administration of a counterparty, a liquidator or administrator of the counterparty will not be able to claim a gross amount from an Islamic Bank while only being liable to pay a dividend in insolvency to an Islamic Bank (as separate money flows).
(3) The AFSA expects the legal opinion to deal with the issue of which of the following laws applies to the netting:
- (a) the law of the jurisdiction in which the counterparty is incorporated or formed (or, in the case of an individual, resides)
- (b) if an overseas branch of the counterparty is involved—the law of the jurisdiction in which the branch is located
- (c) the law that governs the individual transactions
- (d) the law that governs any contract or agreement necessary to give effect to the netting.
Guidance
In some countries, there are provisions for the authorities to appoint an administrator to a troubled bank. Under statutory provisions applying in those countries, the appointment of an administrator might not constitute a ground for triggering a netting agreement. Such provisions do not prevent the recognition of an affected netting agreement if the agreement can still take effect if the bank under administration does not meet its obligations as they fall due.
6.66. Requirements—legal opinion
(1) Before an Islamic Bank uses a legal opinion to support a netting agreement, an Islamic Bank:
- (a) must ensure that the opinion is not subject to assumptions or qualifications that are unduly restrictive;
- (b) must review the assumptions about the enforceability of the agreement and must ensure that they are specific, factual and adequately explained in the opinion; and
- (c) must review and assess the assumptions, qualifications and omissions in the opinion to determine whether they give rise to any doubt about the enforceability of the agreement.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have procedures to monitor legal developments and to ensure that its netting agreements continue to be enforceable. An Islamic Bank must update the legal opinions about the agreements, as necessary, to ensure that the agreements continue to be eligible.
(3) An Islamic Bank may rely on a legal opinion obtained on a group basis by another member of the financial group of which it is a member if an Islamic Bank and the other member have satisfied themselves that the opinion covers a netting agreement to which an Islamic Bank is a counterparty.
(4) An Islamic Bank must report a transaction on a gross basis if there is any doubt about, or any subsequent legal development affects, the enforceability of the agreement.
6.67. Relying on general legal opinions
(1) An Islamic Bank may rely on a general legal opinion about the enforceability of netting agreements in a particular jurisdiction if an Islamic Bank is satisfied that the type of netting agreement is covered by the opinion.
(2) An Islamic Bank must satisfy itself that the netting agreement with a counterparty and the general legal opinion are applicable to each transaction and product type undertaken with the counterparty, and in all jurisdictions where those transactions are originated.
6.68. Netting of positions across books
An Islamic Bank may net positions across its banking and trading books only if:
- (a) the netted transactions are marked-to-market daily; and
- (b) any collateral used in the transactions satisfies the criteria for eligible collateral in the banking book.
6.69. Monitoring and reporting of netting agreements
(1) If directed by the AFSA, an Islamic Bank must demonstrate that its netting policy is consistently implemented, and that its netting agreements continue to be enforceable.
(2) An Islamic Bank must keep adequate records to support its use of netting agreements and to be able to report netted transactions on both gross and net bases.
(3) An Islamic Bank must monitor its netting agreements and must report and manage:
- (a) roll-off risks;
- (b) exposures on a net basis; and
- (c) termination risks;
for all the transactions included in a netting agreement.
6.70. Collateral and guarantees in netting
(1) An Islamic Bank may take collateral and guarantees into account in calculating the riskweight to be applied to the net sum under a netting agreement.
(2) An Islamic Bank may assign a risk-weight based on collateral or a guarantee only if:
- (a) the collateral or guarantee has been accepted or is otherwise subject to an enforceable agreement; and
- (b) the collateral or guarantee is available for all the individual transactions that make up the net sum of exposures calculated.
(3) An Islamic Bank must ensure that provisions for applying collateral or guarantees to netted exposures under a netting agreement comply with the requirements for eligible collateral and guarantees in these rules.
6.71. Provisioning
(1) Provisioning means setting aside an amount to cover expected losses on special mention credits, impaired credits and other problem assets, based on loan-loss probability. Provisioning is made before profit is earned.
(2) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business, and of the credit it provides, an Islamic Bank’s provisioning policy must set out:
(a) the areas of its business to which the policy applies;
(b) whether an Islamic Bank uses different approaches to those areas, and the significant differences in approach;
(c) who is responsible for regularly monitoring its assets, to identify problem or potential problem assets, and the factors it takes into account in identifying them;
(d) the extent to which the value of any collateral or guarantees that an Islamic Bank holds affects the need for, or the level of, provisions;
(e) the basis on which an Islamic Bank makes its provisions, including the extent to which their levels are left to managerial judgement or to a committee;
(f) the methods, debt management systems or formulae used to set the levels of provisions and the factors that must be considered in deciding whether the provisions are adequate;
(g) the reports to enable an Islamic Bank’s governing body and senior management to ensure that an Islamic Bank maintains adequate provisions;
(h) the procedures and responsibilities for arrears management and the recovery of exposures in arrears or exposures that have had provisions made against them;
(i) the procedures for writing off and writing back provisions; and
(j) the procedures for calculating and making provisions for contingent and other liabilities (such as contingent liabilities that have crystallised from acceptances, endorsements, guarantees, performance bonds, indemnities, irrevocable letters of credit and the confirmation of documentary credits).
6.72. Making provisions
(1) An Islamic Bank must ensure that an Islamic Bank maintains provisions that, taken together, are prudent, reasonable and adequate to absorb credit losses, given the facts and circumstances. The losses covered must include losses incurred, losses incurred but not yet reported, and losses estimated but not certain to arise, extending over the life of the individual credits that make up its credit portfolio.
(2) An Islamic Bank must also ensure that provisions and write-offs are timely and reflect realistic repayment and recovery expectations, taking into account market and macroeconomic conditions. An Islamic Bank must consider all the significant factors that affect the likelihood of collecting on the transactions that make up its credit portfolio and the estimated future credit losses on those transactions.
(3) An Islamic Bank must make provisions that in total meet the requirements in table 6.17.
Table 6.17 Provisioning requirements
Item | Category | Provisioning requirement (% of the unsecured part of the credit) |
1 | performing | 0 |
2 | special mention | 5 |
3 | substandard | 20 |
4 | doubtful | 50 |
5 | loss | 100 |
(4) Provisions may be general (assessed collectively against the whole of a portfolio) or specific (assessed against individual credits), or both.
(5) An Islamic Bank must take into account off-balance-sheet exposures in its categorisation of credits and in provisioning.
Guidance
No provisioning is necessary for any off-balance-sheet exposures that can be unilaterally cancelled by an Islamic Bank.
6.73. Review of levels
The levels of provisions and write-offs must be reviewed regularly to ensure that they are consistent with identified and estimated losses.
Guidance
i) A review of a firm’s write-offs can help identify whether an Islamic Bank’s provisioning policy results in over-provisioning or under-provisioning.
ii) The AFSA regularly assesses trends and concentrations in risk and risk build-up across financial entities in relation to problem assets. In making the assessment, the AFSA takes into account any observed concentration in the CRM techniques used by firms and the potential effect on the efficacy of those techniques in reducing loss. The authority would consider the adequacy of provisions for a firm (and the industry in general) in the light of the assessment.
iii) The AFSA might seek the opinion of external experts in assessing the adequacy of a firm’s policies for grading and classifying its assets and the appropriateness and robustness of the levels of its provisions.
6.74. Prohibition on evergreening
An Islamic Bank must not restructure, refinance or reclassify assets with a view to evergreen its credit exposures, leading to such exposures being classified in a higher category thereby circumventing the requirements on provisioning. In particular, impaired credits must not be refinanced with the aim of classifying them as standard or special mention credits.
6.75. AFSA can reclassify assets
(1) The AFSA may at any time require an Islamic Bank to demonstrate that an Islamic Bank’s classification of its assets, and its provisions, are adequate for prudential purposes.
(2) The AFSA may require an Islamic Bank to reclassify its assets or increase the levels of its provisions if the AFSA considers that the asset classifications are inaccurate, or the provisions are inadequate, for prudential purposes.
Guidance: Example
If the AFSA considers that existing or anticipated deterioration in asset quality is of concern or if the provisions do not fully reflect expected losses, the AFSA may require an Islamic Bank to adjust its classifications of individual assets, increase its levels of provisions or Capital and, if necessary, impose other remedial measures.
6.76. Reporting to governing body
(1) An Islamic bank’s governing body must obtain timely information on the condition of an Islamic Bank’s assets, including the classification of assets, the levels of provisions and problem assets.
(2) The information must include summary results of the latest asset review, comparative trends in the overall quality of problem assets, and measurements of existing or anticipated deterioration in asset quality and losses expected.
6.77. Transactions with related parties
(1) To guard against abuses in lending to related parties and to address conflicts of interest, this Part requires transactions with related parties to be at arm’s length and subject to appropriate supervision and limits.
(2) Related-party transactions must be interpreted broadly. Related party transactions include on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet credit exposures, service contracts, asset purchases and sales, construction contracts, lease agreements, borrowing and write-offs.
6.78. Concept of related parties
(1) The concept of parties being related to an Islamic Bank is used in these rules in relation to parties over which an Islamic Bank exercises control or parties that exercise control over an Islamic Bank. The concept is primarily used in relation to the requirement that an Islamic Bank’s transactions be at arm’s length.
(2) In contrast, the concept of parties being connected to one another (which is discussed with concentration risk in Chapter 9) is used in these rules to measure concentration risk and large exposures.
(3) It is of course possible for connected counterparties to be related to the Islamic Bank holding the exposure concerned.
(4) Related parties, of an Islamic Bank, includes:
- (a) any other member of an Islamic Bank’s corporate group;
- (b) any individual who is able to exercise significant influence over an Islamic Bank;
- (c) any affiliate of an Islamic Bank; and
- (d) any entity that the AFSA directs an Islamic Bank to include.
Guidance
Related party is wider than a firm’s corporate group in that it includes individuals. Related parties include the Islamic Bank’s subsidiaries and major stock holders; members of its governing body; its senior management and key employees.
6.79. Role of governing body—related parties
(1) An Islamic bank’s governing body must ensure that an Islamic Bank’s policies relating to related-party transactions are complied with and that any exceptions are reported to the appropriate level of the senior management, and, if necessary, to the governing body.
(2) The governing body must also ensure that an Islamic Bank’s senior management monitors transactions with related parties, takes appropriate steps to control or mitigate the risks from such transactions and writes off exposures to related parties only in accordance with an Islamic Bank’s policies.
(3) The governing body must approve transactions with related parties, and the write-off of related-party exposures, if such transactions or write-off exceeds specified amounts or otherwise poses any special risk.
6.80. Policies—transactions with related parties
(1) An Islamic bank’s policy must establish:
- (a) effective systems to identify, monitor and report individual and total exposures to, and transactions with, related parties;
- (b) procedures to prevent a member of the governing body, a member of an Islamic Bank’s senior management or any other person who stands to gain a benefit from a related-party transaction from being part of the process of granting and managing the transaction;
- (c) well-defined criteria for writing-off exposures to related parties;
- (d) prudent and appropriate limits to prevent or address conflicts of interest; and
- (e) procedures for tracking and reporting exceptions to, and deviations from, limits or policies.
6.81. Transactions must be arm’s length
A transaction with a related party must not be undertaken on terms more favourable to the party than a corresponding transaction with a non-related party.
Guidance
Favourable terms could relate to credit assessment, tenor, fees, amortisation schedule and need for collateral. An exception for beneficial terms could be appropriate if it is part of an employee’s remuneration package.
6.82. Limits on lending to related parties
An Islamic Bank must not enter into a transaction that would cause it to exceed the limits set out in table 6.18, without AFSA’s written approval to do so.
Table 6.18 Limits on Islamic Banks’ exposure to related parties
Item | Kind of Exposure | Limit (% of total assets) |
1 | exposures to a member of the Governing Body or senior management of an Islamic Bank, or a person connected to either of them | 0.5 |
2 | the total of exposures under item 1 | 3 |
3 | exposures to a significant shareholder of an Islamic Bank (other than exposures to a shareholder that is an Islamic Bank or an equivalent entity regulated in a way comparable to an Islamic Bank) | 2 |
4 | the total of exposures under item 3 | 5 |
5 | exposures to a related party or a party connected to the related party (other than exposures to an Islamic Bank or an equivalent entity regulated in a way comparable to an Islamic Bank) | 2 |
6 | the total of exposures under item 5 | 5 |
6.83. Powers of the AFSA
(1) Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may, in writing, set specific limits on an Islamic bank’s exposures to a related party or to related parties in total.
(2) The AFSA may direct such exposures to be deducted from Regulatory Capital when assessing capital adequacy or direct that such exposures be collateralised.
7. CONCENTRATION RISK AND LARGE EXPOSURES
7.1. General
This Chapter sets out the requirements for an Islamic Bank’s policies to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate concentrations of risk. This Chapter also sets limits on an Islamic Bank’s exposures to individual counterparties and connected counterparties.
7.2. Concept of connected parties
(1) The concept of parties being connected to one another is used in these rules in relation to counterparties or issuers to which an Islamic Bank has exposures. Connected counterparties are the basis for the measurement of concentration risk and large exposures.
(2) In contrast, the concept of parties being related to the Islamic Bank (which is discussed with credit risk in Chapter 6) is primarily used in relation to the requirement that an Islamic Bank’s transactions be at arm’s length.
(3) It is of course possible for a firm’s related parties to be connected counterparties (such as when an Islamic Bank has exposures to them).
7.3. Connected parties
(1) A party is connected to another party if they are linked by:
- (a) cross guarantees;
- (b) common ownership;
- (c) common management;
- (d) one having the ability to exercise control over the other, whether direct or indirect;
- (e) financial interdependency—that is, the financial soundness of one may affect the financial soundness of the other; or
- (f) any combination of the factors mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (e).
Guidance
i) Parties would be connected if the same persons significantly influence the governing body of each of them.
ii) Parties would be connected if one of them has an exposure to the other that was not incurred for the clear commercial advantage of both of them and is not on arm’s length terms.
iii) Parties would be connected if they are so closely linked that:
- a) the insolvency or default of one is likely to be associated with the insolvency or default of the other;
- b) it would be prudent when assessing the financial condition or creditworthiness of one to consider that of the other; or
- c) there is, or is likely to be, a close relationship between their financial performance.
iv) Parties would be connected if an Islamic Bank has exposures to them and any loss to an Islamic Bank on any of the exposures to one of the parties is likely to be associated with a loss to an Islamic Bank with respect to at least 1 exposure to each of the others.
v) A counterparty may be connected to another counterparty by other linkages that, in the Islamic Bank’s assessment, connect the counterparties as constituting a single risk.
vi) A connected party can be an individual or other entity.
vii) Two or more individuals or legal persons would constitute a single risk if they are so connected that, if one of them were to experience financial problems, the other or others would be likely to encounter repayment difficulties.
viii) Connected counterparties should be identified and the procedures to manage the combined credit risk considered. An Islamic Bank may need to monitor and report the gross exposure to connected counterparties against combined limits in addition to monitoring the exposure to each counterparty.
7.4. Role of governing body—concentration risk
(1) An Islamic bank’s governing body must ensure that an Islamic Bank’s concentration risk management policy gives an Islamic Bank a comprehensive firm-wide view of the significant sources of concentration risk (including on-balance-sheet exposures, offbalance-sheet exposures and exposures from contingent liabilities).
(2) The governing body must also ensure that an Islamic Bank’s senior management monitors the limits set in this Chapter and that those limits are not exceeded on a solo or consolidated basis.
7.5. Concentration risk
Concentration risk to an Islamic Bank arises if an Islamic Bank is exposed to 1 counterparty, or to 2 or more counterparties that are not truly independent of each other, and the total of the exposures to the counterparty or counterparties is large enough to endanger an Islamic Bank’s liquidity or solvency.
Guidance
Significant sources of concentration risk include:
i) concentration of exposures to a single counterparty or connected counterparties;
ii) concentration of exposures to counterparties in the same industry, sector, region or country; and
iii) concentration of exposures to counterparties whose financial performance depends on the same activity or commodity.
A concentration of exposures would also arise if a firm accepts collateral or credit protection provided by a single provider (because an Islamic Bank is exposed to the provider).
7.6. Policies—concentration risk sources and limits
(1) An Islamic bank’s concentration risk policy must set limits for acceptable concentrations of risk, consistent with an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and Capital. The limits must be made known to, and must be understood by, all relevant staff.
(2) The policy must require that:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s information systems identify exposures creating risk concentrations and large exposures to single counterparties or connected counterparties, aggregate those exposures and facilitate their management; and
- (b) all significant such concentrations and exposures are reviewed regularly and reported to an Islamic Bank’s governing body or senior management.
Guidance
An Islamic bank’s policies should be flexible to help an Islamic Bank to identify risk concentrations. To achieve this, the systems should be capable of analysing an Islamic Bank’s credit portfolio by:
- (a) size of exposure
- (b) exposure to connected counterparties
- (c) product
- (d) geography
- (e) industry or sector (for example, manufacturing and industrial)
- (f) account performance
- (g) internal credit risk assessment
- (h) funding
- (i) outstandings versus commitments
- (j) types and coverage of collateral.
7.7. Relation to stress-testing
When carrying out stress-testing or review of stress scenarios, an Islamic Bank must take into account significant risk concentrations and large exposures, and the effects of changes in market conditions and risk factors on them.
7.8. Large Exposures
(1) Large Exposure means a gross exposure to a counterparty or connected counterparties that is 10% or more of an Islamic bank’s Regulatory Capital.
(2) In this rule, gross exposure to a counterparty or connected counterparties is the total of the following exposures:
- (a) on-balance-sheet and off-balance-sheet exposures;
- (b) debt securities held by an Islamic Bank;
- (c) equity exposures.
(3) In calculating the gross exposure, include:
- (a) the outstanding balances of all loans and advances;
- (b) holdings of debt or equity securities;
- (c) unused advised off-balance-sheet commitments, whether revocable or irrevocable; and
- (d) the credit equivalent amounts of all market-related transactions.
(4) However, in calculating the gross exposure, do not include:
- (a) claims, equity investments and other exposures deducted from an Islamic Bank’s Capital;
- (b) exposures to the extent that they are secured by cash collateral, if the criteria applicable to transactions collateralised by cash are satisfied;
- (c) exposures to the extent that they are guaranteed by (or secured against securities issued by) the AIFC, the National Bank of Kazakhstan, or another state or central bank that has a zero per cent risk-weight;
- (d) exposures arising in the course of settlement of market-related contracts; and
- (e) exposures to the extent that they have been written off or specifically provided for.
7.9. Policies - Large Exposures
An Islamic bank’s Large Exposure policy must include:
- (a) exposure limits, commensurate with an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and Capital, for:
- (i) categories of counterparties (for example, sovereigns, other authorised firms and other financial entities, corporate and individual borrowers);
- (ii) connected counterparties;
- (iii) particular industries or sectors;
- (iv) particular countries; and
- (v) asset classes (for example, property holdings);
- (b) the circumstances in which the exposure limits may be exceeded;
- (c) the procedures for approving exceptions to, and deviations from, exposure limits or policies; and
- (d) the procedures for identifying, measuring, managing and reporting large exposures.
7.10. Limits on exposures—general
(1) An Islamic Bank must not become exposed without limit to a single counterparty. An Islamic Bank must not give a general guarantee of the obligations of a counterparty.
(2) An Islamic Bank may apply to the AFSA for approval for a proposed exposure in excess of the limits set out in this Chapter. An approval will be granted only in exceptional circumstances and only after an Islamic Bank satisfies the AFSA that the proposed exposure does not expose an Islamic Bank to excessive risk.
(3) The AFSA may impose a higher Regulatory Capital ratio on an Islamic Bank to compensate for the additional risk associated with the proposed exposure.
7.11. Limits on exposure—Islamic Bank
(1) An Islamic Bank must not have an exposure to a counterparty or to connected counterparties that exceeds any 1 of the following percentages of its Regulatory Capital:
- (a) 25% if financed by either its Regulatory Capital or funds raised through UPSIAs;
- (b) 40% if financed by the total of its Regulatory Capital and funds raised through UPSIAs.
(2) The sum of an Islamic bank’s non-exempt Large Exposures must not exceed 800% of its Regulatory Capital for exposures financed by its on-balance sheet sources of funding and Regulatory Capital.
(3) The Islamic Bank must monitor and control its exposures financed by its on-balance sheet sources of funding and Regulatory Capital on a daily basis to ensure that they remain within the concentration risk limits.
Guidance
(1) This rule sets specific large exposure limits for assets financed by Shari’ah-compliant sources. The AFSA uses these limits to provide constraints on the amount of concentration risk to which an Islamic Bank is exposed in respect of its holdings.
(2) An Islamic Bank has a large exposure if its fund holders’ or account holders’ credit exposure to a single counterparty or issuer, or connected counterparties or issuers, is large in relation to an Islamic Bank’s regulatory Capital. If exposure to a counterparty or issuer is large, the holders risk a large loss should the counterparty or issuer default.
7.12. Obligation to measure
(1) An Islamic Bank must measure, classify and make provision for each large exposure individually.
(2) An Islamic Bank must immediately notify the AFSA if an Islamic Bank is concerned that risk concentrations or large exposures might significantly affect its Capital adequacy. The notice must describe an Islamic Bank’s proposed measures to address its concerns.
7.13. Powers of AFSA
(1) If the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable to do so in the interest of effective supervision of an Islamic Bank, the AFSA may direct an Islamic Bank to treat a party as connected to another party.
(2) Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may, in writing, set specific limits on an Islamic bank’s exposures to particular counterparties, groups of counterparties, industries, sectors, regions, countries or asset classes on a case-by-case basis.
(3) If an Islamic Bank has 1 or more large exposures (excluding exposures to sovereigns and central banks) or if, in the AFSA’s opinion, an Islamic Bank is exposed to a significant level of risk concentration, the AFSA may impose a higher Capital ratio on an Islamic Bank.
(4) In considering whether to increase an Islamic Bank’s Capital ratio, the AFSA will take into account:
- (a) whether the increased Capital ratio would be consistent with an Islamic Bank’s concentration risk and large exposure policies;
- (b) the number of exposures, and the size and nature of each; and
- (c) the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business and the experience of its governing body and senior management.
(5) The AFSA may also direct an Islamic Bank to take measures to reduce its level of risk concentration.
8. MARKET RISK
8.1. General
(1) This Chapter sets out the requirements for an Islamic bank’s market risk management policy to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate market risk. This Chapter also sets out how to calculate an Islamic Bank’s market risk Capital requirement.
(2) An Islamic Bank that operates in a market incurs risks from potential movements in market prices.
(3) In calculating its Capital requirement, an Islamic Bank must take into account unexpected losses that may arise from the market risk exposures it faces.
(4) In determining the value of an asset or liability, an Islamic Bank must also make appropriate adjustments for uncertainties arising from market risk.
8.2. Role of governing body—market risk
An Islamic bank’s governing body must ensure that its market risk management policy gives an Islamic Bank a comprehensive firm-wide view of its market risk exposure and takes into account the risk of a significant deterioration in market liquidity.
8.3. Relation to stress-testing
When carrying out stress-testing or review of stress scenarios, an Islamic Bank must take into account market risk exposures.
8.4. Requirements—Capital and management of market risk
(1) An Islamic bank’s trading book consists of the positions held by an Islamic Bank (whether on-balance-sheet or off-balance-sheet) that must be included in the book in accordance with these rules. Other positions held by an Islamic Bank must be included in its banking book.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have a trading book if:
- (a) it has positions that must be included in the trading book; and
- (b) the total value of the positions described in paragraph (a) has exceeded 5% of the total of an Islamic Bank’s on-balance-sheet and off balance-sheet positions at any time in the previous 12 months.
(3) An Islamic Bank must include, in the trading book, trading positions and exposures of the following kinds:
- (a) a position taken to hedge an exposure in the trading book, using Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments;
- (b) a principal broking position in a financial instrument, commodity or commodity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument;
- (c) an exposure from a repurchase agreement, or securities or commodities lending, that is based on a position in a security or commodity included in the trading book;
- (d) an exposure from a reverse repurchase agreement, or securities and commodities borrowing, that is based on a position in a security or commodity included in the trading book;
- (e) an exposure from an unsettled transaction, a free delivery or an OTC Shari’ahcompliant hedging instrument;
- (f) an exposure in the form of a fee, commission, interest, dividend or margin on an exchange-traded Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument directly related to a position included in the trading book.
(4) An Islamic Bank must also include in its trading book:
- (a) total-rate-of-return swaps (except those that have been transacted to hedge a banking book credit exposure); and
- (b) open short positions in Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments.
(5) An Islamic Bank must not include in its trading book:
- (a) positions held for liquidity management; and
- (b) loans (unless they are used to hedge a position or transaction in the trading book).
(6) Trading position, of an Islamic Bank, means a position that is held:
- (a) for short-term resale;
- (b) with the intent of benefiting from actual or expected short-term price movements; or
- (c) to lock in arbitrage profits.
Guidance
Whenever an Islamic Bank acts as principal (even in the course of an activity normally described as ‘broking’ or ‘customer business’), the resulting positions should be included in the trading book. This applies even if the nature of the business means that the only risks being incurred by an Islamic Bank are counterparty risks (that is, no market risk Capital requirements apply).
8.5. Trading Book
(1) An Islamic bank’s trading book consists of the positions held by an Islamic Bank (whether on-balance-sheet or off-balance-sheet) that must be included in the book in accordance with these rules. Other positions held by an Islamic Bank must be included in its banking book.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have a trading book if:
- (a) it has positions that must be included in the trading book; and
- (b) the total value of the positions described in paragraph (a) has exceeded 5% of the total of an Islamic Bank’s on-balance-sheet and off balance-sheet positions at any time in the previous 12 months.
(3) An Islamic Bank must include, in the trading book, trading positions and exposures of the following kinds:
- (a) a position taken to hedge an exposure in the trading book, using Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments;
- (b) a principal broking position in a financial instrument, commodity or commodity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument;
- (c) an exposure from a repurchase agreement, or securities or commodities lending, that is based on a position in a security or commodity included in the trading book;
- (d) an exposure from a reverse repurchase agreement, or securities and commodities borrowing, that is based on a position in a security or commodity included in the trading book;
- (e) an exposure from an unsettled transaction, a free delivery or an OTC Shari’ahcompliant hedging instrument;
- (f) an exposure in the form of a fee, commission, interest, dividend or margin on an exchange-traded Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument directly related to a position included in the trading book.
(4) An Islamic Bank must also include in its trading book:
- (a) total-rate-of-return swaps (except those that have been transacted to hedge a banking book credit exposure); and
- (b) open short positions in Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments.
(5) An Islamic Bank must not include in its trading book:
- (a) positions held for liquidity management; and
- (b) loans (unless they are used to hedge a position or transaction in the trading book).
(6) Trading position, of an Islamic Bank, means a position that is held:
- (a) for short-term resale;
- (b) with the intent of benefiting from actual or expected short-term price movements; or
- (c) to lock in arbitrage profits.
Guidance
Whenever an Islamic Bank acts as principal (even in the course of an activity normally described as ‘broking’ or ‘customer business’), the resulting positions should be included in the trading book. This applies even if the nature of the business means that the only risks being incurred by an Islamic Bank are counterparty risks (that is, no market risk Capital requirements apply).
8.6. No switching of instruments between books
(1) An Islamic Bank must not switch an instrument between its trading book and banking book, unless the AFSA has, in writing, allowed an Islamic Bank to do so. The AFSA may approve a switch subject to 1 or more conditions.
(2) An Islamic Bank must not benefit from any lower Regulatory Capital requirement resulting from a switch approved by the AFSA.
Guidance
The AFSA will grant approval to switch exposures or positions between banking and trading books only in extraordinary cases and in such cases, the Islamic Bank will be required to publicly disclose the switch.
8.7. Market Risk Management Policy
(1) An Islamic bank’s market risk management policy must establish:
- (a) effective systems for the accurate and timely identification, measurement, evaluation, management and control or mitigation of market risk, and reporting to an Islamic Bank’s governing body and senior management;
- (b) prudent and appropriate market risk limits that are consistent with an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance, risk profile and Capital, and with the management’s ability to manage;
- (c) who is responsible for identifying, measuring and reporting market risk;
- (d) procedures for tracking and reporting exceptions to, and deviations from, limits or policies; and
- (e) procedures for including positions and exposures in the trading book.
(2) The policy must ensure that all of an Islamic Bank’s transactions are identified and recorded in a timely way and that their valuations are consistent and prudent.
8.8. Trading Book Policies
(1) An Islamic Bank that is required to have a trading book must have clearly defined policies for keeping the book up-to-date and the positions and exposures accurate.
(2) In particular, an Islamic Bank must have policies on:
- (a) what to include, or not include, in the trading book;
- (b) managing and reporting trading positions;
- (c) valuing positions, including:
- (i) clear definitions of the responsibilities of staff involved in the valuation;
- (ii) sources of market information, and review of their reliability;
- (iii) frequency of independent valuations;
- (iv) timing of closing prices;
- (v) procedures for adjusting valuations between periods;
- (vi) ad-hoc verification procedures; and
- (vii) reporting lines for the valuation function that are independent of the function that gave rise to the position.
(3) The policies must be approved by an Islamic Bank’s governing body, and an Islamic Bank must be able to demonstrate compliance with them if directed by the AFSA.
(4) An Islamic Bank must also have adequate policies:
- (a) to monitor compliance with the policies and distinguish consistently between trading activities and banking activities;
- (b) to deal with legal, regulatory or operational restrictions on immediate liquidation of exposures; and
- (c) to monitor the size of its trading book.
8.9. Measurement of market risk - Standard method
(1) An Islamic Bank must use the standard method for measuring market risk unless the AFSA has approved the use of an internal model for the same purpose. The standard method comprises a range of approaches that a firm may use to calculate market risk capital requirement from its trading activities.
(2) In the standard method, market risk Capital requirement is the sum of the capital charges for:
- (a) foreign exchange risk in the trading book and banking book;
- (b) options risk in the trading book and banking book;
- (c) commodities risk in the trading book and banking book;
- (d) inventory risk in the trading book and banking book;
- (e) traded equity position risk; and
- (f) traded profit rate risk on sukuk and other Shari’a-compliant debt securities and profit-rate-related instruments.
8.10. Valuing positions—mark-to-market
(1) An Islamic Bank must use the mark-to-market method to value its positions and exposures if there is a market to mark the positions and exposures to. Mark-to-market means a valuation that is based on current market value.
(2) The AFSA would expect an Islamic Bank to mark-to-market listed securities since there is a market with observable and reliable prices for such securities.
(3) A position that is marked-to-market must be revalued daily, based on independently sourced current market prices.
Guidance
- (ii) An Islamic Bank should mark-to-market as much as possible. It should use the prudent side of a bid or offer unless an Islamic Bank is a significant market maker that can close at mid-market.
- (iii) When estimating fair value, an Islamic Bank should maximise the use of relevant observable inputs and avoid the use of unobservable inputs.
(i) Because of the less liquid nature of many sukuk and equity positions held by an Islamic Bank, it is important for an Islamic Bank to have prudent valuation practices.
8.11. Valuing positions—mark-to-model
(1) If it is not possible to mark-to-market (for example, in the case of unlisted securities or where the market is inactive), an Islamic Bank may use the mark-to-model method to value its positions and exposures. Mark-to-model means a valuation that has to be benchmarked, extrapolated or otherwise calculated from a market input.
(2) An Islamic Bank must be able to demonstrate that its marking-to-model is prudent.
Guidance
An Islamic Bank should be extra conservative when marking-to-model. The AFSA will take into account the following in deciding if an Islamic Bank’s model is prudent:
(a) whether senior management is aware of the positions and exposures that are marked to model and whether it understands the uncertainty this might create in reporting the risk or performance of the business
(b) the extent to which market inputs are sourced from market prices
(c) the appropriateness of the assumptions used by an Islamic Bank
(d) the availability of generally accepted valuation methods for particular products
(e) who developed the model
(f) whether an Islamic Bank holds a secure copy of the model
(g) the existence of formal control procedures for changing the model
(h) how often the model is used to check valuations
(i) how aware is an Islamic Bank’s risk management function of the weaknesses of the model and how those weaknesses are reflected in the valuation output
(j) the results of comparisons between actual close out values and model outputs
(k) an Islamic Bank’s procedures for reviewing the model.
8.12. Independent price verification
An Islamic Bank must independently verify market prices and model inputs, to check that those prices and inputs are accurate. The verification must be done at least once a month.
Guidance
i) Independent price verification is different from daily mark-to-market. The object of the verification is to regularly check the accuracy of market prices or model inputs and, thereby, eliminate inaccurate daily marks. The verification should be carried out by a unit independent of whoever marked the positions or exposures.
ii) The independent marking in the verification process should reveal any error or bias in pricing. It entails a higher standard of accuracy in that the market prices or model inputs are used to determine profit and loss figures, whereas daily marks are used primarily for management reporting in between reporting dates.
8.13. Valuation adjustments
(1) An Islamic Bank must consider making adjustments for positions that cannot be prudently valued (such as those that have become concentrated, less liquid or stale). For example, valuation adjustment would be appropriate if pricing sources are more subjective (such as when there is only one available broker quote).
(2) An Islamic Bank must establish and maintain procedures for considering valuation adjustments. This rule applies whether:
- (a) an Islamic Bank uses the mark-to-market or mark-to-model method; and
- (b) whether the valuation is done by an Islamic Bank itself or a third party.
(3) An Islamic Bank must consider the following valuation adjustments:
- (a) unearned profit;
- (b) close-out costs;
- (c) operational risks;
- (d) early termination;
- (e) investing and funding costs;
- (f) future administrative costs;
- (g) model risk, if relevant;
- (h) any other adjustment that an Islamic Bank considers appropriate.
8.14. Foreign exchange risk
(1) In measuring its market risk, an Islamic Bank must include the risk of holding or taking positions in foreign currencies, gold and silver (exchange risk). Foreign exchange risk may arise from an Islamic Bank’s trading in the foreign exchange market and other markets; it may also arise from non-trading activities that are denominated in a foreign currency.
(2) If an Islamic Bank is exposed to profit rate risk on positions in foreign currencies, gold and silver, an Islamic Bank must include the relevant profit rate positions in the calculation of profit rate risk in the trading book.
(3) Silver and gold are treated under Shari’ah as foreign exchange positions (rather than as commodity positions.
(4) If foreign currency is to be received or delivered under a binding unilateral promise, an Islamic Bank must report any profit rate exposure from the other leg of the contract in accordance with Rule 8.43 (profit rate risk in the trading book).
(5) If gold or silver is to be received or delivered under a binding unilateral promise, an Islamic Bank must report any foreign currency or profit rate exposure from the other leg of the contract in accordance with this Part or Part 8.43, as the case requires.
8.15. What to include in foreign exchange risk
(1) In calculating the Capital charge for foreign exchange risk, an Islamic Bank must include in its exposure to each foreign currency:
- (a) the net spot position (that is, assets minus liabilities denominated in the currency, including accrued profit and other accrued income and accrued expenses);
- (b) the net position of binding unilateral promises by an Islamic Bank to buy or sell currencies on a specified future date (that are not included in the spot position);
Examples of amounts to be received or paid
- (i) the principal on currency swaps not included in the spot position
- (ii) profit from swaps and other profit rate transactions.
- (c) irrevocable guarantees (and similar instruments) that are certain to be called and likely to be irrecoverable; and
- (d) any other items representing an exposure to risk in foreign currencies (for example a specific provision held in the currency in question where the underlying asset is held in a different currency).
(2) An Islamic Bank may also include in its currency exposure any net future income or expenses that are not yet accrued but already fully hedged. If an Islamic Bank includes such income or expenses, it must do so consistently and must not select only expected future flows that reduce its position.
(3) If an Islamic Bank has deliberately taken a position to partly or totally protect itself against the adverse effect of a change in an exchange rate on its Capital adequacy ratio, it may exclude the position from its currency exposure insofar as it relates to that hedge, if:
- (a) the position is of a structural and non-trading nature;
- (b) the structural position does no more than protect an Islamic Bank’s Capital adequacy ratio;
- (c) the position cannot be traded for speculative or profit-making purposes; and
- (d) the exclusion of the position is done consistently, with the treatment of the hedge remaining the same for the life of the assets or other items.
(4) A structural position includes:
- (a) a position arising from an instrument that satisfies the criteria for inclusion as Capital under Chapter 4 of this Rules;
- (b) a position in relation to a net investment in a self-sustaining subsidiary, the accounting consequence of which is to reduce or eliminate what would otherwise be a movement in the foreign currency translation reserve; and
- (c) an investment in an overseas subsidiary or other entity in the same corporate group as an Islamic Bank that, under these rules, is deducted from an Islamic Bank’s Capital for Capital adequacy purposes.
(5) An Islamic Bank must also include any currency exposures arising from equity, commodity and profit rate positions.
8.16. Foreign exchange risk on consolidated basis
(1) If an Islamic Bank is assessing its foreign exchange risk on a consolidated basis and it is technically impractical for a marginal operation to include the currency positions of an overseas branch or subsidiary of an Islamic Bank, the internal limit in each currency applied to the overseas branch or subsidiary may be used as a proxy for the positions. Marginal operation, in relation to a firm, is an operation of an Islamic Bank that accounts for less than 5% of an Islamic Bank’s total currency positions.
(2) The absolute values of the limits must be added to the net open position in each currency, but only if the actual positions are adequately monitored against those internal limits.
8.17. Capital charge—foreign exchange risk
(1) For an Islamic Bank that does not write options, net open position in a foreign currency is the sum of:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s currency exposures under rule 8.15 for the currency; and
- (b) the value of the options and their associated underlying assets measured using the simplified approach.
(2) For an Islamic Bank that writes options, net open position in a foreign currency is the sum
of:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s currency exposures under rule 8.15 for the currency; and
- (b) either:
- (i) the net delta-based equivalent of an Islamic Bank’s total book of foreign currency options (with separately calculated Capital charges for gamma risk and vega risk under Delta-plus method); or
- (ii) the value of the options and their associated underlying assets under the deltaplus method under Delta-plus method.
(3) An Islamic Bank must calculate its overall foreign currency net open position by:
- (a) calculating the net open position in each foreign currency;
- (b) converting the nominal amount (or net present value) of each such net position into US Dollar at the current spot market exchange rate;
- (c) adding all short net positions and adding all long net positions calculated under paragraphs (a) and (b); and
- (d) selecting the greater of the absolute values of the 2 sums in paragraph (c).
(4) An Islamic Bank must then calculate its net position in gold and silver by:
- (a) valuing all gold and silver positions using the US dollar current spot price (regardless of maturity);
- (b) offsetting long and short positions; and
- (c) converting the absolute value of the resulting net position into US Dollar.
(5) To convert the net position in gold and silver into US Dollar, an Islamic Bank must state the position (spot plus forward) in a standard unit of measurement and then convert the net position at the current spot market exchange rate.
(6) The Capital charge for foreign exchange risk of an Islamic Bank is the sum of:
- (a) 8% of an Islamic Bank’s overall foreign currency net open position in each of the foreign currencies it holds; and
- (b) 8% of its net position in gold and silver.
8.18. Valuing positions—binding unilateral promises
An Islamic Bank must value net positions of binding unilateral promises in foreign exchange transactions, gold and silver at the current spot market exchange rates.
8.19. Options risk
In measuring its market risk, an Islamic Bank must include the risk of holding or taking positions in options contracts (options risk).
8.20. Measuring options risk
(1) An Islamic Bank that does not write options must use the simplified approach.
(2) An Islamic Bank that writes options must use the delta-plus method.
8.21. Using simplified approach
An Islamic Bank that does not write options must calculate Capital charges in accordance with:
- (a) rule 8.22 for a position that is a ‘long cash and long put’ or ‘short cash and long call’ position; or
- (b) rule 8.23 for a position that is a ‘long put’ or ‘long call’ position.
Guidance
In the simplified approach, the position in the option and the associated underlying asset (cash or forward) is not subject to the mark-to-market method. Instead, each position is carved-out and is subject to a separately calculated Capital charge for specific risk and general risk.
8.22. Capital charges—‘long cash and long put’ or ‘short cash and long call’
(1) For a position that is ‘long cash and long put’ or ‘short cash and long call’, the Capital charge is calculated by multiplying the market value of the underlying security by the sum of the specific and general risk Capital charges for the underlying, and then subtracting the amount by which the option is in-the-money (bounded at zero).
(2) In the simplified approach, the Capital charge is:
- (a) 8% for options on currency; and
- (b) 15% for options on commodities.
(3) For options with a residual maturity of less than 6 months, an Islamic Bank must use the forward price (instead of the spot price) if it is able to do so.
(4) For options with a residual maturity of more than 6 months, an Islamic Bank must compare the strike price with the forward price (instead of the current price). If an Islamic Bank is unable to do this, it must take the in-the-money amount to be zero.
Guidance
i) In cases (such as foreign exchange transactions) where it is unclear which side is the underlying security, the underlying should be taken to be the asset that would be received if the option were exercised. In addition, the nominal value should be used for items if the market value of the underlying instrument could be zero (such as in caps, floors and swaptions).
ii) Some options have no specific risk (such as those having a profit rate, currency or commodity as the underlying security); other options on profit-rate-related instruments and options on equities and stock indices, however, would have specific risk.
8.23. Capital charges—‘long put’ or ‘long call’
(1) For a position that is ‘long put’ or ‘long call’, the Capital charge is the lesser of:
- (a) the market value of the underlying security multiplied by the sum of the specific and general risk Capital charges for the underlying; and
- (b) the market value of the option.
(2) In respect of (1)(b) above, the book value of the option may be used instead of the market value if the position is not included in the trading book (for example, options on particular foreign exchange or commodities positions).
8.24. Using delta-plus method
(1) An Islamic Bank that writes options must calculate specific risk Capital charges separately by multiplying the delta-equivalent value of each option by the risk-weight applicable under equity position risk and profit rate risk in the trading book.
(2) In calculating general risk Capital charge, an Islamic Bank must enter delta-weighted positions with a debt security or profit rate as the underlying into the profit rate time bands in table 8.50 A by using a two-legged approach. Under this approach, there is 1 entry at the time the underlying contract takes effect and a second entry at the time the underlying contract matures.
(3) For an option with a debt security as the underlying, an Islamic Bank must apply a specific risk Capital charge to the delta-weighted position based on the issuer’s rating and in accordance with the rules on measuring profit rate risk – Rule 8.43.
8.25. Relation to mark-to-market method
(1) An Islamic Bank that writes options must include delta-weighted option positions in measuring its market risk.
(2) An Islamic Bank must report such an option as a position equal to the sum of the market values of the underlying multiplied by the sum of the absolute values of the deltas. Because delta does not cover all risks associated with option positions, an Islamic Bank must calculate gamma and vega in calculating the regulatory Capital charge.
(3) An Islamic Bank must calculate delta, gamma and vega using the pricing model used by a recognised exchange, or a proprietary options pricing model approved, in writing, by the AFSA.
8.26. Capital charges—options
(1) The Capital charge for an option with equities as the underlying must be based on the delta-weighted positions included in the measurement of specific and general risks in accordance with Rules for Inventory risk (equity position risk).
(2) An Islamic Bank that writes options must calculate the Capital charge for options on foreign exchange and gold and silver positions in accordance with rules for foreign exchange risk. For delta risk, the net delta-based equivalent of the foreign currency, gold and silver options must be included in the measurement of the exposure for the respective currency, gold or silver position.
(3) The Capital charge for an option on commodities must be based on the charge calculated using the simplified approach in Rule 8.21.
8.27. Gamma Capital charges
(1) An Islamic Bank that writes options must calculate the Capital charge for gamma risk (gamma Capital charge) for each option position separately.
(2) To calculate gamma Capital charge, calculate the gamma impact of each option in accordance with the following formula:
where:
Gamma impact = × gamma × VU2
VU is:
(a) for a profit rate option:
- (i) if the option has a bond as the underlying—the market value of the underlying multiplied by the risk factor applicable under column 3 of table 8.50 A; or
- (ii) if the option has a profit rate as the underlying—the market value of the underlying multiplied by the assumed changes in yield in column 4 of table 8.50 A;
(b) for options on equities and stock indices—the market value of the underlying multiplied by 8%;
(c) for options on foreign exchange, gold and silver—the market value of the underlying multiplied by 8%; or
(d) for an option on commodities—the market value of the underlying multiplied by 15%.
(3) In calculating the gamma impact for an option mentioned in the definition of VU, an Islamic Bank must treat as the same underlying:
(a) for profit rates—each time band in column 2 of table 8.50 A (with each position allocated to separate maturity ladders);
(b) for equities and stock indices—each recognised exchange;
(c) for foreign currencies, gold and silver—each currency pair, gold and silver; and
(d) for commodities—each individual commodity of a kind described in Rule 8.29.
(4) Each option on the same underlying described in sub-rules (2) and (3) will have a gamma impact that is positive or negative. An Islamic Bank must add the individual gamma impacts, resulting in a net gamma impact for each underlying that is either positive or negative.
(5) To calculate an Islamic Bank’s total gamma Capital charge, exclude gamma impacts that are positive. The total gamma Capital charge is the sum of the absolute values of the net negative gamma impacts.
8.28. Vega Capital charges
(1) An Islamic Bank that writes options must calculate the Capital charge for vega risk (vega Capital charge) for each option position separately.
(2) To calculate vega Capital charge, an Islamic Bank must multiply the vega for each option mentioned in the definition of VU in Rule 8.27 (2) by a 25% proportional shift in the option’s current volatility. The results must then be summed across each underlying.
(3) The total vega Capital charge is the sum of the absolute values of the vega Capital charges across each underlying.
8.29. Commodities risk and inventory risk
(1) In measuring its market risk, an Islamic Bank must include the risk of holding or taking positions in commodities and commodities options (commodities risk).
(2) Commodities means physical or energy products that may be traded. Commodities include precious metals (other than gold and silver), base metals, agricultural products, minerals, oil, gas and electricity.
(3) If an Islamic Bank is exposed to foreign exchange or profit rate risk from funding commodities positions, an Islamic Bank must include the relevant positions in the measurement of foreign exchange risk and profit rate risk in the trading book—see Rules 8.17 and 8.43, respectively.
(4) Unlike Basel II, silver and gold are treated under Shari’ah as foreign exchange positions (rather than as commodity positions). In Basel II, only gold is treated in that way.
(5) If a commodity is to be received or delivered under a binding unilateral promise, an Islamic Bank must report any foreign currency, equity or profit rate exposure from the other leg of the contract in accordance with Rules under Inventory risk, as the case requires.
8.30. Measuring commodities risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must use the simplified approach to measure commodities risk.
(2) To calculate open positions using this approach, an Islamic Bank may report short and long positions in each commodity on a net basis. Positions are reported on a net basis by offsetting them against each other in accordance with sub-rule (3).
(3) Positions in the same commodity may be offset. Positions in different commodities must not be offset unless:
- (a) the positions are deliverable against each other; or
- (b) the positions are in commodities which are close substitutes for each other and a minimum correlation between price movements of 0.9 can be clearly established over at least the preceding year.
(4) An Islamic Bank must not use the correlation-based offsetting mentioned in paragraph (b) unless the AFSA has, in writing, allowed an Islamic Bank to use it.
8.31. Measuring net positions
An Islamic Bank must first state each commodity position (spot plus forward) in terms of the standard unit of measurement for the commodity (such as barrels, kilos or grams). An Islamic Bank must then convert the net position in each commodity into US Dollar at the current spot market exchange rates.
8.32. What to include in commodities risk
(1) In calculating the Capital charge for commodities risk, an Islamic Bank must include commodity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments and off-balance-sheet positions that are affected by changes in commodity prices (such commodity swaps). An Islamic Bank must include commodities risk arising from salam contracts.
(2) Options on commodities for which the options risk is measured using the delta-plus method must also be included (with their underlying assets). Options for which the options risk is measured using the simplified approach must be excluded.
(3) An Islamic Bank must convert commodity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments into notional commodities positions and assign them to maturities under rule 8.33.
8.33. Assigning notional positions to maturities
Binding unilateral promises relating to a particular commodity must be included in the measurement of commodities risk as notional amounts in terms of the standard unit of measurement multiplied by the spot price of the commodity.
8.34. Capital charges—simplified approach
(1) The Capital charge for commodities risk of an Islamic Bank is the sum of:
- (a) 15% on an Islamic Bank’s overall net position, long or short, in each commodity; and
- (b) 3% on an Islamic Bank’s gross position in each commodity.
(2) Gross position, of a firm in a commodity, is the sum of the absolute values of all short positions and all long positions of an Islamic Bank, regardless of maturity.
(3) An Islamic Bank must use the current spot price to calculate its gross position in commodity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments.
8.35. Relation to market risk
In measuring its market risk, an Islamic Bank must include the risk of holding assets in inventory with a view to reselling them under a murabahah contract or for leasing them under an ijarah contract (inventory risk).
8.36. Measuring inventory risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must use the simplified approach to measure inventory risk.
(2) The Capital charge for inventory risk of an Islamic Bank is 15% of the value of the assets held by an Islamic Bank in inventory with a view to resale or lease.
8.37. Equity position risk
(1) In measuring its market risk, an Islamic Bank must include the risk of holding or taking positions in equities (equity position risk).
(2) If equities are to be received or delivered under a binding unilateral promise, an Islamic Bank must report any foreign currency or profit rate exposure from the other leg of the contract in accordance with Rules for currency exposures or the Rules addressing profit rate exposures, as the case requires.
(3) If an Islamic Bank is exposed to profit rate risk on equity positions, an Islamic Bank must include the relevant profit rate positions in the calculation of profit rate risk in the trading book.
8.38. Measuring equity position risk
(1) The measurement of equity position risk in the trading book applies to short and long positions in all instruments that exhibit market behaviour similar to equities.
Examples of instruments with equity-like behaviour
- (ii) investments in Islamic collective investment schemes
- (iii) convertible securities and commitments to buy or sell equity securities
- (iv) convertible bonds that trade like equities.
(i) common shares (whether voting or non-voting)
(2) An Islamic Bank may report short and long positions in instruments relating to the same issuer on a net basis.
(3) An Islamic Bank must calculate the long or short position in the equity market on a marketby-market basis. That is, an Islamic Bank must make a separate Capital calculation for each exchange in which it holds equities (whether or not a recognised exchange).
8.39. What to include in equity position risk
(1) In calculating the Capital charge for equity position risk, an Islamic Bank must include equity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments and off-balance-sheet positions that are affected by changes in equity prices.
(2) To calculate the charges for equity position risk for equity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments and other off-balance-sheet positions, an Islamic Bank must convert positions into notional equity positions, so that:
- (a) equity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments and off-balance-sheet positions relating to individual equities are reported at current market prices;
- (b) equity Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments and off-balance-sheet positions relating to stock indices are reported as the mark-to-market value of the notional underlying equity portfolio; and
- (c) equity swaps are treated as 2 notional positions.
8.40. Charges for specific and general risks
(1) The Capital charge for equity position risk consists of 2 separately calculated charges:
- (a) a charge for the specific risk of holding a long or short position in an individual equity; and
- (b) a charge for the general risk of holding a long or short position in the market as a whole.
(2) The Capital charge for specific risk is 8% on the gross position of an Islamic Bank in equities listed on a recognised exchange and 12% on the gross position of an Islamic Bank in other equities. Gross position, of a firm in an equity market, is the sum of the absolute values of all short equity positions and all long equity positions of an Islamic Bank.
(3) The Capital charge for general risk is 8% on the net position of an Islamic Bank. Net position, of a firm in an equity market, is the difference between long equity positions and short equity positions of an Islamic Bank.
(4) Equity position is the net of short and long exposures to an individual company. It is measured on the gross position across the company (rather than individual transactions).
8.41. Offsetting positions
(1) If an Islamic Bank takes a position in depository receipts against an opposite position in the underlying equity (whether or not listed in the same country where the receipts were issued), it may offset the positions only if any costs on conversion are taken into account in full.
(2) An Islamic Bank may offset matched positions in an identical equity or stock index in each market, resulting in a single net long or short position to which the specific and general risk Capital charges are to be applied. For this purpose, a future in an equity may be offset against an opposite physical position in the same equity.
8.42. Charges for index contracts
(1) For an index contract on an index that an Islamic Bank considers diversified, an Islamic Bank must apply a general risk Capital charge of 8%, and a specific risk Capital charge of 2%, to the net long or short position in the contract.
(2) For any other index contract, an Islamic Bank must apply a general risk Capital charge of 8%, and a specific risk Capital charge of 4%, to the net long or short position in the contract.
(3) If required to do so by the AFSA, an Islamic Bank must demonstrate why it considers an index to be a diversified index.
Guidance
An Islamic Bank should test diversification against the following criteria used by the European Banking Authority:
- (ii) None of the equities must significantly influence the volatility of the index. Equities must not represent more than a certain percentage of the total index value.
- (iii) The index must have equities diversified from a geographical perspective.
- (iv) The index must represent equities that are diversified from an economic perspective. Different ‘industries’ must be represented in the index.
(i) The index must have a minimum number of equities. There must be an absolute threshold below which the index cannot be considered sufficiently diversified to ignore the specific risk completely.
8.43. Profit rate risk in the trading book
In measuring its market risk, an Islamic Bank must include the risk of holding or taking positions in sukuk and other Shari’ah-compliant debt securities and profit-rate-related instruments that are held in the trading book (profit rate risk in the trading book).
8.44. What to include in profit rate risk
(1) The measurement of profit rate risk in the trading book applies to all fixed-rate and floating-rate debt securities and other profit-rate related instruments that exhibit market behaviour similar to debt securities.
Examples
- (ii) non-convertible preference shares
- (iii) convertible sukuk that trade like debt securities.
(i) fixed-rate and floating-rate sukuk
(2) A debt security that is the subject of a repurchase or securities lending agreement is taken to be owned by the lender of the security.
(3) In calculating the Capital charge for profit rate risk in the trading book, an Islamic Bank must include profit rate exposures arising from binding unilateral promises in foreign exchange transactions and forward sales and purchases of commodities and equities.
(4) An Islamic Bank must also include any profit rate exposures arising from foreign exchange, commodity and equity positions.
8.45. Capital charge—profit rate risk
The Capital charge for profit rate risk in the trading book consists of 2 separately calculated charges:
- (a) a charge for the specific risk of holding a long or short position in an individual instrument; and
- (b) a charge for the general risk of holding a long or short position in the market as a whole.
Guidance
The Capital charge for general risk is for the risk of loss arising from changes in market profit rates.
8.46. Calculating specific risk Capital charge
(1) The Capital charge for specific risk arising from an on-balance-sheet or off-balance-sheet profit-rate position held in an Islamic Bank’s trading book is calculated by multiplying the market value of the debt security by the applicable charge set out in column 5 of table 8.46 A for the category and residual maturity of the instrument.
(2) An Islamic Bank can only offset matched long and short positions (including positions in Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments) in identical instruments with exactly the same issuer, profit rate, currency and maturity.
Table 8.46 A Specific risk Capital charges
Item | Category | External Credit Rating | Residual Maturity | Specific Risk Capital Charge % |
1 | government | AAA to AA- | 0.00 | |
A+ to BBB- | 6 months or less more than 6 months and up to and including 24 months more than 24 months | 0.25 1.00 1.60 | ||
BB+ to B- or unrated | 8.00 | |||
Below B- | 12.00 | |||
2 | qualifying | 6 months or less more than 6 months and up to and including 24 months more than 24 months | 0.25 1.00 1.60 | |
3 | other | BB+ to BB- or unrated Below BB- | 8.00 12.00 |
(3) In column 2 of table 8.46 A: government, as a category, includes all forms of government paper such as bonds, treasury bills and other short-term instruments. qualifying, as a category, includes:
- (a) securities issued by public sector enterprises and multilateral development banks;
- (b) instruments rated investment grade by at least 2 ECRAs;
- (c) instruments rated investment grade by 1 ECRA and 1 other credit rating agency that is not an ECRA; and
- (d) unrated instruments, but only if:
- (i) an Islamic Bank has no reason to suspect that the particular instrument would have a rating less than investment grade if it were rated; and
- (ii) the issuer of the instrument is rated investment grade and is regulated in its home jurisdiction in a way comparable to deposit-takers in the AIFC. other, as a category, includes:
- (a) instruments issued or fully guaranteed by the central government or central bank of a state that is a member of the OECD;
- (b) instruments fully collateralised by instruments described in paragraph (a); and
- (c) instruments issued or fully guaranteed by the central government or central bankof a state that is not a member of the OECD, but only if:
- (i) the instruments have a residual maturity of 1 year or less;
- (ii) the instruments are denominated in the local currency of the issuer; and
- (iii) an Islamic Bank’s holdings in such instruments are funded by liabilities in the same currency.
(4) In column 3 of table 8.46 A, external credit rating means a long-term rating issued by an ECRA for the purpose of risk-weighting claims on rated counterparties and exposures.
Guidance
Financial instruments issued by Kazakhstan (whether denominated in Kazakhstani tenge or not), or by other member states of the GCC, are risk-weighted at zero per cent. In deciding whether an issuer is regulated in a comparable way, an Islamic Bank must look, in particular, at the home jurisdiction’s risk-based Capital requirements and consolidated supervision.
8.47. Instruments that have no specific risk Capital charge
(1) Profit rate swaps, cross-currency swaps and binding unilateral promises in foreign exchange transactions are exempt from specific risk Capital charges. However, a specific risk Capital charge must be calculated if the underlying is a debt security or an index representing a basket of debt securities.
(2) Forward contracts and binding unilateral promises (other than those in foreign exchange transactions) are exempt from specific risk Capital charges if:
- (a) the Islamic Bank has a right to substitute cash settlement for physical delivery under the contract; and
- (b) the price on settlement is calculated with reference to a general market price indicator.
(3) A contract or promise that is exempt under (2) above must not be offset against specific securities (including those securities that make up the market index).
8.48. Measuring general risk
(1) General risk is measured using the maturity method. In that method, positions are allocated to a maturity ladder before the Capital charge is calculated.
(2) An Islamic Bank must add the absolute values of the individual net positions within each time band, whether long or short. The sum of the absolute values is an Islamic Bank’s gross position.
8.49. Maturity method
(1) In the maturity method, long or short positions in debt securities, Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments and other sources of profit rate exposures are allocated to the time bands in table 8.50 A (and then to the zones in table 8.50 B) based on residual maturity and profit rate.
(2) An Islamic Bank must allocate:
- (a) positions in fixed-rate instruments according to their residual term to maturity; and
- (b) positions in floating-rate instruments according to the residual term to the next repricing date.
(3) An Islamic Bank may offset:
(a) long and short positions (whether actual or notional) in identical instruments with exactly the same issuer, profit rate, currency and maturity; and
(b) matched swaps and binding unilateral promises that satisfy the criteria in Rule 8.55.
8.50. Steps in calculating general risk Capital charge
The steps to calculate the general risk Capital charge are:
Step 1
Weight the positions in each time band by the risk factor corresponding to those positions in table 8.50 A.
Table 8.50 A Time Bands and risk factors
Item | Time Band | Risk Factor % | Assumed Changes In Yield, % |
1 | 1 month or less | 0.00 | 1.00 |
2 | more than 1 and up to 3 months | 0.20 | 1.00 |
3 | more than 3 and up to 6 months | 0.40 | 1.00 |
4 | more than 6 and up to 12 months | 0.70 | 1.00 |
5 | more than 1 and up to 2 years | 1.25 | 0.90 |
6 | more than 2 and up to 3 years | 1.75 | 0.80 |
7 | more than 3 and up to 4 years | 2.25 | 0.75 |
8 | more than 4 and up to 5 years | 2.75 | 0.75 |
9 | more than 5 and up to 7 years | 3.25 | 0.70 |
10 | more than 7 and up to 10 years | 3.75 | 0.65 |
11 | more than 10 and up to 15 years | 4.50 | 0.60 |
12 | more than 15 years and up to 20 years | 5.25 | 0.60 |
13 | more than 20 years | 6.00 | 0.60 |
Step 2
Offset the weighted long and short positions within each time band.
Example
If the sum of the weighted long positions in a time band is KZT100 million and the sum of the weighted short positions in the band is KZT90 million, you offset the positions to come up with a matched position of KZT90 million and unmatched position of KZT10 million.
Step 3
For each time band, apply a 10% Capital charge (vertical disallowance) on the matched position calculated in step 2.
Example
Continuing on from the example in step 2, apply the 10% on the KZT90 million matched position to come up with a KZT9 million vertical disallowance for the time band.
Step 4
For the unmatched positions calculated in step 2, carry out 2 further rounds of offsetting using the zones (made up of time bands) in table 8.50 B and apply the appropriate Capital charge, as follows:
(a) first between the remaining unmatched positions within each of 3 zones and subject to a charge (expressed as a percentage) as follows:
- (i) matched weighted positions within zone 1 x 40%;
- (ii) matched weighted positions within zone 2 x 30%;
- (iii) matched weighted positions within zone 3 x 30%;
(b) subsequently between the remaining unmatched positions across the 3 different zones (in the order set out below) and subject to a Capital charge as follows:
- (i) matched weighted positions between zones 1 and 2 x 40%;
- (ii) matched weighted positions between zones 2 and 3 x 40%;
- (iii) matched weighted positions between zones 1 and 3 x 100%.
The absolute value of the net amount remaining is the net position.
Table 8.50 B Zones for profit rate
Item | Zone | Time Bands |
1 | zone 1 | 0 – 1 month 1 – 3 months 3 – 6 months 6 – 12 months |
2 | zone 2 | 1 – 2 years 2 – 3 years 3 – 4 years |
3 | zone 3 | 4 – 5 years 5 – 7 years 7 – 10 years 10 – 15 years 15 – 20 years more than 20 years |
Step 5
Calculate the horizontal allowance by adding the charges from paragraphs (a) and (b) of step 4.
Step 6
Calculate the general risk Capital charge as the sum of:
- (a) the net position calculated from steps 1 to 4;
- (b) the vertical disallowance from step 3;
- (c) the horizontal disallowance from steps 4 and 5; and
- (d) the net charge for positions in options, where appropriate, calculated in accordance with Rule 8.19.
8.51. Positions in currencies
(1) An Islamic Bank must use separate maturity ladders for positions in each currency, with Capital charges calculated separately for each currency and then summed. Positions in different currencies are not to be offset.
(2) If an Islamic Bank’s position in a currency is less than 5% of the value of an Islamic Bank’s banking book assets, that currency is taken to be a residual currency and an Islamic Bank may use a single maturity ladder for all residual currencies (instead of having to use separate maturity ladders for each currency). An Islamic Bank must enter, into each appropriate time band, the net long or short position for residual currencies.
(3) An Islamic Bank must apply, with no further offsets, the risk factor in column 3 of table 8.50 A to the position in each time band for residual currencies.
8.52. Binding unilateral promises
(1) An Islamic Bank must treat a binding unilateral promise on bank or corporate debt as a long position or a short position in the underlying debt security. A binding unilateral promise that is not on bank or corporate debt must be treated as a long position or a short position in a notional government security.
(2) If a range of instruments may be delivered to fulfil a contract, an Islamic Bank may choose the deliverable security to be allocated to the maturity ladder. An Islamic Bank must, however, take account of any conversion factor specified by the exchange where the instrument must be delivered.
8.53. Swaps
(1) An Islamic Bank must treat a swap as 2 notional positions in government securities with maturities. Both legs of the swap must be reported at their market values.
(2) For swaps that pay or receive a fixed or floating profit rate against some other reference price (for example, a stock index), an Islamic Bank must:
- a) enter the profit rate component into the appropriate maturity category; and
- (b) include any equity component in the measurement of equity risk.
(3) Each leg of a cross-currency swap must be reported in the maturity ladder for the currency concerned. The Capital charge for any foreign exchange risk arising from the swaps must be calculated in accordance with Rules 8.14 to 8.17.
8.54. Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments
(1) In the measurement of profit rate risk in the trading book, an Islamic Bank must include profit rate Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments and off-balance-sheet instruments in the trading book if those instruments react to changes in profit rates.
(2) An Islamic Bank must convert Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments into positions in the relevant underlying to enable an Islamic Bank to calculate specific and general risk Capital charges. To determine the Capital charges, the value of the positions must be the market value of the underlying or notional underlying.
(3) Positions in Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments are subject to charges for general risk in the same way as cash positions. However, matched positions are exempt from the charges if the positions satisfy the criteria in rule 8.55 or 8.56.
(4) Positions in Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments must be allocated to a maturity ladder and treated in accordance with this rule and the maturity method.
8.55. Criteria for matching Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument positions
(1) An Islamic Bank may offset a matched position in Shari’ah-compliant hedging instruments if the positions relate to the same underlying instruments, have the same nominal value and are denominated in the same currency.
(2) For swaps and binding unilateral promises:
- (a) the reference rate (for floating-rate positions) must be identical and the profit rate must differ by no more than 15 basis points; and
- (b) the next profit-fixing date (or, for fixed-profit-rate positions or binding unilateral promises, the residual maturity) must comply with the following requirements:
- (ii) if either instrument has a profit-fixing date or residual maturity more than 1 month, but no more than 1 year, in the future, the dates or residual maturities must be within 7 days of each other;
- (iii) if either instrument has a profit-fixing date or residual maturity more than 1 year in the future, the dates or residual maturities must be within 30 days of each other.
(i) if either instrument has a profit-fixing date or residual maturity up to and including 1 month in the future, the dates or residual maturities must be the same for both instruments;
(3) An Islamic Bank that writes options may offset the delta-equivalent values of options (including the delta-equivalent value of legs arising out of the treatment of caps and floors in accordance with delta-plus method in Rule 8.24).
(4) However, for offsetting between a matched position in a binding unilateral promise and its underlying, Rule 8.56 applies.
8.56. Criteria for offsetting Shari’ah-compliant hedging instrument positions
(1) An Islamic Bank may offset long and short positions (whether actual or notional) in identical instruments with exactly the same issuer, profit rate, currency and maturity.
(2) An Islamic Bank may offset a matched position in a binding unilateral promise and its corresponding underlying. The net position must be reported.
(3) An Islamic Bank may offset positions in a binding unilateral promise with a range of deliverable instruments and the corresponding underlying only if:
- (a) there is a readily identifiable underlying security; and
- (b) the price of that security and the price of the binding unilateral promise move in close alignment.
(4) An Islamic Bank must treat each leg of a cross-currency swap or binding unilateral promise in foreign exchange transaction as a notional position in the relevant instrument, and must include the position in the calculation for each currency.
8.57. Market risk Capital charges for Islamic financial contracts
This section describes and sets out the market risk Capital charges applicable to the main types of Islamic Financial Contracts typically employed by Islamic Banks across the world.
8.58. Treatment of murabahah and related contracts
(1) An Islamic Bank is exposed to market risk under a murabahah contract when the asset is available for sale and on firm’s balance sheet.
(2) The Capital charge for a murabahah contract is 15% on the position. There is no Capital charge for a binding MPO contract or a CMT.
Guidance
In the case of a CMT where an Islamic Bank holds on to the commodity for a longer period than normal (for example, following the customer’s refusal to honour its commitment to buy) the commodity is subject to a Capital charge of 15%.
8.59. Treatment of bai bithaman ajil
The Capital charge for a bai bithaman ajil contract is 15% on the position. There is no Capital charge for a commodity bai bithaman ajil.
8.60. Treatment of salam and related contracts
Under a salam contract, an Islamic Bank is exposed to market risk after an Islamic Bank has paid the purchase price to the seller and before the purchased commodity is sold and delivered to a buyer.
Table 10.7.4AMarket risk Capital charge for salam without parallel salam
Stage of contract | Capital charge |
firm has paid purchase price to salam customer (seller) | 15% on the long position of salam exposures |
firm has received purchased commodity but has not sold and delivered the commodity to a buyer |
Table 10.7.4BMarket risk Capital charge for salam with parallel salam
Stage of contract | Capital charge |
firm has paid purchase price to salam customer (seller) | 15% on the net position (that is, after netting of salam exposures against parallel salam exposures) plus 3% on the gross position (that is, the sum of the salam exposures and parallel salam exposures) |
firm has received purchased commodity but has not sold and delivered the commodity to a buyer Note: The parallel salam does not extinguish the requirement for capital from the first salam contract. |
8.61. Treatment of istisna without parallel istisna
(1) If an Islamic Bank is the seller under an istisna without parallel istisna contract, an Islamic Bank is exposed to market risk when there is unbilled work-in-process inventory. The Capital charge for the contract is 1.6% of an Islamic Bank’s unbilled work-in-process inventory.
(2) If an Islamic Bank is the buyer under an istisna without parallel istisna contract, an Islamic Bank is exposed to market risk as it makes progress payments to the supplier. The Capital charge for the contract is 15% of the work-in-process inventory.
8.62. Treatment of istisna with parallel istisna
(1) There is no Capital charge for an istisna with parallel istisna contract if there is no provision in the parallel istisna contract that allows the seller to increase or vary the selling price. Also, there is no Capital charge if there is a written undertaking given to an Islamic Bank that the contractor’s performance (including work-in-process) is the responsibility of the ultimate customer.
(2) However, there is a Capital charge of 1.6% of an Islamic Bank’s unbilled work-in-process inventory if:
- (a) there is a provision in the parallel istisna contract that allows the seller to increase or vary the selling price; or
- (b) there is no written undertaking that the contractor’s performance is the responsibility of the ultimate customer.
8.63. Treatment of ijarah and related contracts
(1) For an operating ijarah, an Islamic Bank is exposed to market risk (from possible fluctuations in the price of the asset) and is subject to Capital charges as follows:
(a) 8% of the residual value of the asset during the lease;
(b) 15% of the carrying value of the asset after the expiry of the lease contract until the asset is re-leased or disposed of.
(2) There is no Capital charge for an IMB contract or any other ijarah contract.
8.64. Treatment of diminishing musharakah
(1) The Capital charge for a diminishing musharakah contract depends on the category of the enterprise or asset to which the contract relates.
(2) If the contract is in relation to a private commercial enterprise to undertake trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities, the Capital charge depends on the underlying asset as set out in this chapter.
(3) If the contract is in relation to a joint ownership of real estate or movable assets through musharakah with murabahah subcontract, the Capital charge is 15% (that is, the charge for the murabahah subcontract, as set out in Rule 8.58).
(4) If the contract is in relation to a joint ownership of real estate or movable assets through musharakah with ijarah subcontract, the Capital charge is 8% or 15% (that is, the charge for the ijarah subcontract, as set out in Rule 8.63).
8.65. Treatment of mudarabah
(1) The Capital charge for a mudarabah contract depends on the category of the enterprise or asset to which the contract relates.
(2) If the contract is in relation to a private commercial enterprise to undertake trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities, the Capital charge depends on the underlying asset as set out in this chapter.
(3) If the contract is in relation to a placement in the interbank market, there is no Capital charge except if the funds are invested in foreign exchange. The Capital charge for a mudarabah contract where the funds are invested in foreign exchange is that calculated in accordance with Rule 8.14 (foreign exchange risk).
8.66. Treatment of qardh
There is no Capital charge for a qardh contract except if the loan is provided in a foreign currency or in the form of a commodity. For qardh-based financing in a foreign currency or commodity, the Capital charge is that calculated in accordance with Rule 8.14 (foreign exchange risk) or Rule 8.29 (commodities risk), as the case requires.
8.67. Treatment of wakalah
(1) If a wakalah contract is in relation to a private commercial enterprise to undertake trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities, the Capital charge depends on the underlying asset as set out in this chapter.
(2) If the contract is in relation to a placement in the interbank market, there is no Capital charge except if the funds are invested in foreign exchange. The Capital charge for a wakalah contract where the funds are invested in foreign exchange is that calculated in accordance with Rule 8.14 (foreign exchange risk).
9. OPERATIONAL RISK
9.1. General
(1) Rules 9.1 to 9.9 of this Chapter sets out the requirements for an Islamic Bank’s operational risk management policy to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate operational risk. Part 11.4 gives guidance on operational risk as it relates to Islamic financial contracts.
(2) Operational risk is the risk resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events. It can be classified into general risk, Shari’ah noncompliance risk and legal risk.
(3) Operational risk does not include strategic risk and reputational risk.
(4) Part of an Islamic Bank’s general operational risk arises from banking operations that are common to all financial institutions. For example, an Islamic Bank must ensure that its critical payments are made promptly in order to avoid systemic disruptions to other payment systems and money markets.
(5) The other part arises from the asset-backed nature of its financial products. For example, murabahah, salam, istisna and ijarah may give rise to additional forms of operational risk in contract drafting and execution.
Guidance
Although the operational risk that could arise for Islamic Banks can be considered similar to that of conventional banks, the characteristics of such risk may be different, thus:
(a) Shari’ah-compliant products may involve processing steps different from those of their conventional counterparts
(b) the assets held on the balance sheets of Islamic Banks (physical assets and real estate) are different from those of conventional banks
(c) the requirements of Shari’ah-compliance result in different risks relating to information technology products and systems.
9.2. Operational risk—Shari’ah non-compliance
(1) Shari’ah non-compliance risk, of an Islamic Bank, is the risk of non-compliance resulting from the failure of an Islamic Bank’s Shari’ah compliance policy to ensure that Shari’ah rules and principles (as determined by its Shari’ah supervisory board) are complied with.
(2) The risk can lead to non-recognition of an Islamic Bank’s income, and resultant losses. For sukuk, the risk may adversely affect the marketability (and, therefore, the value) of the sukuk.
(3) Shari’ah non-compliance risk can take 2 forms:
(a) the risk relating to potential non-compliance with Shari’ah rules and principles in an Islamic Bank’s operations, including the risk that non permissible income is recognised; and
(b) the risk relating to an Islamic Bank’s fiduciary responsibilities as mudarib towards fund providers under a mudarabah contract, according to which, in the case of negligence, misconduct, fraud or breach of contract by the mudarib, the funds provided by the fund providers become a liability of the mudarib.
9.3. Operational risk—legal
(1) Legal risk, of an Islamic Bank, includes exposures to fines, penalties or punitive damages resulting from supervisory actions as well as private settlements.
(2) The risk can arise from:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s operations (that is, from legal risks common to all financial institutions); or
- (b) problems of legal uncertainty in interpreting and enforcing contracts based on Shari’ah.
(3) Legal risk also includes the risk that sukuk in which an Islamic Bank is the originator, sponsor or manager fail to perform as intended because of a legal deficiency.
9.4. Role of governing body—operational risk
(1) An Islamic Bank’s governing body must ensure that an Islamic Bank’s operational risk management policy addresses, on a firm-wide basis, all the major aspects of operational risk in an Islamic Bank’s business.
(2) In particular, the governing body must ensure that a Shari’ah governance mechanism is incorporated into an Islamic Bank’s operational risk management policy and that there is appropriate cooperation and communication between an Islamic Bank’s risk management function, governing body and the Shari’ah supervisory board.
9.5. Powers of the AFSA
Despite anything in these rules, if the AFSA identifies points of exposure or vulnerability to operational risk that are common to 2 or more Islamic Banks, it may impose specific Capital requirements or limits on each affected firm.
Examples
- (ii) severe disruption to providers of payment and settlement services
(i) outsourcing of important operations by many Islamic Banks to a single provider
9.6. Policies—compliance with Shari’ah
An Islamic Bank must establish and implement policies to ensure that its business is conducted in accordance with Shari’ah. The policies must include effective and comprehensive procedures so that an Islamic Bank complies with:
- (a) Shari’ah (in general and in relation to the requirements for Islamic financial contracts); and
- (b) the fatwas, rulings and guidelines issued by its Shari’ah supervisory board.
9.7. Policies—business continuity
(1) An Islamic bank’s operational risk management policy must include effective and comprehensive procedures for disaster recovery and business continuity.
(2) An Islamic Bank must have a business continuity plan for possible scenarios of severe business disruption. The plan must provide for an Islamic Bank to continue to operate as a going concern, and to minimise losses (especially those from disturbances to payment and settlement systems), in those scenarios.
9.8. Policies—information infrastructure
(1) An Islamic Bank must establish and implement appropriate information technology policies for the accurate and timely identification, measurement, evaluation, management and control or mitigation of operational risk. In particular, the policies must enable an Islamic Bank to maintain an adequate and sound information infrastructure:
(a) that meets an Islamic Bank’s current and projected requirements (under normal circumstances and in times of stress);
(b) that ensures that the data, and the system itself, remain secure and available; and
(c) that supports integrated and comprehensive risk management.
(2) An Islamic Bank’s information infrastructure must enable an Islamic Bank to compile and analyse operational risk data, and must facilitate reporting to an Islamic Bank’s governing body and senior management and the AFSA.
(3) An Islamic Bank must have appropriate reporting procedures to keep the AFSA informed of developments affecting operational risk at an Islamic Bank.
9.9. Policies—outsourcing
(1) An Islamic Bank must establish appropriate policies to assess, manage and monitor outsourced activities. The management of those activities must include:
- (a) carrying out due diligence for selecting service providers;
- (b) structuring outsourcing arrangements;
- (c) managing and reporting the risks associated with an outsourcing;
- (d) ensuring effective control over an outsourcing; and
- (e) contingency planning.
(2) The outsourcing policies must require an Islamic Bank to have comprehensive contracts and service level agreements. The contract and agreements must clearly state the allocation of responsibilities between service providers and an Islamic Bank.
9.10. Operational risk Capital requirement - Basic indicator approach
(1) An Islamic Bank must use the basic indicator approach to operational risk. Operational risk Capital requirement is the amount of Capital that an Islamic Bank must have to cover its operational risk.
(2) An Islamic Bank’s operational risk Capital requirement is calculated in accordance with the following formula:
where:
GI is an Islamic Bank’s average annual gross income (as defined in sub-rule (3) below) for those years (out of the previous 3 years) for which an Islamic Bank’s annual gross income is more than zero. α is 15% or a higher percentage set by the AFSA. n is the number of years out of the previous 3 years for which an Islamic Bank’s gross income is more than zero.
(3) Gross income, for a year, means the total of the following income for the year:
- (a) net income from financing activities, which is gross of provisions, operating expenses and depreciation of ijarah assets;
- (b) net income from investment activities, which includes an Islamic Bank’s share of profit from mudarabah and musharakah;
- (c) fee income, which includes commissions and agency fees; less an Islamic Bank’s share in income attributable to IAHs and other account holders.
(4) Gross income excludes:
- (a) realised profits from the sale of securities in the banking book;
- (b) realised profits from securities in the ‘Held to Maturity’ category in the banking book;
- (c) extraordinary or irregular items of income;
- (d) income derived from insurance;
- (e) any collection from previously written-off loans; and
- (f) income obtained from the disposal of real estate and other assets during the year.
Guidance
Because of the definitions of GI and n, figures for any year in which the annual gross income of a firm is negative or zero must be excluded from both the numerator and denominator when calculating the average.
9.11. Operational risks relating to Islamic financial contracts
An Islamic bank’s failure to comply with the requirements, or any lack of precision in contract documentation, may give rise to Shari’ah non-compliance risk.
9.12. Requirements for murabahah and ijarah contracts
(1) The asset is in existence at the time of sale or lease or, in the case of ijarah, the lease contract is preceded by acquisition of the usufruct of that asset (except if the asset was agreed upon based on a general specification).
(2) The asset is in the legal and constructive possession of the Islamic Bank when it is offered for sale or lease.
(3) The asset is intended to be used by the buyer or lessee for activities or businesses permissible by Shari’ah. If the asset is leased back to its owner in the first lease period, it does not lead to a contract of ’inah.
Guidance
An ’inah (also called bay ’inah or bay-al inah) is a double sale by which the borrower and the lender sell and then resell an asset between them, once for cash and once for a higher price whose payment is deferred. The net result is a loan with interest and, as such, is prohibited by the majority of Shari’ah scholars.
(4) There is no late payment penalty fee or increase in price in exchange for extending or rescheduling the date of payment of accounts receivable or lease receivable, irrespective of whether the obligor is solvent or insolvent.
9.13. Requirements for salam and istisna contracts
(1) Sale and purchase contracts cannot be interdependent and interconditional on each other (such as salam and parallel salam, or istisna and parallel istisna).
(2) The is no penalty clause for delay in the delivery of a commodity that is purchased under a salam contract. However, such a penalty clause is allowed under istisna and parallel istisna.
Guidance
An essential characteristic of a salam or istisna contract is that the subject matter does not, and is not required to, exist physically when the parties enter into the contract.
9.14. Requirements for mudarabah and musharakah contracts
(1) The Capital of the Islamic Bank should be invested in Shari’ah-compliant investments or business activities.
(2) A partner in musharakah cannot guarantee the Capital of another partner, nor may the mudarib guarantee the Capital of the mudarabah.
(3) The purchase price of another partner’s share in a musharakah with a binding promise to purchase can only be set at market value or according to an agreement entered into at the time the contract became binding. However, the agreement should not stipulate that the share be purchased at its nominal value based on the Capital originally contributed.
9.15. Operational risks—murabahah
(1) At the time the murabahah contract becomes binding, it is required that an Islamic Bank has purchased the asset and had it in its legal or constructive possession before selling it to the customer. Therefore, an Islamic Bank should ensure that the legal characteristics of the contract properly match the commercial intent of the transactions.
(2) If the mudarabah customer acts as the agent of an Islamic Bank for purchasing the asset, title to the asset should first pass to an Islamic Bank and not directly to the customer.
9.16. Operational risks—salam
(1) This rule sets out the operational risks that may arise when an Islamic Bank purchases from a customer, under a salam contract, goods against advanced payment.
(2) If the underlying goods are agricultural commodities and the goods delivered are of an inferior quality to that specified in the contract, the Islamic Bank (as buyer) should:
- (a) reject the goods; or
- (b) accept them at the originally agreed price.
In the latter case, an Islamic Bank may suffer loss if it sells the goods at a lower price than would have been obtained for those specified in the contract.
(3) The underlying goods may be delivered by the customer before the agreed date. If the goods delivered meet the contract specifications, the Islamic Bank (as buyer):
- (a) normally has to accept the goods before the agreed delivery date; and
- (b) may incur additional costs for storage, takaful cover and deterioration (if the goods are perishable) before the goods are resold.
(4) An Islamic Bank may face legal risk if the goods in a parallel salam cannot be delivered to the parallel salam buyer because of:
- (a) late delivery by the salam seller (the customer); or
- (b) delay by an Islamic Bank itself.
For legal risk not to arise in such a case, the parallel salam buyer will have to agree to change the delivery date of the goods.
Guidance
In case of a parallel salam, however, the buyer of the commodity from the Islamic Bank may (but is not obliged to) agree to accept the goods at the contract price. In such a case, an Islamic Bank does not suffer any loss of profit.
9.17. Operational risks—istisna
(1) In the case of istisna with parallel istisna, an Islamic Bank contracts to deliver a constructed or manufactured asset and enters into a contract with a subcontractor to construct or manufacture the asset.
(2) The reliance of an Islamic Bank on the subcontractor can expose it to various operational risks such as those set out in (3) to (6) below. These risks need to be managed by a combination of:
- (a) legal precautions;
- (b) due diligence in choosing subcontractors; and
- (c) selection of suitably qualified consultants and staff to carry out the contract with the subcontractor and, ultimately, deliver the constructed or manufactured asset to the customer.
(3) In case of late delivery by the subcontractor, an Islamic Bank may be unable to deliver the asset to the ultimate customer on the agreed date, and can, therefore, be subject to penalties for late delivery.
(4) In case of cost overruns during the construction or manufacturing process (because of increases in the prices of raw materials, increases in manufacturing or production costs or delays by the subcontractor), additional costs may have to be absorbed wholly or partly by an Islamic Bank, in the absence of an agreement in advance with the ultimate customer.
(5) If the subcontractor fails to meet quality standards or other specifications agreed with the ultimate customer, an Islamic Bank may face legal risk if no agreement is reached with the subcontractor and the ultimate customer:
- (a) for remedying the defects; or
- (b) for reducing the contract price.
(6) If the subcontractor fails to complete the asset on time, an Islamic Bank may have to find a replacement from the market and can, therefore, be subject to additional costs.
9.18. Operational risks—ijarah and IMB contracts
(1) In an ijarah or IMB contract, an Islamic Bank (as lessor) may face, during the period of lease, the operational risks set out in this rule.
(2) The ultimate use of the ijarah asset should be Shari’ah-compliant. Otherwise, an Islamic Bank will be exposed to non-recognition of the ijarah income as non-permissible, and an Islamic Bank will be required to repossess the asset and find a new lessee.
(3) If the lessee damages the asset in its possession and refuses to pay for the damage, an Islamic Bank will have to repossess the asset and take legal action to cover damages. This might involve operational and litigation costs.
(4) In the event of severe damage or destruction of the asset without the fault of the lessee, an Islamic Bank (as lessor) is required to provide a replacement to the lessee. If the asset is not insured, an Islamic Bank will have to bear the cost of buying the new asset.
(5) Further, if an Islamic Bank fails to provide the lessee with a replacement, the lessee may terminate the ijarah contract without paying the rentals for the remaining period.
(6) In the event of default or misconduct by the lessee, an Islamic Bank may face legal risk in relation to the enforcement of its contractual right to repossess the asset.
9.19. Operational risks—musharakah
(1) In a musharakah contract, an Islamic Bank provides financing on the basis of a profitsharing and loss-sharing contract.
(2) An Islamic Bank may fail to carry out adequate due diligence on the customer or the financed venture.
(3) During the period of the investment, an Islamic Bank may fail to monitor the venture’s financial performance adequately or may not receive the required information from the customer.
9.20. Operational risks—mudarabah
(1) In a mudarabah contract, an Islamic Bank provides financing on the basis of a profitsharing and loss-bearing contract.
(2) An Islamic Bank’s customer (as mudarib) is not required to bear any losses, in the absence of negligence, misconduct, fraud or breach of contract on its part. The customer is required to act in a fiduciary capacity as the manager of an Islamic Bank’s funds.
(3) The absence of an Islamic Bank’s right to control the management of the enterprise as Capital provider (rabb al-mal) may give rise to operational risk.
(4) The customer may fail to provide an Islamic Bank with regular, adequate and reliable information about the financial performance of the venture.
(5) An Islamic Bank may fail to carry out adequate due diligence on the customer or the financed venture.
10. LIQUIDITY RISK
10.1. General
(1) This Chapter sets out the requirements for an Islamic bank:
- (a) to establish and implement policies to manage liquidity risk; and
- (b) to maintain an adequate level of liquidity;
in compliance with Shari’ah rules and principles and in the context of available Shari’ahcompliant instruments and markets.
(2) This chapter also requires an Islamic Bank to have sufficient Shari’ah-compliant resources and funding to withstand severe liquidity stress.
(3) Liquidity risk is the risk that a firm may not be able to meet its financial obligations as they fall due. Overall liquidity risk for an Islamic Bank largely depends on the mix of Shari’ahcompliant modes of financing and investment in its asset portfolio and the concentration of individual customers exposed to each type of contract.
(4) An Islamic Bank’s overall liquidity may be affected by other risks. Liquidity risk is related to group risk more than any other risk because an Islamic Bank that is a member of a group could be called on to make good on commitments and guarantees in favour of the other members of its group.
(5) Liquidity risk can be classified into funding liquidity risk and market liquidity risk. An Islamic Bank must take into account the interaction between funding and market liquidity in its analysis of liquidity risk.
10.2. Funding liquidity risk
(1) Funding liquidity risk, of an Islamic Bank, is the risk that an Islamic Bank will not be able to efficiently meet:
- (a) its expected and unexpected current and future cash flow; and
- (b) its collateral needs;
without affecting its daily operations or financial condition.
(2) Funding liquidity risk may arise because of unexpected withdrawals or transfers of funds by an Islamic Bank’s IAHs and other account holders.
(3) On the assets side, an Islamic Bank may face funding strain due to problems in its financing and investment portfolio. An Islamic Bank may also face liquidity risk because of counterparties’ operational and information system failures, or because problems in a payment and settlement system result in late payment or non-payment of funds.
Examples of problems that may lead to liquidity risk
- (ii) lack of liquid markets for holdings of sukuk and other Shari’ah-compliant instruments
- (iii) impairment of Islamic financing assets due to the financial distress of customers
- (iv) large drawdowns under committed line-of-credit agreements.
(i) fall in the value of marketable assets held for trading or in the banking book
10.3. Market liquidity risk
Market liquidity risk, of an Islamic Bank, is the risk that an Islamic Bank cannot offset or eliminate a position at the market price because of market disruption or inadequate market depth.
Guidance
i) In a period of crisis, problems with funding liquidity may lead to asset sales and may lower asset prices and affect an Islamic Bank’s market liquidity. Efforts by an Islamic Bank to sell a significant amount of its assets because of doubts about their quality and future performance can affect market liquidity by reducing the price of assets.
ii) The collapse of market liquidity is also likely when market-makers are risk-averse or lack absorption capacity. The interaction can also become significant when firms start stockpiling liquid assets because of pessimistic expectations about market conditions.
iii) Overall market confidence is an important factor in understanding the interrelationship between funding and market liquidity. Because of the lack of depth and breadth of markets for Shari’ah-compliant instruments and sukuk and the lack of sufficiently large market-makers in such instruments, funding liquidity risk is likely to be transformed into market liquidity risk in stress events, and vice versa.
10.4. Liquidity risk tolerance
(1) Liquidity risk tolerance refers to both the absolute risk that an Islamic Bank is open to take and the actual limits that an Islamic Bank pursues. An Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk tolerance must be appropriate for its business and its role in the financial system, and must be expressed in a way that clearly states that it is a trade-off between risks and profits.
(2) In approving an Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk tolerance, the governing body must ensure that the limit is commensurate with an Islamic Bank’s ability to have sufficient recourse to Shari’ah-compliant funds to mitigate liquidity risk.
Guidance
The terms ‘risk tolerance’ and ‘risk appetite’ are used interchangeably to describe both the absolute risks that a firm is open to take (which some may call risk appetite) and the actual limits within its risk appetite that a firm pursues (which some call risk tolerance). For example, an Islamic Bank may have set, as the absolute liquidity risk it is willing to take, a limit of 20% (risk tolerance) but at the same time prefer to keep to an actual level of 10% (risk appetite).
10.5. Requirements—managing liquidity and withstanding liquidity stress
(1) An Islamic Bank must manage liquidity risk; it must adopt a prudent liquidity risk management policy that allows it to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate that risk. The policy must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business and for its risk profile.
(2) An Islamic Bank must, at all times, maintain sufficient liquidity to meet its obligations as they fall due. It must also maintain a portfolio of high-quality liquid assets sufficient to enable an Islamic Bank to withstand any reasonably foreseeable liquidity stress.
(3) An Islamic Bank must maintain a robust funding strategy to ensure that its activities are, and will continue to be, funded from stable sources. It must prepare a contingency funding plan to meet liquidity shortfalls.
(4) In particular, an Islamic Bank must be able to model and monitor the contractual and behavioural profiles of its IAHs, current account holders and other fund providers. In doing so, an Islamic Bank must take account of the effects of any smoothing techniques (such as PER or IRR) that it has adopted in making profit pay outs to its IAHs.
Guidance
An Islamic bank’s liquidity management should take account of an Islamic Bank’s liquidity needs under periods of liquidity stress (including those involving the loss or impairment of funding sources, whether secured or unsecured), as well as normal conditions. The source of liquidity stress could be specific to an Islamic Bank, market-wide or a combination of both.
10.6. Future shortfalls in liquidity
An Islamic Bank must be able to identify future shortfalls in liquidity by constructing maturity ladders based on appropriate periods.
Guidance
Because of an Islamic bank’s dual role in meeting its obligations to current and murabahah accounts and managing the expectations of its IAHs, an Islamic Bank should carry out liquidity cash-flow analysis periodically under various market conditions. The analysis should state the assumptions about the repayments of invested funds to IAHs, and the extent that Capital erosion from investment losses is mitigated by IRR.
10.7. Notification about liquidity concerns
(1) An Islamic Bank must ensure that its governing body and senior management are informed immediately of new and emerging liquidity concerns.
Examples of concerns
- (ii) the lack of alternative sources of funding
- (iii) significant or persistent breaches of limits to liquidity risk exposures
- (iv) any significant decline in an Islamic Bank’s holdings of unencumbered highquality liquid assets
- (vi) significant withdrawal of deposits and PSIAs.
(i) increasing funding costs, concentrations and requirements
(v) changes in external market conditions that could signal future difficulties
(2) An Islamic Bank must notify the AFSA of any significant concerns that an Islamic Bank may have about its current or future liquidity. In particular, an Islamic Bank must immediately notify the AFSA if an Islamic Bank experiences a severe liquidity stress.
(3) The notice must describe any remedial action taken, or planned, to address the concerns or liquidity stress.
10.8. Role of governing body—liquidity risk
(1) An Islamic Bank’s governing body must ensure that an Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk management policy gives an Islamic Bank a comprehensive firm-wide view of liquidity risk, and is consistent with an Islamic Bank’s risk profile and systemic importance.
(2) The governing body must also ensure that:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s senior management and other relevant staff have the necessary experience to manage liquidity risk and to effectively implement the liquidity risk management policy;
- (b) stress-tests, funding strategies, contingency funding plans and holdings of highquality liquid assets are effective and appropriate for an Islamic Bank; and
- (c) an Islamic Bank’s senior management:
- (i) develops a liquidity risk management policy in accordance with an Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk tolerance;
- (ii) monitors an Islamic Bank’s liquidity, and reports to the governing body regularly;
- (iii) determines, and sets out in an Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk management policy, the structure, responsibilities and controls for managing liquidity risk and for overseeing the liquidity positions of all legal entities, branches and subsidiaries in the jurisdictions in which an Islamic Bank is active; and
- (iv) monitors trends and market developments that could present significant, unprecedented or complex challenges for managing liquidity risk so that appropriate and timely changes to the liquidity risk management policy can be made.
(3) The governing body must regularly review reports on an Islamic Bank’s liquidity and, where necessary, information on new or emerging liquidity risks.
(4) The governing body must approve:
- (a) its liquidity risk tolerance;
- (b) its funding strategy; and
- (c) its contingency funding plan.
10.9. Policies—liquidity risk environment
(1) An Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk management policy:
(a) must set, and must provide for the regular review of, an Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk tolerance and other quantitative and qualitative limits to liquidity risk exposures and vulnerabilities;
(b) must establish procedures, systems, processes, controls and approaches to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate its liquidity risk and to ensure the integrity of its liquidity risk management;
(c) must set out the organisational structure, and must define the responsibilities and roles, for managing liquidity risk;
(d) must describe an Islamic Bank’s approach to day-to-day (and, where appropriate, intraday) liquidity management;
(e) must specify the criteria and responsibility for reporting, and the scope, manner and frequency of reporting, to the governing body or a committee of the governing body;
(f) must establish procedures for tracking and reporting exceptions to, and deviations from, limits or policies;
(g) must include an Islamic Bank’s funding strategy and contingency funding plan;
and
(h) must establish effective information systems to enable the identification, measurement, monitoring and control of liquidity risk exposures and funding needs.
(2) The policy must enable an Islamic Bank to carry out stress-tests using various scenarios based on appropriate assumptions.
(3) The policy must take into account an Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk profile (including onbalance-sheet and off-balance-sheet risks) and tolerance in the context of the markets and macroeconomic conditions in which an Islamic Bank operates.
(4) An Islamic Bank must have specific policies on:
- (a) the composition and maturity of assets and liabilities;
- (b) the diversity and stability of funding sources; and
- (c) the approach to managing liquidity in different currencies, across borders, and across business lines and legal entities.
10.10. Funding strategy
(1) An Islamic Bank must establish, and must regularly review, strategies for the ongoing measurement and monitoring of funding requirements. An Islamic Bank must identify the main factors that affect its ability to raise funds and must monitor those factors closely to ensure that its estimates of its fund-raising capacity remain valid.
(2) An Islamic Bank’s funding strategy must take into account how other risks affect an Islamic Bank’s overall liquidity. The funding strategy must be supported by robust assumptions in line with an Islamic Bank’s liquidity risk management policy and business objectives.
(3) The strategy must include:
(a) an analysis of funding requirements under various scenarios;
(b) the maintenance of a reserve of unencumbered high-quality liquid assets that can be used, without impediment, to obtain funding in times of liquidity stress;
(c) the regular review of, and diversification in, the sources and terms of funding;
(d) regular efforts to establish and maintain relationships with liability holders and funding sources; and
(e) the regular assessment of an Islamic Bank’s capacity to sell assets and raise funds quickly.
(4) In preparing its strategy, an Islamic Bank must be aware that sources of funding such as guarantees and other commitments that are readily available to an Islamic Bank in normal conditions may not be available in times of stress, even if the guarantee or commitment is described as irrevocable.
(5) An Islamic Bank must inform the AFSA of any significant changes to an Islamic Bank’s funding strategy.
10.11. Contingency funding plan
(1) An Islamic Bank must have a written contingency funding plan that sets out the strategies for addressing a liquidity shortfall in an emergency. The plan must set out available funding sources and the amount of funds that an Islamic Bank estimates can be obtained from those sources.
(2) The contingency funding plan must be flexible enough to enable an Islamic Bank to respond quickly in various situations. It must address the issues over various periods (including intraday) and must establish clear lines of responsibility and communication.
(3) An Islamic Bank must review and update its plan every year (or more often as changing business or market circumstances require) for the governing body’s approval.
10.12. Stress-testing and liquidity risk tolerance
(1) An Islamic Bank must carry out stress-testing using various short-term and long-term firmspecific and market-wide liquidity stress scenarios, to ensure that an Islamic Bank’s exposures remain within its liquidity risk tolerance. The tests must be carried out at intervals appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business and for its risk profile.
(2) An Islamic Bank must use conservative and regularly-reviewed assumptions in stresstesting and must use the scenarios individually and in combination.
(3) An Islamic Bank must report to the AFSA, in the form that the AFSA directs, the results of its stress-testing. An Islamic Bank must use the results to adjust its positions, to review its liquidity risk management policy, and to develop effective contingency funding plans.
10.13. Firms that conduct foreign currency business
(1) This rule applies to an Islamic Bank if:
- (a) an Islamic Bank’s foreign currency business is significant; or
- (b) an Islamic Bank has significant exposure in a particular foreign currency.
(2) An Islamic Bank’s business in a currency is significant, and an Islamic Bank’s exposure in a currency is significant, if 5% or more of the gross value of its balancesheet assets, balance-sheet liabilities or off-balance-sheet financial activities is denominated in the currency.
(3) An Islamic Bank to which this rule applies must undertake separate analysis of its policies (and monitor its liquidity needs) for each significant currency.
(4) An Islamic Bank must carry out regular stress-testing to determine the extent of mismatches in each significant currency and, if appropriate, to set limits on its cash flow mismatches for each such currency and for all those currencies in total.
(5) An Islamic Bank must monitor its liquidity needs in each significant currency and must be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that it can transfer liquidity from 1 currency to another across jurisdictions and legal entities.
10.14. Management of encumbered assets
(1) An Islamic Bank must set a prudent limit for encumbered assets and must keep within that limit.
(2) An Islamic Bank must keep adequate records to enable it to disclose the level of its encumbered assets to the AFSA.
(3) An Islamic Bank must identify its needs for Shari’ah-compliant collateral over different periods, and must address any Shari’ah, legal or operational constraints on the use of such collateral.
Guidance
The limit for encumbered assets is intended to mitigate the risks arising from excessive levels of encumbrance in terms of the effect on an Islamic Bank’s cost of funding and the implications for the sustainability of its long-term liquidity position.
10.15. Consequences of breaches and changes
(1) If a liquidity risk limit is breached, an Islamic Bank must review the exposure and reduce it to a level that is within the limit.
(2) An Islamic Bank must make appropriate adjustments to the management of its liquidity risk in the light of an Islamic Bank’s changing risk profile, funding strategy, and developments in the markets and macroeconomic conditions in which it operates.
10.16. Guidance on liquidity risks arising from Islamic financial contracts
This Section gives guidance on the liquidity risks that may arise from various Islamic Financial Contracts. An Islamic Bank should look into risk transformation in these contracts during their various stages, because such transformations may directly or indirectly affect the liquidity of the contracts.
10.17. Liquidity risks—murabahah
In a murabahah contract, an Islamic Bank’s liquidity may be affected by late payment or nonpayment by the customer.
10.18. Liquidity risks—commodity murabahah
(1) An Islamic Bank may offer commodity murabahah accounts as a means of raising funds. Because raising funds in this way requires an Islamic Bank to pay back the principal and agreed share of profit to the customer on maturity, an Islamic Bank may be exposed to liquidity risk.
(2) If commodity-murabahah-based funds (which are usually short-term in nature) are used by an Islamic Bank to finance longer-term assets, a maturity mismatch will result. Such a mismatch may become acute if an Islamic Bank has a high reliance on such deposits to fund its assets.
10.19. Liquidity risks—salam
In a salam contract, the illiquidity of commodity markets and the non-permissibility of exiting the contract before delivery can give rise to liquidity risk for an Islamic Bank.
10.20. Liquidity risks—ijarah
In an ijarah contract, an Islamic Bank may be exposed to liquidity risk because of:
- (a) late payment or non-payment of instalments by the customer;
- (b) the inability to sell or lease the asset to a new customer at the end of an earlier contract; or
- (c) default by the customer.
10.21. Liquidity risks—mudarabah and musharakah
In a mudarabah or musharakah contract, an Islamic Bank may be exposed to liquidity risk because of:
- (a) late payment or non-payment of profit payments during the contract; or
- (b) non-payment by the customer of the remaining principal at the end of the contract.
10.22. Liquidity risks—PSIA
An Islamic Bank may be affected by panic withdrawals of funds by IAHs. Such withdrawals may result from rate of return risk, Shari’ah non-compliance risk or reputational risk.
10.23. Liquidity risks—qardh
An Islamic Bank may offer unremunerated current accounts on the basis of qardh, under which an Islamic Bank guarantees the nominal amount of the accounts. An Islamic Bank should pay back the full amount on demand and should therefore ensure that sufficient funds are available to do so as and when the demand arises.
11. GROUP RISK
11.1. Overview
(1) This Chapter sets out the requirements for an Islamic bank in relation to the management of their corporate group risk and the measurement of financial group Capital requirement and resources.
(2) Group membership can be a source of both strength and weakness to an Islamic Bank.
The purpose of group risk requirements is to ensure that an Islamic Bank takes into account the risks related to its membership of a corporate group and maintains adequate Capital resources so as to exceed its Financial Group Capital Requirement.
(3) The rules in this chapter apply only to an Islamic Bank. References to Islamic Financial Institution in this chapter would be limited to Islamic Banks, Islamic Financing Company and Islamic Broker Dealers.
11.2. Corporate Group and Financial Group
(1) An Islamic FI’s corporate group is made up of:
- (a) an Islamic Bank;
- (b) any parent entity of an Islamic Bank;
- (c) any subsidiary (direct or indirect) of an Islamic Bank; and
- (d) any subsidiary (direct or indirect) of a parent entity of an Islamic Bank.
(2) An Islamic Bank’s Financial Group is made up of:
- (a) an Islamic Bank;
- (b) any subsidiary (direct or indirect) of an Islamic Bank; and
- (c) any entity that the AFSA directs an Islamic Bank to include.
(3) An Islamic Bank may apply to the AFSA for approval to exclude an entity from its financial group. The AFSA will grant such an approval only after an Islamic Bank satisfies the AFSA that inclusion of the entity would be misleading or inappropriate for the purposes of supervision.
Guidance
The AFSA would consider a range of factors when requiring an Islamic FI to treat another entity as part of its financial group. These factors would include regulatory risk factors, including direct and indirect participation, influence or contractual obligations, interconnectedness, intra-group exposures, intra-group services, regulatory status and legal framework.
11.3. Requirements—group risk
(1) An Islamic Bank must effectively manage risks arising from its membership in a corporate group.
(2) An Islamic Bank that is a member of a corporate group must establish and maintain systems and controls to monitor:
- (a) the effect on an Islamic Bank of its membership in the group;
- (b) the effect on an Islamic Bank of the activities of other members of the group;
- (c) compliance with group supervision and reporting requirements; and
- (d) funding within the group.
(3) An Islamic Bank must also have systems to enable it to calculate its financial group
Capital requirement and resources. The systems must include a means of analysing realistic scenarios and the effects on the financial group’s Capital requirement and resources if those scenarios occurred.
Guidance
An Islamic Bank may take into account its position within its corporate group. It would be reasonable for a small firm within a larger group to place some reliance on its parent to ensure that there are appropriate systems and controls to manage group risk.
11.4. Role of governing body—group risk
An Islamic Bank’s governing body must ensure that an Islamic Bank’s group risk management policy addresses, on a group-wide basis, all risks arising from an Islamic Bank’s relationship with every other member of its group.
11.5. Group Capital requirement and resources
(1) This Part does not apply to an Islamic Bank if:
(a) an Islamic Bank is already subject to group prudential supervision by the AFSA because another member of its group is an authorised firm; or
(b) the AFSA has confirmed in writing, in response to an application from an Islamic Bank, that the AFSAy is satisfied that the group is the subject of consolidated prudential supervision by an appropriate regulator.
(2) An Islamic Bank that has received confirmation must immediately inform the AFSA in writing if any circumstance on which the confirmation was based changes.
11.6. Financial group Capital Requirement and Regulatory Capital resources
(1) An Islamic Bank must ensure, at all times, that its Financial Group Regulatory Capital exceeds its Financial Group Capital Requirement.
(2) In calculating its Financial Group Regulatory Capital, an Islamic Bank must not include Regulatory Capital or adjusted Regulatory Capital (as the case may be) of subsidiaries or participations of that group to the extent that those Regulatory Capital or adjusted Regulatory Capital exceed the Capital requirement for that subsidiary or participation and are not freely transferable within the group.
Guidance
(1) Capital resources or adjusted Capital resources would not be freely transferable if they are subject to an obligation to maintain minimum Capital requirements to comply with domestic solvency requirements, or to comply with debt covenants.
(2) If an Islamic Bank breaches rule 13.2.2(1), the AFSA would take into account the circumstances of the case, including any remedial steps taken by another regulator or an Islamic Bank, in deciding what enforcement action to take.
11.7. Solo limits to apply to group
Unless the AFSA directs otherwise, a prudential limit in these rules that applies to an Islamic Bank also applies to that Islamic Bank’s Financial Group.
Examples
(1) The restriction in rules relating to concentration risk (that an Islamic Bank’s individual large exposure must not exceed 25% or 40% of its regulatory Capital) applies to an Islamic Bank’s group so that an Islamic Bank’s group large exposure to a counterparty or connected counterparties must not exceed 25% or 40% of its group Capital resources.
(2) In a similar way, the restriction in rules relating to large exposures regime (that an Islamic Bank must ensure that the sum of its large exposures does not exceed 800% of its regulatory Capital) applies to an Islamic Bank’s group so that the sum of its group large exposures to counterparties or connected counterparties must not exceed 800% of its group Capital resources.
12. TREATMENT OF SUKUK
12.1. General
(1) This Chapter sets out the minimum Capital requirements to cover the credit risk and market risk arising from the holding, by an Islamic Bank, of sukuk in its banking book.
Guidance
For credit risk arising from sukuk in an Islamic Bank’s trading book, Chapter 8 applies. For market risk arising from sukuk in an Islamic Bank’s trading book, Chapter 10 applies.
(2) Sukuk are certificates that represent a holder’s proportionate ownership in an undivided part of an asset or pool of assets where the holder assumes all rights and obligations to the asset or pool. A typical sukuk transaction would involve the originator of the sukuk, the issuer of the sukuk and an investor (sukuk holder).
Guidance
In equity-based sukuk (such as musharakah sukuk and mudarabah sukuk), the underlying investment does not offer predictable returns. In contrast, the underlying assets of asset-based sukuk (such as salam sukuk and murabahah sukuk) offer fairly predictable returns to holders.
12.2. Securitisation
Guidance
In addition to its holding of sukuk in the banking book, an Islamic Bank’s sukuk-related exposures may arise from securitisation and an Islamic Bank being, or acting as, the sukuk’s:
- (a) originator;
- (b) issuer;
- (c) servicer; or
- (d) provider of credit enhancement.
These rules, the instructions for preparing returns and the returns themselves do not (yet) have provisions on securitisation and re securitisation. Those provisions are to be inserted in the second or third phases of these rules.
12.3. Risk-weights for rated sukuk
The risk-weights for sukuk rated by an ECRA are those in accordance with tables 6.2 and 6.3 in Chapter 6 of this Rules.
12.4. Risk-weights for Unrated sukuk
(1) The risk-weights for unrated sukuk (that is, sukuk that are not rated or sukuk that are rated by a rating agency that is not an ECRA) must be determined based on the underlying structure and assets, in accordance with the Rules in this chapter.
(2) For unrated sukuk that use a combination of the Shari’ah-compliant contracts, the Capital requirement must be calculated taking into account the risk implications of the overall structure and assets.
12.5. Sukuk issued by Government or National bank of Kazakhstan
Sukuk issued by the Government of Kazakhstan or the National Bank of Kazakhstan are subject to a risk-weight of 0%.
12.6. Sukuk issued by IILMC
1) Sukuk issued by the International Islamic Liquidity Management Corporation (or IILMC) must be risk-weighted as if they were claims on short-term banking exposure.
(2) Rated sukuk issued by IILMC are subject to the risk-weights based on their ratings, as set out in table 13.3.4. Unrated sukuk issued by IILMC are subject to 20% risk-weight.
Table 13.3.4 Risk-weights for sukuk issued by IILMC
Note In the table, the ratings are given according to Standard & Poor’s conventions. If a claim or asset is not rated by Standard & Poor’s, its ratings must be mapped to the equivalent Standard & Poor’s rating.
AAA to A- | BBB+ to BBB- | BB+ to BB- | B+ to B- | below B- |
20 | 20 | 50 | 50 | 150 |
12.7. Sukuk awaiting transfer of assets
For sukuk where the legal transfer of assets has not taken place, the risk-weight is that of the originator (based on the ratings issued by an ECRA), subject to any Shari’ah-compliant credit enhancement by the issuer. If the originator is unrated, the risk-weight is 100%.
12.8. Sukuk with combination of assets
(1) Sukuk comprising a combination of different kinds of assets (such as shares, leasable assets, receivables from murabahah and receivables from salam) must be risk-weighted according to the respective percentages of the assets allocated in the investment.
(2) If the Islamic Bank or the AFSA does not have any reliable information to determine the nature or basis of the underlying assets of the sukuk, a risk-weight of 100% must be applied if the sukuk are listed or 400% if the sukuk are unlisted.
12.9. Salam sukuk
(1) Salam sukuk represent fractional ownership of the Capital of a salam transaction, where the salam Capital is constituted by an advance payment to a counterparty as supplier of a commodity (the subject matter) to be delivered at a future date.
(2) The gross return to the sukuk holders consists of the margin or spread between the purchase price of the subject matter and its selling price after delivery.
(3) In some sukuk issues, a third party gives an undertaking that the subject matter will be sold at a price exceeding the purchase price by a specified margin. The undertaking may be achieved by means of a parallel salam transaction in which a third party purchases the subject matter for delivery on the same delivery date as in the original salam contract.
12.10. Treatment of salam sukuk without parallel salam
(1) The risk-weight for salam sukuk without parallel salam must be based on the counterparty (salam supplier) unless the salam Capital is guaranteed by a third party.
(2) If the salam Capital is guaranteed by a third party, the risk-weight must be based on the guarantor, but only if the guarantor’s risk-weight is lower than that of the salam supplier. The risk-weight for an unrated salam supplier or an unrated guarantor is 100%.
(3) The Capital charge for salam sukuk without a parallel salam contract or other hedge is 15% on the long position of salam exposures.
12.11. Treatment of salam sukuk with parallel salam
(1) The risk-weight for salam sukuk with parallel salam must be based on the counterparty(salam supplier) unless the salam Capital is guaranteed by a third party.
(2) If the salam Capital is guaranteed by a third party, the risk-weight must be based on the guarantor, but only if the guarantor’s risk-weight is lower than that of the salam supplier. The risk-weight for an unrated salam supplier or an unrated guarantor is 100%.
(3) A salam sukuk issuance that is structured with an undertaking from the issuer that the underlying commodity will be sold to a third party at a specified selling price (by means of a parallel salam contract) must carry the risk-weight of the third party.
(4) There is no Capital charge for market risk that consists of basis and forward gap risks (namely, the risk that the hedge may be impaired because the underlying commodity delivered may be of inferior quality or may be delivered later than the contractual date). This is because the underlying commodity is normally traded on an exchange that eliminates the risk of late delivery, non-delivery or delivery of a commodity that is of inferior quality.
(5) The Capital charge for salam sukuk with a parallel salam contract or other hedge is 15% on the net position of the salam exposures plus 3% on the gross position of those exposures.
12.12. Istisna sukuk
(1) Istisna sukuk represent fractional shares in the financing of a project to construct an asset at a price to be paid in future instalments. The total of those instalments equals the face value of the sukuk plus mark-up.
(2) The sukuk can be in the form of serial notes or certificates with different maturity dates that match the progress schedule of instalments as agreed between the sukuk issuer (as manager on behalf of the sukuk investors) and the construction firm.
12.13. Treatment of istisna sukuk without parallel istisna
(1) The risk-weight for istisna sukuk where there is no parallel istisna must be based on the issuer.
(2) If a third party provides a guarantee, the risk-weight for the istisna sukuk must be based on the guarantor, but only if the guarantor’s risk-weight is lower than that of the issuer. The risk-weight for an unrated issuer or an unrated guarantor is 100%.
(3) A risk-weight of 20% must be added in the calculation of credit risk Capital charges, in order to account for the price risk to which the underlying istisna is exposed.
12.14. Treatment of istisna sukuk with parallel istisna
(1) In the case of istisna sukuk with parallel istisna, the relevant asset may be constructed on behalf of an ultimate customer or off-taker with whom the Islamic Bank enters into the parallel istisna contract. In this case, there is a credit risk exposure to the ultimate customer for the payment due under the parallel contract.
(2) The credit risk starts at the commencement of the construction work until the whole amount or all the instalments are paid by the ultimate customer.
(3) The risk-weight for the credit exposure must be based on the ultimate customer.
(4) If a third party provides a guarantee, the risk-weight must be based on the guarantor, but only if the guarantor’s risk-weight is lower than that of the ultimate customer. The riskweight for an unrated customer or an unrated guarantor is 100%.
12.15. Murabahah sukuk
(1) In murabahah sukuk, the originator (and, in some cases, the issuer) of the sukuk is the buyer (on credit) of the murabahah asset and the sukuk investors are the sellers (on credit) of that asset. The funds provided by the sukuk investors (and received by the issuer) represent the murabahah selling price of the asset.
(2) The sukuk holders own the murabahah and are entitled to receive payment of that receivable (the selling price of the asset) either in instalments or in a lump sum at the end of the murabahah contract.
12.16. Treatment of murabahah sukuk
(1) The risk-weight for murabahah sukuk must be based on the issuer or other obligor (as rated by an ECRA). If the issuer or obligor is unrated, the risk-weight is 100%.
(2) If the sukuk structure involves funding of an asset purchase in foreign currency, the relevant exposure must be calculated in accordance with Rule 8.24 (foreign exchange risk).
12.17. Ijarah and IMB sukuk
(1) Ijarah and IMB sukuk represent the holder’s proportionate ownership in leased assets where the sukuk holders collectively assume the rights and obligations of the lessor. The sukuk holders are entitled to a share of the lease rentals in proportion to their ownership shares in the leased assets.
(2) As a proportionate owner, an ijarah or IMB sukuk holder assumes a proportionate share of:
- (a) any loss, if the leased asset is destroyed; or
- (b) the cost of meeting the obligation to provide an alternative asset.
12.18. Treatment of Ijarah and IMB sukuk
The risk-weight for ijarah or IMB rentals must be based on the lessee’s counterparty credit risk, since the residual value risk of the underlying asset is not borne by the sukuk holders.
12.19. Musharakah sukuk
Musharakah sukuk represent the direct proportionate ownership shares of the holders in the assets of a private commercial enterprise or project, where the subscription money is normally used to purchase non-liquid assets.
Guidance
Musharakah sukuk are profit-sharing and loss-sharing instruments where the exposures are of the nature of equity positions in the banking book, except in the case of investments (normally short-term) in assets for trading purposes.
12.20. Treatment of musharakah sukuk
(1) The treatment of musharakah sukuk must be based on the intent of the underlying investments in musharakah as set out in this rule.
(2) For a private commercial enterprise that undertakes trading activities, the risk-weight must be as set out in under the section earlier on Equity-based contracts and Chapter 8 (market risk).
(3) For a private commercial enterprise that undertakes a business venture or project (other than an enterprise that undertakes trading activities), the risk-weight for equity participation risk in respect of an equity exposure in a business venture or project must be measured according to the section on Equity-based contracts and Chapter 8 (market risk).
(4) For a joint ownership of real estate or movable assets as income-producing musharakah investments through leasing to third parties by means of ijarah, the risk-weight must be based on the counterparty (that is, the lessee).
(5) For a joint ownership of real estate or movable assets as income-producing musharakah investments with murabahah sub-contracts, the risk-weight must be based on the underlying murabahah contracts and the counterparties involved in those murabahah contracts.
12.21. Mudarabah sukuk
(1) In mudarabah sukuk, the sukuk holders subscribe to the certificates issued by a mudarib. The holders share the profits and bear any losses arising from the mudarabah operations.
(2) The returns to the holders depend on the revenue produced by the underlying investment.
12.22. Treatment of mudarabah sukuk
(1) The treatment of mudarabah sukuk must be based on the intent of the underlying investments in mudarabah as set out in this rule.
(2) For a private commercial enterprise that undertakes trading activities, the risk-weight must be as set out in section under Equity-based contracts and Chapter 8 (market risk).
(3) For a private commercial enterprise that undertakes a business venture or project (other than an enterprise that undertakes trading activities), the risk-weight for equity participation risk in respect of an equity exposure in a business venture or project must be measured according to section under Equity-based contracts and Chapter 8 (market risk).
12.23. Wakalah sukuk
(1) In wakalah sukuk, the sukuk holders provide the Capital for Shari’ah-compliant investment activities, and the investment agent (wakeel) undertakes to invest the funds. These sukuk entitle the holders to a return in proportion to their investment in the underlying assets and a right (under a purchase undertaking) to buy all or a proportion of the underlying assets if specified conditions are fulfilled.
(2) In wakalah sukuk, the SPV acting as the principal on behalf of the sukuk holders appoints a wakeel to invest funds provided by the sukuk holders into a pool of assets. The wakeel lends its expertise and manages those investments on behalf of the SPV for a particular period, in order to generate a return for the sukuk investors.
(3) The SPV and the wakeel enter into a wakalah agreement to govern the appointment, scope of services and fees payable to the wakeel, if any.
(4) The pool of assets may comprise a broad range of Shari’ah-compliant assets that selected by the wakeel for a period corresponding to the duration of the sukuk (for example, Shari’ah-compliant equities, Shari’ah-compliant assets such as real estate and cars, murabahah, istisna, other sukuk).
Guidance
While the wakalah structure has some similarities to the mudarabah structure, the way in which holders receive their share of profits differ:
(1) wakalah sukuk holders receive the return on their investments less the management fees payable to the wakeel
(2) in a mudarabah structure, the profits are divided between the parties according to agreed ratios.
12.24. Treatment of wakalah sukuk
(1) The treatment of wakalah sukuk must be based on the intent of the underlying investments in wakalah as set out in this rule.
(2) For investments in trading activities in foreign exchange, shares or commodities, the riskweight must be as set out as set out in the section Service-based contracts and Chapter 8 (market risk).
(3) For investments in assets that can be leased or sold on a murabahah basis as incomeproducing wakalah investments through leasing to third parties by means of ijarah, the risk-weight must be based on the counterparty (that is, the lessee).
(4) For investments in assets that can be leased or sold on a murabahah basis as incomeproducing wakalah investments with murabahah sub-contracts, the risk-weight must be based on the underlying murabahah contracts and the counterparties involved in those contracts.
13. TREATMENT OF PSIAS AND ASSOCIATED RISKS
13.1. General
(1) Islamic banks typically raise funds through PSIAs, because interest-bearing deposits are not permitted by Shari’ah.
(2) This Chapter sets out the treatment of unrestricted PSIAs and the risks (rate of return risk, withdrawal risk and displaced commercial risk) that are associated with PSIAs.
(3) This Chapter also sets out:
(a) the responsibilities of an Islamic bank, as an unrestricted PSIA manager;
(b) the requirements for policies, warnings, terms of business, contracts and financial and other periodic statements in relation to PSIAs; and
(c) the techniques available to an Islamic Bank to mitigate the risks associated with PSIAs.
13.2. PSIAs
(1) A Profit-Sharing Investment Account (or PSIA) is an account, portfolio or fund that satisfies the following conditions:
- (a) it is managed by an authorised firm in accordance with Shari’ah and is held out as being Shari’ah-compliant;
- (b) under a management agreement with an Islamic Bank, the IAH concerned and an Islamic Bank agree to share any profit in a specified ratio and the IAH agrees to bear any loss not caused by an Islamic Bank’s negligence, misconduct, fraud or breach of contract.
(2) A PSIA may be unrestricted or restricted. An Unrestricted PSIA (UPSIA) is a PSIA for which the IAHs authorise the PSIA manager to invest the IAHs’ funds in a way that the manager considers appropriate, without any restriction as to where, how or for what purpose the funds may be invested (provided that the investments are Shari’ahcompliant).
(3) A Restricted PSIA (RPSIA) is one where the IAHs authorise an Islamic Bank to invest the IAHs’ funds, with specified restrictions as to where, how and for what purpose the funds may be invested.
(4) The contractual relationship between an Islamic Bank and the IAHs under the PSIA requires the IAHs to bear the commercial risks associated with the assets funded by the PSIA. An Islamic Bank is responsible for managing the investment of the assets and has the fiduciary duty to safeguard the interest of the IAHs through sound and prudent policies in the management of the assets.
Guidance
PSIA is usually offered by an Islamic Bank on the basis of a mudarabah partnership between an Islamic Bank as the entrepreneur or mudarib and the IAH as the investor or rabb al-mal.
13.3. Powers of AFSA
Despite anything in these rules, the AFSA may direct an Islamic Bank to treat, or not to treat, an arrangement between an Islamic Bank and a party (for example, by way of wakalah or musharakah) to be a PSIA.
13.4. Role of governing body—PSIAs
(1) An Islamic Bank’s governing body must ensure that an Islamic Bank has policies that enable an Islamic Bank to prudently manage assets and risks associated with PSIAs.
(2) It is the responsibility of the governing body to provide effective oversight and monitoring to ensure that PSIAs are managed in the best interests of the IAHs. In particular, the governing body must oversee:
(a) the financing and investment activities undertaken on behalf of IAHs;
(b) the fiduciary duties performed by an Islamic Bank to ensure that they are in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contracts between an Islamic Bank and its IAHs; and
(c) the level of reserves, to ensure that the level is appropriate and as fair as possible to existing and new IAHs.
13.5. Policies for managing PSIAs
An Islamic bank’s policies on managing PSIAs must include the following:
(a) how to ensure that PSIAs are managed in accordance with their IAHs’ instructions;
(b) how to ensure that the funds of each PSIA are invested in accordance with the relevant terms of business;
(c) the priority of the investment of each PSIA owner’s funds and those of the IAHs;
(d) how the interests of the IAHs are safeguarded;
(e) the basis for allocating expenses and profits or losses to IAHs;
(f) how provisions and reserves against equity and assets will be applied;
(g) to whom those provisions and reserves would revert in the event of a write-off or recovery;
(h) how liquidity mismatch will be monitored;
(i) how the value of each PSIA’s assets will be monitored;
(j) how any losses incurred as a result of negligence, misconduct, fraud or breach of contract on the part of an Islamic Bank will be dealt with;
(k) an acknowledgment of the right of IAHs to monitor the performance of their investments and the associated risks, and how IAHs can exercise that right.
13.6. Warnings to investment account holders
An Islamic Bank must warn a prospective IAH in writing that:
- (a) the IAH bears the risk of loss to the extent of the IAH’s investment; and
- (b) the IAH would not be able to recover that loss from an Islamic Bank, except in the case of negligence, misconduct, fraud or breach of contract on the part of an Islamic Bank
13.7. Terms of business
An Islamic Bank must ensure that the following information is included in the terms of business given to an IAH:
(a) how and by whom the funds of the IAH will be managed and invested;
(b) the PSIA’s investment objectives and details of its policy on diversification;
(c) the basis for allocating profits and losses;
(d) a summary of the policies for valuing the PSIA’s assets;
(e) if an Islamic Bank uses PER or IRR as a smoothing technique, a summary of the policies for transferring funds to and from the reserve;
(f) particulars of the management of the PSIA;
(g) particulars of the management of any other person to whom the owner has outsourced, or will outsource, the management of the PSIA, including:
- (ii) the person’s regulatory status; and
- (iii) details of the arrangement;
(i) the person’s name;
(h) details of any arrangement for early withdrawal, redemption or other exit and any costs to an IAH as a result;
(i) confirmation of the IAH’s investment objectives;
(j) whether funds from the PSIA will be mixed with the funds of any other PSIA;
(k) any applicable charges and the basis on which such charges will be calculated;
(l) any fees that an Islamic Bank can deduct from the profits of the PSIA;
(m) how the IAH can monitor the performance of investments and associated risks.
13.8. Form of contracts for PSIAs
(1) The terms and conditions of a contract for a PSIA must be clear, concise and easily understandable by an IAH. The contract must state the type, purpose, terms and period of the contract and the profit-sharing ratio agreed at the time of the opening of the account.
(2) The following must also be stated in the contract:
- (a) the rights and liabilities of both parties—in particular, in the circumstances where losses are to be borne by the IAH;
- (b) the implications for the IAH of early withdrawal, early redemption or other exit;
- (c) the duty of an Islamic Bank to disclose accurate, relevant and timely information to the IAH on the investment of funds, including its performance, investment strategies, valuation, and frequency of valuation of the PSIA’s assets;
- (d) how any losses incurred as a result of negligence, misconduct, fraud or breach of contract on the part of an Islamic Bank will be dealt with;
- (e) how any subsequent changes in the profit-sharing ratio will be disclosed;
- (f) any smoothing techniques that an Islamic Bank uses.
13.9. Financial statements—specific disclosures
(1) An Islamic Bank must ensure that its financial statements contain the following disclosures:
- (a) the role and authority of the Shari’ah supervisory board in overseeing an Islamic Bank’s business;
- (b) the method used in the calculation of the zakat base;
- (c) if zakat has been paid, the amount that has been paid;
- (d) if zakat has not been paid, information to allow an IAH or prospective IAH to compute its liability to zakat.
(2) The financial statements must also contain the following disclosures in relation to each PSIA managed by an Islamic Bank:
- (a) an analysis of its income according to types of investments and their financing;
- (b) the basis for allocating profits between the owner and the IAHs;
- (c) the equity of the IAHs at the end of the reporting period;
- (d) the basis for determining any PER or IRR;
- (e) the changes that have occurred in any of those reserves during the reporting period;
- (f) to whom any remaining balances of any of those reserves is attributable in the event of liquidation.
(3) Any deductions by an Islamic Bank from its share of income, and any expenses borne by an Islamic Bank on behalf of the IAHs, as a contribution to the income of IAHs must also be disclosed in an Islamic Bank’s financial statements if the contribution is significant.
13.10. Periodic statements
(1) An Islamic Bank must give each IAH of a PSIA a periodic statement about the PSIA at intervals stated in the contract or terms of business. The interval must not be longer than 6 months.
(2) An Islamic Bank must ensure that the periodic statement contains the following information as at the end of the period covered by the statement:
(a) the number, description and value of investments held by the PSIA;
(b) the amount of cash held by the PSIA;
(c) details of applicable charges (including any deductions of fees that an Islamic Bank is allowed to deduct from the profits of the PSIA) and the basis on which the charges are calculated;
(d) the total of any dividends and other benefits received by an Islamic Bank for the PSIA;
(e) the total amount, and particulars, of all investments transferred into or out of the PSIA;
(f) details of the performance of the IAH’s investment;
(g) the allocation of profit between the owner and the IAH;
(h) any changes to the investment strategies that could affect the IAH’s investment.
13.11. PSIA accounts to be kept separate
An Islamic Bank must keep its accounts for unrestricted IAHs separate from accounts for restricted IAHs. An Islamic Bank must record all its transactions in investments for these accounts separately.
13.12. Rate of return and other risks
(1) Rate of return risk (or ROR risk) is the risk that an increase in benchmark rates may result in IAHs’ having expectations of a higher rate of return. It is the risk of facing a lower rate of return on assets than currently expected by an Islamic Bank’s IAHs.
(2) Rate of return risk may result in withdrawal risk and displaced commercial risk. It can give rise to liquidity problems in an Islamic Bank.
(3) An Islamic Bank must manage the expectations of its shareholders and IAHs. If market rates of return of competitors’ IAH are higher than those of an Islamic Bank’s IAHs, an Islamic Bank must evaluate the nature and extent of the expectations of its IAHs and assess the amount of the gap between competitors’ rates and its own IAHs’ expected rates.
13.13. Withdrawal risk and displaced commercial risk
(1) Many Islamic Banks consider their IAHs as behaving like conventional depositors who might withdraw their funds in the case of lower-than-expected profit rates (withdrawal risk). The withdrawal of funds by IAHs can expose a firm to liquidity risk.
(2) Another consequence of rate of return risk may be Displaced Commercial Risk (or DCR), which is the risk resulting from competitive pressures on a firm to attract and retain IAHs as fund providers. An Islamic Bank may be under market pressure to pay a return that exceeds the rate that has been earned on assets financed by IAHs when the return on those assets is under-performing compared with competitors’ rates.
Guidance
(i) For example, an Islamic Bank that acts as mudarib for an IAH may give up a part of its mudarib share or its profit to the IAH in order to smooth profit payouts. The risk of an Islamic Bank being obliged to give up the share or profit for commercial or other reasons is a DCR.
(ii) The term ‘displaced’ is used because, initially, the risk from the volatility of returns is to be borne by the IAH as rabb-al-mal but that risk has been displaced onto an Islamic Bank.
(iii) If a firm is able to manage the distribution of returns on PSIAs entirely through adjustments to its PER (that is, without having to give up part or all of their mudarib share of profits and without making any unilateral transfer to IAHs from the shareholders’ current or retained profits), there is no DCR and there is no requirement for an Islamic Bank to support an additional Capital charge for that risk.
13.14. Role of governing body—rate of return risk
(1) An Islamic Bank’s governing body must ensure that an Islamic Bank’s rate of return risk management policy:
- (a) gives an Islamic Bank a comprehensive firm-wide view of the significant sources of rate of return risk; and
- (b) is consistent with an Islamic Bank’s risk profile and systemic importance.
(2) The governing body must also ensure that an Islamic Bank has adequate policies and staff to identify, measure, evaluate, manage and control or mitigate its rate of return risk.
(3) The governing body must approve the basis for computing the amounts to be set aside by an Islamic Bank for the PER or IRR.
(4) The governing body must regularly review an Islamic Bank’s investment policies and the performance of the assets in which IAHs’ funds are invested.
13.15. Policies—rate of return risk
An Islamic Bank’s rate of return risk management policy:
- (a) must describe the approach to managing an Islamic Bank’s rate of return risk and any resulting withdrawal risk or DCR;
- (b) must establish procedures to assess:
- (i) the behavioural and contractual maturity profiles of IAHs;
- (ii) the impacts of market factors affecting rates of return on assets in comparison with the expected rates of return for IAHs; and
- (iii) the effect of the level of an Islamic Bank’s dependence on current account holders’ funds;
- (c) must state the basis, and procedures, for any decision to give up part or all of its share of profits in favour of IAHs;
- (d) must set an Islamic Bank’s risk tolerance for DCR; and
- (e) must include requirements for provisioning, and transfers to and from reserves, in accordance with the agreed contractual terms and conditions for IAHs.
13.16. Smoothing techniques
(1) To mitigate withdrawal risk and DCR, an Islamic bank may use one or more of the following techniques. The objective of smoothing techniques is to satisfy and retain fund providers and dissuade them from withdrawing their funds.
(2) An Islamic Bank may give up part or all of their mudarib share of profits. The decision to give up part or all of its mudarib share of profits in favour of IAHs is a commercial decision.
(3) An Islamic Bank may make unilateral transfers (by means of hibah) to IAHs from the shareholders’ current or retained profits. Hibah is the unilateral transfer of ownership of a property or its benefit to another without any counter-value from the recipient.
(4) An Islamic Bank may establish a Profit Equalisation Reserve (or PER) by setting aside amounts from the investment profits, before allocation of share of profits between IAH and an Islamic Bank (for their respective shares in the PSIA pool) and before calculating their mudarib share of profits. The PER is to maintain a level of return on investment for IAHs.
Guidance
Even before using smoothing techniques, an Islamic bank is encouraged to employ balance sheet techniques to minimise its exposures to rate of return risk. Examples of the strategies that an Islamic Bank might use include:
a. determining and varying future profit ratios according to expectations of market conditions
b. developing new Shari’ah-compliant instruments
c. issuing securitisation tranches of Shari’ah-permissible assets.
An Islamic bank should develop and maintain an informed judgement about an appropriate level of the balances of its PER. The nature of the reserve implies that there will be years in which the balance of the reserve will be increased, and others in which it will be depleted.
(5) An Islamic Bank may establish an Investment Risk Reserve (or IRR) by setting aside amounts from the investment profits of IAHs, after allocating PER (if any) and deducting an Islamic Bank’s mudarib share of profits. The IRR is to cushion against future investment losses for IAHs and must not be used for any other purpose.
13.17. Calculating rate of return
(1) An Islamic bank must use the gapping method to allocate positions into time bands based on remaining maturities or repricing dates.
(2) Fixed-rate and floating-rate assets of an Islamic Bank must be classified according to their receivable dates because the returns on these receivables represent the IAHs’ direct and beneficial ownership of the assets. Actual cash flows may indicate a gap for a particular time band, affecting the rate of return for that period.
(3) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of an Islamic Bank’s business, an Islamic Bank may employ techniques ranging from simple gap to advance simulation or dynamic approaches to assess future cash flow variability and net income.
Guidance
i) The estimates derived from selected approaches might provide acceptable approximations of periodic future earnings’ variability, and the outcomes would yield different levels of expected returns to IAHs.
ii) The measurement of rate of return risk highlights the importance of cash flow forecasting for instruments and contracts where the Islamic Bank is required to simulate and assess their behavioural maturity, underlying assumptions and parameters, which should be reviewed periodically for reliability. The significance of potential threats to future earnings and the usefulness of the resulting information should be considered in determining the type and extent of forecasted behaviour for an Islamic Bank.
13.18. Relation to stress-testing
When carrying out stress-testing or review of stress scenarios, an Islamic bank must take into account an Islamic Bank’s vulnerability to loss under adverse benchmark rate movements.
13.19. Calculation of Capital adequacy ratio—no smoothing
If an Islamic Bank does not smooth profit payouts to IAHs, an Islamic Bank’s Capital adequacy ratio is calculated by dividing an Islamic Bank’s Regulatory Capital by the amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
(TRC + TRM + TRO) - (PRC + PRM)
where:
TRC is total risk-weighted assets adjusted for credit risk.
TRM is total risk-weighted assets adjusted for market risk.
TRO is total risk-weighted assets adjusted for operational risk.
PRC is total risk-weighted assets financed by PSIAs, adjusted for credit risk.
PRM is total risk-weighted assets financed by PSIAs, adjusted for market risk.
Guidance
If an Islamic bank does not smooth profit payouts to IAHs, an Islamic Bank is not required to hold Regulatory Capital against credit or market risks arising from assets funded by the PSIAs. The RWAs funded by such accounts are excluded in respect of those risks in calculating the denominator of an Islamic Bank’s CAR, leaving only operational risk.
13.20. Calculation of Capital adequacy ratio—smoothing
If an Islamic bank smooths profit pay-outs to IAHs, an Islamic Bank’s Capital adequacy ratio is calculated by dividing an Islamic Bank’s Regulatory Capital by the amount calculated in accordance with the following formula:
(TRC + TRM + TRO) - (PRCR + PRMR) - ((1 - α) (PRCU + PRMU) - α(PRCV + PRMV))
where:
α represents the proportion of assets funded by unrestricted PSIAs, and is set at 0.35 by the AFSA.
TRC is total risk-weighted assets adjusted for credit risk.
TRM is total risk-weighted assets adjusted for market risk.
TRO is total risk-weighted assets adjusted for operational risk.
PRCR is total risk-weighted assets financed by restricted PSIAs, adjusted for credit risk.
PRMR is total risk-weighted assets financed by restricted PSIAs, adjusted for market risk.
PRCU is total risk-weighted assets financed by unrestricted PSIAs, adjusted for credit risk.
PRMU is total risk-weighted assets financed by unrestricted PSIAs, adjusted for market risk.
PRCV is total risk-weighted assets financed by the PER and IRR for unrestricted PSIAs, adjusted for credit risk.
PRMV is total risk-weighted assets financed by the PER and IRR for unrestricted PSIAs, adjusted for market risk.
Guidance
If an Islamic bank smooths profit pay-outs to IAHs, an Islamic Bank is required to hold regulatory Capital against credit or market risks arising from assets funded by the PSIAs, to cater for DCR. In this approach, credit and market risks of assets financed by unrestricted PSIAs are considered to be borne proportionately by both the IAHs and an Islamic Bank. Therefore, a proportion of the RWAs funded by unrestricted PSIAs is required to be included in the denominator of the CAR.
14. SUPERVISORY REVIEW AND EVALUATION PROCESS
Guidance
(i) This Chapter implements the critical Pillar II of the Basel III framework and the corresponding IFSB Standard 16 implementing Pillar II for Islamic Banking. Pillar II offers an avenue for addressing all the risk exposures faced by an Islamic Bank, which have not been covered in the estimation of Capital Requirements to absorb potential unexpected losses. The rules in this Chapter set out the regulatory requirements for Islamic Banks to carry out a self-assessment of their risks which can be reviewed and assessed by the regulator. This Chapter details the rules stipulating the need for Islamic Banks to complete internal risk assessments followed by an internal capital adequacy assessment process (ICAAP). The AFSA will review the results of the ICAAP. This Chapter also sets out how the AFSA may impose an additional Capital Requirement specifically for individual Islamic Banks in addition to the minimum Capital Requirement specified in Chapter 4.
(ii) The detailed requirements specifying the methodologies, parameters, and guidance in respect of the ICAAP and supervisory review process requirements for a Bank are provided in Appendix 3 of the IBB. It is suggested that this Chapter be read in conjunction with Appendix 3 of the IBB Module, to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
14.1. Application to a Financial Group
Where an Islamic Bank to which this Chapter applies is part of a Financial Group, this Chapter applies on a consolidated basis in relation to all the entities within the Financial Group.
14.2. Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)
(1) An Islamic Bank must implement and maintain an ICAAP which details the processes and procedures by which the Islamic Bank will assess and maintain adequate capital resources in relation to the risks faced by it.
(2) The Islamic Bank must conduct an ICAAP assessment at least annually giving due regard to the guidance in Appendix 3 of the IBB Module.
(3) The ICAAP assessment conducted by the Islamic Bank pursuant to (2) must be approved by its Governing Body and then submitted to the AFSA within four months from the end of the Islamic Bank’s financial year.
(4) In addition to (2), the Islamic Bank must conduct an ICAAP assessment:
(a) whenever there is material change to the business, strategy, nature or scale of the activities of the Islamic Bank which may have a significant impact on its risk profile or adequacy of its RC; or
(b) as and when required by the AFSA.
(5) The ICAAP assessment conducted by the Islamic Bank pursuant to (4) must be approved by its Governing Body and then submitted to the AFSA within two months from the date of such material change or requirement.
(6) An Islamic Bank must ensure that an ICAAP assessment is documented in writing and includes details of:
(a) the calculations and models used in the determination of the level of Capital Requirements which it considers will be adequate to cover all the risks identified by its ICAAP assessment;
(b) the Islamic Bank’s strategies and plans to ensure availability of the level of capital determined by the ICAAP;
(c) specifications of any models used in the ICAAP, including the underlying assumptions, parameters, and results of back-testing; and
(d) any other relevant information, giving due and appropriate regard to the guidance in Appendix 3 of the IBB Module.
(7) An Islamic Bank must retain the records of an ICAAP assessment for at least six years.
14.3. Imposition of an Individual Capital Requirement
(1) The AFSA may, subject to (3) and (4), at any time by written notice to a Islamic Bank:
(a) impose an Individual Capital Requirement; or
(b) vary or withdraw an Individual Capital Requirement.
(2) The AFSA may impose or vary an Individual Capital Requirement by written notice, on its own initiative, where the AFSA forms the view that the Islamic Bank’s Capital Requirement is insufficient to address adequately all its risks.
(3) The AFSA will, in addition to prescribing an Individual Capital Requirement, also specify in the notice the types and amounts of capital resources required to meet the Individual Capital Requirement.
(4) Any decisions made under this Rule 14.3 will be subject to the decision-making procedures set out in Schedule 1 of the AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations.
(5) If the AFSA decides to exercise its power under (2) after a Licence has been granted, the Islamic Bank may refer the matter to the AIFC Court for review.
(6) An Islamic Bank must have and maintain, at all times, RC as defined in by the rules in Chapter 4 as well as capital meeting the types and amounts specified in the notice issued to it under this rule to meet its Individual CapitalRequirement.
15. PUBLIC DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS
Guidance
(i) This Chapter implements the Pillar III of the Basel III framework and the corresponding IFSB Standard 22 on disclosures to promote transparency and market discipline for Islamic Banks. Pillar III is aimed at facilitating market discipline which is considered as one of the effective mechanisms to ensure safety and soundness of banks. This principle has been emphasised by the IFSB by publishing an exclusive standard on disclosure requirements which forms the basis for the requirements set out in this chapter, which include requirements for Islamic Banks to make periodic disclosures of relevant and material information about their business activities and data on risk exposures assumed by them.
(ii) The detailed requirements specifying the methodologies, parameters, and guidance in respect of the disclosure requirements for an Islamic Bank are provided in Appendix 4 of the IBB Module. It is suggested that this Chapter be read in conjunction with Appendix 4 of the IBB Module, to facilitate understanding of the regulatory requirements and compliance with them.
15.1. Disclosure requirement
An Islamic Bank must disclose all relevant data, both qualitative and quantitative data, to completely fulfil all the tables and templates set out in Appendix 4 of IBB Module.
15.2. Application to a Financial Group
(1) An Islamic Bank, which is a member of a Financial Group, according to Chapter 11, must ensure that the detailed disclosures specified in Appendix 4 of the IBB Module are made on a consolidated basis, at the level of the Financial Group.
(2) An Islamic Bank which is a Subsidiary of a regulated bank or Financial Institution or another Islamic Bank, which is already subject to equivalent public disclosure requirements, does not need to comply with the requirements in this Chapter to the extent that it meets those equivalent public disclosure requirements.
15.3. Disclosure policy
(1) An Islamic Bank must implement and maintain a written disclosure policy that:
(a) sets out the Islamic Bank’s approach for determining which of the disclosures set out in Appendix 4 of the IBB Module it needs to make;
(b) details the processes and procedures and its internal controls in relation to such disclosure details the medium for disclosure that most appropriately meets the purposes of this Chapter; and
(c) is approved by the Governing Body of the Islamic Bank.
(2) An Islamic Bank must ensure that appropriate verification, whether internal or external, is performed in relation to any disclosure, and take all reasonable steps to ensure its accuracy and timeliness.
(3) To the extent that any required disclosure is substantially similar to a disclosure required of the Islamic Bank under the International Financial Reporting Standards, a disclosure under such standards must be made to meet the requirement for disclosure under this Chapter.
15.4. Disclosure frequency, locations and omissions
(1) The disclosures set out in this Chapter must be made by the Islamic Bank at least once a year, other than disclosures of CET1 Capital, T1 Capital and T2 Capital, deductions from capital resources, Liquidity Coverage Ratio and Leverage Ratios which must be made on a quarterly basis.
(2) Reporting deadlines must be in accordance with quarterly and annual reporting obligations under Chapter 3. The required disclosures must be published concurrently with the periodic financial statements of the Islamic Bank.
(3) In cases where an Islamic Bank does not publish an financial report or statements in the period for which it is required to fulfil a disclosure requirement set out in this rules, the disclosure must then be published as soon as practicable. However, the time lag must not exceed more than 3 months from the end of the reporting period for the specific regulatory requirement.
(4) An Islamic Bank must, subject to (2), make these disclosures either in its annual report or periodic financial statements.
(5) An Islamic Bank may disclose the items marked as quantitative in Appendix 4 of the IBB Module in a medium or location other than its annual report or periodic financial statements, provided that:
(a) it has prior approval of the AFSA to do so;
(b) the annual report or periodic financial statements contain clear references to the location of such disclosures; and
(c) such disclosures are readily accessible by the market.
(6) An Islamic Bank may omit certain disclosures if the omitted item is:
(a) not material, in accordance with the concept of materiality under the International Financial Reporting Standards;
(b) proprietary in nature, and the disclosure of the relevant information to the public would undermine the Islamic Bank’s competitive position or render the Islamic Bank’s investments in products and systems less valuable; or
(c) confidential in nature, and the disclosure of the relevant information would violate or jeopardise confidentiality agreements with Clients or counterparties.
(7) Where in reliance upon (5)(b) or (c) above, an Islamic Bank omits an item that is marked as a quantitative disclosure in Appendix 4 of the IBB Module, it must disclose general qualitative information about the subject matter of that particular requirement, together with the reasons for the omission.
APPENDIX 1: LIQUIDITY RISK
A. Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)
1. The objective of the LCR is to promote short-term resilience of an Islamic Bank’s Liquidity Risk profile. The LCR aims to ensure that an Islamic Bank maintains an adequate level of unencumbered HQLA that can be converted into cash to meet its liquidity needs for a 30 calendar day period under a severe liquidity stress scenario.
2. The purpose of requiring Islamic Banks to maintain the HQLA portfolio and to meet the LCR requirement, is to ensure that Islamic Banks are resilient, in the short term, to Liquidity Risk. The LCR requirement is intended to ensure that an Islamic Bank always holds unencumbered assets that can be readily converted into sufficient cash to meet its liquidity needs for 30 calendar days even under severe liquidity stress.
3. The LCR is calculated under Rule 10.25.
4. The LCR has two components:
(a) Value of the stock of HQLA in stressed conditions; and
(b) Total Net Cash Outflows, calculated according to the stressed scenario parameters outlined in this section
5. The stress scenario entails both institution-specific and systemic shocks including:
(a) the run-off of a proportion of retail deposits;
(b) a partial loss of unsecured wholesale funding capacity;
(c) a partial loss of secured, short-term financing with certain collateral and counterparties;
(d) additional contractual outflows that would arise from a downgrade in the Bank’s public credit rating, where applicable, by up to and including three notches, including collateral posting requirements;
(e) increases in market volatility that affect the quality of collateral or potential future exposure of derivative positions and so require larger collateral haircuts or additional collateral, or lead to other liquidity needs;
(f) unscheduled draws on committed but unused credit and liquidity facilities that the Bank has provided to its clients; and
(g) the potential need for the Bank to buy back debt or honour non-contractual obligations to mitigate reputational risk.
6. For the purposes of complying with Rule 10.25, a currency is considered material to an Islamic Bank, if the aggregate liabilities denominated in that currency amount to 5% or more of its total liabilities.
High Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA)
7. Assets that meet the conditions and requirements specified in the following paragraphs 7 to 15 are eligible to be considered as HQLA. Those assets are considered to be HQLA as they can be converted easily and immediately into cash at little or no loss of value. To qualify as HQLA, assets should be liquid in markets during a time of stress.
8. In determining whether or not the market for an asset can be relied upon to raise liquidity during a time of stress, the following fundamental factors should be taken into account:
(a) low risk: high credit standing of the issuer and a low degree of subordination, low duration, low legal risk, low inflation risk, denomination in a convertible currency with low foreign exchange risk;
(b) ease and certainty of valuation;
(c) low correlation with risky assets, not subject to wrong-way risk; and
(d) listing on a developed and recognised exchange.
9. In assessing the reliability of a market for raising liquidity during a time of stress, the following market-related characteristics should be taken into account, though not limited to them:
(a) active and sizable market, including active outright sale or repo markets at all times. This can be demonstrated through:
(i) historical evidence of market breadth and market depth (low bid-ask spreads, high trading volumes, large and diverse number of market participants); or
(ii) existence of robust market infrastructure (presence of multiple committed market makers);
(b) low price volatility, including historical evidence of relative stability of market terms (e.g. prices and haircuts) and volumes during stressed periods; or
(c) flight to quality, i.e. that historically the market has shown a tendency to move into these types of high quality assets in a systemic crisis.
HQLA – general operational requirements
10. To be eligible as HQLA, assets in the portfolio of HQLA must be appropriately diversified in terms of type of assets, type of issuer and specific counterparty or issuer. To be eligible as HQLA, assets must meet the following requirements:
(a) the assets must be under the control of the specific function or functions charged with managing the liquidity of the Islamic Bank who must have the continuous authority and legal and operational capability to liquidate any asset in the stock; and
(b) a representative portion of the assets in the stock of HQLA must be liquidated periodically and at least annually by the Islamic Bank to test its access to the market, the effectiveness of its processes for liquidation, the availability of the assets, and to minimize the risk of negative signaling during a period of actual stress.
11. To be eligible as HQLA, an asset must also meet the following requirements:
(a) the asset must be unencumbered and free of legal, regulatory, contractual or other restrictions that affect the ability of the Islamic Bank to liquidate, sell, transfer, or assign the asset;
(b) the asset must not be pledged, either explicitly or implicitly, to secure, collateralize or creditenhance any transaction, nor be designated to cover operational costs (such as rents and salaries); and
(c) an asset received in a securities financing transaction that is held at the Islamic Bank, is eligible for inclusion in the stock of HQLA only if the asset has not been rehypothecated and is legally and contractually available for the Islamic Bank’s use.
12. These requirements in paragraphs above are intended to ensure that the stock of HQLA is managed in such a way that the Islamic Bank can, and is able to demonstrate that it can, immediately use the assets as a source of contingent funds that is available to convert into cash to fill funding gaps between cash inflows and outflows at any time during the 30-day stress period, with no restriction on the use of the liquidity generated. The control of the HQLA may be evidenced either by:
(a) maintaining assets in a separate pool managed by the identified liquidity management function (typically the treasurer) with the sole intent to use it as a source of contingent funds;
or
(b) demonstrating that the relevant function can liquidate the asset at any point in the 30- day stress period and that the proceeds are available to the function throughout the 30- day stress period without directly conflicting with a stated business or risk management strategy.
13. Operational capability to liquidate assets referred to in paragraph 12 above, requires procedures and appropriate systems to be in place. This includes providing the liquidity management function with access to all necessary information to liquidate any asset at any time. Liquidation of the asset should be executable operationally within the standard settlement period for the asset class in the relevant jurisdiction.
Caps on different types of HQLA – calculation of LCR
14. Assets eligible to be included in the stock of HQLA for the purpose of the LCR calculation are classified under the following two categories:
(a) Level 1 HQLA, consisting of the highest quality and most liquid assets; and
(b) Level 2 HQLA, including Level 2A HQLA and Level 2B HQLA, consisting of other high quality liquid assets.
15. When calculating the total stock of HQLA, an Islamic Bank must apply the following caps in respect of each category of assets:
(a) Level 1 HQLA can be included in the total stock of HQLA without any limit (i.e. up to 100% of HQLA);
(b) Total Level 2 HQLA, including both Level 2A HQLA and Level 2B HQLA, can comprise only up to 40% of the total stock of HQLA; and
(c) Level 2B HQLA can comprise only up to 15% of the total stock of HQLA within the overall 40% limit on Level 2 HQLA in (b).
16. The caps on Level 2 HQLA and Level 2B HQLA must be determined after applying the haircuts required to cover currency mismatches, and after unwinding the amounts of HQLA involved in shortterm secured funding, secured financing and collateral swap transactions maturing within 30 calendar days that involve the exchange of HQLA. The assets to be included in each category of HQLA must be restricted to assets being held or owned by the Islamic Bank on the first day of the stress period, irrespective of their residual maturity.
17. The following paragraphs illustrate how the caps on various types of HQLA, as specified in paragraphs 14 & 15 are to be applied in practice, for the calculation of LCR. The adjusted amounts of HQLA should be calculated as the amount of HQLA that would result after unwinding those shortterm secured funding, secured financing and collateral swap transactions that involve the exchange of any HQLA for any other HQLA. The calculation of the stock of HQLA for paragraph 15 can be expressed as the following formula:
Stock of HQLA = Level 1 HQLA + Level 2A HQLA + Level 2B HQLA – Adjustment for 15% cap – Adjustment for 40% cap
Where:
(a) Adjustment for 15% cap = Max (Adjusted Level 2B HQLA – 15/85 x(Adjusted Level 1 HQLA + Level 2A HQLA), Adjusted Level 2B HQLA - 15/60 x (Adjusted Level 1 HQLA, 0)
(b) Adjustment for 40% cap = Max ((Adjusted Level 2A HQLA + Adjusted Level 2B HQLA – Adjustment for 15% cap) - 2/3 x Adjusted Level 1 HQLA, 0)
Level 1 HQLA
18. Level 1 HQLA must be valued at market value and it consists of:
(a) banknotes and coin;
(b) central bank reserves, to the extent that such reserves are capable of being drawn down immediately in times of stress
(c) marketable Islamic securities representing claims on or claims guaranteed by sovereigns, central banks, Public Sector Entities (PSEs), the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank and European Commission or Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs), and that satisfy all of the following conditions:
(i) they are assigned a zero % risk-weight according to Chapter 4 and App4 of this Module;
(ii) they are traded in large, deep and active repo or cash markets characterised by a low level of concentration
(iii) they have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in the markets (repo or sale) even during stressed market conditions; and
(iv) they are not an obligation of a financial institution or any of its associated entities
(d) in the case of sovereigns that are not eligible for zero % risk-weight, sovereign or central bank sukuk or sukuk issued in domestic currencies by the sovereign or central bank in the country in which the Liquidity Risk is being taken or in the Islamic Bank’s home jurisdiction, where those securities satisfy all of the conditions in paragraph (c) (ii)(iii) and (iv) above;
(e) in the case of sovereigns that are not eligible for zero % risk-weight, domestic sovereign or central bank Sukuk issued in foreign currencies, up to the amount of the Islamic Bank’s stressed net cash outflows in that specific foreign currency stemming from the Islamic Bank’s operations in the jurisdiction where the Islamic Bank’s Liquidity Risk is being taken, where those securities satisfy all of the conditions in paragraph (c) (ii)(iii) and (iv) above; and
(f) any other types of assets approved by the AFSA under paragraph 21 of this appendix as being eligible to be Level 1 HQLA.
Level 2A HQLA
19. Level 2A HQLA must be valued at market value and subject to a 15% haircut and it consists of:
(a) marketable securities representing claims on or guaranteed by sovereigns, central banks, PSEs or MDBs that satisfy all of the following conditions:
(i) they are assigned a 20% risk-weight according to Chapter 6 of IBB Module;
(ii) they are traded in large, deep and active repo or cash markets characterised by a low level of concentration;
(iii) they have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in the markets (repo or sale) even during stressed market conditions (i.e. maximum decline of price or increase in haircut over a 30-day period during a relevant period of significant liquidity stress not exceeding 10%); and
(iv) they are not an obligation of a financial institution or any of its associated entities.
(b) corporate sukuk (including commercial paper) that satisfy all of the following conditions:
(i) in the case of corporate sukuk: they must not be issued by a financial institution or any of its associated entities and must include only plain vanilla assets (i.e. not include complex structured products or subordinated debt) whose valuation is readily available based on standard methods and does not depend on private knowledge;
(ii) in the case of covered sukuk: they must not be issued by the Islamic Bank itself or any of its associated entities
(iii) the assets must have a Credit Quality Grade of 1 from a recognised ECAI or, if the assets do not have a credit assessment by a recognised ECAI, they must be internally rated as having a probability of default (PD) corresponding to a Credit Quality Grade of 1;
(iv) they must be traded in large, deep and active repo or cash markets characterised by a low level of concentration; and
(v) they must have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in the markets (repo or sale) even during stressed market conditions (i.e. maximum decline of price or increase in haircut over a 30-day period during a relevant period of significant liquidity stress not exceeding 10%); and
(c) any other types of assets approved by the AFSA under paragraph 21 as being eligible to be Level 2A HQLA.
Level 2B HQLA
20. Level 2B HQLA must be valued at market value and subject to an appropriate haircut, as specified in (2), for each type of asset and it consists of:
(a) residential financing backed securities that satisfy all of the following conditions, subject to a 25% haircut:
- (i) they are not issued by, and the underlying assets have not been originated by, the Islamic Bank itself or any of its affiliated entities;
- (ii) they have a Credit Quality Grade of 1 from a recognised ECAI;
- (iii) they are traded in large, deep and active repo or cash markets characterised by a low level of concentration;
- (iv) they have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in the markets (repo or sale) even during stressed market conditions, (i.e. maximum decline of price or increase in haircut over a 30-day period during a relevant period of significant liquidity stress not exceeding 20%);
- (v) the underlying asset pool is restricted to residential financings and does not contain structured products;
- (vi) the underlying residential financings are “full recourse’’ financings (i.e. in the case of foreclosure the financing owner remains liable for any shortfall in sales proceeds from the property) and have a maximum financing-to- value ratio (FTV) of 80% on average at issuance; and
- (vii) the securitisations are subject to “risk retention” regulations which require issuers to retain an interest in the assets they securitise;
(b) corporate sukuk (including commercial paper) that satisfy all of the following conditions, subject to a 50% haircut:
- (i) they are not issued by a financial institution or any of its affiliated entities;
- (ii) they have a Credit Quality Grade of 2 or 3 from a recognised ECAI or, in the case the assets do not have a credit assessment by a recognised ECAI, are internally rated as having a probability of default (PD) corresponding to a Credit Quality Grade of 2 or 3;
- (iii) they are traded in large, deep and active repo or cash markets characterised by a low level of concentration; and
- (iv) they have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in the markets (repo or sale) even during stressed market conditions, (i.e. maximum decline of price or increase in haircut over a 30-day period during a relevant period of significant liquidity stress not exceeding 20%);
(c) equity shares that satisfy all of the following conditions, subject to a 50% haircut:
- (i) they are not issued by a financial institution or any of its affiliated entities;
- (ii) they are exchange traded and centrally cleared;
- (iii) they are a constituent of the major stock index in the home jurisdiction, or where the Liquidity Risk is taken, as decided by the supervisor in the jurisdiction where the index is located;
- (iv) they are denominated in the domestic currency of an Islamic Bank’s home jurisdiction or in the currency of the jurisdiction where the Islamic Bank’s Liquidity Risk is taken;
- (v) they are traded in large, deep and active repo or cash markets characterised by a low level of concentration; and
- (vi) they have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in the markets (repo or sale) even during stressed market conditions, (i.e. maximum decline of price or increase in haircut over a 30-day period during a relevant period of significant liquidity stress not exceeding 40%); and
(d) any other types of assets approved by the AFSA under paragraph 21 as being eligible to be Level 2B HQLA.
Approval of other types of HQLA
21. The AFSA may approve other types of assets as being eligible to be included in the stock of HQLA for the purposes of the calculation of the LCR. In such cases, the AFSA will also specify whether they are to be classified as Level 1 HQLA or Level 2 HQLA and the haircut, if any, to be applied to them. In such cases, the AFSA may also define the conditions that the assets must satisfy to be treated as HQLA.
Other provisions relating to LCR calculation
22. For the purpose of calculating the LCR, if an eligible asset within HQLA becomes ineligible (e.g. due to a rating downgrade), an Islamic Bank is allowed to keep the asset in its stock of HQLA for an additional 30 calendar days to allow time to adjust its stock as needed or replace the asset.
23. For the purpose of calculating a consolidated LCR for a Financial Group, where applicable, qualifying HQLA held to meet statutory liquidity requirements at a legal entity or sub-consolidated level may be included in the stock at the consolidated level only to the extent that the related risks are also reflected in the consolidated LCR. Any surplus of HQLA held at the legal entity can be included in the consolidated stock of HQLA only if those assets would also be freely available to the consolidated parent entity in times of stress.
24. An Islamic Bank must be able to meet its liquidity needs in each currency in which it has a material exposure. The currencies of the stock of HQLA of an Islamic Bank must be similar in composition to its liquidity needs by currency
Total Net Cash Outflow
25. An Islamic Bank must calculate its Total Net Cash Outflow over the following 30 calendar days in accordance with the following formula: Total Net Cash Outflows over the next 30 calendar days = total expected cash outflows – whichever is the lesser amount of total expected cash inflows or 75% of total expected cash outflows
26. Total expected cash outflows are calculated by multiplying the outstanding balances of various categories or types of liabilities and off-balance commitments by the rates at which they are expected to run off or be drawn down.
27. Total expected cash inflows are calculated by multiplying the outstanding balances of various categories of contractual receivables by the rates at which they are expected to flow in. To ensure a minimum level of HQLA holdings at all times, total cash inflows are subject to an aggregate cap of 75% of total expected cash outflows.
28. A Bank must not double-count items. That is, for assets included as part of the eligible stock of HQLA, the associated cash inflows arising from such assets must not be counted as cash inflows for the purpose of calculating the net cash outflows over the next 30 calendar days. Cash Outflows
29. The following table specifies, for each of the various categories or types of liabilities and off-balance sheet commitments, the rates at which they are expected to run off or be drawn down for the purpose of calculating the LCR.
Table 10 A - Cash Outflows
30. The following paragraphs set out the AFSA’s views about how the table above defining the treatment of various cash outflows should be applied to different items.
Retail Deposits
31. Retail deposits should include deposits from individuals placed with an Islamic Bank. Deposits from legal entities, sole proprietorships or partnerships should be included in wholesale deposit categories. Deposits may include demand deposits and term deposits, unless otherwise excluded. Deposits from individuals are divided under the Table into ‘stable’ and ‘less stable’ deposits. Stable deposits should include the portion of deposits that are fully covered by an effective deposit insurance scheme or by a public guarantee that provides equivalent protection and where:
(a) the depositor has other established relationships with the Bank that make deposit withdrawal highly unlikely; or
(b) the deposits are in transactional accounts (e.g. accounts where salaries are automatically credited).
32. If an Islamic Bank is not able to readily identify which retail deposits would qualify as “stable”, it should place the full amount in the “less stable” buckets. Less stable deposits should consist of the portion of deposits that do not meet the conditions in paragraph 34 above and also include types of deposits more likely to be withdrawn in a time of stress. These should include high-value deposits (i.e. deposits above any deposit insurance limit), deposits from customers who do not have established relationships with a Bank that make the deposit withdrawal unlikely, deposits from sophisticated or high net worth individuals, deposits where the internet is integral to the design, marketing and use of the account (on-line accounts) and deposits with promotional interest rates (i.e. that are heavily rate-driven).
33. Cash outflows related to retail term deposits with a residual maturity or withdrawal notice period of greater than 30 days should be excluded from total expected cash outflows only if the depositor has no legal right to withdraw deposits within the 30-day period of the LCR, or if early withdrawal results in a significant penalty that is materially greater than the loss of interest. If a Bank allows a depositor to withdraw such deposits despite a clause that says the depositor has no legal right to withdraw, the entire category of these funds should be treated as demand deposits.
34. Unsecured wholesale funding should consist of liabilities and general obligations raised from nonnatural persons (i.e. legal entities, including sole proprietorships and partnerships) and not collateralised by legal rights to specifically designated assets owned by the Islamic Bank accepting the deposit in the case of bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation or resolution. Obligations related to derivative contracts should be excluded from this category.
35. Unsecured wholesale funding provided by non-financial corporates and sovereigns, central banks, MDBs, and public sector enterprises comprises all deposits and other extensions of unsecured funding (other than those specifically for operational purposes) from:
(a) non-financial corporate customers (except small business customers); and
(b) domestic and foreign customers that are sovereigns, central banks, MDBs and public sector enterprises.
36. Unsecured wholesale funding provided by other legal entity customers consists of deposits and other funding (other than operational deposits) which do not qualify as Operational Deposits as defined in this Chapter, such as funding provided by:
(a) another financial institution; or
(b) a related party of the Bank.
37. All sukuk issued by the Islamic Bank are to be treated as unsecured wholesale funding provided by other legal entity customers regardless of the holder. However, securities that are sold exclusively in the retail market and held in retail accounts (or small business customer accounts) may be treated in the appropriate retail or small business customer deposit category. For securities to be treated in that way, there must be limitations preventing them being bought and held other than by retail or small business customers.
38. The wholesale funding included in the LCR should consist of all funding that is callable within the LCR’s period of 30 days or that has its earliest possible contractual maturity date within this period (such as maturing term deposits and unsecured sukuk), as well as funding with an undetermined maturity. This should include all funding with options that are exercisable at the investor’s discretion within the 30-day period.
39. Wholesale funding that is callable by the funds provider subject to a contractually defined and binding notice period longer than the 30-day period should not be included. Unsecured wholesale funding provided by small and medium-sized enterprise customers should be treated as deposits from individuals where:
(a) the deposits and other extensions of funds made by non-financial small and medium- sized enterprise customers are managed as retail accounts and are generally considered as having similar Liquidity Risk characteristics to retail accounts; and
(b) the total aggregated funding raised from a small and medium-sized enterprise customer is less than USD 1 million (on a consolidated basis where applicable).
Operational deposits
40. Operational deposits should consist of those deposits where customers place, or leave, deposits with a Bank to facilitate their access and ability to use payment and settlement systems and otherwise make payments. Balances can be included only if the customer has a substantive dependency on the Bank and the deposit is required for such activities. This condition would not be met if the Bank is aware that the customer has adequate back-up arrangements.
41. Qualifying activities in this context refer to clearing, custody or cash management activities where the customer is reliant on the Islamic Bank to perform these services as an independent third-party intermediary in order to fulfil its normal banking activities over the next 30 days. These services should be provided to institutional customers under a legally binding agreement and the termination of such agreements should be subject either to a notice period of at least 30 days or to significant switching costs to be borne by the customer if the operational deposits are moved before 30 days.
42. Eligible operational accounts and the funds in those accounts generated by such an activity should consist of deposits which are:
(a) by-products of the underlying services provided by the Islamic Bank;
(b) not offered by the Islamic Bank in the wholesale market in the sole interest of offering interest income; and
(c) held in specifically designated accounts and priced without giving an economic incentive to the customer to leave excess funds on these accounts.
43. Any excess balances that could be withdrawn without jeopardising these clearing, custody or cash management activities should not qualify as operational accounts. The Islamic Bank must determine how to identify such excess balances. If the Islamic Bank is unable to identify how much of a deposit is an excess balance, the Islamic Bank must assume that the entire deposit is excess and therefore not operational.
44. The identification should be sufficiently granular to adequately assess the risk of withdrawal in an idiosyncratic stress situation. The method should take into account relevant factors such as the likelihood that wholesale customers have above-average balances in advance of specific payment needs, and should consider appropriate indicators (for example, ratios of account balances to payment or settlement volumes or to assets under custody) to identify customers that are not actively managing account balances efficiently.
45. The following paragraphs provide some guidance on the type of services that may give rise to operational deposits.
46. Clearing is a service that enables customers to transfer funds (or securities) indirectly through direct participants in domestic settlement systems to final recipients. Such services are limited to the following activities:
(a) transmission, reconciliation and confirmation of payment orders
(b) daylight overdraft, overnight financing and maintenance of post-settlement balances
(c) determination of intra-day and final settlement positions.
47. Custody is the provision of safekeeping, reporting and processing of assets, or the facilitation of the operational and administrative elements of related activities on behalf of customers in the process of their transacting and retaining financial assets. Such services are limited to the settlement of securities transactions, the transfer of contractual payments, the processing of collateral, and the provision of custody-related cash management services. Custody also includes the receipt of dividends and other income and client subscriptions and redemptions, and extends to asset and corporate trust servicing, treasury, escrow, funds transfer, stock transfer and agency services, (including payment and settlement services, but not correspondent banking), and depository receipts.
48. Cash management is the provision of cash management and related services to customers—that is, services provided to a customer to manage its cash flows, assets and liabilities, and conduct financial transactions necessary to its operations. Such services are limited to payment remittance, collection and aggregation of funds, payroll administration, and control over the disbursement of funds.
49. Correspondent banking is an arrangement under which a bank holds deposits owned by other banks, and provides payment and other services to settle foreign currency transactions. A deposit that arises out of correspondent banking, or from the provision of prime brokerage services, should not be treated as an operational deposit. Prime brokerage services is a package of services offered to large active investors, particularly institutional hedge funds. The services usually include:
(a) clearing, settlement and custody
(b) consolidated reporting
(c) financing (margin, repo or synthetic)
(d) securities financing
(e) capital introduction
(f) risk analytics.
50. Customers’ cash balances arising from the provision of prime brokerage services must be treated as separate from any balances required to be segregated under a statutory client protection regime, and must not be netted against other customer exposures. Such offsetting balances held in segregated accounts are to be treated as inflows and must not be counted as HQLA. Any part of an operational account that is fully covered by deposit protection arrangements or other safety nets, may be treated as a stable retail funds.
51. An institutional network of cooperative banks is a group of legally separate banks with a statutory framework of cooperation with a common strategic focus and brand, in which certain functions are performed by a central institution or a specialised service provider. A qualifying deposit is a deposit by a member institution with the central institution or specialised central service provider:
(a) because of statutory minimum deposit requirements; or
(b) in the context of common task-sharing and legal, statutory or contractual arrangements (but only if both the investment account holder and the Islamic bank that receives the deposit participate in the network’s scheme of mutual protection against illiquidity and insolvency).
52. The following are not eligible deposits:
(a) Funds resulting from correspondent banking activities;
(b) funds placed at the central institution or a specialised service provider for any reason other than those defined as eligibility requirements for Qualifying Deposits in paragraph 57 above;
(c) funds for the operational purposes of clearing, custody, or cash management.
Liquidity facilities
53. A liquidity facility should consist of any committed, undrawn back-up facility that would be used to refinance the debt obligations of a customer in situations where such a customer is unable to roll over that debt in financial markets. The amount of any commitment to be treated as a liquidity facility should consist of the amount of the outstanding debt issued by the customer (or proportionate share of a syndicated facility) maturing within a 30-day period that is backstopped by the facility. Any additional capacity of the facility should be treated as a committed credit facility. General working capital facilities for corporate entities (e.g. revolving credit facilities in place for general corporate or working capital purposes) should not be classified as liquidity facilities, but as credit facilities.
54. Notwithstanding paragraph 53 above, any facilities provided to hedge funds, money market funds and special purpose funding vehicles, or other vehicles used to finance an Islamic Bank’s own assets, should be captured in their entirety as a liquidity facility to a financial institution.
Treatment of deposits pledged as security
55. If a deposit is pledged as security for a financing facility:
(a) the facility will not mature or be settled within the relevant 30-calendar-day period; and
(b) the pledge is subject to a legally enforceable contract under which the deposit cannot be withdrawn before the facility is fully settled or repaid.
56. If no part of the facility has been drawn, the runoff rate is the higher of:
(a) the rate specified in Table 9A, that would apply to secured or unsecured funding, as the case maybe; and
(b) a rate equal to the rate applicable to Undrawn committed credit and liquidity facilities specified in Table 9 A.
57. However, if some part of the facility has been drawn, only that part of the deposit in excess of the outstanding balance of the facility is to be counted. The applicable runoff rate is the rate that applies to secured or unsecured funding, as the case maybe.
Treatment of maturing secured funding
58. The runoff rates for secured funding that matures within the relevant 30-calendar-day period are as set out in table 9A. Secured funding is an Islamic Bank’s liabilities and general obligations collateralised by the grant of legal rights to specific assets owned by the Islamic Bank. This scenario assumes that the Islamic Bank has lost its secured funding on short-term financing transactions. In this scenario, the Islamic Bank could continue to transact securities financing transactions only if the transactions were backed by HQLA or were with its domestic sovereign, public sector enterprise or central bank.
59. Collateral swaps, and any other transactions of a similar form, are to be treated as repo or reverse repo agreements. Collateral lent to the Islamic Bank’s customers to effect short positions is to be treated as secured funding. The Islamic Bank must apply the factors to all outstanding secured funding transactions with maturities within 30 calendar days, including customer short positions that do not have a specified contractual maturity. The amount of outflow is the amount of funds raised through the transaction, and not the value of the underlying collateral.
Treatment of net derivative cash outflows
60. As specified in Table 9A, the runoff rate for net derivative cash outflows is 100%. The Islamic Bank must calculate those outflows in accordance with its usual valuation methods. The outflows may be calculated on a net basis by counterparty (that is, inflows offsetting outflows) only if a valid master netting agreement exists. From the calculation, the Islamic Bank must exclude liquidity needs that would result from increased collateral needs because of falls in the value of collateral lodged or market value movements. The Islamic Bank must assume that an option will be exercised if it is in the money.
61. If derivative payments are collateralised by HQLA, the cash outflows are to be calculated net of any corresponding cash or collateral inflows that would result, all other things being equal, from contractual obligations to lodge cash or collateral with the Islamic Bank. However, this condition applies only if, after the collateral were received, the Islamic Bank would be legally entitled and operationally able to re- hypothecate it.
62. The runoff rate for increased liquidity needs related to market valuation changes on derivative instruments is 100% of the largest absolute net collateral flow (based on both realised outflows and inflows) in a 30-calendar-day period during the previous 24 months. Market practice requires collateralisation of mark-to-market exposures on derivative instruments. Islamic Banks are likely to face potentially substantial Liquidity Risk exposures to changes in the market valuation of such instruments. Inflows and outflows of transactions executed under the same master netting agreement may be treated on a net basis.
Elevated liquidity needs related to downgrade triggers
63. The runoff rate for increased liquidity needs related to downgrade triggers in financing transactions, derivatives and other contracts is 100% of the amount of collateral that the Bank would be required to lodge for, or the contractual cash outflow associated with, any downgrade up to and including a 3-notch downgrade. A downgrade trigger is a contractual condition that requires a Bank to lodge additional collateral, draw down a contingent facility or repay existing liabilities early if an ECRA downgrades the Bank. Contracts governing derivatives and other transactions often have such conditions. The scenario therefore requires a Bank to assume that for each contract that contains downgrade triggers, 100% of the additional collateral or cash outflow will have to be lodged for a downgrade up to and including a 3-notch downgrade of the Islamic Bank’s long-term credit rating. The Islamic Bank must assume that a downgrade trigger linked to the Islamic Bank’s short-term rating will be triggered at the corresponding long-term rating.
Increased liquidity needs related to collateral
64. The runoff rate for increased liquidity needs related to possible valuation changes on collateral lodged by an Islamic Bank to secure derivatives and other transactions is 20% of the value of any lodged collateral that is not level 1 HQLA (net of collateral received on a counterparty basis, if the collateral received is not subject to restrictions on re-use or re-hypothecation). Most counterparties to derivative transactions are required to secure the mark-to- market valuation of their positions. If level 1 HQLA are lodged as collateral, no additional stock of HQLA need be maintained for possible valuation changes. However, if the Islamic Bank secures such an exposure with other collateral, 20% of the value of such lodged collateral will be added to its required stock of HQLA to cover the possible loss of market value on the collateral.
65. The runoff rate for increased liquidity needs related to excess non- segregated collateral that is held by an Islamic Bank, and could contractually be recalled at any time by a counterparty, is 100% of the value of the excess collateral.
66. The runoff rate for increased liquidity needs related to contractually- required collateral, due from an Islamic Bank on transactions for which the counterparty has not yet demanded that the collateral be lodged, is 100% of the value of the collateral that is contractually due. This run-off rate applies to the following kinds of transaction:
(a) transactions where:
(i) an Islamic Bank holds HQLA collateral;
(ii) the counterparty has the right to substitute non-HQLA collateral for some or all of the HQLA collateral without the Bank’s consent; and
(iii) the collateral is not segregated;
(b) transactions where:
(i) an Islamic Bank has the right to receive HQLA collateral;
(ii) the counterparty has the right to deliver non-HQLA collateral instead of some or all of the HQLA collateral without the Bank’s consent; and
(iii) the collateral is not segregated.
67. The runoff rate for increased liquidity needs related to such a transaction is 100% of the value of HQLA collateral for which non-HQLA collateral can be substituted or delivered, as the case requires.
Treatment of loss of funding on structured finance transactions
68. The runoff rate for loss of funding on asset-backed securities and other structured financing instruments that mature within the relevant 30- calendar-day period is 100% of the maturing amount. The scenario assumes that there is no refinancing market for the maturing instruments.
69. The runoff rate for loss of funding on asset-backed commercial paper, conduits, structured investment vehicles and other similar financing arrangements that mature within the relevant 30- calendar-day period is 100% of the total of:
(a) the maturing amount;
(b) if the arrangement allows assets to be returned within that period— the value of the returnable assets; and
(c) if under the arrangement the Islamic Bank could be obliged to provide liquidity within that period—the total amount of liquidity that the Islamic Bank could be obliged to provide.
70. Islamic Banks that use asset-backed commercial paper, conduits, structured investment vehicles and other similar financing arrangements should fully consider the associated Liquidity Risk. The risks include being unable to refinance maturing debt or derivatives or derivative-like components that would allow the return of assets, or require the Islamic Bank to provide liquidity, within the 30- calendar-day period.
71. If the Islamic Bank’s structured financing activities are carried out through a special purpose entity (such as a conduit or structured investment vehicle), the Islamic Bank should, in determining its HQLA requirements, look through to the maturity of the debt instruments issued by the entity and any embedded options in financing arrangements that could trigger the return of assets or the need for liquidity, regardless of whether the entity is consolidated
Committed credit and liquidity facilities
72. The runoff rates for drawdowns on committed credit and liquidity facilities are set out in table 9A. A credit facility is a contractual agreement or obligation to extend funds in the future to a retail or wholesale counterparty. For this Rule, a facility that is unconditionally revocable is not a credit facility. Unconditionally revocable facilities (in particular, those without a precondition of a material change in the borrower’s credit condition) are included in Contingent funding obligations. A liquidity facility is an irrevocable, undrawn credit facility that would be used to refinance the debt obligations of a customer if the customer were unable to roll over the obligations in financial markets. General working capital facilities for corporate borrowers (for example, revolving credit facilities for general corporate or working capital purposes) are to be treated as credit facilities.
73. For a facility, the relevant runoff rate is to be applied to the undrawn part of it. The undrawn portion of a credit or liquidity facility is to be calculated net of any HQLA lodged or to be lodged as collateral if:
(a) the HQLA have already been lodged, or the counterparty is contractually required to lodge them when drawing down the facility;
(b) the Bank is legally entitled and operationally able to re-hypothecate the collateral in new cashraising transactions once the facility is drawn down; and
(c) there is no undue correlation between the probability of drawing down the facility and the market value of the collateral.
74. An Islamic Bank may net the collateral against the outstanding amount of the facility to the extent that the collateral is not already counted in the Bank’s HQLA portfolio. The amount of a liquidity facility is to be taken as the amount of outstanding debt issued by the customer concerned (or a proportionate share of a syndicated facility) that matures within the relevant 30-calendar-day period and is backstopped by the facility. Any additional capacity of the facility is to be treated as a committed credit facility. The Islamic Bank must treat a facility provided to a hedge fund, money market fund or special purpose entity, or an entity used to finance its own assets, in its entirety as a liquidity facility to a financial institution
Other contractual obligations to extend funds within 30 calendar days
75. The runoff rate for other contractual obligations to extend funds within 30 calendar days is 100%. Other contractual obligations to extend funds within 30 calendar days covers all contractual obligations to extend funds within 30 calendar days that do not fall within any of the categories referred above in this section or in Table A. The runoff rate of 100% is to be applied to:
(a) for obligations owed to financial institutions—the whole amount of such obligations; and
(b) for obligations owed to customers that are not financial institutions—the difference between:
(i) the total amount of the obligations; and
(ii) 50% of the contractual inflows from those customers over the relevant 30-calendarday period.
76. The runoff rates for other contingent funding obligations are as set out in table 9A. Contingent funding obligations covers obligations arising from guarantees, letters of credit, unconditionally revocable credit and liquidity facilities, outstanding sukuk with remaining maturity of more than 30 calendar days, and trade finance. It also covers non-contractual obligations, including obligations arising from any of the following:
(a) potential liquidity draws from joint ventures or minority investments in entities;
(b) debt-buy-back requests (including related conduits);
(c) structured products;
(d) managed funds;
(e) the use of customers’ collateral to cover other customers’ short positions.
77. Trade finance means trade-related obligations directly related to the movement of goods or the provision of services, such as the following:
(a) documentary trade letters of credit, documentary collection and clean collection, import bills, and export bills;
(b) guarantees directly related to trade finance obligations, such as shipping guarantees.
78. However, financing commitments, such as direct import or export financing for non-financial corporate entities, are to be treated as committed credit facilities. The runoff rate to be applied to other contractual cash outflows is 100%. Other contractual cash outflows includes outflows to cover unsecured collateral borrowings and uncovered short positions, and outflows to cover dividends and contractual interest payments, but does not include outflows related to operating costs.
Cash Inflows
79. When considering its available cash inflows, an Islamic Bank may include contractual inflows from outstanding exposures only if they are fully performing and there is no reasonable basis to expect a default within the 30-day period. Contingent inflows are not included in total net cash inflows. Where an Islamic Bank is overly reliant on cash inflows from one or a limited number of wholesale counterparties, the AFSA may set an alternative limit on the level of cash inflows that can be included in the LCR.
80. The AFSA may allow an Islamic Bank to recognise as cash inflow, access to a parent entity’s funds via a committed funding facility if it is a Subsidiary of a foreign bank. In such instances, the committed funding facility from the parent entity must meet both of the following criteria:
(a) the facility must be an irrevocable commitment and must be appropriately documented; and
(b) the facility must be quantified.
81. A committed funding facility from a parent entity referred to in paragraph 80 above, can be recognised as a cash inflow only from day 16 of the LCR scenario. The cash inflow from a parent entity can be sufficient in size to cover only net cash outflows against items with a maturity or next call date between days 16 and 30 of the LCR.
82. Total expected cash inflow over a period is calculated by, for each contractual cash inflow over the period, multiplying it by the applicable rate of inflows (giving the adjusted inflow), and then taking the total of all the adjusted inflows over the period. The following table 10 B specifies, for each of the various categories and types of contractual receivables, the rates at which they are expected to flow in for the purpose of the calculation of the LCR:
Table 10 B - Cash Inflows
83. The inflow rates provided in table 10B do not represent an assumption about the risk of a default— instead, it represents the likelihood that the relevant obligation will be rolled over (so that the Islamic Bank does not actually receive the cash) or that no cash will be received for some other reason. Inflows for which an inflow rate of 0% is specified are effectively treated as not being receivable.
84. An Islamic Bank calculating its cash inflows may include a contractual inflow from an exposure only if it is classified as performing or as “special mention” under BBR Rules, and there is no reason to expect a default within the relevant period. The Islamic Bank must not include any contingent inflows or any inflow that would be received from an asset in the its HQLA portfolio.
85. In a stressed situation, the assets in the Islamic Bank’s HQLA portfolio would already have been monetised. That is the purpose of those assets—to be monetised to provide liquidity. Consequently, in a scenario of liquidity stress, the contracted cash inflows from them would no longer be available to it. The Islamic Bank may include, in cash inflows during a period, profit margin that it expects to receive during the period.
86. If the collateral backing a secured credit, including margin financing transactions, has been rehypothecated, then the applicable inflow rate would be 0%, for all categories of secured credit and not the rate mentioned in Table 10B.
87. The inflow rate for credit facilities and liquidity facilities provided to an Islamic Bank is 0%.
88. The inflow rate for operational deposits held by an Islamic Bank with other financial institutions or banks is 0%. Operational deposits for this purpose would have the same meaning as used in calculation of net cash outflows.
89. The inflow rate for net derivative cash inflows is 100%. The Islamic Bank must calculate those inflows in accordance with its usual valuation methods. The inflows may be calculated on a net basis by counterparty (that is, inflows offset outflows) only if a valid master netting agreement exists. From the calculation, the Islamic Bank must exclude liquidity needs that would result from increased collateral needs because of market value movements or falls in the value of collateral lodged.
90. The Islamic Bank must assume that an option will be exercised if it is in the money to the buyer. If derivative cash inflows are collateralised by HQLA, the inflows are to be calculated net of any corresponding cash or collateral outflows that would result from contractual obligations for the Islamic Bank to lodge cash or collateral. However, this condition applies only if, after the collateral were received, the Islamic Bank would be legally entitled and operationally able to re- hypothecate it
Maturing secured financing, including reverse repos and securities borrowing
91. An Islamic Bank should assume that maturing Shari’ah-compliant reverse repos or securities borrowing agreements secured by Level 1 HQLA will be rolled over and will not give rise to any cash inflows (zero %). Maturing reverse repos or securities borrowing agreements secured by Level 2 HQLA should be modelled as cash inflows, equivalent to the relevant haircut for the specific assets. An Islamic Bank is assumed not to roll-over maturing reserve repurchase or securities borrowing agreements secured by non-HQLA assets and can assume it will receive 100% of the cash related to those agreements. Collateralised financings extended to customers for the purpose of taking leveraged trading positions, i.e. margin financings, should be modelled with a 50% cash inflow from contractual inflows made against non-HQLA collateral.
92. An exception to paragraph 50 above is the situation where, if the collateral obtained through Shari’ah-compliant reverse repos, securities borrowing or collateral swaps, which matures within the 30-day period, is re-used (i.e. rehypothecated) and is tied up for 30 days or longer to cover short positions. An Islamic Bank should then assume that such reverse repo or securities borrowing arrangements will be rolled over and will not give rise to any cash inflows (zero %), reflecting its need to continue to cover the short position or to repurchase the relevant securities.
93. An Islamic Bank should manage its collateral so that it is able to fulfil obligations to return collateral whenever the counterparty decides not to roll-over any reverse repo or securities financing transaction. This is especially the case for non-HQLA collateral, since such outflows are not captured in the LCR framework.
94. Lines of credit, liquidity facilities and other contingent funding facilities that an Islamic Bank holds at other institutions for its own purposes should be assumed to be able to be drawn and so such facilities should receive a 0 % inflow rate.
95. All inflows should be taken only at the latest possible date, based on the contractual rights available to counterparties. Inflows from financings that have no specific maturity should not be included, with the exception of minimum payments of principal, fee or interest associated with an open maturity financing.
96. Other contractual cash inflows should be included under this category. Cash inflows related to nonfinancial revenues should not be taken into account in the calculation of the net cash outflows for the purposes of the LCR. These items should receive an inflow rate of 100%.
97. The Islamic Bank must assume that inflows will be received at the latest possible date, based on the contractual rights available to counterparties. The following inflows are not to be included:
(a) inflows (except for minimum payments of principal, fee or profit) from financings that have no specific maturity;
(b) inflows related to non-financial revenues.
Other requirements for LCR
98. An Islamic Bank active in multiple currencies should:
(a) maintain HQLA consistent with the distribution of its liquidity needs by currency;
(b) assess its aggregate foreign currency liquidity needs and determine an acceptable level of currency mismatches; and
(c) undertake a separate analysis of its strategy for each currency in which it has material activities, considering potential constraints in times of stress.
99. In respect of the obligation to notify the AFSA about a real or potential breach of its LCR requirement, an Islamic Bank in its notification should clearly explain:
(a) the reasons for not meeting the limits;
(b) measures that have been taken and will be taken to ensure it meets its LCR Requirement; and
(c) its expectations regarding the potential duration of the situation.
100. The Islamic Bank should discuss with the AFSA what, if any, further steps it should take to deal with the situation, prior to making that notification.
Liquid assets buffer
101. An Islamic Bank must, except during periods when it experiences liquidity stress, maintain a buffer of HQLA over the minimum level of LCR required according to Rule 10.27. The size of the HQLA buffer must be appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its operations and must also be in determined considering the Islamic Bank’s Liquidity Risk tolerance and the results of its liquidity stress tests. An Islamic Bank should conduct such liquidity stress tests to assess the level of liquidity it should hold beyond the minimum required under this section, and construct its own scenarios that could cause difficulties for its specific business activities. Such internal stress tests should incorporate longer periods than the ones required under Rule 10.12. Islamic Banks are expected to share the results of these additional stress tests with the AFSA. The AFSA may require an Islamic Bank to maintain an additional buffer of liquid assets in cases where the AFSA assesses that it has failed to carry out stress tests effectively.
B. Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR)
102. The requirement for a Bank to maintain a net stable funding ratio is one of the Basel Committee’s key reforms to promote a more resilient banking sector. The requirement will oblige Banks including Islamic Banks, to maintain a stable funding profile in relation to the composition of their assets and off-balance-sheet activities. A stable funding profile is intended to reduce the likelihood that disruptions to a Bank’s regular sources of funding will erode its liquidity position in a way that would increase the risk of its failure, and might lead to broader systemic stress. The requirement is intended to limit Banks’ reliance on short-term wholesale funding, promote funding stability, and encourage better assessment of funding risk on and off Banks’ balance-sheets.
103. In respect of this Section B of Appendix 1, the following are the key definitions:
(a) ASF is defined as the amount of its available stable funding, calculated in accordance with this Section B.
(b) carrying value of a capital instrument, liability or asset is the value given for the instrument, liability or asset in the prudential returns of the Islamic Bank concerned.
(c) Net Stable Funding Ratio is defined in Rule 10.28.
(d) NSFR means net stable funding ratio.
(e) RSF is defined as the amount of its required stable funding, calculated in accordance with this Section B of Appendix 1.
Application to a Financial Group
104. For calculating a consolidated NSFR for a Financial Group, assets held to meet an Islamic Bank’s NSFR may be included in the parent entity’s stable funding only so far as the related liabilities are reflected in the parent entity’s NSFR. Any surplus of assets held at the Islamic Bank may be treated as forming part of the parent entity’s stable funding only if those assets would be freely available to the parent entity during a period of stress.
105. When calculating its NSFR on a consolidated basis, a cross-border banking group must apply the Rules of its home jurisdiction to all the legal entities being consolidated, except for the treatment of retail and small business deposits. Such deposits for a consolidated entity must be treated according to the Rules in the jurisdiction in which the entity operates. A cross-border banking group must not take excess stable funding into account in calculating its consolidated NSFR if there is reasonable doubt about whether the funding would be available during a period of stress.
106. Asset transfer restrictions (for example, ring-fencing measures, non-convertibility of local currency, foreign exchange controls) in jurisdictions in which a banking group operates would affect the availability of liquidity by restricting the transfer of assets and funding within the group. The consolidated NSFR should reflect the restrictions consistently with this Rule. For example, assets held to meet a local NSFR requirement by a Subsidiary that is being consolidated can be included in the consolidated NSFR to the extent that the assets are used to cover the funding requirements of that subsidiary, even if the assets are subject to restrictions on transfer. If the assets held in excess of the total funding requirements are not transferable, the Islamic Bank should not count that funding
Determining maturity of liabilities
107. When an Islamic Bank is determining the maturity of an equity or liability instrument, it must assume that a call option will be exercised at the earliest possible date. In particular, if the market expects a liability to be exercised before its legal final maturity date, the Islamic Bank must assign the liability to the category that is consistent with the market expectation.
108. For long-dated liabilities, the Islamic Bank may treat only the part of cash flows falling at or beyond the 6-month and 1-year time horizons as having an effective residual maturity of 6 months or more and 1 year or more, respectively.
109. An Islamic Bank must calculate the value of a derivative liability based on the replacement cost for the derivative contract (obtained by marking to market) if the contract has a negative value. If there is a netting agreement with the counterparty that meets both of the conditions for the netting agreement and the other conditions referred in this and the following paragraph, the replacement cost for the set of exposures covered by the agreement is taken to be the net replacement cost. The conditions for the netting agreement are as follows:
(a) the Islamic Bank should have a claim to receive, or an obligation to pay, only the net amount of the mark-to-market values of the transactions if the counterparty were to fail to perform; and
(b) the agreement does not contain a walkaway clause. 110. The other conditions are as follows:
(a) the Islamic Bank holds a written, reasoned legal opinion that the relevant courts and administrative authorities would find the Islamic Bank’s exposure to be the net amount referred to in paragraph (8) (a) above, under each of the following laws:
(i) the law of the jurisdiction in which the counterparty is established;
(ii) if a foreign branch of the counterparty is involved, the law of the jurisdiction in which the branch is located;
(iii) the law that governs the individual transactions;
(iv) the law that governs the netting agreement (and any other agreement necessary to effect the netting);
(b) the Islamic Bank has procedures to ensure that netting arrangements are kept under review in the light of possible changes in the relevant law;
(c) the AFSA is satisfied that the netting agreement is enforceable under all of the laws referred to in paragraph (a).
111. Collateral lodged in the form of variation margin in connection with derivative contracts, regardless of the asset type, must be deducted from the negative replacement cost amount.
112. When determining the maturity of an asset, an Islamic Bank must assume that any option to extend that maturity will be exercised. In particular, if the market expects the maturity of an asset to be extended, the Islamic Bank must assign the asset to the category that is consistent with the market expectation. For an amortising financing like diminishing musharakah financing, the Islamic Bank may treat the part that comes due within 1 year as having residual maturity of less than 1 year.
Inclusion of assets in RSF calculation
113. When determining its RSF, an Islamic Bank:
(a) must include financial instruments, foreign currencies and commodities for which a purchase order has been executed; but
(b) must not include financial instruments, foreign currencies and commodities for which a sales order has been executed; even if the transactions have not been reflected in the Islamic Bank’s balance- sheet under a settlement-date accounting model. This condition applies only if:
(a) the relevant transactions are not reflected as derivatives or secured financing transactions in the Islamic Bank’s balance-sheet; and
(b) the effects of the transactions will be reflected in the Islamic Bank’s balance-sheet when settled.
Treatment of securities financing transactions
114. When determining its RSF, an Islamic Bank must not include securities that the Islamic Bank has borrowed in Shari’ah-compliant securities financing transactions if the Islamic Bank does not have beneficial ownership. However, the Islamic Bank must include securities that it has lent in securities financing transactions if it retains beneficial ownership of them.
115. In addition, the Islamic Bank must not include securities that it has received through collateral swaps if those securities do not appear on the Islamic Bank’s balance- sheet. The Islamic Bank must include securities that it has encumbered in repos or other securities financing transactions, if the Islamic Bank has retained beneficial ownership of the securities and they remain on the Islamic Bank’s balance-sheet
Netting of securities financing transactions with a single counterparty
116. When determining its RSF, a Islamic Bank may net securities financing transactions with a single counterparty only if all of the following conditions are met:
(a) the transactions have the same explicit final settlement date;
(b) the right to set off the amount owed to the counterparty with the amount owed by the counterparty is legally enforceable both currently in the normal course of business and in the event of default, insolvency or bankruptcy; and
(c) one of the following applies:
(i) the counterparties intend to settle net;
(ii) the counterparties intend to settle simultaneously;
(iii) the transactions are subject to a settlement mechanism that results in the functional equivalent of net settlement.
117. Functional equivalent of net settlement means that the cash flows of the transactions are equivalent to a single net amount on the settlement date. To achieve that equivalence, both transactions are settled through the same settlement system and the settlement arrangements are supported by cash or intraday credit facilities intended to ensure that settlement of both transactions will occur by the end of the business day and that the linkages to collateral flows do not result in the unwinding of net cash settlement
Calculating Shari’ah-compliant derivative assets
118. When determining its RSF, an Islamic Bank must calculate the value of a Shari’ah-compliant derivative asset first based on the replacement cost for the contract (obtained by marking to market) if the contract has a positive value. If there is a netting agreement with the counterparty that satisfies all the conditions in paragraphs 116 and 117 above, the replacement cost for the set of exposures covered by the agreement is taken to be the net replacement cost.
119. Collateral received in connection with a Shari’ah-compliant derivative contract does not offset the positive replacement cost amount, regardless of whether or not netting is permitted under the Islamic Bank’s accounting or risk-based framework, unless the collateral is received in the form of cash variation margin, and all of the following conditions are met:
(a) either:
(i) the trades are cleared through a qualifying central counterparty; or
(ii) the cash received by the counterparty is not segregated;
(b) the variation margin is calculated and exchanged every day, based on mark-to-market valuation of the relevant positions;
(c) the variation margin is received in the same currency as the currency of settlement of the contract;
(d) the variation margin exchanged is the full amount that would be necessary to fully extinguish the mark-to-market exposure of the contract subject to the threshold and minimum transfer amounts applicable to the counterparty;
(e) derivative transactions and variation margins are covered by a single master netting agreement (MNA) between the counterparties;
(f) the MNA explicitly stipulates that the counterparties agree to settle net any payment obligations covered by the agreement, taking into account any variation margin received or provided if a credit event occurs involving either counterparty;
(g) the MNA is legally enforceable and effective in all the relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of default, bankruptcy or insolvency.
120. Any remaining balance-sheet liability associated with initial margin received or variation margin received that does not meet all of the conditions in the (a) to (g) of the previous paragraph, does not offset derivative assets and receives a 0% ASF factor.
121. For the purposes of this section, a qualifying central counterparty is an entity that is licensed to operate as a central counterparty in relation to the instruments concerned and the financial regulator that is responsible for its prudential supervision:
(a) has established Rules and regulations for central counterparties that are consistent with Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures, published by the International Organization of Securities Commissions in July 2011; and
(b) has publicly indicated that it applies those Rules and regulations to the entity on an ongoing basis.
Calculating ASF
122. The amount of an Islamic Bank’s ASF is calculated using the following steps:
(c) assign each of the Islamic Bank’s capital items and liabilities to 1 of the 5 categories set out in the following paragraphs 123 to 127;
(d) next, for each category add up the carrying values of all the capital items and liabilities assigned to the category;
(e) next, for each category multiply the total carrying values of the capital items and liabilities assigned to the category by the category’s ASF factor (also set out in paragraphs 123 to 127), giving the weighted amounts; and
(f) add up the weighted amounts.
123. The Category 1 liabilities and capital that receive a 100% ASF factor include:
(a) the total amount of the Islamic Bank’s RC (as set out BBR Chapter 4), excluding any Tier 2 instrument with residual maturity of less than 1 year, before the application of capital deductions;
(b) any other capital instrument that has an effective residual maturity of 1 year or more (except any instrument with an explicit or embedded option that, if exercised, would reduce the expected maturity to less than 1 year);
(c) the total amount of secured and unsecured borrowings and liabilities (including term deposits) with effective residual maturities of 1 year or more. For (c) above, cash flows falling within the 1-year horizon but arising from liabilities with final maturity of more than 1 year do not qualify for the 100% ASF factor.
124. The Category 2 liabilities that receive 95% ASF factor include stable deposits (as defined in Section B of this Appendix 1 of IBB Module), with residual maturities of less than 1 year provided by retail and small-business customers.
125. The Category 3 liabilities that receive 90% ASF factor are the liabilities that receive a 90% ASF factor are less stable deposits (as defined in Section B of this Appendix 1 of IBB Module) with residual maturities of less than 1 year provided by retail and small-business customers.
126. The Category 4 liabilities that receive 50% ASF factor include the following:
(a) funding (secured and unsecured) with residual maturity of less than 1 year, from corporate customers that are not financial institutions;
(b) operational deposits (as defined in Section B of this Appendix 1 of IBB Module);
(c) funding with residual maturity of less than 1 year from sovereigns, public sector entities, MDBs and national development banks;
(d) other funding (secured or unsecured) not falling within the previous paragraphs (a) to (c), with residual maturity of between 6 months and 1 year, including funding from central banks and financial institutions.
127. The Category 5 liabilities that receive 0% ASF factor include the following:
(a) capital not included in Category 1 for this calculation;
(b) liabilities not included in Category 1 to 4 for this calculation;
(c) other liabilities without a stated maturity, except that:
(i) a deferred tax liability must be categorised according to the nearest possible date on which it could be realised; and
(ii) minority interest must be treated according to the term of the instrument, usually in perpetuity. Funding from central banks and financial institutions with residual maturity of less than 6 months would fall within paragraph (b) above.
(d) NSFR derivative liabilities net of NSFR derivative assets, if NSFR derivative liabilities are greater than NSFR derivative assets; Note For how to calculate NSFR derivative liabilities, please refer paragraphs 107 to 111 of this section of Appendix 1 of the IBB Module. For how to calculate NSFR derivative assets, please refer paragraphs 118 to 121 of this section of Appendix 1 of the IBB Module.
(e) trade-date payables arising from purchases of financial instruments, foreign currencies and commodities that:
(i) are expected to settle within the standard settlement cycle or period that is customary for the relevant exchange or type of transaction; or
(ii) have failed to settle, but are still expected to do so.
128. Other liabilities without a stated maturity could include short positions, positions with open maturity and deferred tax liabilities. A liability referred to in paragraph 127 (c) above would receive either a
100% ASF factor if its effective maturity were 1 year or more, or a 50% ASF factor if its effective maturity were between 6 months and 1 year.
Calculating RSF
129. An Islamic Bank’s RSF is calculated following these steps, in the same sequence as they are listed below:
(a) assign each of the Islamic Bank’s assets to 1 of the 8 categories set out in paragraphs 130 to 137 of this Section of Appendix 1 of the IBB Module;
(b) then, for each category add up the carrying values of all the assets assigned to the category;
(c) following that, for each category multiply the total carrying values of the assets assigned to the category by the category’s RSF factor (also set out in paragraphs 130 to 137), giving the weighted amounts;
(d) next, multiply the amounts of each of the Islamic Bank’s off-balance-sheet exposures by the exposure’s RSF factor (set out in paragraph 139), giving the OBS weighted amounts;
(e) finally, add the weighted amounts and the OBS weighted amounts.
130. The Category 1 assets that receive 0% RSF factor include the following, subject to the paragraphs 138 & 139, which pertain to certain encumbered assets:
(a) currency notes and coins immediately available to meet obligations;
(b) central bank reserves (including required reserves and excess reserves);
(c) claims on central banks with residual maturities of less than 6 months;
(d) trade-date receivables arising from sales of financial instruments, foreign currencies and commodities that:
(i) are expected to settle within the standard settlement cycle or period that is customary for the relevant exchange or type of transaction; or
(ii) have failed to settle, but are still expected to do so.
131. The Category 2 assets that receive 5% RSF factor include the assets that receive a 5% RSF factor are unencumbered level 1 HQLA (except assets that receive a 0% RSF factor under paragraph
140.
132. The Category 3 assets that receive 10% RSF factor include unencumbered financings to financial institutions, with residual maturities of less than 6 months, that are secured against level 1 HQLA that the Islamic Bank can freely re- hypothecate during the financings’ life.
133. The Category 4 assets that receive 15% RSF factor include unencumbered level 2A HQLA and unencumbered financings to financial institutions, with residual maturities of less than 6 months, that do not fall within Category 3 assets as defined in paragraph 180.
134. The Category 5 assets that receive 50% RSF factor include the following:
(a) unencumbered level 2B HQLA;
(b) HQLA that are encumbered for between 6 months and 1 year;
(c) financings, with residual maturity of between 6 months and 1 year, to financial institutions and central banks;
(d) operational deposits (as defined in paragraphs 40 to 52 of this Section B of Appendix 1of IBB Module) at other financial institutions;
(e) all other non-HQLA with residual maturity of less than 1 year, including financings to nonfinancial corporate clients, financings to retail customers and small business customers, and financings to sovereigns and public sector entities.
135. The Category 6 assets that receive 65% RSF factor include unencumbered residential financings, with residual maturity of 1 year or more, that qualify for a risk weight of 35% or lower (according to Rules in Chapter 6 of IBB Module) and other unencumbered financings (except financings to financial institutions), with residual maturity of 1 year or more, that qualify for a risk weight of 35% or lower (according to Rules in Chapter 6 of IBB Module).
136. The Category 7 assets that receive 85% RSF factor include the following types of assets, subject to the paragraphs 138 & 139, which pertain to certain encumbered assets:
(a) cash, securities or other assets lodged as initial margin for derivative contracts, and cash or other assets provided to contribute to the default fund of a central counterparty;
(b) unencumbered performing assets (except credits to financial institutions), with residual maturity of 1 year or more, that do not qualify for a risk weight of 35% or lower, under Rules in Chapter 6 of IBB Module;
(c) unencumbered securities with residual maturity of 1 year or more;
(d) exchange-traded equities that are not in default and do not qualify as HQLA;
(e) physical traded commodities, including gold. Despite (a) above, if securities or other assets lodged as initial margin for derivative contracts would otherwise receive a higher RSF factor than 85%, they retain that higher factor.
137. The Category 8 assets that receive 100% RSF factor include the following:
(a) assets that are encumbered for 1 year or more;
(b) NSFR derivative assets, net of NSFR derivative liabilities, if NSFR derivative assets are greater than NSFR derivative liabilities;
(c) all other assets not falling within categories 1 to 7 (including non- performing assets, financings to financial institutions with residual maturity of 1 year or more, non-exchangetraded equities, fixed assets, items deducted from RC, retained interest, insurance assets, Subsidiary interests and defaulted securities);
(d) 20% of derivative liabilities as calculated in accordance with this section B of Appendix 1 of IBB Module.
Treatment of encumbered assets
138. Assets encumbered for between 6 months and 1 year that would, if unencumbered, receive an RSF factor of 50% or lower receive a 50% RSF factor. Assets encumbered for between 6 months and 1 year that would, if unencumbered, receive an RSF factor higher than 50% receive that higher RSF factor. Assets encumbered for less than 6 months receive the same RSF factor as an unencumbered asset of the same kind.
139. The AFSA may direct a Islamic Bank that, for the purposes of calculating the Islamic Bank’s NSFR, assets that are encumbered for exceptional central bank liquidity operations receive a specified lower RSF factor than would otherwise apply. In general, exceptional central bank liquidity operations are considered to be non- standard, temporary operations conducted by a central bank to achieve its mandate at a time of market-wide financial stress or exceptional macroeconomic challenges. The RSF factors for off-balance-sheet exposures are as follows:
(a) irrevocable and conditionally revocable credit and liquidity facilities—5% of the undrawn portion;
(b) contingent funding obligations—as set out in table 10C.
Table 10 C: Contingent funding obligations—RSF factors
C. Maturity Mismatch Approach
Including inflows (assets) and outflows (liabilities) in the time bands
140. Outflows (liabilities) must be included in the Maturity Ladder according to their earliest contractual maturity. Contingent liabilities may be excluded from the Maturity Ladder only if there is a likelihood that the conditions necessary to trigger them will not be fulfilled.
141. Inflows (assets) must be included in the Maturity Ladder according to their latest contractual maturity, except that:
(a) undrawn committed standby facilities provided by other banks are included at sight;
(b) marketable assets are included at sight, at a discount, and
(c) assets which have been pledged as Collateral are excluded from the Maturity Ladder.
Including marketable assets in the Maturity Ladder
142. Assets which are readily marketable are included in the Maturity Ladder in the sight - 8 days time band, generally at a discount to their recorded value calculated in accordance with the table below. An asset is regarded as readily marketable if:
(d) prices are regularly quoted for the asset;
(e) the asset is regularly traded;
(f) the asset may readily be sold, either on an exchange, or in a deep and liquid market for payment in cash; and
(g) settlement is according to a prescribed timetable rather than a negotiated timetable.
143. The AFSA may allow, on a case by case basis, an Islamic Bank to include a longer term asset which is relatively easy to liquidate in the sight - 8 days time band. The discount factor to be applied to types of marketable assets must be determined by reference to the following table:
144. The AFSA may vary the discounts to reflect the conditions of a particular market or institution.
APPENDIX 2: GROUP RISK
A. Introduction
1. This appendix to the IBB Module sets out the rules, guidance and norms required to fulfil the regulatory requirements in respect of managing the Group Risk associated with Islamic Banks which are a constituent of Financial Groups. These rules, guidance and norms supplement the regulatory requirements set out in the Rules in Chapter 11 of IBB Module. These elements convey the supervisory expectations of the AFSA regarding Group Risk and its management by an Islamic Bank. The AFSA will use these rules, norms and key elements specified here to assess compliance with IBB Module on Group Risk.
2. Chapter 11 of IBB Module includes rules for an Islamic Bank:
(a) to implement an effective management framework for Group Risk exposure; and
(b) to ensure capital adequacy at the level of the Financial Group.
3. Chapter 11 of IBB Module also includes requirements limiting Financial Group exposures and restrictions on the ownership or control of Banks.
4. Group Risk refers to the risk of potential losses incurred by an Authorised Firm on account of its relationship with other members of its Financial Group, if it were to be part of one. Group membership may be a source of both strength and weakness to an Authorised Firm. The purpose of Group Risk requirements is to ensure that an Authorised Firm takes proper account of the risks related to the Authorised Firm’s membership of a Group. The Group Risk requirements form a key part of the AFSA’s overall approach to prudential supervision.
B. Financial Group - Requirements
5. For the purposes of BBR Rule 11.1, the AFSA would consider a range of factors when requiring an Authorised Firm to form a Financial Group. These factors would include regulatory risk factors, including but not limited to, (direct and indirect) participation, influence or contractual obligations, interconnectedness, intra group exposures, intra group services, regulatory status and legal framework.
6. If more than one member of the same Group is subject to an obligation to provide information in respect of a position of the Group or Financial Group, one or more of those Authorised Firms may make application to the DFSA for an appropriate waiver or modification.
7. For the purposes of Rule 11.4 (1), an Islamic Bank may take into account its position within its Group. For instance, it would be reasonable for a small Islamic Bank within a larger Group to place some reliance on its parent to ensure that appropriate systems and controls are in place.
C. Financial Group Capital Requirements
8. If an Islamic Bank breaches Rules 11.4 (1) and 11.4 (2), the AFSA will take into account the full circumstances of the case, including any remedial steps taken by another regulator or the Islamic Bank, in determining what enforcement action, if any, it will take.
9. Capital resources or adjusted capital resources would not be freely transferable if they are subject to an obligation to maintain minimum Capital Requirements to meet domestic solvency requirements, or to comply with debt covenants. In general, capital resources or adjusted capital resources are considered not to be freely transferable if they are subject to a legal or constructive limitation on their transferability, whether that transfer would be made by dividend, return of capital or other form of distribution. Examples of relevant limitations might include obligations to maintain minimum capital Requirements to meet domestic solvency requirements, or to comply with debt covenants.
10. The following examples are provided to illustrate the application of Rule 11.6.
(a) The concentration risk limit which requires that the total of an Islamic bank’s net exposures to a counterparty or connected counterparties must not exceed 25% of its Regulatory Capital (RC) applies to its Financial Group, so that the Financial Group’s net exposures to a counterparty or connected counterparties must not exceed 25% of the Financial Group’s RC, calculated using the Rules in Chapter 11 of IBB Module.
(b) Similarly, the limit in IBB Module in Chapter 5, which require that the total of all of the Islamic Bank’s net large exposures must not exceed 800% of its RC) applies to its Financial Group, so that the Financial Group’s total net large exposures to counterparties or connected counterparties must not exceed 800% of the Financial Group’s RC, calculated using the Rules in chapter 11 of IBB Module.
11. Because the Financial Group Capital Requirement set out in Rule 11.5 includes Capital Requirements in respect of Group entities, capital resources may be included in the calculation of Financial Group capital resources to the extent of those requirements. Capital that is surplus to those requirements is, however, subject to an additional condition before it may be taken into account for the purposes of Financial Group capital adequacy
APPENDIX 3: SUPERVISORY REVIEW AND EVALUATION PROCESS
A. Introduction
1. This appendix to the IBB Module sets out the rules, guidance and norms required to fulfil the regulatory requirements in respect of the regulatory requirements relating to supervisory review and evaluation process outlined in Chapter 14 of the IBB Module. These rules, guidance and norms supplement the regulatory requirements set out in the Rules in Chapter 14 of IBB Module. These elements convey the supervisory expectations of the AFSA regarding completion of the ICAAP process by an Islamic Bank. The AFSA will use these rules, norms and key elements specified here to assess compliance with IBB Module on ICAAP process.
B. Financial Group - Application
2. In relation to Rule 14.1, if an Islamic Bank is part of a Financial Group which is already subject to requirements prescribed in Chapter 14, the AFSA may consider a request for a waiver or modification in relation to those requirements.
C. Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)
3. An Islamic Bank is required to carry out an ICAAP as detailed in Chapter 14 of the IBB Module and in this appendix. This process enables an Islamic Bank to determine and maintain an adequate amount and quality of capital, relative to its risk profile. More information and guidance on the establishment of an ICAAP and the manner of carrying out an ICAAP assessment is elaborated in this section.
4. The ICAAP is an internal process of an Islamic Bank which enables it to determine and maintain the amount and quality of capital that is adequate in relation to the Islamic Bank’s risk profile as assessed by conducting a comprehensive internal risk assessment process. Islamic Banks are encouraged to maintain capital over and above the regulatory minimum capital. The ICAAP, which should be based on an internal risk assessment process, should be embedded in the Islamic Bank’s business and organisational processes.
5. When assessing its capital needs, an Islamic Bank should take into account the impact of economic cycles, and sensitivity to other external risks and factors. For larger or more complex institutions, this may mean developing an appropriate stress testing and scenario testing framework. The AFSA does not prescribe any specific approach for the ICAAP and, consequently, an Islamic Bank can choose to implement an ICAAP which is proportionate to the nature, size and complexity of the business activities. In completing an ICAAP, an Islamic Bank must:
(a) estimate the amount of capital required to absorb potential losses, if any, for the significant risks identified through an internal risk assessment process;
(b) perform reasonable and proportionate sensitivity tests to analyse the impact of variation in the risk parameters of significant risks identified in the internal risk assessment process on the profitability and the capital position of the Islamic Bank;
(c) estimate, using the range and distribution of possible losses estimated from historical data, the level of capital required reasonably to cover likely losses;
(d) estimate the capital required to address potential increase in the Islamic Bank’s Capital Requirement to support planned growth in business levels or any significant deviation in growth from plans; and
(e) document the ranges of capital required for each of the factors identified above and enable the Governing Body and the senior management to form an overall view on the amount and quality of capital which that Islamic Bank should hold.
6. The AFSA does not require an Islamic Bank to implement ICAAP through sophisticated models and the AFSA has no prescribed approach for developing an internal capital model for the Islamic Bank’s ICAAP assessment. However, an Islamic Bank should be able to demonstrate:
(a) the methodologies and metrics employed in assessment of various non-financial risks like Shari’ah non-compliance risk;
(b) the confidence levels set and whether these are linked to its corporate strategy;
(c) the time horizons set for the different types of business that it undertakes;
(d) the extent of historic data used and back-testing carried out;
(e) that it has in place a process to verify the correctness of the model's outputs; and
(f) that it has the skills and resources to operate, maintain and develop the model.
7. If an Islamic Bank's internal model makes explicit or implicit assumptions in relation to correlations within or between risk types, or in relation to diversification benefits between business lines, the Islamic Bank should be able to explain to the AFSA, with the support of empirical evidence, the basis of those assumptions. An Islamic Bank's model should also reflect the past experience of both the Islamic Bank and the sectors in which it operates.
8. The assumptions required to aggregate risks that are modelled and the confidence levels adopted should be considered by the Islamic Bank's senior management. An Islamic Bank must also consider whether any relevant risks, including but not limited to Shari’ah non compliance risk, systems and control risks, are not captured by the model.
9. An Islamic Bank using an internal capital model must validate the assumptions of the model through a comprehensive stress testing programme. In particular, this validation should:
(a) test correlation assumptions (where risks are aggregated in this way) using combined stresses and scenario analyses;
(b) use stress tests to identify the extent to which the Islamic Bank's risk models omit non-linear effects, for instance the behaviour of derivatives in Market Risk models; and
(c) consider not just the effect of parallel shifts in market interest rate curves, but also the effect of those curves becoming steeper or flatter.
10. Any internal assessment of capital adequacy should address diversification benefits and transferability of capital resources between members of the Islamic Bank’s Financial Group. It should also describe the distribution of the capital required by its Financial Group across all entities, including the Islamic Bank.
D. Supervisory Review and Evaluation Process (SREP)
11. The guidance provided in this section of Appendix 3, covers the evaluation criteria and methodology for the supervisory review and evaluation process (referred to as SREP) that the AFSA may use when reviewing and evaluating the ICAAP of an Islamic Bank.
12. The documented results of the ICAAP assessment is required to be submitted to the AFSA. The AFSA will then employ the SREP process to evaluate the quality, completeness and consistency of the ICAAP of the Islamic Bank, to form a view on the overall risk profile of the Islamic Bank and to assess whether the capital held by the Islamic Bank is sufficient to deal with the risks faced by it.
13. Following a review of the ICAAP of an Islamic Bank, the AFSA may engage in a dialogue with the Islamic Bank to evaluate its self-assessment of its risk exposures and where relevant, determine the amount of additional capital which the AFSA considers that the Islamic Bank should hold resulting from the ICAAP or SREP.
14. The AFSA may conduct a SREP to review and evaluate the assessments carried out by an Islamic Bank under its ICAAP. The AFSA may engage with an Islamic Bank in a dialogue where, following an SREP, the AFSA considers that it is or may be appropriate to impose an Individual Capital Requirement on the Islamic Bank. It is important that an Islamic Bank cooperates in an open and co-operative manner with the AFSA in the course of its conduct of the dialogue.
E. The SREP in detail
15. A SREP of an ICAAP forms an integral part of the overall supervisory approach of the AFSA. A SREP is expected to enable assessment of the effectiveness, completeness and quality of an ICAAP in relation to the overall risk profile of the Islamic Bank. It leverages from information collected and assessments carried out as part of the wider supervisory regime, including deskbased reviews, on-site risk assessments, discussions with the Islamic Bank’s management, and reviews completed by internal and external auditors.
16. The SREP is structured to provide consistency of treatment across Islamic Banks, taking into consideration the differences in risk profiles, business strategies and management. An essential element of the SREP is the qualitative assessment of each type of risk and its management within the overall context of the Islamic Bank’s internal governance.
17. The AFSA’s assessment of the individual risk profile of an Islamic Bank will provide the context for evaluation of the Islamic Bank’s ICAAP. The evaluation in turn will be used by the AFSA to augment its understanding of the overall risk profile of that Islamic Bank. Also, in relation to an Islamic Bank, the AFSA might involve the Islamic Bank in a formal discussion of risks and capital adequacy, which might lead to a requirement for additional capital.
18. The SREP for each Islamic Bank will be proportionate in terms of the size, scale and complexity of its business and its impact on financial sector stability. The AFSA will cooperate actively with other supervisory authorities whenever an Islamic Bank is part of a Financial Group and is prudentially regulated on a consolidated basis.
19. The SREP evaluation cycle will be determined in the discretion of the AFSA and be based on the risk assessment, developments in the risk profile and changes in the Islamic Bank’s strategy or products. The SREP is as far as possible aligned with the risk assessment process to ensure that a recent risk assessment is available for the SREP evaluation process.
20. It is envisaged that the AFSA will use a range of supervisory tools of qualitative or quantitative nature to perform the SREP. The SREP is not intended as, and should not constitute, a parallel or secondary ICAAP. Its purpose is to evaluate the quality, completeness and consistency of the ICAAP of the Islamic Bank
F. Review of the ICAAP Assessment
21. Upon receipt of an ICAAP the AFSA would normally:
(a) subject the data employed in ICAAP and its results, to an initial analysis for completeness and accuracy followed by a more detailed comparison with the relevant data held on file at the AFSA about the Islamic Bank;
(b) determine if there are material changes compared with previous submissions;
(c) determine if the submitted data contains indicators of a possible material change in the Islamic Bank’s risk profile;
(d) address and discuss any information gaps or anomalies with the Islamic Bank; and
(e) form an assessment about content and quality of the submission which will be integrated into the overall supervisory approach.
G. Evaluation of the ICAAP
22. The SREP evaluation of the ICAAP covers all activities of an Islamic Bank and takes all relevant data collected during the supervisory process into account. The SREP evaluation process will use desk based reviews, visits and meetings to arrive at a final view. As part of the SREP, the AFSA will consider:
(a) the completeness of the ICAAP by ensuring that it covers all business areas, internal governance and all risk categories of the Islamic Bank;
(b) the soundness and quality of the ICAAP process in relation to the Islamic Bank’s size, business complexity and risk profile;
(c) soundness of qualitative calibration and quantitative methodology whenever employed by the Islamic Bank;
(d) execution of the ICAAP in terms of consistency, quality and documentation;
(e) adequacy of internal controls and quality assurance processes on the ICAAP; and
(f) adequacy of management information and whether the management had responded adequately and in a timely manner to such information.
23. Based on the SREP, the AFSA will form an assessment which will be communicated to the Islamic Bank and flow into the overall supervisory approach. The action required resulting from the ICAAP will be communicated to the Islamic Bank as part of a risk mitigation programme.
24. In relation to an Islamic Bank, where the AFSA does not agree with the results of the Islamic Bank’s ICAAP results, the AFSA will involve the Islamic Bank in a dialogue to reconcile any difference in view to arrive at a consensus estimate of the capital level required to address all risks identified either by the Islamic Bank or by the AFSA in its SREP. Such an estimate will be specified by the AFSA as the Individual Capital Requirement for the Islamic Bank. Where consensus is not possible the AFSA may impose an Individual Capital Requirement on that Islamic Bank.
H. Individual Capital Requirement (ICR)
25. Upon completing the SREP, the AFSA may impose an Individual Capital Requirement on an Islamic Bank as detailed in Chapter 14 of IBB. The ICR may be imposed where the AFSA concludes that the Islamic Bank should hold more capital to provide for its overall risks.
APPENDIX 4: PUBLIC DISCLOSURES REQUIREMENTS
A. Introduction
1. This appendix to the IBB Module sets out the rules, guidance and norms required to fulfil the regulatory requirements in respect of the regulatory requirements relating to public disclosure requirements set out in Chapter 15 of the IBB Module. These rules, guidance and norms supplement the regulatory requirements set out in the Rules in Chapter 15 of IBB Module. These elements convey the supervisory expectations of the AFSA regarding fulfilment of the public disclosure requirements for an Islamic Bank. The AFSA will use these rules, and key elements specified here to assess compliance with Chapter 15 of IBB Module.
2. The purpose of the requirements in this chapter is to ensure that minimum public disclosures are made available to market participants to assist them in forming an opinion on the risk profile and capital adequacy of an Islamic Bank.
B. Disclosure Policy
3. An Islamic Bank has discretion to determine the form of the disclosures required, and may choose to use graphical and other representations where appropriate.
4. The formal disclosure policy setting out internal controls and procedures for disclosure of information required to fulfill the rules in Chapter 15 of IBB, must be approved by the Governing Body of the Islamic Bank. The key elements of the disclosure policy must be disclosed along with the annual regulatory disclosures.
5. Information provided by an Islamic Bank to comply with the rules in Chapter 15 of IBB Module must be, at a minimum, subject to the same level rigour and diligence applied in the internal audit, review and internal control processes for the external financial reporting by the Islamic Bank (i.e. the level of assurance must be the same as for information provided within the management discussion and analysis part of the audited annual report).
6. An Islamic Bank is expected to provide narrative commentaries including but not limited to, commentaries to explain any significant changes occurring in quantitative disclosures between successive reporting periods.
7. An Islamic Bank must make the disclosures required to comply with the rules in Chapter 14 of IBB Module must be published in a stand-alone document that is readily accessible for market participants and any investor. An Islamic Bank may append the disclosures document with its annual audited report & financial statements. In such cases, the disclosures must be appended to the annual report as a distinct section or module which is easily identifiable to potential readers and investors.
8. An Islamic Bank making these disclosures must maintain records of the disclosures made by it and make those archives available, at least for a retention period specified by the AFSA in its GEN rules.
9. An Islamic Bank must disclose information that is material in the sense that its omission or misstatement could influence an investor or a market participant relying on that information for the purpose of making legitimate economic or risk assessments, and/or decisions regarding compliance with Sharī’ah requirements. A qualitative judgment (use test) based on the needs of the investor or that of the market participant should be used as the appropriate benchmark of materiality. The Islamic Bank should determine the level of materiality threshold used in deciding its disclosures and the same must be disclosed as part of the formal disclosure policy referred in paragraph 2 above.
C. Signposting
10. An Islamic Bank may make the required disclosures in a dedicated document separate from the documents in which they are mandated by Rule 15.3 (3) to make the disclosures the tables required by this Chapter, provided the criteria specified in paragraph 11 are met. In such cases, the Islamic Bank must signpost clearly in the mandated periodic statements, as to where the separate disclosure requirements can be accessed. This signposting must include:
(a) the title and number of the disclosure requirement;
(b) the full name of the separate document in which the disclosure requirement has been published;
(c) a web link, where relevant; and
(d) the page and paragraph number of the separate document where the disclosure requirements can be located.
11. The information disclosures required and prescribed tables may be disclosed by an Islamic Bank in a separate dedicated document other than that required by the rules in Chapter 15 of IBB Module, provided the document is clearly signposted and all of the following criteria are met:
(a) the information contained in the signposted document should be equivalent in terms of presentation and content to that required in the template and capable of enabling users to make meaningful comparisons with information disclosed;
(b) the information contained in the signposted document is based on the same scope of consolidation as the one used in the disclosure requirement; and
(c) the disclosure in the signposted document is mandatory.
12. An Islamic Bank can only make use of signposting to another document if the level of assurance on the reliability of data in the separate document are equivalent to, or greater than, the internal assurance level required for regulatory disclosure document required by the rules in Chapter 15 of IBB Module.
D. Detailed disclosure requirements
13. An Islamic Bank must, in order to fulfil its disclosure requirement specified in Chapter 15 of the IBB Module, complete all the tables and templates specified in IFSB Standard 22 on disclosures to promote transparency and market discipline for Islamic Banks, except the tables and templates in Section 9 of the standard on consumer protection.
14. GLOSSARY
AAA to A- |
BBB+ to BBB- |
BB+ to BB- |
B+ to B- |
below B- |
20 |
20 |
50 |
50 |
150 |
_
14.1. Table of acronyms and abbreviations
14.2. Definitions
absolute value of a number means the value of the number irrespective of sign. accounting standards include accounting rules, principles, practices and conventions. affiliate, of a party, means any entity of which the party holds 10% or more, but less than a majority, of the voting power.
Basel framework is the collective name for Basel I, Basel II and Basel III, which are a set of reform measures issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision to improve the regulation, supervision, risk management and Capital adequacy of financial institutions.
branch means the local office in the AIFC of a legal person incorporated outside the AIFC.
business day means a day that is not a Saturday, a Sunday or a public or bank holiday in Kazakhstan.
Capital relief is the reduction, in the credit risk Capital requirement for an exposure, obtained from the use of a CRM technique.
counterparty means any person with or for whom an Islamic Bank conduct, or intends to
conduct, Islamic banking business or associated business.
credit risk Capital requirement means the amount of Capital that an Islamic Bank must have to cover its credit risk.
customer means a person to whom an Islamic Bank provides (or intends or wishes to provide, or has provided) a service or product and includes a business customer of an Islamic Bank (within the meaning given in COND):
exercise control: an entity (entity A) exercises control over another (entity B) if:
- (a) entity A holds 10% or more of the shares of entity B, or is entitled to exercise or control the exercise of 10% or more of the voting power in entity B;
- (b) entity A holds 10% or more of the shares in a parent entity of entity B or is entitled to exercise or control the exercise of 10% or more of the voting power in a parent entity of entity B; or
- (c) entity A is able to exercise significant influence over the management of entity B or a parent entity of entity B because of entity A’s shareholding or voting power, or by contractual or other arrangements. exposure means the maximum loss that an Islamic Bank might suffer as a result of the default or failure of a counterparty, connected counterparties, issuer or connected issuers.
External Credit Rating Agency (or ECRA) means:
- (a) Moody’s Investors Service;
- (b) Fitch Ratings;
- (c) Standard & Poor’s;
- (d) a rating agency that is affiliated with one of the agencies mentioned in paragraphs (a) to
- (c);
- (e) Islamic International Rating Agency, B.S.C; and
- (f) any other agency approved by the AFSA.
finance function has the same meanings as in CTRL. financial communication, by an Islamic Bank, means any communication (made through any medium including brochures, telephone calls and presentations) the purpose or effect of which is:
- (a) to promote or advertise an Islamic Bank’s services or products; or
(b) to invite or induce any person to enter into an agreement with any person in relation to those services or products.
governing body of an entity means its board of directors, committee of management or other governing body (whatever it is called). home jurisdiction, for an entity, means the jurisdiction where the entity’s authorisation or licence was granted internal audit function has the same meaning as in CTRL.
investment grade means a rating of at least BBB- or equivalent.
Islamic Bank means an Islamic Financial Institution that conducts Islamic Banking Business and has the authorisation to conduct business in a Shari’ah compliant manner .
Islamic Financial Institution means an authorised firm whose authorisation includes a condition that the whole of an Islamic Bank’s business must be conducted in accordance with Shari’ah.
jurisdiction means any kind of legal jurisdiction, and includes, for example:
- (a) Kazakhstan;
(b) a foreign country (whether or not an independent sovereign jurisdiction), or a state, province or other territory of such a foreign country; and
- (c) the AIFC or a similar jurisdiction.
legal person means an entity (other than an individual) on which the legal system of a
jurisdiction confers rights and imposes duties, and includes, for example, any entity that can
own, deal with or dispose of property.
12 named months of the year and ending:
- (a) at the end of the day before the corresponding day of the next named month; or
- (b) if there is no corresponding day—at the end of the last day of next named month.
operating entity means an entity set up to conduct business with customers with the intention of earning profits in its own right.
parent entity, for a legal person (A), means any of the following:
- (a) a legal person that holds a majority of the voting power in A;
- (b) a legal person that is a member of A (whether direct or indirect, or though legal or
beneficial entitlement) and alone, or together with 1 or more legal persons in the same corporate group, holds a majority of the voting power in A;
- (c) a parent entity of any legal person that is a parent entity of A.
person means:
- (a) an individual (including an individual occupying an office or position from time to time); or
- (b) a legal person. risk management function has the same meanings as in CTRL.
Rules means rules made by the AFSA, and includes:
- (a) any standard, principle or code of practice made by the AFSA; and
- (b) any other instrument made or in force under any Rules.
Shari’ah Supervisory Board, of an Islamic Bank, means the board appointed for the Islamic Bank under IFR Rules. subsidiary: a legal person (A) is a subsidiary of another legal person (B) if B is a parent entity of A. terms of business (of an Islamic Bank for a customer) means a statement or statements in writing of the terms on which an Islamic Bank will conduct business with or for the customer.
ISLAMIC FINANCE RULES
Islamic Finance Rules
1. GENERAL
1.1. Application
These IFR Rules apply to:
(a) every Person who carries on, or holds itself out as carrying on, a Financial Service or making an offer of Securities, in or from the AIFC in a Shari’ah-compliant manner;
(b) a Domestic Fund which is operated or held out as being operated as an Islamic Fund; and
(c) an Authorised Firm which carries on, or holds itself out as carrying on, a Regulated Activity in a Shari’ah compliant manner.
1.2. Purpose
The purpose of this IFR Rules is to establish the regulatory framework based on:
(a) the standards and guidelines issued by the Islamic Financial Services Board (IFSB) on the conduct of Islamic finance activities;
(b) the standards and guidelines issued by the Accounting and Auditing Organization for Islamic Financial Institutions (AAOIFI) on accounting, auditing and Shari’ah governance of Islamic financial institutions; and
(c) international standards in the form of Core Principles for Effective regulation and Supervision, issued by International Association of Insurance Supervisors, International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) and the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
Guidance: Overview of the IFR Rules The IFR Rules include specific regulatory requirements that apply to Persons conducting Financial Services or providing financial products in a Shari’ah-compliant manner. In addition to the specific regulatory requirements specified in these rules, other general requirements relating to such financial services activities or products are set out in the relevant AFSA Regulations and Rules
1.3. Commencement
These rules commence on 1 January 2018.
1.4. Effect of definitions, notes, examples and references
(a) A note in or to these rules is explanatory and is not part of these rules. However, examples and guidance are part of these rules.
(b) An example is not exhaustive, and may extend, but does not limit, the meaning of these rules or the provision of these rules to which it relates.
(c) Unless the contrary intention appears, a reference in these rules to an accord, principle, standard or other similar instrument is a reference to that instrument as amended from time to time.
1.5. Islamic Financial Business
Conducting Islamic Financial Business means carrying out one or more Regulated Activities and/or providing financial products or services to customers in a Shari’ah-compliant manner.
1.6. Prohibition from conducting Islamic Financial Business
An Authorised Firm must not conduct or hold itself out as conducting Islamic Financial Business unless it is authorised to conduct Islamic Financial Business either:
- (a) as an Islamic Financial Institution; or
- (b) by operating an Islamic Window.
1.7. Islamic Financial Institution
(1) An Islamic Financial Institution is an Authorised Person whose license or authorisation includes a specific condition that the whole of its business is conducted in a manner fully compliant with Shari’ah.
(2) An Islamic Financial Institution must ensure that its constitutional documents state that its entire business will be conducted in a manner fully compliant with Shari’ah.
1.8. Islamic Window
An Authorised Firm other than an Islamic Financial Institution, operates an Islamic Window if it conducts Islamic Financial Business as a part of its business operations.
1.9. Islamic Banking Business
Islamic Banking Business is a defined as a Regulated Activity in Schedule 1 of AIFC GEN Rules, as carrying out the following activities, in a Shariah-compliant manner:
- (a) Raising, accepting and managing funds or money placements; and/or
- (b) Managing Unrestricted Profit Sharing Investment Accounts; and
- (c) Providing financing or making Investments by entering as principal or agent into any Islamic Financial Contract.
Guidance: Regulated Activity of Islamic Banking Business
The Regulated Activity of Islamic Banking Business includes three primary determinant activities which must be carried out in a Shari’ah-compliant manner:
i) raising, accepting and managing funds or money placements;
ii) managing Unrestricted Profit Sharing Investment Accounts (UPSIAs); and
iii) providing financing or making investments by using a range of Islamic Financial Contracts.
In other words, Islamic Banking Business must involve at least one of the two following activities - raising, accepting and managing funds or money placements or managing Unrestricted Profit Sharing Investment Accounts (UPSIAs). It must involve the activity of providing financing or making investments by using a range of Islamic Financial Contracts. In addition, various supplementary activities may also be undertaken which normally form part of banking business. These supplementary activities may include, but are not limited to, providing remittance and/or money exchange services and issuing or administering means of payment. Authorised Firms licensed to carry out Regulated Activity of Islamic Banking Business may carry out the activity of Managing Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Accounts (RPSIAs), though that would not be a determinant factor for considering them as eligible to carry out Islamic Banking Business. A Person who does not qualify as an Islamic Financial Institution or Islamic Windows, will not be licensed by the AFSA to carry out Islamic Banking Business. Such entities which do not qualify as Islamic Financial Institutions or Islamic Windows are prohibited from carrying out Islamic Banking Business.
1.10. Providing Islamic Financing
(1) Providing Islamic Financing is a defined as a Regulated Activity in Schedule 1 of AIFC GEN Rules, as providing financing in a Shari’ah-compliant manner by entering into any Islamic Financial Contract.
(2) The Regulated Activity of Providing Islamic Financing may be carried out only by an Islamic Financial Institution or by an Islamic Window.
Guidance: Regulated Activity of Providing Islamic Financing A Person who does not qualify as an Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window, will not be licensed by the AFSA to carry out the Regulated Activity of Providing Islamic Financing. Such Persons which do not qualify as Islamic Financial Institutions or Islamic Windows are prohibited from carrying out the Regulated Activity of Providing Islamic Financing.
1.11. Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account (RPSIA)
Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account means managing an account or portfolio which is a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account (RPSIA).
Guidance: Regulated Activity of a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account An Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window can be licensed to carry out the Regulated activity of either Managing Unrestricted PSIAs or for Managing Restricted PSIAs or both. The application of rules including but not limited to AIFC PRU Rules and AIFC COB Rules may differ based on the type of PSIAs, an Authorised Firm is licensed to manage.
1.12. Definition of Islamic Financial Contract
An Islamic Financial Contract may include any of the following:
(i) murabahah and its variations;
(ii) salam and its variations;
(iii) tawarruq and its variations;
(iv) istisna and its variations;
(v) ijarah and its variations;
(vi) musharakah and its variations;
(vii) mudarabah and its variations;
(viii) qard;
(ix) any other Islamic Financial Contract that is approved to be so by the relevant Authorised Firm’s SSB.
2. CONDUCT OF ISLAMIC FINANCIAL BUSINESS
2.1. Requirements for Authorisation
(1) An application for a condition on the Licence authorising a Person to conduct Islamic Financial Business may be made to the AFSA by any:
(a) body corporate; or
(b) partnership when applying for a Licence under relevant AIFC Regulations and Rules or at any point in time after being licensed.
(2) An applicant for authorisation as an Islamic Financial Institution that proposes to conduct its business in accordance with Shari’ah must state that fact in its application. The AFSA may grant an authorisation as an Islamic financial Institution only if the applicant’s constitutional documents require the business to be conducted in accordance with Shari’ah.
(3) An Authorised Firm may apply to the AFSA to vary the condition on its License authorising it to conduct Islamic Financial Business as an Islamic Financial Institution or by operating an Islamic Window.
2.2. Licensing condition for compliance with Shari’ah
The AFSA may grant an application for the condition or a variation to the condition referred above in 2.1, if it is satisfied that the requirements for the specific condition or variation of the condition have been met.
2.3. Prohibition on holding out as conducting Islamic Financial Business
A Person that is not authorised to conduct Islamic Financial Business by way of an appropriate condition on its License:
- (a) must not hold itself out as either an Islamic Financial Institution or as an Islamic Window; and
- (b) must not hold itself out as conducting Islamic Financial Business activities.
2.4. Prohibition on non-Shari’ah Compliant activities
An Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window:
- (a) must not hold itself out as conducting any financial services or providing financial services or products other than Islamic Financial Business activities which are compliant with Shari’ah; and
- (b) must not carry on any Regulated Activity otherwise than in accordance with Shari’ah.
3. DISCLOSURES
3.1. Islamic Financial Institutions to disclose status
(1) An Islamic Financial Institution must ensure that it discloses appropriately to each of it clients:
- (a) that it is an Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window, as applicable; and
- (b) that its business is required to be conducted in accordance with Shari’ah.
(2) An Islamic Financial Institution must disclose the following information to each client with whom or on behalf of whom it conducts, or proposes to conduct, Islamic Financial Business activities:
- (a) the members of the institution’s SSB;
- (b) if the client requests, the manner and frequency of Shari’ah reviews.
(3) An Islamic Financial Institution or an Islamic Window must disclose the information referred to in (2) above to its relevant clients:
(a) prior to conducting Islamic Financial Business activities with or on behalf of that client; and
(b) thereafter, whenever the information changes.
Guidance: Disclosures by an Islamic Financial Institution
An Islamic Financial Institution may include the information required by the Rule 3.1 in the terms of business it provides to a client.
4. INTERNAL GOVERNANCE – POLICIES, SYSTEMS AND CONTROLS
4.1. General Requirements
An Islamic Financial Institution must establish, implement and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls that ensure that its business is conducted in a Shari’ah-compliant manner.
4.2. Requirement for procedures, processes, systems, controls and limits
In these Rules, a requirement for an Authorised Firm conducting Islamic Financial Business to have a policy also requires it to have the procedures, processes, systems, controls and limits required to implement the policy.
4.3. Responsibility for compliance
(1) The Governing Body of an Islamic Financial Institution is responsible for its compliance with the regulatory requirements set out in the AIFC Regulations and Rules.
(2) The Governing Body must ensure that the Authorised Firm’s senior management establishes and implements policies to give effect to these rules. The Governing Body must approve significant policies and any changes to them (other than formal changes) and must ensure that the policies are fully integrated with each other.
(3) The Governing Body must review the Authorised Firm’s significant policies from time to time, considering changed operating circumstances, activities and risks. The interval between reviews must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the firm’s business, but must not be longer than 12 months.
(4) The Governing Body must ensure that the policies are made known to, and understood by, all relevant staff.
4.4. Responsibility for compliance with Shari’ah
(1) An Authorised Firm’s Shari’ah Supervisory Board (SSB) must ensure that the Islamic Financial Business of the Authorised Firm is conducted in accordance with Shari’ah. The SSB:
(a) must establish, implement and supervise the Islamic Financial Institution’s Shari’ah governance and compliance;
(b) every year, must prepare a report in accordance with the AAOIFI standards relating to preparing and assessing compliance with Shari’ah;
(c) must ensure that reviews to assess the Islamic Financial Institution’s compliance with Shari’ah are carried out in accordance with those AAOIFI standards; and
(d) must review every service or product that is the subject of a financial communication before the firm issues the communication.
(2) The SSB is responsible for expressing binding opinion about the extent to which the operations, transactions and contracts of the Authorised Firm conducting Islamic Financial Business comply with Shari’ah. The SSB must review any matter that is assigned to it by the firm’s Governing Body.
4.5. Policy and Procedures Manual
An Islamic Financial Institution must establish, implement and maintain an Islamic Financial Business policy and procedures manual that addresses the following matters:
(a) how the compliance oversight function will be undertaken in relation to compliance with Shari’ah;
(b) how the institution’s SSB will oversee and advise it in regard to its Islamic Financial Business activities and operations;
(c) how fatwas, rulings and guidelines of the SSB will be recorded, disseminated and implemented and the internal Shari’ah review undertaken;
(d) how disputes between the SSB and the institution in relation to Shari’ah compliance will be addressed;
(e) the process for approving the internal policies, procedures, systems and controls to ensure that Islamic Financial Business is conducted in accordance with Shari’ah;
(f) the process for approving the internal policies, procedures, systems and controls to ensure that information is disseminated to investors appropriately;
(g) how conflicts of interest and potential conflicts of interest will be identified and managed.
5. SHARI’AH SUPERVISORY BOARD (SSB)
5.1. Appointment of SSB
(1) An Islamic Financial Institution must appoint a Shari’ah Supervisory Board (SSB).
(2) An Islamic Financial Institution must ensure that:
(a) its SSB consists of at least 3 members; and
(b) the members appointed to the SSB are competent to perform their functions as SSB members taking into account their qualifications and previous experience;
and
(c) any appointments, dismissals or changes in respect of members of the SSB are approved by the Governing Body of the Islamic Financial Institution; and
(d) no member of the SSB is a director or controller of the Islamic Financial Institution.
Guidance:
The AFSA may request the AIFC Central Shari’ah Board to provide guidance or advice on Shari’ah matters.
5.2. Policy in relation to SSB
An Islamic Financial Institution must document its policy in relation to:
- (a) how appointments, dismissals or changes will be made to the SSB; and
- (b) the process through which the suitability of SSB members will be considered; and
- (c) the remuneration of the members of SSB
5.3. Independence of SSB
(1) An Islamic Financial Institution must take reasonable steps to ensure that the members of the SSB are independent of and not subject to any conflict of interest with respect to the firm.
(2) An Authorised Firm conducting Islamic Financial Business must ensure that the systems and controls it is required to maintain under Rule 4.1 provides that:
(a) a member of the SSB is obliged to notify that Authorised Firm of any conflict of interest that such member may have with respect to the Authorised Firm or, in the case of an Investment Trust, the Trustee;
(b) the Authorised Firm will take appropriate steps to manage any such conflict of interest so that the Islamic Financial Business activities are conducted appropriately and in compliance with Shari’ah, the interest of a Client is not adversely affected, and all Clients are fairly treated and not prejudiced by any such interests; and
(c) If the Authorised Firm is unable to manage a conflict of interest as provided above, it must dismiss or replace the member as appropriate.
5.3. Independence of SSB
(1) An Islamic Financial Institution must take reasonable steps to ensure that the members of the SSB are independent of and not subject to any conflict of interest with respect to the firm.
(2) An Authorised Firm conducting Islamic Financial Business must ensure that the systems and controls it is required to maintain under Rule 4.1 provides that:
(a) a member of the SSB is obliged to notify that Authorised Firm of any conflict of interest that such member may have with respect to the Authorised Firm or, in the case of an Investment Trust, the Trustee;
(b) the Authorised Firm will take appropriate steps to manage any such conflict of interest so that the Islamic Financial Business activities are conducted appropriately and in compliance with Shari’ah, the interest of a Client is not adversely affected, and all Clients are fairly treated and not prejudiced by any such interests; and
(c) If the Authorised Firm is unable to manage a conflict of interest as provided above, it must dismiss or replace the member as appropriate.
5.5. Obligation to assist SSB
An Islamic Financial Institution must take reasonable steps to ensure that it and its employees:
- (a) provide such assistance as the SSB reasonably requires to fulfil its duties; and
- (b) give the SSB right of access at all reasonable times to relevant records and information; and
- (c) do not interfere with the SSB’s ability to discharge its duties; and
- (d) do not provide false or misleading information to the SSB.
5.6. Record-keeping
An Islamic Financial Institution must establish and retain records of:
(a) its assessment of the competence of the SSB members; and
(b) the agreed terms of engagement of each member of the SSB; for at least 6 years following the date on which the individual ceased to be a member of the SSB.
5.7. Records of assessment of competency of SSB
The records of the assessment of competence of SSB members in Rule 5.6 above, where applicable, must include at a minimum:
- (a) the factors that have been considered when making the assessment of competence; and
- (b) the qualifications and experience of the SSB members; and
- (c) the basis upon which the Islamic Financial Institution considers that the proposed SSB member is suitable; and
- (d) details of any other SSBs of which the proposed SSB member is, or has been, a member.
5.8. Shari’ah reviews to be undertaken
An Islamic Financial Institution must ensure that all Shari’ah reviews are undertaken by the SSB in accordance with the AAOIFI Standards on Governance (GSIFI No 2).
5.9. Annual Shari’ah report
(1) An Islamic Financial Institution must commission an annual report from the SSB which complies with the AAOIFI Standards on Governance (GSIFI No 1).
(2) An Islamic Financial Institution must give the AFSA, a copy of each annual report of the institution’s SSB within 3 months after the day the relevant financial year of the institution ends.
5.10. Financial promotions and communications
(1) Before an Islamic Financial Institution issues or approves a financial promotion or communication, it must ensure that the communication material discloses the identity of the SSB which has reviewed the relevant products or services. These disclosures are in addition to the information required to be disclosed in financial promotions, by the AIFC COB Rules.
(2) Financial communication means any communication (made through any medium including brochures, telephone calls and presentations) the purpose or effect of which is:
(a) to promote or advertise specified products;
(b) to promote or advertise any regulated activity (or any activity that would be a regulated activity if it was carried on in or from the AIFC); or
(c) to invite or induce any person to enter into an agreement with any person in relation to a specified product; or
(d) to invite or induce any person to engage in any regulated activity (or an activity that would be a regulated activity if it was carried on in or from the AIFC).
5.11. Internal Shari’ah reviews
(1) An Islamic Financial Institution must perform an internal Shari’ah review to assess the extent to which the institution complies with fatwas, rulings and guidelines issued by its SSB.
(2) An Islamic Financial Institution must perform the internal Shari’ah review in accordance with the AAOIFI Standards on Governance (GSIFI No. 3).
(3) An Islamic Financial Institution must ensure that:
(a) the internal Shari’ah review is performed by its internal audit function or compliance oversight function; and
(b) the individuals or departments involved in performing the review are competent and sufficiently independent to assess compliance with Shari’ah.
Guidance
For the purposes of assessing competency of personnel or departments which perform the internal Shari’ah review, Islamic Financial Institutions should consult the AAOIFI Standards on Governance (GSIFI No. 3).
6. ISLAMIC WINDOWS
6.1. Islamic Window - Definition
If an Authorised Firm conducts a part (but not the whole) of its business in a Shari’ahcompliant manner, the part so conducted in a Shari’ah-compliant manner, is an Islamic window.
6.2. Operation of Islamic windows
(1) An applicant for authorisation that proposes to operate an Islamic Window must state that fact in its application.
(2) An Authorised Firm that proposes to operate an Islamic Window must apply to the AFSA for an appropriate variation of the conditions of its authorisation.
(3) An Authorised Firm that operates an Islamic Window:
(a) must identify the part or parts of its business that are to be conducted in accordance with Shari’ah; and
(b) must establish and maintain policies, procedures, systems and controls that ensure that the part or those parts are so conducted.
(4) An Authorised Firm that operates an Islamic Window must comply with:
- (a) Chapter 3 of this IFR Rules;
- (b) Chapter 4 of this IFR Rules;
- (c) Chapter 5 of this IFR Rules; and
- (d) Chapter 6 of this IFR Rules. in relation to the part or parts of its business conducted by means of the window.
(5) For the application of Chapters 3, 4, 5 and Chapter 6 to such an Authorised Firm, references to an Islamic Financial Institution are to be read as including references to an Authorised Firm that operates an Islamic Window.
(6) The Islamic Window must ensure that the disclosures required by AAOIFI FAS 18 “Islamic Financial Services offered by Conventional Financial Institutions” are made to each client with whom, or on whose behalf, it conducts Islamic Financial Business.
6.3. Performance of internal Shari’ah review
(1) An Authorised Firm that operates an Islamic Window must, to the extent possible, perform the internal Shari’ah review in accordance with the AAOIFI Standards on Governance (GSIFI No. 3).
(2) If the firm cannot perform its entire internal Shari’ah review in accordance with those standards, it must document how it will perform the remainder of that review.
(3) An Authorised Firm that operates an Islamic window must perform an internal Shari’ah review of the firm’s compliance with fatwas, rulings and guidelines issued by its SSB.
7. ISLAMIC INVESTMENT FUNDS
Guidance
This chapter contains additional requirements that apply to investment funds operated or held out as being operated as an Islamic Investment Fund. A Collective Investment Scheme is defined in the Master Glossary of the AIFC Regulations and Rules. Specific products or activities forming part of Islamic Financial Business are not regulated as Collective Investment Schemes (CIS) due to their unique characteristics and the specific regulations applied to them. Hence, such Islamic Financial Business activities are expressly excluded from the remit of these rules. Key Islamic Financial Business-related exclusions under the collective investment regime are operating a Takaful business, participation rights evidenced by Sukuk certificates and managing PSIAs both Restricted and Unrestricted.
7.1. Application
(1) This section applies in the case of a Domestic Fund:
(a) which is an Islamic Fund, to its Fund Manager and where appointed, its Trustee; or
(b) which is an umbrella Fund with one or more Islamic Sub- Funds, to its Fund Manager and where appointed, its Trustee in respect of those Sub-Funds.
(2) The requirements that apply to a conventional Fund apply equally to an Islamic Fund, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
(3) In this chapter, except where otherwise provided, any reference to a Fund is to an Islamic Fund or to an Islamic Sub-Fund of an Umbrella Fund as the case may be and any reference to a Fund Manager is a reference to a Fund Manager of such a Fund.
Guidance
While the AIFC CIS Rules specify key requirements relating to the management and operation of conventional Investment Funds, this module sets out the additional requirements that apply where such a Fund is managed or held out as being managed as an Islamic Investment Fund. There are other requirements that apply to such firms which are found in other modules of the AIFC Rules, such as the GEN, COB and PRU Rules.
7.2. Systems and controls
(1) The Fund Manager of a Fund must establish and maintain systems and controls which ensure that its management of the Fund and the Fund Property is Shari’ah compliant.
(2) A Fund Manager may, where it is practicable to do so, include the systems and controls required under (1) within those it is required to establish and maintain pursuant to Rule 4.1 of this Rules.
Guidance
AIFC CIS Rules require a Fund Manager to establish and maintain systems and controls, including, but not limited, to financial and risk controls to ensure sound management of the Fund in accordance with the Fund’s Constitution and its most recent Prospectus, taking due account of the nature, scale and complexity of the Fund’s investments and operations.
7.3. Fund’s constitutional documents
(1) The Fund Manager of a Domestic Fund that is a Non-Exempt Fund must ensure that the relevant Fund’s Constitution and Prospectus are approved by the Fund’s SSB. In such cases, the relevant Fund’s Constitution and Prospectus must be reviewed and approved by the Fund’s SSB at least on an annual basis.
(2) The Fund Manager of an Exempt Fund must ensure that the Fund’s Constitution and Prospectus are, approved by the Fund Manager’s SSB. In such cases, the relevant Fund’s Constitution and Prospectus must be reviewed and approved by the Fund Manager’s SSB at least on an annual basis.
7.4. Islamic Financial Business policy and procedures manual
The Fund Manager of a Fund must implement and maintain an Islamic Financial Business policy and procedures manual for the Fund which addresses the following matters:
(a) the manner in which the compliance function will be undertaken, in respect of Shari’ah compliance;
(b) the manner in which the SSB will oversee and advise in regard to the Shari’ahcompliant activities conducted by the Fund Manager;
(c) the manner in which SSB’s fatwas, rulings and guidelines will be recorded, disseminated and implemented and the internal Shari’ah review undertaken.
(d) the manner in which any disputes between the SSB and the Fund Manager in respect of Shari’ah-compliance will be addressed;
(e) the process for approving those internal systems and controls which are in place to ensure not only that its activities are carried out in compliance with Shari’ah, but that information is disseminated to Unitholders in an appropriate manner; and
(f) the manner in which conflicts of interest will be identified and managed, including as prescribed in Rule 7.5.
Guidance
A Fund Manager may, instead of having a separate Islamic Financial Business policy and procedures manual both at the firm level and at the Fund level, maintain a single Islamic Financial Business policy and procedures manual for the firm which would apply to all the Funds it manages.
7.5. SSB for an Islamic Investment Fund
(1) A Fund Manager of a Domestic Fund that is a Non-Exempt Fund must, subject to (3), appoint a SSB to its Fund that meets the following requirements:
- (a) the SSB has at least three members;
- (b) the members appointed to the SSB are competent to perform their functions as SSB members of the Fund;
- (c) any appointments, dismissals or changes in respect of members of the SSB are approved by the Governing Body of the Fund Manager; and(d) no member of the SSB is a director or Controller of the Fund or its Fund Manager.
(2) A Fund Manager may comply with the requirement in (1) by appointing to the Fund its own SSB, provided the requirements in (1) are also met.
(3) A Fund Manager is not required to comply with the requirement (1) in where it relies, for the purposes of making Investments for the Fund, on a widely accepted Shari'ah screening process such as investing in securities included in, or recognised by reference to, an Islamic index, Sukuk, or treasury instruments issued by a Shari'ah compliant financial services provider.
Guidance
i) In appointing a SSB for the purposes of Rule 7.5(1), the Fund Manager should consider the previous experience and qualifications of the proposed SSB members to assess whether the proposed SSB member is competent to advise on the activities undertaken by the Islamic Fund.
ii) Although the Fund Managers of Exempt Funds are not subject to the requirement for the appointment of a SSB for such a Fund, they would need to ensure that the Exempt Funds they manage continue to meet the applicable Shari’ah requirements applicable to the Fund. They may use a member of the SSB appointed at the firm level for the purposes of ascertaining compliance with the Shari’ah requirements. The manner in which they demonstrate to the Unitholder of the Exempt Fund as to how they achieve such compliance is a matter left to negotiation (i.e. subject to contractual terms) between the Unitholders and the Fund Manager.
iii) An External Fund Manager may not be able to take advantage of Rule 7.5 (2) above, unless it has a SSB appointed for their own firm. In contrast the Fund Manager of an External Fund will be able to use its SSB to meet the SSB requirement relating to the Fund as set out in Rule 7.5(2) above.
(4) If the Fund Manager appoints to the Fund the same SSB it has appointed to meet its own requirements at the firm level, the documents required under Rule 7.5 (5) below must be included in or otherwise form part of its Shari’ah Governance policies and procedures.
(5) The Fund Manager of a Fund must establish and retain, for six years, records pertaining to:
- (a) Its assessment of the competency of the SSB members; and
- (b) the agreed terms of engagement of each member of the SSB.
Guidance
The records of the assessment of competency of SSB members should clearly indicate, at least:
i) the factors that have been taken into account when making the assessment of competency;
ii) the qualifications and experience of the SSB members;
iii) the basis upon which the Fund Manager has deemed that the proposed SSB member is suitable; and
iv) details of any other SSBs of which the proposed SSB member is, or has been, a member.
(6) The Islamic Financial Business policy and procedures manual must provide that:
- (a) a member of the SSB is obliged to notify the Fund Manager of any conflict of interest that such member may have with respect to the Fund or the Fund Manager, and if appointed, or in the case of an Investment Trust, the Trustee; and
- (b) the Fund Manager will take appropriate steps to manage any such conflict of interest so that the Islamic Financial Business is carried out appropriately and in compliance with Shari’ah, the interest of a Unitholder is not adversely affected, and all Unitholders are fairly treated and not prejudiced by any such interests.
(7) If a Fund Manager is unable to manage a conflict of interest as provided above in Rule 7.5(6), it must dismiss or replace the member as appropriate.
(8) The Fund Manager of a Fund must provide the AFSA at its request with information on the qualifications, skills, experience and independence of the individuals who are appointed or proposed to be approved as members of the SSB.
(9) The Fund Manager of a Fund must take reasonable steps to ensure that the Fund Manager and the Fund’s Employees:
- (a) provide such assistance as the SSB reasonably requires to fulfill its duties;
- (b) give the SSB right of access at all reasonable times to relevant records and information
- (c) do not interfere with the SSB’s ability to discharge its duties; and
- (d) do not provide false or misleading information to the SSB.
(10) In the event of a Trustee being appointed to the Fund, the Trustee must also take reasonable steps to ensure that its Employees comply with (a)-(d) of the rule 7.5(9) above.
7.6. External Shari’ah reviews and periodic reports
(1) A Fund Manager of a Domestic Fund that is a Non-Exempt Fund, must ensure that all Shari’ah reviews of the Fund, wherever applicable, are undertaken by the SSB in accordance with AAOIFI GSIFI No 2.
(2) In the case of a Domestic Fund that is a Non-Exempt Fund, the Fund Manager must commission an interim and an annual report relating to the Fund operations from the SSB which complies with AAOIFI GSIFI No 1.
(3) The Fund Manager must deliver a copy of the interim and annual report referred to in (2) above, to the Unitholders and must include the report of the SSB in the annual report required under the AIFC CIS Rules.
Guidance
Although the Fund Managers of Exempt Funds are not subject to the Shari’ah review process, they would need to ensure that the Exempt Fund continues to meet the Shari’ah requirements, particularly for the purposes of their annual and interim reports, which are required to be prepared under applicable the AIFC CIS Rules. However, the manner in which they demonstrate to the Unitholders of the Fund how they achieve such compliance is a matter left to negotiation (i.e. subject to contractual terms) between the Unitholders and the Fund Manager.
7.7. Internal Shari’ah review
(1) The Fund Manager of a Domestic Fund that is a Non-Exempt Fund must perform an internal Shari’ah review to assess the extent to which the Fund complies with fatwas, rulings and guidelines issued by the Fund’s SSB.
(2) The Fund Manager must perform the internal Shari’ah review in accordance with AAOIFI GSIFI No. 3.
Guidance
i) The Fund Manager of an umbrella Fund which has an Islamic Sub-Fund should, to the extent possible, perform the internal Shari’ah review in accordance with AAOIFI GSIFI No. 3 and must document the manner in which it will conduct that part of the internal Shari’ah review that is not conducted in accordance with AAOIFI GSIFI No. 3.
ii) Although the Fund Managers of Exempt Funds are not subject to the specific internal Shari’ah requirements, they would need to ensure that the Exempt Fund continues to meet the applicable Shari’ah requirements. However, the manner in which they demonstrate to the Unitholders of the Fund how they achieve such compliance is a matter left to negotiation (i.e. subject to contractual terms) between the Unitholders and the Fund Manager.
iii) The Fund Manager must ensure that the internal Shari’ah review referred to in this section is performed by the internal audit function of the Fund or the compliance function of the Fund and that the individuals or departments involved in performing the review are competent and sufficiently independent to assess compliance with Shari’ah.
Guidance
For the purposes of assessing competency of personnel or departments which perform the internal Shari’ah review, Fund Manager should consult AAOIFI GSIFI No. 3 paragraphs 9 to 16 inclusive.
7.8. Additional disclosures in the Offering Materials of a Non-Exempt Islamic Fund
Guidance
In addition to complying with the requirements set out in the AIFC CIS Rules relevant to the Offering Materials, the Fund Manager of a Non-Exempt Islamic Fund must comply with the additional requirements set out in this section.
(1) A Fund Manager of a Non-Exempt Islamic Fund must state in the Fund’s Offering Materials:
- (a) that all the operations in relation to the Fund will be conducted in accordance with Shari’ah;
- (b) if the Fund has a SSB appointed to it, the names of the members of the SSB and their qualifications and experience and, whether or not the Fund Manager’s SSB is appointed to the Fund;
- (c) if the Fund does not have a SSB appointed to it pursuant to Rule 7.5(3), what widely acceptable screening methodologies are used by the Fund to ensure Shari’ah compliance with respect to Investments made for the Fund, and the board that has approved them;
- (d) if applicable, the manner and frequency of Shari’ah reviews;
- (e) how earnings prohibited by Shari’ah will be disposed of; and
- (f) whether Zakat is the responsibility of the Fund or the responsibility of the Unitholders.
Guidance
i) The Fund Manager should provide sufficient details setting out the basis upon which the Fund has been approved and certified as Shari’ah compliant by its SSB. Such details should include the basis of the underlying principles, i.e. the Fatwas or rulings, including reference to any relevant Ijtihad, Ijma, Qiyas or other. Where applicable, reference should be made to any Islamic indices to be used. In addition, where applicable, the screening process and any filters used should be identified.
ii) The Fund Manager should set out each of the key features of the Fund and explain the rationale for determining why each of these features are considered Shari’ah-compliant by the Fund’s SSB.
7.9. Investments in other Funds
(1) A Non-Exempt Islamic Investment Fund may invest in Units of another Fund only where the Fund Manager has taken reasonable care to determine that:
- (a) the other Fund is the subject of an independent annual audit conducted in accordance with relevant IFRS or other standards as applicable;
- (b) the other Fund has mechanisms in place to enable Unitholders to redeem their Units within a reasonable time; and
- (c) the other Fund is prohibited from having more than 20% of its value in the Units of Funds.
(2) The Fund Manager must also have ascertained that there is a proper and disclosed basis for asset valuation and the pricing before investing in Units in the other Fund.
8. OFFERS OF ISLAMIC SECURITIES AND UNITS IN AN ISLAMIC INVESTMENT FUND THAT IS A LISTED FUND
8.1. Application
(1) A Person making Offers of Islamic Securities or Offers of Units in an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund in or from the AIFC must comply with the requirements in the AIFC MAR Rules, except to the extent specified in this section of IFR Rules.
(2) This section of IFR Rules applies to any Person who Offers Islamic Securities or Offers of Units in an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund in or from the AIFC.
Guidance
i) The issue of Securities is not a Regulated Activity. However, the Offer of Securities is an activity to which the AIFC FSFR and MAR Rules apply. Under the AIFC Regulations and Rules, a Person making an Offer of Securities in or from the AIFC would be subject to a range of disclosure requirements, unless exempt by specific provisions.
ii) Offers of Units of an Islamic Investment Fund are not subject to the requirements in this section because the AIFC CIS Rules provide for such activities to be regulated. However, offers of Units in an Islamic Investment Fund that is also a Listed Fund are subject to the AIFC CIS Rules, the requirements of this section and the AIFC MAR Rules.
8.2. Contents of a Prospectus for Islamic Securities
(1) The Prospectus relating to Islamic Securities being offered in the AIFC must include:
- (a) details of the members of the SSB appointed by the Issuer who have undertaken the review of the relevant Securities; and
- (b) details of the qualifications and experience of each of the members of that SSB.
(2) The Prospectus issued in relation to an issue of Sukuk must include;
- (a) the opinion of the SSB in respect of whether the Sukuk are Shari’ah compliant;
- (b) a detailed description of the structure of the underlying transaction and an explanation of the flow of funds; and
- (c) the disclosures required by the AAOIFI Shari’ah Standards in respect of investment Sukuk.
(3) The prospectus relating to Islamic Securities being offered in the AIFC must also include a prominent disclaimer in bold, on its front page as follows:
“The AFSA does not accept any responsibility for the content of the information included in the Prospectus, including the accuracy or completeness of such information. The liability for the content of the Prospectus lies with the issuer of the Prospectus and other Persons, such as Experts, whose opinions are included in the Prospectus with their consent. The AFSA has also not assessed the suitability of the Securities to which the Prospectus relates to any particular investor or type of investor and has not determined whether they are Shari’ah compliant. If you do not understand the contents of this Prospectus or are unsure whether the Securities are Shari’ah-compliant you should consult an authorised financial advisor.”
8.3. Continuing disclosures relating to Islamic Securities or Units in an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund
(1) The Issuer or the Reporting Entity responsible for an issue of Islamic Securities and/or the Fund Manager (in the case of an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund) must, without delay, disclose to the markets and to the AFSA details of any changes to the membership of its SSB, the identity, qualifications and experience of any new members of that SSB and the identity of any SSB member who resigned or was dismissed.
(2) A listed entity with Islamic Securities or Units in an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund admitted to the Official List must make the required market disclosures in accordance with the requirements under the applicable AIFC MAR Rules and comply with the other continuing obligations specified below.
(3) The Issuer or the Reporting Entity responsible for an issue of Islamic equity Securities and/or the Fund Manager (in the case of an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund) must appoint an independent SSB to evaluate the Shari’ah compliance of those securities and notify the AFSA of that fact, at least on an annual basis.
(4) A Reporting Entity and/or the Fund Manager (in the case of an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund), must disclose to the market immediately, any material change in the status of Shari’ah compliance of any of the securities for which it is responsible as a Reporting Entity.
(5) In cases, where there is a material change to the structure of the Islamic Securities or Units in an Islamic Investment Fund that is a Listed Fund issued by the Reporting Entity or Listed Fund, or in the use of its proceeds, the Reporting Entity or Fund Manager must take adequate steps to obtain and disclose to the market, a new Shari’ah opinion considering the changed circumstances.
TAKAFUL AND RETAKAFUL PRUDENTIAL RULES
Takaful and Retakaful Prudential Rules
1. General provisions
1.1. Introduction
1.1.1. Name of Rules
These rules are the AIFC Takaful and Retakaful Prudential Rules (or TRR).
1.1.2. Purpose
The purpose of this TRR Rules is to establish the regulatory framework for Authorised Firms carrying out Takaful Business which involve pooling of the risks faced by its participants. These Rules are based on:
- (a) the standards and guidelines issued by the Islamic Financial Services Board on governance, risk management and solvency of Takaful businesses
- (b) the standards and guidelines issued by the Islamic Financial Services Board on Retakaful businesses;
- (c) the standards and guidelines issued by the IAIS in regard to governance, risk management and solvency of insurance businesses which also apply to Takaful /Retakaful businesses.
1.1.3. Application of TRR
(1) These Rules apply to every Takaful Operator except where otherwise provided.
(2) These Rules are also applicable to every Retakaful Operator. Except as stated otherwise, all references to a Takaful Operator in the TRR Rules must be read as referring also to a Retakaful Operator. Consequently, all the regulatory requirements imposed by these TRR Rules apply to all entities licensed to carry out Takaful Business as defined in Rules 1.1.6 (1) including Retakaful Operators, except for specific sections or Rules wherein their applicability is defined in a particular manner. For clarity, all the regulatory requirements imposed by the TRR Rules apply to Retakaful Operators, unless otherwise specified in the TRR.
Guidance: Reinsurance
Note that the term Takaful Operator includes any Retakaful Operator and the term Takaful Contract includes any Retakaful Contract.
1.1.4. Effect of definitions, notes, examples and references
A definition in the glossary to these Rules also applies to any instructions or document made under these Rules.
- (a) A note in or to these Rules is explanatory and is not part of these Rules. However, examples and guidance are part of these Rules.
- (b) An example is not exhaustive, and may extend, but does not limit, the meaning of these Rules or the particular provision of these Rules to which it relates.
- (c) Unless the contrary intention appears, a reference in these Rules to an accord, principle, standard or other similar instrument is a reference to that instrument as amended from time to time.
1.1.5. Key Definitions
(1) A Takaful Operator is
(a) an Islamic Financial Institution that is licensed to conduct the Regulated Activity of Takaful Business; or
(b) an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer operating an Islamic Window (within the meaning of IFR rule 1.8), to conduct the Regulated Activity of Takaful Business.
(2) A Takaful Fund is a fund established and maintained by a Takaful Operator under TRR Rule 2.2, for its Takaful business.
Guidance: Branches
Note that certain of the obligations set out in this rulebook do not apply to Takaful Operators that are Branches of entities established and regulated outside the AIFC. The term AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is used to refer to a Takaful Operator that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC and thus excludes Branches of legal entities incorporated outside the AIFC.
1.1.6. Principles underlying TRR Rules
The TRR Rules are based on the following principles:
- (a) Ensure compliance with Shari’ah;
- (b) Enable better alignment of risk-return objectives of a Takaful Operator consistent with its fiduciary duty to manage its Takaful Business in a sound manner;
- (c) Provide incentives for Takaful Operators to manage business in a risk-based manner and adopt prudent practices;
- (d) Provide an early warning signal on any deterioration in capital adequacy or solvency levels to enable prompt and pre-emptive actions to be taken by Takaful Operator and the AFSA;
- (e) Promote transparency as a means to protect the interests of participants of the Takaful fund; and
- (f) Reduce opportunities for regulatory arbitrage with the conventional insurance business and with the rest of the financial sector.
1.2. Takaful Business
1.2.1. Types of Takaful Business
(1) General Takaful Business is Takaful Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts.
(2) Family Takaful Business is Takaful Business in relation to Long Term Insurance Contracts.
1.2.2. Types of Takaful Contracts
(1) A General Takaful Contract is a Shari’ah-Compliant Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 1.
(2) A Family Takaful Contract is a Shari’ah-Compliant Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 2.
1.3. Classification of Takaful Contracts
1.3.1. Classification of contracts
A Takaful Operator must, in its own records, classify all Takaful Contracts carried out by it, including all Contracts of Reinsurance or Retakaful Contracts entered into by it as cedant, according to the category to which the Takaful Contracts relate.
1.3.2. Classification of contracts falling into two or more categories
Where a Takaful Contract relates to more than one category, the Takaful Operator must record separately the portions of the Takaful Contract that relate to each category, except that immaterial portions need not be separately recorded.
1.4. Restrictions in respect of Takaful Business
1.4.1. Restriction on combining certain kinds of Takaful Business
A Takaful Operator must not carry on, in or from the AIFC, both Family Takaful Business and General Takaful Business unless the General Takaful Business is restricted to General Takaful Categories 1 (accident) and 2 (sickness).
1.4.2. Restriction on Takaful Operators carrying on non-Takaful Business
(1) A Takaful Operator must not carry on any activity other than Takaful Business unless the activity is directly connected with, or carried on for the purposes of, Takaful Business.
(2) For the avoidance of doubt, Managing Investments is not an activity directly connected with, or carried on for the purposes of, Takaful Business.
1.5. Core obligations of Takaful Operators
1.5.1. Obligation to establish and maintain systems and controls
A Takaful Operator must establish and maintain systems and controls in accordance with the requirements of TRR 2 (Governance Framework) and GEN 5 (Systems and Controls).
1.5.2. Obligation to maintain a risk management strategy
A Takaful Operator must establish and implement a Risk Management Strategy in accordance with the requirements of TRR 3 (Risk Management Strategy).
1.5.3. Obligation to conduct Own Risk and Solvency Assessment
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must conduct an Own Risk and Solvency Assessment and submit a report thereon to AFSA in accordance with the requirements of TRR 4.
1.5.4. Obligation to maintain Eligible Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must at all times maintain Eligible Capital in an amount and of a quality required by TRR 5.
1.5.5. Obligations in respect of Investments
A Takaful Operator must make investments in accordance with the requirements of TRR 6 (Investments).
1.5.6. Obligation to maintain Long Term Takaful Funds
A Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business must segregate its Family Takaful assets and liabilities in accordance with TRR 7 (Segregation of Family Takaful assets and liabilities).
1.5.7. Obligations in respect of Assets and Liabilities
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must value its assets and liabilities in accordance with the requirements of TRR 8 (Valuation).
1.5.8. Obligation to produce actuarial reports
A Takaful Operator must prepare and submit to the AFSA the actuarial reports that it is required to produced pursuant to the requirements of TRR 9 (Actuarial reporting).
1.5.9. Obligations in respect of groups
A Takaful Operator that is a member of a group must comply with the requirements of TRR 10 (Takaful Operators that are members of Groups).
1.5.10. Obligations in respect of Takaful Business Transfers
A Takaful Operator that is party to a Takaful Business Transfer must comply with the requirements of TRR 11 (Transfer of Takaful business).
1.5.11. Obligations in respect of Run-off
A Takaful Operator that is in Run-off must comply with the requirements of TRR 12 (Takaful Operators in run-off).
1.5.12. Obligation to prepare prudential returns
A Takaful Operator must prepare the prudential returns that it is required to produced pursuant to TRR 13 (Prudential returns).
2.Governance Framework
2.1. Overall Governance
A Takaful Operator must ensure the adoption and effective implementation of sound risk management practices, robust Shari’ah governance and high standards of business conduct. The board of directors and senior management of a Takaful Operator are responsible for ensuring such effective governance framework as it is critical for achieving the objectives of the TRR Rules.
2.2. Takaful Funds and their Governance
2.2.1. Takaful Funds – establishment and attribution of business
(1) A Takaful Operator must establish and maintain one or more Takaful Funds for its Takaful Business.
(2) A Takaful Operator must attribute all Takaful Business that it conducts to one or more of the Takaful Funds it operates.
2.2.2. Takaful Funds – Allocation of assets
(1) A Takaful Operator must ensure the assets allocated to a particular Takaful Fund are only allocated, apart from the exceptions provided for in the rest of this rule below, for the purposes of the Takaful Fund to which it is attributed and must not be allocated or made available for any other purpose of the Takaful Operator.
(2) Rule 2.1.2 (1) above does not preclude the reimbursement of expenditures borne by the shareholders of the Takaful Operator (in the same or the preceding financial year) in discharging liabilities wholly or partly attributable to a Takaful Fund.
(3) Rule 2.1.2 (1) above does not apply to the payment of management fees by a Takaful Fund to the Takaful Operator or an investment manager to whom management of the Takaful Fund has been delegated, even where the manager is the shareholder of the Takaful Operator, provided that the Shari’ah supervisory board of the Takaful Operator has approved those fees.
(4) Rule 2.1.2 (1) above does not prevent a Takaful Operator from exchanging, at fair market value, Takaful business assets of any Takaful Fund for other assets of the Takaful Operator including assets held by another Takaful Fund or assets held by the shareholder of the Takaful Operator.
2.2.3. Takaful Funds – Fair transactions
A Takaful Operator must have adequate arrangements for ensuring that transactions involving assets of the Takaful Operator (other than transactions outside its control) do not operate unfairly between a Takaful Fund established and maintained under rule 2.1.1 and the shareholder assets of the Takaful Operator or, in the case where the Takaful Operator has more than one Takaful Fund, between those Takaful Funds.
2.2.4. Takaful Funds – Prohibition on making or attributing loans
A Takaful Operator must not make or attribute any loans from a Takaful Fund it operates to another Takaful Fund or to any other party, including but not limited to:
- (a) the Takaful Operator;
- (b) a person in a controlled function;
- (c) a participant (policyholder) in the Takaful Fund; and
- (d) a controller or person with close links to the Takaful Operator.
2.3. Systems for risk management and internal controls
Guidance: systems and controls requirements in GEN As an Authorised Person, A Takaful Operator is required to comply with the Systems and Controls requirements in GEN 5. The requirements of this Chapter are in addition to the requirements of GEN 5.
2.3.1. Risk management function
A Takaful Operator must establish and maintain an effective risk management function capable of assisting the Takaful Operator to identify, assess, monitor, mitigate and report on its key risks in a timely way; and to promote and sustain a sound risk culture.
Guidance: additional requirements in GEN
A Takaful Operator is also subject to obligations in respect of operational risk, legal risk and fraud risk pursuant to GEN 5.8 (Management of risks).
2.3.2. Actuarial function
A Takaful Operator must establish and maintain an effective actuarial function capable of evaluating and providing advice regarding, at a minimum, technical provisions, premium and pricing activities, capital adequacy, reinsurance and compliance with related statutory and regulatory requirements.
2.4. Controlled Functions
2.4.1. Designation of roles as Controlled Functions
The following functions are prescribed as Controlled Functions within the meaning of section 20 of the FSFR:
- (a) Risk Officer;
- (b) Internal Auditor; and
- (c) Approved Actuary
Guidance: relationship with GEN
Rules in this section supplement, and should be read in conjunction with, the Rules in GEN 2.2 (Controlled and Designated Functions). In particular a Takaful Operator should note the following requirements of general application to Controlled Functions and the Approved Individuals performing them:
• GEN 2.2.6. Application for Approved Individual status
• GEN 2.2.7. AFSA discretion to waive requirements
• GEN 2.2.8. Modification or withdrawal of an Approved Individual’s registration
• GEN 2.2.9. Dismissal or resignation of an Approved Individual
2.4.2. Mandatory appointments
(1) A Takaful Operator must make the following appointments and ensure that they are held by one or more Approved Individuals at all times:
- (a) Risk Officer; and
- (b) Internal Auditor.
(2) A Takaful Operator must also appoint an Approved Actuary and ensure that such role is held at all times by an Approved Individual if:
- (a) it conducts Family Takaful Business; or
- (b) it conducts General Takaful Business and;
- (i) more than 15% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Takaful Contracts for General Takaful Business in General Insurance 1 (Accident) or 2 (Sickness); or
- (ii) more than 20% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Takaful Contracts for General Takaful Business in General Insurance Categories 10 (Motor vehicle liability), 11 (Aircraft liability), 12 (Liability of ships), 13 (General liability), 14 (Credit) or 15 (Suretyship).
2.4.3. Risk Officer
The Risk Officer is an individual who has responsibility for the Takaful Operator’s risk management function.
2.4.4. Internal Auditor
The Internal Auditor is an individual who has responsibility:
(a) for the Takaful Operator’s internal audit policies, procedures and controls; and
(b) for taking appropriate steps to ensure the implementation of and compliance with those policies, procedures and controls.
2.4.5. Approved Actuary
(1) The Approved Actuary is an individual who has responsibility:
(a) for the Takaful Operator’s actuarial policies, procedures and controls; and
(b) for taking appropriate steps to ensure the implementation of and compliance with those policies, procedures and controls.
(2) The Approved Actuary must not be an individual who:
(a) exercises the Senior Executive Function for the Takaful Operator or a related body corporate (except a related body corporate that is a subsidiary of the Takaful Operator); or
(b) is an Employee or Director of an auditor for the Takaful Operator.
2.5. Outsourcing
2.5.1. Outsourcing of risk management function (TRR 2.3.1)
A Takaful Operator may outsource its risk management function to an Insurance Manager who carries out that function in a Shari’ah-compliant manner, subject to the Rules relating to outsourcing in GEN 5.2 (Outsourcing).
2.5.2. Outsourcing of actuarial function (TRR 2.3.2)
A Takaful Operator may outsource its actuarial function to an Insurance Manager who carries out that function in a Shari’ah-compliant manner, subject to the Rules relating to outsourcing in GEN 5.2 (Outsourcing).
2.5.3. Outsourcing of Controlled Functions (TRR 2.4 and GEN 2.2)
A Takaful Operator may appoint an Employee of an Insurance Manager to perform the Controlled Functions of Risk Officer, Internal Auditor, Approved Actuary, Finance Officer and/or Compliance Officer, provided that such Employee is an Approved Individual.
3. Risk Management Strategy
3.1. Risk Management Strategy
3.1.1. Core obligations
(1) A Takaful Operator must establish, document and implement a Risk Management Strategy that is appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its business.
(2) The Risk Management Strategy of the Takaful Operator must be appropriate to the specific features of the Takaful model adopted by it for conducting its Takaful Business and all associated Shari’ah compliance obligations.
(3) A Takaful Operator must not intentionally deviate in a material way from its Risk Management Strategy unless such deviation has been
(a) approved by its Governing Body in accordance with TRR 3.1.5 (Approval of Risk Management Strategy) below; and
(b) notified to the AFSA in accordance with TRR 3.1.6 (Notification of the AFSA) below.
3.1.2. Contents of Risk Management Strategy
A Takaful Operator’s Risk Management Strategy must:
(a) provide for the identification and quantification of material risks under a sufficiently wide range of outcomes using techniques which are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the risks it bears;
(b) include a Risk Management Policy that complies with TRR 3.1.3 (Contents of Risk Management Policy);
(c) include a Risk Tolerance Statement that complies with the requirements of TRR 3.1.4 (Contents of Risk Tolerance Statement);
(d) be supported by accurate documentation;
(e) describe how the Takaful Operator will:
- (i) ensure that relevant staff have an awareness of risk issues and the accessibility of the Risk Management Strategy; and
- (ii) instil an appropriate risk culture; and
(f) include a business continuity plan for ensuring that critical business operations can be maintained or recovered in a timely fashion in the event of disruption.
(g) be responsive to changes in its risk profile; and
(h) incorporate a feedback loop, based on appropriate and good quality information, management processes and objective assessment, which enables it to take the necessary action in a timely manner in response to changes in its risk profile.
3.1.3. Contents of Risk Management Policy
A Takaful Operator’s Risk Management Policy must:
(a) describe how all relevant and material categories of financial and non-financial risk are monitored, measured and managed, both in the Takaful Operator’s business strategy and its day-to-day operations, including at least the following risks:
- (i) Shari’ah non-compliance risk
- (ii) risks arising from segregation of Takaful funds
- (iii) credit risk;
- (iv) balance sheet and market risk (including investment, asset-liability management, liquidity and derivatives risks);
- (v) reserving risk;
- (vi) Takaful risk (including underwriting, product design, pricing and claims settlement risks);
- (vii) reinsurance risk;
- (viii) operational risk (including business continuity, outsourcing, fraud, technology, legal and project management risks);
- (ix) concentration risk;
- (x) risks relating to use of Retakaful
- (xi) group risk.
(b) describe the relationship between the Takaful Operator’s tolerance limits, regulatory capital requirements, economic capital and the processes and methods for monitoring risk;
(c) include the following specific policies:
- (i) a policy regarding investment that specifies the nature, role and extent of the Takaful Operator’s investment activities and how the Takaful Operator complies with the investment requirements under these Rules;
- (ii) a policy regarding asset-liability management that specifies the nature, role and extent of asset-liability management activities and their relationship with product development, pricing and investment management;
- (iii) a policy regarding underwriting that specifies the risks to be accepted by the Takaful Operator as part of its Takaful business, the processes for underwriting, pricing and claims settlement;
- (iv) a policy ensuring that any Contract of Retakaful / reinsurance to which it is a party is finalised (and the material documents supporting the contract are completed) before the start of reinsurance cover (the start date), or as soon as possible after the start date (but in no case later than 60 calendar days after the start date);
- (v) a policy towards risk retention, risk management strategies including Retakaful and the use of Shari’ah-compliant hedging techniques;
- (vi) a policy regarding procedures for business continuity that enable the Takaful Operator to manage any initial disruption of business and to recover critical business operations following such a disruption.
3.1.4. Contents of Risk Tolerance Statement
A Takaful Operator’s Risk Tolerance Statement must:
(a) set out its overall quantitative and qualitative risk tolerance levels;
(b) define risk tolerance limits which take into account all relevant and material categories of risk and the relationships between them.
3.1.5 Approval of Risk Management Strategy
(1) A Takaful Operator’s Risk Management Strategy must be approved by its Governing Body.
(2) Any change to or deviation from a Takaful Operator’s Risk Management Strategy must be approved by its Governing Body.
(3) In giving its approval to a Risk Management Strategy, or to any amendment to or deviation from a Risk Management Strategy, the Governing Body of a Takaful Operator must be satisfied that:
- (a) the strategy and any changes to it mitigate and control the risks included in the Takaful Operator’s Risk Management Policy; and
- (b) the Risk Management Policy is appropriate and gives reasonable assurance that all material risks facing the Takaful Operator are prudently and soundly managed having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of the Takaful Operator’s business.
3.1.6. Notification of the AFSA
(1) A Takaful Operator must give to the AFSA a copy of its Risk Management Strategy, and any subsequently amended version of that strategy, within 10 business days after its approval.
(2) A Takaful Operator must notify the AFSA of any material deviation from its Risk Management Strategy at least 10 business days before the deviation.
4. Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA)
4.1. The ORSA
4.1.1. Obligation to conduct an Own Risk and Solvency Assessment
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must:
- (a) conduct an Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA) in accordance with TRR 4.1.2 (ORSA – requirements) at least annually; and
- (b) submit a report to the AFSA on its ORSA (an ORSA Report) in accordance with TRR 4.2.1 (ORSA Report - requirements).
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must conduct a fresh ORSA and submit a revised ORSA report to the AFSA if there is a change to its Risk Management Strategy, strategic plan or business plan and the change results, or there are reasonable grounds to believe that the change will result, in a material change in the capital adequacy or solvency of the AIFCIncorporated Takaful Operator.
4.1.2. ORSA – requirements
(1) In conducting an ORSA, an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must assess:
(a) its overall solvency needs, including its own view of the adequacy of its capital resources to meet the regulatory capital requirements;
(b) the risk exposures of each Takaful Fund managed by it, independents of every other Takaful Fund it manages to ensure that the risks or potential losses are not masked by the countervailing impact of the availability of capital in other Takaful Funds.
(c) the actions it has taken to manage the risks to which it is exposed;
(d) the financial resources needed:
- (i) to manage its business prudently; and
- (ii) to meet the capital adequacy requirements in TRR 5 (Capital adequacy requirements);
(e) the nature, adequacy and quality of the capital resources needed, having regard to their loss-absorbing capacity and liquidity;
(f) the adequacy and quality of the capital resources in each Takaful Fund to meet the regulatory capital requirement of that Takaful Fund, as well as its economic capital needs;
(g) the probability and extent of any need for Qard support for the Takaful Fund;
(h) the effect on the Takaful Operator’s solvency position of all reasonably foreseeable and relevant changes in its risk profile (including group-specific risks); and
- (i) its ability to meet itsTakaful Operator and Prescribed Capital Requirement and continue in business, and the financial resources needed, over periods longer than those typically used for calculating its capital adequacy requirements under TRR 5 (Capital adequacy requirements).
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must include as part of any quantitative evaluation in its ORSA:
(a) stress tests;
(b) the occurrence of extreme events to which the Takaful Operator is exposed; and
(c) other unlikely but possible adverse scenarios that would render the Takaful Operator’s business model unviable.
(3) The ORSA must be appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s business.
(4) The ORSA must cover all Takaful Funds managed by the Takaful Operator, as it is the responsibility of the Takaful Operator to ensure that those funds are managed prudently.
(5) The ORSA must consider the potential impact of transactions between different Takaful Funds, and in particular the impact of any Qard provided by the shareholders’ fund of the Takaful Operator to any Takaful Fund. In this respect, the ORSA must involve a forwardlooking assessment of the need for provision of Qard and how it will be repaid, and the impact of various stakeholders involved in the process.
(6) The ORSA also needs to consider whether the Takaful Operator will be able and/or willing to provide Qard, in a scenario wherein the ability of a Takaful Fund to continue to meet its obligations would be contingent on receipt of Qard support.
4.2. The ORSA Report
4.2.1. ORSA Report - requirements
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s ORSA Report must present all of the following:
(a) the qualitative and quantitative results of the ORSA and the conclusions drawn by the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator from those results;
(b) the methods and main assumptions used in the ORSA;
(c) information on the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator's overall solvency needs and a comparison of those solvency needs with its capital adequacy requirements under TRR 5 (Capital adequacy requirements) and its Eligible Capital;
(d) qualitative and (if relevant) quantitative information on the extent to which quantifiable risks to which the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is exposed are not reflected in the calculation of the Prescribed Capital Requirement.
4.2.2. ORSA Report – approval by the Governing Body
An ORSA Report must include a statement that the Governing Body of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator participated in the ORSA and approved the ORSA Report.
5. Capital adequacy requirements
5.1. Application and Overview
5.1.1. Application
This Chapter applies to an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator.
5.1.2. Overview
(1) The capital requirements for the shareholders’ fund of the Takaful Operator must be reflective of the risks directly borne by the Takaful Operator, whilst the capital requirements for the individual Takaful Funds managed by it must be reflective of the risks borne by those Takaful Funds.
(2) If the Eligible Capital available in a Takaful Fund is not adequate to meet the applicable capital requirements as defined in the TRR Rules, the resulting deficit in capital should be considered as an estimate of the potential Qard that may need to be extended by the Takaful Operator to ensure capital adequacy of the relevant Takaful Fund.
(3) The Eligible Capital available in the shareholders’ fund of a Takaful Operator must only be available to support risks borne by the Takaful Operator as well as any potential Qard it may need to provide to its Takaful Funds, as described in (2) above.
(4) The Eligible Capital available in a Takaful Fund must only be used to support the risk exposures of that Takaful Fund and should be available only to reduce the potential Qard that may need to be extended by its Takaful Operator.
(5) The capital adequacy and other prudential requirements as well as the methodologies for determining them, as specified in the TRR Rules must be applied to the Takaful Operator or to the individual Takaful Funds it manages, as applicable in the relevant context, to achieve the overall objectives of the TRR Rules and to comply with the specific Rules 5.1.2 (1) to (4).
(6) All references to a Takaful Operator or an AIFC-incorporated Takaful Operator in the TRR Rules specifying capital adequacy and other prudential requirements must be read as referring also to a Takaful Fund.
5.2. Calculation of Eligible Capital and capital requirements
5.2.1. Obligation to calculate Eligible Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must calculate its Eligible Capital on an ongoing basis in accordance with the Rules set out in Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital)
5.2.2. Obligation to calculate MCR
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must calculate its Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR) on an ongoing basis in accordance with the Rules set out in Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)).
5.2.3. Obligation to calculate PCR
- (a) calculate its Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR) at least once a year in accordance with the Rules set out in Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)); and
- (b) recalculate its PCR without delay if its risk profile deviates significantly from the risk profile detailed in its last reported PCR.
5.3. Use of Internal models to calculate capital requirements
5.3.1. Approval by AFSA
The AFSA may, by written notice, allow an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator to use its own internal model to calculate a component or components of its PCR.
Guidance
Note that the AFSA is not currently in a position to consider applications for the use of internal models. The AFSA will notify Takaful Operators when this position changes.
5.3.2. Criteria for approving use of internal models
The AFSA will only consider allowing an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator to use its internal model if it is satisfied that the model:
(a) operates within a risk management environment that is conceptually sound and supported by adequate resources;
(b) addresses all material risks to which the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator could reasonably be expected to be exposed and is commensurate with the relative importance of those risks, based on the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s business mix;
(c) is closely integrated into the day-to-day management process of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator;
(d) is supported by appropriate audit and compliance procedures;
(e) is subjected to, as a minimum, three tests: “statistical quality test”, “calibration test” and “use test”, the results of the which demonstrate that the model is appropriate for regulatory capital purposes; and
(f) is subject to adequate processes established by the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator to validate the accuracy of the calculations made using the internal model, as well as for monitoring and assessing its ongoing performance.
5.3.3. Statistical quality test
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator seeking approval for its internal model must demonstrate:
(a) that the PCR or component(s) of the PCR calculated using the internal model addresses the overall risk position of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator subject to the nature, scale and complexity of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator and its risk exposures;
(b) the theoretical validity of the internal model including:
- (i) the suitability of model structure, data (including completeness and accuracy), and estimation within the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s business context;
- (ii) the appropriateness of the internal model basis within the industry context, including methodological benchmarking to alternatives and best practice;
- (iii) the appropriateness of the parameter estimations. It should be demonstrated that the parameter estimations are appropriate within the market and industry context and parameter uncertainty is addressed to the extent possible; and
- (iv) the consistency, soundness and justification of the methodologies, distributions, aggregation techniques and dependencies (within and among risk categories) adopted.
(c) the analytical validity of the internal model including:
- (i) the statistical process for validating that the results of the model are fit for the purpose for which they are used;
- (ii) the implementation of the model given the theoretical basis, goodness of fit, forecasting capability for out-of sample observations (backtesting), sensitivity to changes in key underlying assumptions and stability of outputs;
- (iii) the backtesting applied at various levels of the business activity;
- (iv) the sensitivity analysis undertaken, which should validate the parts of the internal model where expert judgement is used and should examine whether the model output is sensitive to changes in key assumptions;
- (v) the convergence of the model to demonstrate that model outputs are statistically significant;
- (vi) the processes of monitoring the model’s performance; and
- (vii) where possible, benchmarking the model results and techniques with peers, available literature and research.
5.3.4. Calibration test
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must demonstrate that the PCR or component(s) of the PCR produced by its internal model is consistent with the specified modelling criteria.
5.3.5. Use test
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must demonstrate that the internal model (its methodologies and results) is fully integrated within its risk and capital management and system of governance processes and procedures.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s Governing Body is required to:
(a) have overall control of and responsibility for the construction and use of the internal model for risk management purposes;
(b) have sufficient understanding of the model’s construction at appropriate levels within the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s organisational structure;
(c) have an understanding of the consequences of the internal model’s outputs and limitations for risk and capital management decisions.
(3) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must have adequate governance and internal controls in place with respect to the internal model.
5.3.6. Documentation
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must document, at a minimum:
(a) the design, construction, modelling criteria and governance of the internal model;
(b) the justification for and details of the underlying methodology, assumptions and quantitative and financial bases;
(c) if applicable, why it has chosen to only use a partial internal model for certain risks or business lines; and
(d) if applicable, the reliance on and appropriateness of the use of external vendors/suppliers.
(2) The documentation must be sufficiently detailed to demonstrate compliance with the statistical quality test, calibration test and use test.
(3) The documentation of the internal model must be timely and up to date.
5.3.7. Ongoing validation and supervisory approval of the internal model
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator using an internal model must:
- (a) monitor the performance of its internal model and regularly review and validate the ongoing appropriateness of the model’s specifications against the criteria set out in 5.3.2 to 5.3.5;
- (b) notify the AFSA of material changes to the internal model made by it for review and continued approval of the use of the model for regulatory capital purposes;
- (c) properly document internal model changes;
- (d) report information necessary for supervisory review and ongoing approval of the internal model on a regular basis, as determined appropriate by the AFSA
5.4. Solvency control levels
5.4.1. Obligation to maintain Eligible Capital at or above MCR
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must at all times have Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its MCR.
5.4.2. Obligation to maintain Eligible Capital at or above PCR
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must at all times have Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its PCR.
5.4.3. Non-Compliance with the PCR
If an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator becomes aware that it does not have, or there is a risk that within the following three months it will not have, Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its PCR, it must:
(1) immediately inform the AFSA;
(2) within one month, submit to the AFSA for its approval a short-term realistic plan which complies with the requirements of TRR 5.4.6 (Contents of recovery plans and finance schemes);
(3) within six months (or such longer period as the AFSA may specify), take the measures necessary to achieve the re-establishment of Eligible Capital covering the PCR, or the reduction of its risk profile to ensure compliance with the PCR; and
(4) take such steps (if any) as the AFSA may require, which steps may be specified by the ASFA as in addition to, or instead of, the measures in (3).
5.4.4. Non-Compliance with the MCR
If an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator becomes aware that it does not have, or there is a risk that within the following three months it will not have, Eligible Capital equal to or higher than the amount of its MCR, it must
(1) immediately inform the AFSA;
(2) within two months, submit to the AFSA for its approval a short-term realistic plan for infusion of additional Eligible Capital which complies with the requirements of TRR 5.4.6 (Contents of recovery plans and finance schemes);
(3) within six months (or such longer period as the AFSA may allow), take the measures necessary to achieve the re-establishment of the level of Eligible Capital covering the MCR, or the reduction of its risk profile to ensure compliance with the MCR; and
(4) take such steps (if any) as the AFSA may require, which steps may be specified by the ASFA as in addition to, or instead of, the measures in (3).
5.4.5. Other regulatory actions not precluded
The fact that an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator has Eligible Capital equal to or in excess of its PCR or its MCR does not preclude the AFSA from intervention, or from requiring action by the AIFCIncorporated Takaful Operator for other reasons, such as weaknesses in the risk management or governance of the Takaful Operator.
5.4.6. Contents of recovery plans and finance schemes
Any recovery plan or finance scheme must as a minimum include:
(a) estimates of management expenses, in particular current general expenses and commissions;
(b) estimates of income and expenditure in respect of direct business, reinsurance acceptances and reinsurance cessions;
(c) a forecast balance sheet;
(d) information about the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s overall policy regarding reinsurance; and
(e) such other information as the AFSA may specify in writing.
5.4.7. Eligible Capital below the level of the Capital Floor
If at any time an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator becomes aware that it does not have Eligible Capital in excess of the amount of the Capital Floor specified in Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)), it must immediately
- (a) stop effecting new Contracts of Takaful; and
- (b) inform the AFSA.
5.5. Reduction of Eligible Capital
5.5.1. Tier 1 Capital not to be reduced without approval
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must not reduce the Tier 1 Capital component of its Eligible Capital without the prior written approval of the AFSA.
5.5.2. Capital plan to be provided
When seeking approval for a reduction of its Tier 1 Capital under TRR 5.5.1 (Tier 1 Capital not to be reduced without approval), an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must provide to the AFSA a capital plan that has incorporated the effects of the proposed reduction and:
- (a) demonstrates that the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator will remain in excess of its MCR for 2 years without relying on new capital issues;
- (b) is consistent with the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s business plan; and
- (c) takes account of any possible acquisitions, locked-in capital in subsidiaries and the possibility of exceptional losses.
5.5.3. Notice to be given of proposed reduction of Tier 2 Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must notify the AFSA of its intention to reduce its Tier 2 Capital at least 6 months before the actual date of the proposed reduction, providing details of how it will meet its MCR after the proposed reduction.
5.6. Notification of dividends and distributions
5.6.1. Dividends and distributions to be reported
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must report to the AFSA all dividends and other distributions to shareholders within 15 business days following the declaration of the dividend or distribution.
6. Investment
6.1. Admissible assets
6.1.1 Security, liquidity, location and diversification
(1) A Takaful Operator must invest only in assets or investment opportunities which are approved as Shari’ah-compliant, by its Shari’ah Supervisory Board.
(2) A Takaful Operator when, investing in assets, must consider whether, for the portfolio as a whole:
(a) its assets are sufficiently secure having regard to their capacity to protect their value and preserve their economic substance;
(b) its assets are sufficiently liquid to ensure that the Takaful Operator is able to make payments to policyholders and creditors as they fall due
(c) its assets are held in the appropriate location for their availability; and
(d) its assets are sufficiently diversified subject to the nature, scale and complexity of the business.
6.1.2. Assets appropriate to liabilities
(1) A Takaful Operator must invest in a manner that is appropriate to the nature of its liabilities.
(2) In particular, a Takaful Operator must:
(a) consider the extent to which the cash flows from its investments match the liability cash flows in both timing and amount and how these changes in varying conditions;
(b) consider the investment guarantees and embedded options that are contained in its policies;
(c) consider the currency or currencies of its liabilities and the extent to which they are matched by the currencies of the assets;
(d) manage conflicts of interest (e.g. between the Takaful Operator’s corporate objectives and disclosed Takaful policy objectives) to ensure assets are invested appropriately;
(e) for with-profits liabilities, hold an appropriate mix of assets to meet policyholders’ reasonable expectations; and
(f) if it is part of an insurance group, hold investments tailored to the characteristics of its liabilities and its needs and not be subject to undue influence from the wider objectives of the group.
6.1.3. Ability to assess risks
(1) A Takaful Operator must only invest in assets whose risks it can properly assess and manage.
(2) In particular, a Takaful Operator must:
(a) ensure its investments, including those in collective investment funds, are sufficiently transparent and limit its investments to those where the associated risks of the asset can be properly managed by it
(b) ensure that it understands all of the risks involved in an investment before any investments are undertaken;
(c) if it is able to look through the structure of an investment to the underlying assets,consider the risk characteristics of the underlying assets and how this affects the risk characteristics of the investments itself
(d) if it is not able to look through the structure of an investment to the underlying assets,develop appropriate techniques to assess the risks associated with the investment.
6.2. Investment restrictions
6.2.1. Assets not admitted to trading on a regulated financial market
A Takaful Operator must ensure that assets and securities that are not admitted to trading on a regulated financial market are kept to prudent levels.
6.2.2. Derivatives
(1) A Takaful Operator must not use a Derivative instrument for speculation or proprietary trading.
(2) A Takaful Operator may only use a Shari’ah-compliant Derivative instrument:
- (a) to apply an index tracking strategy to part or all of a portfolio;
- (b) to apply capital protected strategies to part or all of a portfolio;
- (c) to apply efficient portfolio management techniques to a portfolio; or
- (d) to reduce investment risk currently employed on a portfolio.
6.2.3. Forward foreign exchange transactions
A Takaful Operator must not invest in forward foreign exchange transactions save to the extent that they hedge currency exposures to currencies other than the reporting currency in its prudential returns.
6.3. Investment policy and procedures
6.3.1. Investment policy
A Takaful Operator must establish and maintain an investment policy which specifies
- (a) the nature, role and extent of its investment activities; and
- (b) how it complies with TRR 6.1 (Admissible assets).
6.3.2. Procedures for complex and non-transparent investments
A Takaful Operator must establish procedures for managing the risk associated with more complex and less transparent classes of asset and investment in markets or instruments that are subject to less governance or regulation.
7. Segregation of Family Takaful assets and liabilities
7.1. Establishment of Family Takaful Funds
7.1.1. Family Takaful Funds to be established
A Takaful Operator conducting Family Takaful Business must either:
- (a) establish and maintain one or more Family Takaful Funds; or
- (b) notify the AFSA that the Takaful Operator is deemed to constitute a single Family Takaful Fund.
7.1.2. Family Takaful Fund
(1) Unless (2) applies, all the Family Takaful Assets of a Takaful Operator constitute its Family Takaful Fund.
(2) Where a Takaful Operator identifies particular Family Takaful Assets in connection with different parts of its Family Takaful Business, the assets identified in relation to each such part constitute separate Family Takaful Funds of the Takaful Operator.
7.1.3. Family Takaful Assets
(1) A Takaful Operator’s Family Takaful Assets are the items in (2), adjusted to take account of:
(a) liabilities in respect of the Takaful Operator’s Family Takaful Business; and
(b) any transfers made out of the Family Takaful Fund in accordance with TRR 7.5.2
(Transfers of assets out of Family Takaful Funds).
(2) The items are:
(a) admissible assets identified by the Takaful Operator as being available to cover liabilities arising under or in connection with Family Takaful Business with due regard to generally accepted actuarial practice (including assets into which those assets have been converted) but excluding any assets identified as being held to cover liabilities in respect of subordinated debt;
(b) any other assets identified by the Takaful Operator as being available to cover its liabilities arising from Family Takaful Business (including assets into which those assets have been converted) including, if the Takaful Operator so elects, assets which are excluded under (a);
(c) premiums and other receivables in respect of Family Takaful Business;
(d) other receipts of the Family Takaful Business; and
(e) all income and capital receipts in respect of the items set out in (2).
7.1.4. Takaful Operator deemed to constitute Family Takaful Fund to be treated as though it had established such fund
A Takaful Operator that is deemed, in accordance with TRR 7.1.1(b), to constitute a single Family Takaful Fund shall be treated for all purposes relating to these Rules as though the Takaful Operator had established a Family Takaful Fund to which all of the assets and liabilities of the Takaful Operator are attributed.
7.1.5. Treatment of Branches
A Takaful Operator that is a Branch and that is subject to a regulatory requirement in another jurisdiction to arrange its affairs in a manner that is equivalent or substantially equivalent to the requirements of TRR 7.1.1 may make an application to the AFSA for that arrangement of its affairs to be deemed to constitute a Family Takaful Fund.
Guidance
If the AFSA approves an application under TRR 7.1.5(1), it will give a written notice to the Branch stating the manner in which the arrangement will be deemed to constitute a Family Takaful Fund.
7.2. Attribution of contracts to a Family Takaful Fund
7.2.1. Business to be attributed to Family Takaful Funds
A Takaful Operator must attribute all Family Takaful Business that it conducts to a Family Takaful Fund.
7.2.2. Attribution of General Takaful Contracts
(1) Except as allowed for in (2), a Takaful Operator may not attribute General Takaful Contracts to a Family Takaful Fund.
(2) A Takaful Operator may attribute Takaful Contracts in General Insurance Category 1 (Accident) and General Insurance Category 2 (Sickness) to a Family Takaful Fund.
7.3. Segregation of assets and liabilities
7.3.1. Separate identification of assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses
A Takaful Operator that is required under TRR 7.1.1 (Family Takaful Funds to be established) to establish and maintain one or more Family Takaful Funds, or has attributed Takaful Contracts in General Insurance Category 1 (Accident) or General Insurance Category 2 (Sickness) to a Family Takaful Fund under TRR 7.2.2(2) (Attribution of General Insurance Contracts), must:
(a) identify separately in its books and records the assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses attributable to that business; and
(b) ensure those assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses are recorded separately and accounted for as Family Takaful Fund.
7.3.2. Recording of assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses
A Takaful Operator must record all assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses in respect of a Family Takaful Contract that is attributed to a Family Takaful Fund as assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses of that Family Takaful Fund.
7.3.3. Attribution of assets not already attributed
A Takaful Operator may at any time attribute any of its assets to a Family Takaful Fund that were not previously attributed to such a Family Takaful Fund.
7.3.4. Recording of revenues and expenses
All revenues and expenses arising by way of earnings, revaluation or other change to the assets and liabilities of a Family Takaful Fund must be recorded as revenues and expenses, or movements in capital, of that Family Takaful Fund.
7.4. Recordkeeping
7.4.1. Accounting and other records to be maintained
A Takaful Operator must maintain adequate accounting and other records to identify
(1) the Takaful Contracts attributed to a Family Takaful Fund in accordance with TRR 7.2 (Attribution of contracts to a Family Takaful Fund); and
(2) the assets, liabilities, revenues and expenses attributed to a Family Takaful Fund in accordance with TRR 7.3 (Segregation of assets and liabilities).
7.5. Limitation on use of assets in Family Takaful Fund
7.5.1. Application of assets
A Takaful Operator must ensure that, except as provided in TRR 7.5.2 to 7.5.6, assets that are attributable to a Family Takaful Fund are applied only for the purposes of the business attributed to the Family Takaful Fund.
7.5.2. Transfers of assets out of Family Takaful Funds
A Takaful Operator must ensure that assets attributable to a Family Takaful Fund are not transferred so as to be available for other purposes of the Takaful Operator except:
- (a) where the transfer constitutes appropriation of a surplus determined in accordance with TRR 9.1.3(4)(g) (Requirements for Financial Condition Report) and the transfer is performed within four months of the reference date of the Financial Condition Report that this determination forms part of;
- (b) where the transfer constitutes a payment of dividend or return of capital, in accordance with TRR 7.5.4 (Payment of dividends by Takaful Operator constituting a single Family Takaful Fund);
- (c) where the transfer is made in exchange for other assets at fair value;
- (d) where the transfer constitutes reimbursement of expenditure borne on behalf of the Family Takaful Fund and in respect of expenses attributable to the Family Takaful Fund; or
- (e) where the transfer constitutes reattribution of assets attributed to the Family Takaful Fund in error.
7.5.3. Assets of Family Takaful Funds not to be distributed
A Takaful Operator must not make any distribution by way of dividend, or return of capital assets attributable to a Family Takaful Fund, if by doing so that would result in a breach of its obligations under TRR 5 (Capital adequacy requirements).
7.5.4. Payment of dividends by Takaful Operator constituting a single Family Takaful Fund
A Takaful Operator that is deemed to constitute a single Family Takaful Fund may only make a dividend or return of capital where:
(a) the dividend or return of capital constitutes appropriation of a surplus determined in accordance with TRR 9.1.3(4)(g) (Requirements for Financial Condition Report), and either
(b) the payment is made within four months of the reference date of the Financial Condition Report determining that surplus and does not cause the total aggregate amount of the dividends or returns of capital made by the Takaful Operator since that reference date to exceed the amount of that surplus; or
(c) the payment is made more than four months after the reference date of Financial Condition Report determining that surplus and does not cause the total aggregate amount of the dividends or returns of capital made by the Takaful Operator since that reference date to exceed 50% of the amount of that surplus.
7.5.5. Assets not to be lent
A Takaful Operator must not lend or otherwise make available for use for any other purposes of the Takaful Operator, or any purposes of any party related to the Takaful Operator, assets attributable to a Family Takaful Fund.
7.5.6. Certain reinsurance-like arrangements prohibited
A Takaful Operator may not enter into any arrangement, whether or not described as a Retakaful Contract or a Contract of Reinsurance, whereby a Family Takaful Fund of the Takaful Operator stands in the same relation to the Takaful Operator as though the Takaful Operator were the Retakaful Operator in a Retakaful Contract or Contract of Reinsurance in which the Family Takaful Fund is the cedant.
7.6. Distribution of a surplus or funding a deficit in a Takaful Fund
7.6.1. Policies about surpluses and deficits
(1) A Takaful Operator must have a written policy, or subject to rule 7.6.2, policies, for determining the surplus or deficit arising from its Takaful Business, the basis of distributing that surplus or deficit between the participants and the shareholders, and the method of transferring any surplus or deficit to the participants.
(2) The policy or policies must comply with all relevant AAOIFI standards including but not limited to, Financial Accounting Standard No. 13 ‘Disclosure of Bases for Determining and Allocating Surplus or Deficit in Islamic Insurance Companies’.
(3) Each policy must be approved by the Takaful Operator’s Shari’ah Supervisory Board, as defined in Islamic Finance Rules IFR rule 5.1.
7.6.2. When 2 or more policies permitted
A Takaful Operator may develop and/or offer more than one policy at any point in time, where the Takaful Operator conducts different categories of Takaful Business.
7.6.3. Copies of policies to be given to the AFSA
(1) A Takaful Operator must provide a copy of the policy referred to in rule 7.6.1 above to the AFSA immediately following its approval by its Shari’ah Supervisory Board, but within one business day following the day such approval was given.
(2) Any amendments to the policy referred in rule 7.6.1 subsequent to its submission to the AFSA, must be approved by the Shari’ah Supervisory Board of the Takaful Operator. The amended version of the policy must be submitted to the AFSA immediately following that approval.
(3) A Takaful Operator must ensure that a copy of the policy approved under rule 7.6.1 or rule 7.6.3 (2), forms part of every Takaful policy sold it.
Guidance
As part of its process to approve any amendments to a policy under rule 7.6.3(2), the AFSA will consider the impact of the proposed amendments on the rights and obligations of existing policyholders of the Takaful Operator who are affected by those proposed amendments.
7.6.4. Surplus or deficit to be determined annually
(1) On an annual basis, every Takaful Operator must determine any surplus or deficit arising on each Takaful Fund it operates, in a distinct manner.
(2) A Takaful Operator must not distribute a surplus or deficit from any one of the Takaful Funds it operates for Family Takaful Business until the value of the surplus or deficit involved, has been determined by an Approved Actuary in accordance with rule 9.1.3(4)(g).
(3) Any distribution must be performed within 4 months of the reference date of the actuarial investigation referred to in (2).
7.6.5. Reports of distributions of surplus or deficit to the AFSA
A Takaful Operator must report to the AFSA all distributions of profit or surplus (however called or described) to policyholders within 15 business days of the date of declaration of the distribution.
7.6.6. Prohibitions on distributions
A Takaful Operator must not make any distributions to participants, regardless of the Rules governing the Takaful Operator, if it fails to, or because of the payment of the distribution would fail to, meet its Minimum Capital Requirement.
8. Valuation
8.1. Matching assets and liabilities
8.1.1. Value of Takaful Operator’s assets to match its Takaful Liabilities
(1) A Takaful Operator must hold supporting assets of a value at least equal to the amount of its Takaful liabilities.
(2) Such asset must be of a sufficient amount, and of an appropriate currency and term, to ensure that the cash inflows from the assets meet the expected cash outflows from the Takaful Operator’s Takaful liabilities as they fall due.
8.1.2. Projecting cash flows - treatment of options
In determining the expected cash outflows from its Takaful liabilities for the purposes of TRR 8.1.1, a Takaful Operator must take into account any options that exist in the Takaful Operator’s Takaful Contracts including:
- (a) any unilateral option available to the policyholder to extend a Takaful Contract; and
- (b) any unilateral right available to the Takaful Operator to either cancel or renew a Takaful Contract.
8.1.3 Projecting cash flows - Family Takaful Business
In projecting cash flows in relation to Family Takaful Business for the purposes of TRR 8.1.1, a Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business must take into account the nature of the projections and the factors relevant to its Family Takaful Business, including:
- (a) expected investment earnings;
- (b) expected reinsurance recoveries;
- (c) mortality and morbidity;
- (d) expenses;
- (e) options and guarantees; and
- (f) persistency.
8.2. Recognition and measurement of assets and liabilities
8.2.1. General provisions
(1) A Takaful Operator may:
(a) measure the value of an asset at less than the value determined in accordance with this Chapter; and
(b) measure the value of a liability at more than the value determined in accordance with this Chapter.
(2) However, if the AFSA directs a Takaful Operator to measure an asset or a liability in accordance with principles that differ from those specified in this Chapter, the Takaful Operator must measure such assets or liability in accordance with those principles as directed.
8.2.2. Basis of accounting
Save where directed otherwise by the AFSA or where inconsistent with the Rules in this Chapter, a Takaful Operator must recognise its assets and liabilities and measure their value in accordance with the IFRS basis of accounting.
8.2.3. Methods and assumptions that may be used
In measuring assets and liabilities, a Takaful Operator must use methods and prudent assumptions that:
(a) are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the Takaful Operator’s business;
(b) are made using professional judgement, training and experience;
(c) are made having regard to reasonably available statistics and other information;
(d) are consistent from year to year and without arbitrary changes;
(e) include appropriate margins for adverse deviation of relevant factors;
(f) recognise the distribution of profits or emerging surplus in an appropriate way over the duration of each Takaful Contract;
(g) are in accordance with generally accepted actuarial practice; and
(h) do not reflect the Takaful Operator’s own credit rating.
8.2.4. Changes in methods and assumptions on which valuations depend
(1) Where the valuation of an asset or liability is dependent upon the adoption of assumptions or the adoption of a calculation method, a Takaful Operator must ensure that any change in the assumptions or methods adopted is reflected immediately in the value attributed to the asset or liability concerned.
(2) The recognition of the effects of changes in assumptions or methods may not be deferred to future reporting periods.
8.2.5. Actuarial principles
The AFSA may specify actuarial principles to be used by a Takaful Operator in measuring assets and liabilities.
8.2.6. Derecognising liabilities
(1) A Takaful Operator must not derecognise a Takaful Liability (or a part of a Takaful Liability) until the obligation giving rise to the liability expires or is discharged or cancelled.
(2) To avoid doubt, if Retakaful / reinsurance covering the liability (or part of the liability) is purchased, the liability must not be derecognised unless the purchase results in the discharge or cancellation of the obligation giving rise to the liability.
8.2.7. Discount rate
In calculating the present value of a Takaful liability, the discount rate must be a prudent estimate of the yield expected to be earned by assets of the Takaful Operator that are sufficient in value and appropriate in nature to cover the provisions for the liability being discounted.
8.2.8. Valuation of expected future payments
Where this Chapter requires a Takaful Operator to recognise as a liability the value of expected future payments, that liability must be measured as the net present value of those expected future payments.
8.2.9. Valuation of expected future receipts
Where this Chapter requires a Takaful Operator carrying on General Takaful Business to recognise as an asset the value of expected future receipts, that asset must be measured as the net present value of those expected future receipts.
8.3. Treatment of particular assets and liabilities - General Takaful Business
8.3.1. Treatment of premium liability
A Takaful Operator carrying on General Takaful Business must recognise as a liability for the relevant Takaful Fund, the value of future claims payments and associated direct and indirect settlement costs, arising from future events insured under policies that are in force as at the Solvency Reference Date (premium liability).
8.3.2. Treatment of value of future claims payments
A Takaful Operator carrying on General Takaful Business must recognise as a liability for the relevant Takaful Fund, the value of future claims payments and associated direct and indirect settlement costs, arising from insured events that have occurred as at the Solvency Reference Date.
8.3.3. Treatment of expected recoveries
A Takaful Operator carrying on General Takaful Business must recognise as an asset for the relevant Takaful Fund, the value of Retakaful / reinsurance and other recoveries expected to be received in respect of claims referred to in TRR 8.3.1 (Treatment of premium liability) and TRR 8.3.2 (Treatment of value of future claims payments).
8.4. Treatment of particular assets and liabilities - Family Takaful
8.4.1. Treatment of policy benefits due before Solvency Reference Date
A Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business must recognise as a liability the amount of policy benefits that are due for payment on or before the Solvency Reference Date.
8.4.2. Treatment of net value of future policy benefits
A Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business must recognise as a liability the net value of future policy benefits under policies that are in force as at the Solvency Reference Date, taking into account all prospective liabilities as determined by the policy conditions for each existing contract, and taking credit for premiums payable after the Solvency Reference Date.
8.4.3. Measuring net value of policy benefits as liability
In measuring the liability associated with future policy benefits, a Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business must:
(a) use actuarial principles;
(b) provide for all liabilities based on assumptions that meet the general requirements for prudent assumptions in TRR 8.2.3 (Methods and assumptions that may be used) including appropriate margins for adverse deviation of relevant factors that are sufficient to ensure that there is no significant foreseeable risk that liabilities to policyholders for Family Takaful contracts will not be met as they fall due; and
(c) take into account:
- (i) all guaranteed policy benefits, including guaranteed surrender values;
- (ii) vested, declared or allotted bonuses to which policyholders are already either collectively or individually contractually entitled;
- (iii) all options available to the policyholder under the terms of the contract;
- (iv) discretionary charges and deductions from policy benefits, in so far as they do not exceed the reasonable expectations of policyholders;
- (v) expenses, including commissions; and
- (vi) any rights under contracts of Retakaful / reinsurance in respect of Family Takaful Business.
8.4.4. Negative values for reserves—Family Takaful
A Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business must not value its mathematical reserves for a for a Family Takaful Contract at less than zero unless:
- (a) the calculation is based on assumptions that meet the general requirements for prudent assumptions in TRR 8.2.3 (Methods and assumptions that may be used);
- (b) the contract does not have a guaranteed surrender value at the actuarial valuation date; and
- (c) the total mathematical reserves established by the Takaful Operator have a value of at least:
- (i) if the Takaful Operator’s Family Takaful Contracts include linked Family Takaful contracts—the sum of the surrender values of all its linked Family Takaful contracts at the actuarial valuation date; and
- (ii) in any other case—zero.
9. Actuarial reporting
9.1. Takaful Operators that are required to have Approved Actuaries
9.1.1 Application
TRR 9.1.2 to 9.1.5 apply to a Takaful Operator that is required to have an Approved Actuary. Note: For the Takaful Operators that are required to have an Approved Actuary, see TRR 2.2.2 (Obligation to appoint Approved Individuals to certain roles).
9.1.2. Financial Condition Reports
(1) The Approved Actuary for the Takaful Operator must annually carry out an actuarial investigation to enable him or her to prepare a report about the Takaful Operator’s financial condition (a Financial Condition Report).
(2) The Takaful Operator must ensure that the Approved Actuary is given appropriate access (that is, such access as the actuary reasonably believes to be necessary to prepare the report) to:
- (a) all relevant data, information, reports and staff of the Takaful Operator; and
- (b) so far as possible, any contractor of the Takaful Operator.
(3) The Approved Actuary must prepare, sign and date the report.
(4) The Approved Actuary must give the report to the Takaful Operator sufficiently in advance of the Takaful Operator’s next annual return date to allow the Takaful Operator’s Governing Body a reasonable opportunity to consider and use it in preparing the Takaful Operator’s next annual prudential return.
(5) The Takaful Operator’s Governing Body must give a copy of the report to the AFSA on or before the Takaful Operator’s next annual return date.
(6) In this rule, the next annual return date for a Takaful Operator means the date on which it must give its next annual prudential return to the AFSA under TRR 13.1.1 (Obligation to prepare prudential returns).
9.1.3. Requirements for Financial Condition Report
(1) A Financial Condition Report must set out an objective assessment of the overall financial condition of the Takaful Operator concerned.
(2) For a Takaful Operator conducting Family Takaful Business, such a report must include an objective assessment of the financial condition of each Family Takaful Fund established by the Takaful Operator.
(3) In preparing a Financial Condition Report, an Approved Actuary must act in accordance with the relevant professional actuarial standards, and must use appropriate actuarial valuation principles, techniques and methodologies.
(4) The Approved Actuary must ensure that the report covers at least the following matters (so far as relevant):
(a) an overview of the Takaful Operator’s business;
(b) an assessment of the Takaful Operator’s recent experience and profitability, including the experience during the year ending on the valuation date;
(c) an assessment of the value of the Takaful Operator’s Takaful Liabilities that fall within TRR 8.4.1 (Treatment of policy benefits due before Solvency Reference Date) and TRR 8.4.2 (Treatment of net value of future policy benefits);
(d) for a Takaful Operator to which sub-rule (5) applies, an assessment of the value of the Takaful Operator’s Takaful Liabilities that fall within TRR 8.3.1 (Treatment of premium liability) and TRR 8.3.2 (Treatment of value of future claims payments), using the relevant professional actuarial standards and appropriate actuarial valuation principles, techniques and methodologies;
(e) an assessment of whether the Takaful Operator’s past estimates of the liabilities referred to in paragraphs (c) and (d) were adequate, especially if there has been a change in the assumptions or the valuation method from that adopted at the previous valuation;
(f) an explanation, in relation to the valuation of those liabilities, of:
- (i) the assumptions used in the valuation process;
- (ii) the adequacy and appropriateness of data made available to the Approved Actuary by the Takaful Operator;
- (iii) how the Approved Actuary assessed the reliability of the data;
- (iv) the model or models used by the Approved Actuary;
- (v) the approach taken to estimate the variability of the estimate; and
- (vi)the sensitivity analyses undertaken;
(g) a determination of the value of any surplus or deficit in each Takaful Fund operated by the Takaful Operator for conducting Family Takaful Business;
(h) an assessment of asset and liability management, including the Takaful Operator’s investment strategy;
(i) an assessment of the Takaful Operator’s current and future capital adequacy and a discussion of its approach to capital management;
(j) an assessment of the Takaful Operator’s pricing, including the adequacy of its premiums;
(k) an assessment of the suitability and adequacy of the Takaful Operator’s Retakaful / reinsurance arrangements, including the documentation of those arrangements and the existence and impact of any limited risk transfer arrangements;
(l) an assessment of the suitability and adequacy of the Takaful Operator’s Risk Management Policy.
(5) This sub-rule applies to a Takaful Operator if it engages in General Takaful Business and:
(a) more than 15% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Takaful Contracts for General Takaful Business in General Takaful Categories 1 (Accident) or 2 (Sickness); or
(b) more than 20% of its gross outstanding liabilities are attributable to Takaful Contracts for General Takaful Business in General Takaful Categories 10 (Motor vehicle liability), 11 (Aircraft liability), 12 (Liability of ships), 13 (General liability), 14 (Credit)
or 15 (Suretyship).
(6) The Approved Actuary:
(a) must consider the implications and outlook for the Takaful Operator of each matter mentioned in sub-rule (4); and
(b) if the implications for the Takaful Operator are adverse, must make recommendationsto address the problem.
(7) A Financial Condition Report for a Branch must be prepared in relation to the Takaful Operator’s AIFC operations but must take into account the financial position of the head office.
9.1.4. AFSA may direct more frequent Financial Condition Reports
(1) The AFSA may direct a Takaful Operator to ask require its Approved Actuary to prepare a Financial Condition Report at a higher frequency than that specified in TRR 9.1.2 (Financial Condition Reports), if the AFSA considers it necessary or desirable for the prudential supervision of the Takaful Operator.
(2) A Takaful Operator must comply with a direction under subrule (1).
9.1.5. AFSA may direct special review
(1) The AFSA may direct a Takaful Operator that the Takaful Operator’s Approved Actuary:
(a) is to carry out a review of matters specified by the AFSA relating to the Takaful Operator’s operations, risk management or financial affairs; and
(b) is to prepare a report on the basis of that review.
(2) The Takaful Operator must bear the cost of the review.
(3) A Takaful Operator must comply with a direction under sub-rule (1).
(4) The Takaful Operator’s Approved Actuary must give the report simultaneously to the AFSA and the Takaful Operator within 3 months of the date of the direction, unless the AFSA grants an extension of time in writing.
9.2. Takaful Operators that are not required to have an Approved Actuary
9.2.1. Application
TRR 9.2.2 to 9.2.5 apply to a Takaful Operator that is not required to have an Approved Actuary. Note: For the Takaful Operators that are required to have an Approved Actuary, see TRR 2.4.2 (Mandatory appointments).
9.2.2. Actuarial reporting requirements for general Takaful business
The Governing Body of a Takaful Operator to which this Rule applies:
(a) must consider annually whether to commission an independent actuary to report on its business; but
(b) must commission such a report at least once every 3 years.
9.2.3. Qualifications of independent actuary
(1) If a Takaful Operator decides to commission an actuarial report, it must appoint, to prepare the report, an individual who:
(a) has the qualifications set out in sub-rule (2); and
(b) satisfies the criteria set out in sub-rule (3).
(2) The qualifications are:
(a) that he or she has appropriate formal qualifications and is a member of a recognised professional body;
(b) that he or she has at least 5 years’ relevant experience in providing actuarial services to Takaful Operators, either in the AIFC or in other jurisdictions; and
(c) that the experience is sufficiently recent to ensure that he or she is familiar with current issues in the provision of such services to Takaful Operators.
(3) The criteria are the following:
(a) that he or she does not exercise any Controlled Function or Designated Function for the Takaful Operator or a related body corporate (except a related body corporate that is a subsidiary of the Takaful Operator);
(b) that he or she is not:
- (i) an auditor (under section 136(1) of the Companies Regulations for the Takaful Operator;
- (ii) an Employee or Director of an entity of which that auditor is an Employee or Director; nor
- (iii) a partner of that auditor.
9.2.4. Actuarial reports
(1) The actuary who prepares an actuarial report for the purposes of TRR 9.2.2 must sign it.
(2) The Takaful Operator concerned must ensure that the actuary is given appropriate access (that is, such access as the actuary reasonably believes to be necessary to prepare the report) to:
(a) all relevant data, information, reports and staff of the Takaful Operator; and
(b) so far as possible, any contractor of the Takaful Operator.
(3) The report must give details, for each category of General Takaful Business that the Takaful Operator conducts, of the following matters:
(a) recent trends in the business;
(b) the actuary’s estimate of the value of the Takaful Liabilities and assets arising in respect of those liabilities, determined in accordance with TRR 8 (Valuation);
(c) if the assumptions or the valuation method used for that estimate differ from those adopted for the previous valuation of those assets and liabilities, the effect, as at the date on which the actuary signs the report, of those changes on the value of those liabilities and assets;
(d) the adequacy and appropriateness of the data that the Takaful Operator made available to the actuary;
(e) the procedures that the actuary used to assess the reliability of that data;
(f) the model or models that the actuary used;
(g) the assumptions that the actuary used in the valuation process (including, without limitation, assumptions made as to inflation and discount rates, future expense rates and, if relevant, future investment income);
(h) how the actuary estimated the variability of the estimate;
(i) the nature and findings of sensitivity analyses that the actuary undertook.
(4) The Takaful Operator’s Governing Body must give a copy of the signed report to the AFSA on or before the date on which the Takaful Operator must give its next annual prudential return to the AFSA under TRR 13.1.1 (Obligation to prepare prudential returns).
9.2.5. Additional powers of the AFSA
(1) If at any time the AFSA believes it is necessary that a Takaful Operator to which this Rule applies should obtain an actuarial report relating to the Takaful Operator’s operations, risk management or financial affairs, it may direct the Takaful Operator to do so at the Takaful Operator’s expense.
(2) The Takaful Operator:
(a) must appoint an actuary who satisfies the criteria in TRR 9.2.3 (Qualifications of independent actuary) to prepare the report; and
(b) must notify the AFSA of the name and credentials of the actuary appointed.
(3) If the AFSA is of the opinion that the actuary appointed by the Takaful Operator fails to satisfy the relevant criteria, the AFSA may direct the Takaful Operator to appoint an actuary chosen by the AFSA to prepare the report.
(4) The Takaful Operator must submit the report to the AFSA within 3 months of the direction, unless the AFSA allows an extension of time in writing.
10. Takaful Operators that are members of Groups
10.1. Introduction
10.1.1. Application
TRR 10 applies to every Takaful Operator that is a member of a Group.
Guidance
Group is defined in the Glossary as a group of entities which includes an entity (the ‘first entity’) and:
- (a) any parent of the first entity; and (b) any subsidiaries (direct or indirect) of the parent or parents in (a) or the first entity.
10.1.2. Purpose
TRR 10 imposes additional requirements on a Takaful Operator that is a member of a Group to ensure that:
- (a) the Takaful Operator is capitalised adequately to protect itself against the risks arising from its membership of the Group, and is otherwise protected against those risks;
- (b) it can be properly supervised by the AFSA;
- (c) it provides the AFSA with information about the structure and financial position of the Group; and
- (d) it assesses the effect of, and notifies the AFSA of, certain transactions within the Group.
10.1.3 Group structure
(1) The structure of the Takaful Operator’s Group must be transparent and must not hinder the effective supervision of the Takaful Operator.
(2) The structure and risk profile of the Group must not hinder the Takaful Operator’s stability and solvency.
(3) The overall governance, high-level controls and reporting lines within the Group must be clear so far as they affect the Takaful Operator.
(4) A Takaful Operator must not be subject to material control or influence from another Group member that is exercised through informal or undocumented channels.
(5) There must be clear and certain protocols for the performance of functions for the Takaful Operator at the Group level.
10.1.4. Direction regarding Eligible Capital
(1) A Takaful Operator must hold such additional Eligible Capital as the AFSA may direct (above the capital requirement for the Takaful Operator, as specified by these Rules) to cover risks arising because of its Group membership.
(2) If the AFSA directs a Takaful Operator to hold additional Eligible Capital, the Takaful Operator must increase its Eligible Capital by the amount directed by the AFSA within such period as the AFSA may specify.
(3) A direction under sub-rule (1) may specify that the additional Eligible Capital is to take a particular form.
10.1.5. Intra-group transactions
(1) A Takaful Operator must ensure that any material transaction with another member of its Group:
- (a) is entered into on an ‘arm’s-length’ basis; and
- (b) is on fair and reasonable terms.
(2) The Takaful Operator must ensure that its books, accounts and records clearly and accurately disclose the nature and details of the transaction, including any accounting information necessary to demonstrate that the terms were fair and reasonable.
10.1.6. Certain transactions to be inquired into by Takaful Operator’s Governing Body
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must not enter into a transaction of a kind described in sub-rule (2) unless its Governing Body is satisfied, after reasonable inquiry, that the transaction does not adversely affect the interests of policyholders.
(2) The kinds of transaction are the following:
(a) an intra-group transaction (including a sale, purchase, exchange, loan, guarantee or investment) the amount of which is 3% (or more) of the Takaful Operator’s Eligible Capital;
(b) a loan to a person not related to the Takaful Operator, if there is an agreement or understanding that the proceeds of the loan, or a substantial part of those proceeds, will be used to make loans to purchase assets of, or make investments in, another Group member, and the amount of the loan is 3% (or more) of the Takaful Operator’s Eligible Capital;
(c) an intra-group reinsurance agreement, or a modification to such an agreement, if the reinsurance premium or change in the Takaful Operator’s liabilities is 5% (or more) of the Takaful Operator’s Eligible Capital;
(d) a reinsurance agreement, or a modification to such an agreement, involving the transfer of assets from the Takaful Operator to a person not related to it, if:
- (i) there is an agreement or understanding between the Takaful Operator and that person that any part of the assets will be transferred to one or more other persons related to the Takaful Operator; and
- (ii) the reinsurance premium or change in the Takaful Operator’s liabilities is 5% (or more) of the Takaful Operator’s Eligible Capital;
(e) an intra-group management agreement, service contract or cost-sharing arrangement.
(3) A reference in sub-rule (2) to a Takaful Operator’s Eligible Capital is a reference to that capital as at the end of the last standard quarter before the relevant transaction.
(4) A Takaful Operator’s Governing Body may delegate its responsibility under sub-rule (1) to the Takaful Operator’s senior management if the Takaful Operator’s Risk Management Strategy and internal control framework permit the Governing Body to do so.
(5) In this rule:
(a) loan includes the extension of credit.
(b) standard quarter means each 3-month period ending on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December.
10.1.7. Specific obligations of Group members
(1) If a Takaful Operator is a member of a Group, the Takaful Operator’s senior management should monitor any functions of the Takaful Operator, performed by any member of its Group.
(2) The Takaful Operator’s senior management should establish and maintain procedures and controls to identify and monitor the effect on the Takaful Operator of its relationship with the other members of the Group and the activities of those other members.
(3) The procedures and controls should include procedures to monitor:
- (a) changes in relationships between Group members;
- (b) changes in the activities of Group members;
- (c) conflicts of interest arising within the Group;
- (d) events in the Group, particularly those that might affect the Takaful Operator’s own regulatory compliance (for example, any failure of control or compliance in another Group member);
- (e) the effect on it of:
- (i) its relationship with the other members of the Group;
- (ii) its membership in the Group; and
- (iii) the activities of the other members of the Group; and
- (f) the Group’s compliance with:
- (i) the supervision requirements applicable to it, including systems for the production of relevant data; and
- (ii) Group reporting requirements.
(4) The Takaful Operator should have procedures to insulate it, so far as practicable, from the adverse effects of other Group activities (for example, transfer pricing or fronting) or Group events that might expose the Takaful Operator to risk.
(5) The Takaful Operator’s senior management should take reasonable steps to ensure that:
- (a) other Group members are aware of the Takaful Operator’s management and reporting obligations in relation to Group risk;
- (b) Group capital and Group risk reporting requirements are complied with; and
- (c) information about the Group provided to the AFSA is accurate and is provided in a timely manner.
11. Transfer of Takaful business
11.1. Introduction
11.1.1. Application
TRR 11 applies to every AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator.
11.1.2. AIFC Takaful Business Transfer Scheme - definition
An AIFC Takaful Business Transfer Scheme is a scheme for transfer of the whole or part of the Takaful Business undertaken by an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator.
11.2. Sanction Order
11.2.1. Requirement for order of the AIFC Court
No AIFC Takaful Business Transfer Scheme is to have effect unless an order sanctioning the scheme (a Sanction Order) has been made by the AIFC Court under section 112 of the FSFR.
11.2.2. Application for a Sanction Order
An application for a Sanction Order must be made by:
(1) whichever of the transferor or transferee concerned is an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator; or
(2) by both transferor and transferee, if both are AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operators.
11.2.3. Requirements on the applicant
Subject to such directions as the AFSA may give pursuant to section 112(2) of the FSFR, the applicant for a Sanction Order must ensure that:
(a) the application for a Sanction Order is accompanied by
- (i) a written report on the terms of the scheme (the Scheme Report) that complies with rule 11.3.2; and
- (ii) a written summary of the scheme (the Scheme Summary) that complies with rule 11.3.3;
(b) notice of the application for the Sanction Order is given to every policyholder resident in Kazakhstan who is affected by the scheme, in accordance with rule 11.4.1; and
(c) notice of the application for the Sanction Order is published in accordance with rule 11.4.2.
11.3. The Scheme Report
11.3.1. The Skilled Person
A Scheme Report may only be made by a person (the Skilled Person):
(a) appearing to the AFSA to have the skills necessary to enable him to make a proper report;
and
(b) nominated or approved for the purpose, in writing, by the AFSA.
11.3.2. The Scheme Report
A Scheme Report must
- (a) be in a form approved by the AFSA;
- (b) include a reasoned opinion as to whether or not the scheme (if it is sanctioned by the Court) is expected to have any material adverse impact on any of the policyholders of the transferor or the transferee; and
- (c) include a reasoned conclusion as to whether (if the scheme is sanctioned by the Court) each AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator concerned with the scheme (whether as transferee or as transferor) will, taking the scheme into account, comply with the requirements of TRR.
11.3.3. The Scheme Summary
The Scheme Summary must
(a) contain sufficient information, in language that is clear, fair and not misleading, to enable policyholders to understand how they may be affected if the scheme is sanctioned by the Court;
(b) be prepared or approved by the Skilled Person; and
(c) be approved by the AFSA.
11.4. Notice requirements
11.4.1. Notice given to policyholders
(1) The notice given to policyholders must include:
- (a) Details of the place or places and times at which and the period during which an affected policyholder may obtain a copy of the scheme and any associated documentation; and
- (b) the Scheme Summary referred to in rule 11.8.
(2) The period in (1) must be not less than 30 days, or such other period as the AFSA may direct in writing.
11.4.2. Publication of notice
(1) The applicant must publish notice of the application for the Sanction Order.
(2) The notice in (1) must
- (a) be approved by the AFSA before publication;
- (b) be published not less than three months (or such other period as the AFSA may direct in writing) before the hearing at which the Court will be asked to sanction the scheme; and
- (c) be published in two national papers in Kazakhstan, or in such other publications as the AFSA may direct in writing.
12. Takaful Operators in run-off
12.1. Application and purpose
12.1.1. Application
TRR 12 applies to:
- (a) every AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator; and
- (b) every Branch in respect of its AIFC Takaful Business operations.
12.1.2 Meanings of terms relating to run-off
In this Chapter:
- (a) a Takaful Operator in Run-off means a Takaful Operator that has ceased to effect Takaful Contracts in respect of the whole or a category of its Takaful Business (or, in the case of a Branch, the whole or a category of its AIFC Takaful Business), and a Family Takaful Fund in run-off is construed accordingly; and
- (b) going into run-off or placing Takaful Business into run-off means ceasing to effect Takaful Contracts, and placing a Family Takaful Fund into run-off is construed accordingly.
12.1.3. Compliance with TRR 12 by Takaful Operator directed to go into run-off
A Takaful Operator in Run-off by virtue of a decision or notice of the AFSA to the effect that the Takaful Operator is to cease to effect Takaful Contracts shall comply with TRR 12 except to the extent the AFSA acting under its powers in the FSFR directs otherwise.
12.1.4. Certain contracts to be disregarded
For the purposes of this Chapter, in determining whether a Takaful Operator is effecting Takaful Contracts or has ceased to effect Takaful Contracts, including Takaful Contracts effected through a Family Takaful Fund, Takaful Contracts effected under a term of an existing Takaful Contract will be ignored unless the AFSA decides otherwise in respect of any particular contract.
12.2. Takaful Operators ceasing to effect Takaful Contracts in a category
12.2.1. Application
TRR 12.2.2 (Takaful Operators to give notice of decision to cease business) and TRR 12.2.3 (Takaful Operators in run-off not to effect certain contracts) apply to a Takaful Operator that ceases or decides to cease to effect new Takaful Contracts or to renew Takaful Contracts:
(a) in a category in which the Takaful Operator has previously effected Takaful Business; or
(b) in respect of a Family Takaful Fund, in a category in which the Takaful Operator has previously effected Takaful Business through that Family Takaful Fund.
12.2.2 Takaful Operators to give notice of decision to cease business
A Takaful Operator to which this Rule applies must, within 28 days of a decision to cease to effect new Takaful Contracts in a category, notify the AFSA of its decision, in a notice specifying the following details:
- (a) the effective date of the decision to cease effecting Takaful Contracts;
- (b) the category to which the decision relates; and
- (c) where relevant, the Family Takaful Fund to which the decision relates.
12.2.3. Takaful Operators in run-off not to effect certain contracts
(1) A Takaful Operator who has provided a notice to the AFSA in accordance with TRR 12.2.2 must not effect any Takaful Contracts in that category without the written permission of the AFSA.
(2) Where the notice referred to in TRR 12.2.2 relates to a Family Takaful Fund of the Takaful Operator, the restriction set out in this rule applies only to that Family Takaful Fund.
12.3. Run-off plans
12.3.1 Application
TRR 12.3.2 to 12.3.7 apply to:
- (a) Takaful Operators that go into, or are in, run-off, or that maintain Family Takaful Funds that are in run-off;
- (b) Takaful Operators that make a decision to go into run-off or to place a Family Takaful Fund into run-off; and
- (c) Takaful Operators whose Licence to effect Takaful Contracts in respect of their entire Takaful Business or in respect of the entire business of a Family Takaful Fund is withdrawn by the AFSA.
12.3.2. Takaful Operator voluntarily in run-off to provide run-off plan
If a Takaful Operator decides to go into run-off or to place a Family Takaful Fund into run-off, the Takaful Operator must, at the same time as the notice referred to in TRR 12.2.2, provide the AFSA with a written run-off plan in respect of the Takaful Business being placed into run-off.
12.3.3. Takaful Operator directed to go into run-off to provide run-off plan
If the AFSA withdraws a Takaful Operator’s Licence to effect Takaful Contracts in respect of the Takaful Operator’s whole, or a category of, Takaful Business or the whole, or a category of, Takaful Business of a Family Takaful Fund, the Takaful Operator must, within 28 days after the day the Takaful Operator is given the written notice of withdrawal of its Licence (or, if later, the period specified in that notice), provide the AFSA with a written run-off plan in respect of that Takaful Business.
12.3.4. What run-off plans must cover
A Takaful Operator must ensure a run-off plan provided to the AFSA in accordance with this Part covers the period until all liabilities to policyholders relating to the Takaful Business in run-off are met and includes:
(a) an explanation of how, or the extent to which, all liabilities to policyholders will be met in full as they fall due;
(b) an explanation of how, or the extent to which, the Takaful Operator will maintain its compliance with the requirements of these Rules until such time as all liabilities to policyholders are met;
(c) a description, appropriate to the scale and complexity of the Takaful Operator’s business, of the Takaful Operator’s business strategy;
(d) financial projections showing, in a form appropriate to the scale and complexity of the Takaful Operator’s operations, the forecast financial position of the Takaful Operator as at the end of each reporting period during the period to which the run-off plan relates;
(e) an assessment of the sensitivity of the financial position of the Takaful Operator to stress arising from realistic scenarios relevant to the circumstances of the Takaful Operator;
(f) details of the planned run-off reinsurance protections and the extent to which the planned reinsurance protections match the run-off realistic scenarios;
(g) details of the claims handling and reserving strategy; and
(h) details of the cost of the management of the run-off.
12.3.5. Application of run-off plan to fund
Where a Takaful Operator’s Takaful Business in run-off relates to a Family Takaful Fund of that Takaful Operator, the run-off plan must deal with the matters set out in TRR 12.3.4 so far as they relate to that Family Takaful Fund.
12.3.6. Takaful Operator to monitor run-off plan etc
(1) This rule applies to a Takaful Operator that has given a run-off plan to the AFSA.
(2) The Takaful Operator must monitor the matters provided in the run-off plan.
(3) If there is a significant departure from the run-off plan, the Takaful Operator must tell the AFSA immediately, but by no later than the second business day after the day the departure happens or starts.
12.3.7. AFSA may direct Takaful Operator to amend run-off plan
(1) Where a Takaful Operator has notified a matter to the AFSA in accordance with TRR 12.3.6, the AFSA may by notice in writing require the Takaful Operator to provide an amended runoff plan.
(2) The Takaful Operator must provide an amended run-off plan within 28 days of receipt of the notice, unless the notice specifies a longer period.
12.4. Provisions in respect of contracts relating to Takaful Business in run-off
12.4.1 Application
TRR 12.4.2 (Takaful Operator with business in run-off to notify AFSA of certain contracts) applies only to a Takaful Operator that:
- (a) is in run-off as regards its entire Takaful Business or the entire Takaful Business of a Family Takaful Fund;
- (b) has provided a notice to the AFSA in accordance with TRR 12.2.2 (Takaful Operators to give notice of decision to cease business) in respect of its entire Takaful Business or the entire Takaful Business of a Family Takaful Fund; or
- (c) has received a written notice from the AFSA withdrawing the Takaful Operator’s Licence to effect Takaful Contracts in respect of its entire Takaful Business or the entire Takaful Business of a Family Takaful Fund.
12.4.2. Takaful Operator with business in run-off to notify AFSA of certain contracts
(1) A Takaful Operator to which this Rule applies must:
(a) within 10 business days after the day its Takaful Business enters into run-off, tell the AFSA about the existence and principal features of any notifiable contract that existed at the time the business entered into run-off; and
(b) within 10 business days after the day it enters into a notifiable contract in relation to its Takaful Business in runoff, tell the AFSA about the existence and principal features of the contract.
(2) To remove any doubt, subrule (1) (b) applies whether or not the Takaful Business is conducted through a Family Takaful Fund that is in run-off.
(3) In this rule: notifiable contract means:
(a) a contract with a person related to the Takaful Operator, other than a Takaful Contracts effected by the Takaful Operator before going into run-off;
(b) a contract with any person relating to the management of all or any of the Takaful Business in run-off;
(c) a contract with any person for reinsurance of all or any of the Takaful Business in runoff; or
(d) any other contract with a person mentioned in paragraph (b) or (c) or a person related to such a person.
12.5. Limitations on distributions by AIFC-incorporated Takaful Operators in run-of
12.5.1 Takaful Operator in run-off not to make distributions
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator in run-off must not make any distribution to shareholders or members of the Takaful Operator, whether by way of dividends or otherwise, or any payment of management fees (other than fees payable under a contract notified to the AFSA in accordance with TRR 12.4.2), without the written consent of the AFSA.
(2) Any such distribution or return of capital or payment of management fees must be made within the period, if any, specified in the written notice of consent given by the AFSA.
13. Prudential returns
13.1. Obligation to prepare prudential returns
(1) A Takaful Operator must prepare and submit to the AFSA the annual, biannual and quarterly prudential returns set out in Schedule 6 (Prudential returns by Takaful Operators).
(2) The AFSA may require the Takaful Operator to prepare additional prudential returns, by giving a notice to that effect to the Takaful Operator.
13.2. Deadlines for provision of returns
(1) A Takaful Operator must give an annual prudential return to the AFSA within 4 months after the day the relevant financial year of the Takaful Operator ends.
(2) A Takaful Operator must give a biannual prudential return to the AFSA within 1 month after the day the relevant standard biannual period ends.
(3) A Takaful Operator must give a quarterly prudential return to the AFSA within 1 month after the day the relevant standard quarter ends.
(4) In this rule:
- (a) standard biannual period means the 6-month period ending on 30 June or 31 December; and
- (b) standard quarter means the 3-month period ending on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September or 31 December.
13.3. External audit opinion to accompany
When a Takaful Operator submits its annual prudential returns to the AFSA, it must also provide an external audit opinion to accompany those prudential returns.
14. Captive Takaful Operators
14.1. Introduction
14.1.1. Definition of Captive Takaful Operator
A Captive Takaful Operator is an Authorised Firm with a Licence to carry on Takaful Business only for the business or operations of the Group to which it belongs.
14.1.2. Definition of Captive Takaful Business
(1) Captive Takaful Business is the business of Effecting or Carrying out Takaful Contracts only for the business or operations of the Group to which the Captive Takaful Operator belongs.
(2) General Captive Takaful Business is Captive Takaful Business in relation to General Takaful Contracts.
(3) Family Captive Takaful Business is Captive Takaful Business in relation to Family Takaful Contracts.
14.1.3. Captive Takaful Operator to be incorporated in the AIFC
Only an Authorised Firm which is incorporated under the laws of the AIFC may apply to the AFSA for a Licence to conduct Captive Takaful Business.
14.2. Protected Cell Companies
14.2.1. Captive Takaful Operator may be a Protected Cell Company
(1) An Authorised Firm which is a Protected Cell Company incorporated under the Companies Regulations may apply to the AFSA for a Licence to conduct Captive Takaful Business.
(2) A Protected Cell Company may not otherwise carry on Takaful Business.
14.2.2. Captive Takaful Operators that are PCCs not to create cells without consent
A Captive Takaful Operator that is a Protected Cell Company must not create a Cell without the written consent of the AFSA.
14.2.3 Captive Takaful Operators that are PCCs to conduct Captive Takaful Business only through cells
A Captive Takaful Operator that is a Protected Cell Company must ensure that, when it conducts Captive Takaful Business, each Takaful Contract is attributable to a particular Cell of the Captive Takaful Operator.
14.2.4 Captive Takaful Operators that are PCCs not to conduct Captive General and Family Takaful Business through same Cell
A Captive Takaful Operator that is a Protected Cell Company must not conduct both Captive General Takaful Business and Captive Family Takaful Business through the same Cell.
14.3. Application of TRR to Captive Takaful Operator
14.3.1. Application of TRR 2 (Governance Framework)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with the requirements of TRR 2 (Governance Framework) in full.
14.3.2. Application of TRR 3 (Risk Management Strategy)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 3 (Risk Management Strategy) in full.
14.3.3. Application of TRR 4 (Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA)).
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 3 (Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA)) in full.
14.3.4. Application of TRR 5 (Capital adequacy requirements)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with the requirements of TRR 5 (Capital adequacy requirements) in full, subject to the rules in TRR 14.4 (Capital adequacy requirements for Captive Takaful Operators).
14.3.5 Application of TRR 6 (Investment)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 6 (Investment) in full.
14.3.6 Application of TRR 7 (Segregation of Family Takaful assets and liabilities)
A Captive Takaful Operator carrying on Family Captive Takaful Business must comply with TRR 7 (Segregation of Family Takaful assets and liabilities) in full.
14.3.7 Application of TRR 8 (Valuation)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 8 (Valuation) in full.
14.3.8 Application of TRR 9 (Actuarial Reporting)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 9 (Actuarial reporting) in full.
14.3.9 Application of TRR 10 (Takaful Operators that are members of Groups)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 10 (Takaful Operators that are members of Groups) in full.
14.3.10 Application of TRR 11 (Transfers of Takaful Business)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 11 (Transfer of Takaful business) in full.
14.3.11 Application of TRR 12 (Takaful Operators in run-off)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 12 (Takaful Operators in run-off) in full.
14.3.12. Application of TRR 13 (Prudential Returns)
A Captive Takaful Operator must comply with TRR 13 (Prudential returns) in full.
14.4. Capital adequacy requirements for Captive Takaful Operators
14.4.1. Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR) for a Captive Takaful Operator
For the purposes of Schedule 4 of TRR, the Capital Floor for a Captive Takaful Operator is
- (a) US$150,000 for a Captive Takaful Operator carrying on Captive General Takaful Business;
- (b) US$150,000 for a Captive Takaful Operator carrying on Captive Family Takaful Business; or
- (c) An amount specified in writing by the AFSA.
14.4.2. Minimum Capital Requirement for a Protected Cell Company
(1) Subject to (2), each Cell of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Minimum Capital Requirement in accordance with TRR 5.2.2 (Obligation to calculate MCR) as if it were a stand-alone Takaful Operator.
(2) For a Captive Takaful Operator that is a Protected Cell Company, the Capital Floor only applies to the overall Protected Cell Company and there is no Capital Floor for each Cell or the Core.
14.4.3. Prescribed Capital Requirement for a Protected Cell Company
Each Cell of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Prescribed Capital Requirement in accordance with TRR 5.2.3 (Obligation to calculate PCR) as if it were a stand-alone Takaful Operator.
14.4.4. Eligible Capital of a Protected Cell Company
(1) Each Cell of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Eligible Capital in accordance with TRR 5.2.1 (Obligation to calculate Eligible Capital).
(2) The Core of a Protected Cell Company must calculate its Eligible Capital in accordance with TRR 5.2.1 (Obligation to calculate Eligible Capital).
(3) In calculating its Eligible Capital, a Cell may only rely upon Non-Cellular Assets where it has entered into a recourse agreement with the Core pursuant to which it is entitled to rely upon such Non-Cellular Assets.
(4) The Core of a Protected Cell Company must not enter into a recourse agreement with a Cell where the total capital thereby made available to Cells of the Protected Cell Company would exceed the Eligible Capital of the Core.
Schedule 1 Categories of General Takaful
A Takaful Contract will be a General Takaful Contract if it falls within one or more of the following categories:
General Takaful Category 1: Accident
Takaful Contracts providing fixed pecuniary benefits or benefits in the nature of indemnity (or a combination of both) against risks of the Person insured:
(1) sustaining injury as the result of an accident or of an accident of a specified class;
(2) dying as a result of an accident or of an accident of a specified class; or
(3) becoming incapacitated in consequence of disease or of disease of a specified class, including contracts relating to industrial injury and occupational disease but excluding contracts falling within Family Takaful Category 4 (Permanent Health).
General Takaful Category 2: Sickness
Takaful Contracts providing fixed pecuniary benefits or benefits in the nature of indemnity (or a combination of both) against risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to sickness or infirmity but excluding contracts falling within Family Takaful Category 4 (Permanent Health).
General Takaful Category 3: Land vehicles
Takaful Contracts against loss of or damage to vehicles used on land, including motor vehicles but excluding railway rolling stock.
General Takaful Category 4: Railway rolling stock
Takaful Contracts against loss of or damage to railway rolling stock.
General Takaful Category 5: Aircraft
Takaful Contracts upon aircraft or upon the machinery, tackle, furniture or equipment of aircraft.
General Takaful Category 6: Ships
Takaful Contracts upon vessels used on the sea or on inland water, or upon the machinery, tackle, furniture or equipment of such vessels.
General Takaful Category 7: Goods in transit
Takaful Contracts against loss of or damage to merchandise, baggage and all other goods in transit, irrespective of the form of transport.
General Takaful Category 8: Fire and natural forces
Takaful Contracts against loss of or damage to property (other than property to which categories 3 to 7 relate) due to fire, explosion, storm, natural forces other than storm, nuclear energy or land subsidence.
General Takaful Category 9: Damage to property
Takaful Contracts against loss of or damage to property (other than property to which General Insurance Categories 3 to 7 relate) due to hail or frost or any other event (such as theft) other than those mentioned in General Takaful Category 8 (Fire and natural forces).
General Takaful Category 10: Motor vehicle liability
Takaful Contracts against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of motor vehicles on land, including third-party risks and carrier’s liability.
General Takaful Category 11: Aircraft liability
Takaful Contracts against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of aircraft, including third-party risks and carrier’s liability.
General Takaful Category 12: Liability of ships
Takaful Contracts against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of vessels on the sea or on inland water, including third party risks and carrier’s liability.
General Takaful Category 13: General liability
Takaful Contracts against risks of the persons insured incurring liabilities to third parties, the risks in question not being risks to which General Takaful Categories 10, 11, 12 or 20 relate.
General Takaful Category 14: Credit
Takaful Contracts against risks of loss to the Persons insured arising from the insolvency of debtors of theirs or from the failure (otherwise than through insolvency) of debtors of theirs to pay their debts when due.
General Takaful Category 15: Suretyship
(1) Takaful Contracts against the risks of loss to the Persons insured arising from their having to perform contracts of guarantee entered into by them.
(2) Fidelity bonds, performance bonds, administration bonds, bail bonds or customs bonds or similar contracts of guarantee, where these are:
(a) effected or carried out by a Person not carrying on the business of Accepting Deposits;
(b) not effected merely incidentally to some other business carried on by the Person effecting them; and
(c) effected in return for the payment of one or more premiums.
General Takaful Category 16: Miscellaneous financial loss
Takaful Contracts against any of the following risks, namely:
(1) risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to interruptions of the carrying on of business carried on by them or to reduction of the scope of business so carried on;
(2) risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to their incurring unforeseen expense (other than loss such as is covered by contracts falling within General Takaful Category 18 (Assistance)); or
(3) risks which do not fall within sub-paragraph (1) or (2) and which are not of a kind such that Contracts of Insurance against them fall within any other General Takaful Category.
General Takaful Category 17: Legal expenses
Takaful Contracts against risks of loss to the Persons insured attributable to their incurring legal expenses (including costs of litigation).
General Takaful Category 18: Assistance
Takaful Contracts providing either or both of the following benefits, namely:
(1) assistance (whether in cash or in kind) for Persons who get into difficulties while travelling, while away from home or while away from their permanent residence; or
(2) assistance (whether in cash or in kind) for Persons who get into difficulties otherwise than as mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
General Takaful Category 19: Space
Takaful Contracts against loss of or damage to spacecraft and space objects (including satellites).
General Takaful Category 20: Space liability
Takaful Contracts against damage arising out of or in connection with the use of spacecraft and space objects, including third-party risks and carrier’s liability.
Schedule 2 Categories of Family Takaful
A Takaful Contracts will be a Family Takaful Contract if it falls within one or more of the following categories:
Family Takaful Category 1: Life and annuity
Takaful Contracts on human life or contracts to pay annuities on human life, but excluding (in each case) contracts within Family Takaful Category 3.
Family Takaful Category 2: Marriage and birth
Takaful Contract to provide a sum on marriage or on the birth of a child, being contracts expressed to be in effect for a period of more than one year.
Family Takaful Category 3: Linked long term
Takaful Contract on human life or contracts to pay annuities on human life where the benefits are wholly or party to be determined by references to the value of, or the income from, property of any description (whether or not specified in the contracts) or by reference to fluctuations in, or in an index of, the value of property of any description (whether or not so specified).
Family Takaful Category 3: Permanent health
Takaful Contract providing specified benefits against risks of Persons becoming incapacitated in consequence of sustaining injury as a result of an accident or of an accident of a specified class or of sickness or infirmity, being contracts that:
(1) are expressed to be in effect for a period of not less than five years, or until the normal retirement age for the Persons concerned, or without limit of time; and
(2) either are not expressed to be terminable by the Takaful Operator, or are expressed to be so terminable only in special circumstances mentioned in the contract.
Schedule 3 Calculation of Eligible capital
1. Application and purpose
1.1 Application
This Schedule applies to every AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator.
1.2. Purpose
Guidance
1. In assessing the adequacy of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s financial resources, attention must be paid not only to the types of events or problems that it might encounter, but also the quality of the support provided by various types of capital instruments.
2. The purpose of this Schedule is to identify those capital instruments that can be included as Eligible Capital to meet the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s minimum capital requirement. In determining the Rules governing whether a capital instrument is adequate for supervisory purposes, the AFSA has identified the following relevant matters, namely the extent to which each instrument:
- (a) provides a permanent and unrestricted commitment of funds;
- (b) is freely available to absorb losses from business activities;
- (c) does not impose any unavoidable servicing charges against earnings;
- (d) ranks behind the claims of policyholders and other creditors in the event of the windingup of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator.
3. As Takaful Operators authorised to conduct Takaful Business in or from the AIFC in the legal form of a Branch will be subject to the regulatory capital requirements applicable in their home jurisdiction, the requirements of this Schedule do not apply to Branches.
2. Calculation of Eligible Capital
2.1. Calculating Eligible Capital
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must calculate its Eligible Capital in accordance with the Eligible Capital Calculation Table in rule 2.2 (Eligible Capital Calculation Table) and the provisions in this Schedule.
Guidance
The AFSA may recognise forms of capital instruments in addition to those set out in the Eligible Capital Calculation Table for inclusion in an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s Eligible Capital where those instruments comply with accepted international standards.
2.2. Eligible Capital Calculation Table
The Eligible Capital Calculation Table is as follows:
(A) Tier 1 Capital: |
Permanent Share Capital |
Undistributable Reserves |
Fund for future appropriations |
(B) Deductions from Tier 1 Capital |
Investments in own shares |
Intangible assets |
Interim net losses |
(C) Tier 1 Capital after deductions = A-B |
(D) Tier 2 Capital: |
Perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instruments |
Fixed dividend ordinary shares |
Subordinated debt |
Fixed term preference shares |
Any other item approved for inclusion as Tier 2 Capital at the discretion of the AFSA |
(E) Total Tier 1 Capital plus Tier 2 Capital = C+D |
(F) Deductions from Total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital: |
Investments in subsidiaries and associates |
Connected lending of a capital nature |
Inadmissible assets |
(G) Total Tier 1 Capital plus Tier 2 Capital after deductions = E-F = Total Eligible Capital |
_
3. Components of Tier 1 Capital
3.1. Permanent Share Capital
Permanent Share Capital means ordinary paid-up share capital, or equivalent however called, which meets the following conditions:
(a) it is fully paid up;
(b) any dividends in relation to it are non-cumulative;
(c) it is available to absorb losses on a going concern basis;
(d) it ranks for repayment upon winding up or insolvency after all other debts and liabilities;
(e) it is undated;
(f) the proceeds of an issue of permanent share capital is immediately and fully available to the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator;
(g) the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is not obliged to pay any dividends on the shares (except in the form of shares that themselves comply with this rule);
(h) the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator does not have any other obligation or commitment to transfer any economic benefit in relation to that permanent share capital;
(i) dividends and other charges on the shares can only be paid out of accumulated realised profits;
3.2 Undistributable Reserves
(1) Undistributable Reserves has the meaning attributed to it by Article 72(7) of the AIFC Companies Regulations namely any of the following:
(a) a Company’s share premium account;
(b) a Company’s capital redemption reserve;
(c) the amount by which a Company’s accumulated, unrealised profits (so far as not previously utilised by Distribution or capitalisation) exceeds its accumulated, unrealised losses (so far as not previously written off in a reduction or reorganisation of capital duly made);
(d) any other reserve that the Company is prohibited from distributing by its Articles of Association or under any applicable AIFC Regulations or AIFC Rules.
(2) Undistributable Reserves also include capital contributions if:
(i) the capital contributions satisfy the requirements of rule 3.1 (a) to (i); and
(ii) the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator told the AFSA of its intention to include the capital contributions at least 1 month before the day they were included.
3.3. Fund for future appropriations
Fund for future appropriations means the fund comprising all funds the allocation of which either to policyholders or to shareholders has not been determined by the end of the financial year, or the balance sheet items under international accounting standards which in aggregate represent as nearly as possible that fund.
3.4. Intangible assets
Intangible assets include goodwill, capitalised development costs, brand names, trademarks and similar rights and licences.
4. Components of Tier 2 Capital
Guidance
Tier 2 Capital consists of instruments that, to varying degrees, fall short of the quality of Tier 1 Capital but nonetheless contribute to the overall strength of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator. Such instruments include some forms of hybrid capital instruments that have the characteristics of both equity and debt, that is they are structured like debt, but exhibit some of the loss absorption and funding flexibility features of equity.
4.1. Perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instruments
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator may only include perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instruments as part of its Tier 2 Capital if:
- (a) they are unsecured, subordinated and fully paid-up;
- (b) they are perpetual; and
- (c) they are available to absorb losses on a going concern basis.
4.2. Subordinated debt
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must not include subordinated debt as part of its Eligible Capital unless it meets the following conditions:
- (a) the claims of the subordinated creditors must rank behind those of all unsubordinated creditors;
- (b) no interest or principal may be payable:
- (i) at a time when the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is in breach of its minimum capital requirement; or
- (ii) if the payment would mean that the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator would be in breach of these Rules;
- (c) the only events of default must be non-payment of any interest or principal under the debt agreement or the winding-up of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator;
- (d) the remedies available to the subordinated creditor in the event of non-payment in respect of the subordinated debt must be limited to petitioning for the winding up of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator or proving for the debt and claiming in the liquidation of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator;
- (e) any events of default and any remedy described in paragraph (d) must not prejudice the matters in paragraphs (a) and (b);
- f) in addition to the requirements about repayment in paragraphs (a) and (b), the subordinated debt must not become due and payable before its stated final maturity date except on an event of default complying with paragraph (c);
- (g) the agreement and the debt are governed by the laws of a jurisdiction:
- (i) under which the other conditions mentioned in this subrule can be met; or
- (ii) that is otherwise acceptable, generally or in a particular case, to the AFSA;
- (h) to the fullest extent permitted under the law of the relevant jurisdictions, creditors must waive their right to set off amounts they owe the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator against subordinated amounts owed to them by the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator;
- (j) the debt must be unsecured and fully paid up;
- (k) the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator has notified the AFSA that it intends to include subordinated debt as part of its Eligible Capital and the AFSA has not advised the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator in writing within thirty days of the date of the notification that the subordinated debt must not form part of its Eligible Capital.
(i) the terms of the subordinated debt must be set out in a written agreement or instrument that contains terms that provide for the conditions set out in paragraphs (a) to (h);
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must not include in its Eligible Capital subordinated debt issued with step-ups in the first 5 years following the date of issue.
(3) For the purposes of calculating the amount of subordinated debt that may be included in its Eligible Capital, an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must amortise the principal amount on a straight-line basis by 20% per annum in its final 4 years to maturity.
4.3. Legal opinions on Tier 2 Capital instruments
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must obtain a written external legal opinion stating that the requirements of Rules 4.1 or 4.2 have been met in respect of any perpetual qualifying hybrid capital instrument or subordinated debt that the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is proposing to include as Eligible Capital.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must provide copies of the opinions referred to in subrule (1) to the AFSA if requested by the AFSA to do so.
4.4. Other Tier 2 Capital instruments
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator may include additional items in its Tier 2 Capital with the written approval of the AFSA.
Guidance: ASFA approval of other items of Tier 2 Capital
The matters that will be taken into account by the AFSA in considering an instrument for potential approval as Tier 2 Capital include (but are not limited to) the following:
(a) the extent to which and in what circumstances the proposed capital element is subordinated to the rights of policyholders in an insolvency or winding up;
(b) the extent to which the proposed capital element is fully paid and available to avoid losses;
(c) the period for which the proposed capital element is available; and
(d) the extent to which the proposed capital element is free from mandatory payments or encumbrances.
5. Deductions from total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital
5.1. Investments in subsidiaries and associates
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must deduct investments in subsidiaries and associates from the total of Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital.
5.2. Connected lending of a capital nature
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must deduct connected lending of a capital nature from the total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital.
Guidance
The AFSA regards connected lending of a capital nature to be any lending to a company in the same Group as the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator for activities which that company would find hard to finance from another source, and is typically on a long term basis. Unless there is a genuine ability for the funds to be repaid within a short time, it is generally considered that the loan is of a capital nature.
5.3. Inadmissible assets
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must deduct the following inadmissible assets from the total of Tier 1 Capital and Tier 2 Capital:
- (a) tangible fixed assets, including inventories, plant and equipment and vehicles;
- (b) deferred acquisition costs;
- (c) deferred tax assets;
- (d) deficiencies of net assets in subsidiaries;
- (e) any investment by a subsidiary of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator in the AIFCIncorporated Takaful Operator’s own shares;
- (f) holdings of other investments which are not readily realisable investments; and
- (g) any other assets to be deducted from Eligible Capital as directed by the AFSA.
Guidance
The above assets have been identified as inadmissible assets because:
- (a) a sufficiently objective and verifiable basis of valuation does not exist;
- (b) their realisability cannot be relied upon with sufficient confidence;
- (c) their nature presents unacceptable custody risks; or
- (d) the holding of these may give rise to significant liabilities or onerous duties.
6. Limits on the use of different forms of capital
6.1. Instruments not to be included in Tier 2 Capital—exceeding 100% of Tier 1 Capital
A capital instrument is not eligible for inclusion in Tier 2 Capital to the extent that its inclusion will result in the aggregate amount of Tier 2 Capital exceeding 100% of eligible Tier 1 Capital (net of deductions).
Schedule 4. Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)
1. Minimum capital requirement (MCR)
1.1. The Capital Floor
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must maintain a paid up share capital of not less than the Capital Floor, or an equivalent sum in any currency acceptable to the AFSA.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must maintain minimum shareholders’ funds of at least 75% of the Capital Floor or an equivalent sum in any currency acceptable to the AFSA.
(3) The Capital Floor is:
(a) US$7,000,000 for an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator carrying on General Takaful Business;
(b) US$7,000,000 for an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business; or
(c) An amount specified in writing by the AFSA.
1.2. The MCR for General Takaful Business
(1) The MCR for an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator carrying on General Takaful Business is an amount not less than the higher of:
(a) 12% of that Takaful Operator’s gross written contributions for all of the Takaful Funds operated by it during the previous financial year, net of:
(i) the amount of any taxes on contributions, rebates, refunds, and commissions accrued by the Takaful Operator, and
(ii) the gross amount of any Retakaful contributions (after deduction of any rebates or commissions receivable by the Takaful Operator) ceded by the Takaful Operator in respect of all of the Takaful Funds forming part of its General Takaful Business during that preceding financial year;
(b) 12% of the value of claims reserves and contribution reserves, net of Retakaful and amounts reserved to maximum; and
(c) the Capital Floor applicable to that Takaful Operator.
(2) For the purposes of rule 1.2(1)(a) any funds received by a Takaful Operator in return for the assumption of Takaful obligations under a novation, portfolio transfer or other scheme or arrangement must be included in the gross contributions computation at a value:
(a) determined on a basis acceptable to the AFSA; and
(b) supported by an actuarial opinion acceptable to the AFSA.
(3) Retakaful or Reinsurance ceded by a Takaful Operator to an Associated Party shall not be taken into account for the purposes of the MCR calculation unless
(a) the Associated Party is an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator and meets the solvency requirements in these Rules, or
(b) the AFSA, in any particular case, consents in writing to that Retakaful or reinsurance being taken into account.
1.3. The MCR for Family Takaful Business
(1) The MCR of a an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator carrying on Family Takaful Business is an amount not less than the higher of -
(a) 2.5% of that Takaful Operator’s total reserves including the reserves of all of its Family Takaful Funds, net of Retakaful; and
(b) the Capital Floor applicable to that Takaful Operator.
(2) Where a Takaful Operator has entered into Takaful Contracts falling within Family Takaful Category 3 Linked Family Takaful business, the value of the total reserves in rule 1.3(1)(a) should be reduced by the value of the linked liabilities.
(3) Retakaful / reinsurance ceded by a Takaful Operator to an Associated Party shall not be taken into account for the purposes of the MCR calculation unless -
(a) the Associated Party is an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator and meets the solvency requirements in these Rules, or
(b) the AFSA, in any particular case, consents in writing to that Retakaful / reinsurance being taken into account.
Schedule 5. Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)
1. Prescribed capital requirement (PCR)
1.1 Calculation of the PCR
The PCR for an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is the higher of:
- (a) 150% of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s MCR; and
- (b) the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s Risk-Based Capital Requirement.
2. Definitions
2.1. Risk-Based Capital Requirement
(1) For an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator that has been approved to use its own internal model to calculate its Risk-Based Capital Requirement under TRR 5.3.1, the amount calculated using that model is the Risk-Based Capital Requirement.
(2) The Risk-Based Capital Requirement for an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator that, under TRR 5.3.1 (Approval by AFSA), has been approved to use its own internal model to replace 1 or more components of its Investment, Takaful and Operational Risk Requirements is the amount calculated using those components as replaced and the other components of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s Investment, Takaful and Operational Risk Requirements.
(3) The Risk-Based Capital Requirement (RBC) for any other AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is the aggregate of the Risk-Based Capital Requirements for each of the Takaful Funds operated by it and the Risk-Based Capital Requirements for its own operational and financial risk exposures. RBC for the Takaful Operator = ∑i ( RBC for Takaful Fundi ) + RBC for the Takaful Operator’s own risk exposures
(4) RBC for the Takaful Fund or for the Takaful Operator as the case may be, is calculated as the sum of the following component requirements:
Guidance
Among the three components of RBC detailed in 2.1 (4) above, only the Investment Risk Requirement is applicable for the Takaful Operator. Therefore, the Takaful Risk and Operational Risk Requirements need not be calculated for the Takaful Operator. For each of the Takaful Funds operated by the Takaful Operator, all the three requirements must be calculated using the methodologies detailed below.
2.2. Investment Risk Requirement
The Investment Risk Requirement referred in 2.1 (a) above is defined as the sum of:
2.3. Takaful Risk Requirement
The Takaful Risk Requirement referred in 2.1 (b) above is defined as the sum of:
- (a) Premium Risk Component;
- (b) Outstanding Claims Risk Component;
- (c) Family Takaful Risk Component; and
- (d) Takaful Concentration Risk Component.
2.4. Operational Risk Requirement
(1) The Operational Risk Requirement referred in 2.1 (c) above is defined as 2% of whichever is the higher of:
(a) the gross contributions of the Takaful Fund in the 12 months ending on the Solvency Reference Date; and
(b) the technical provisions for the Takaful Fund (without deduction for Retakaful / reinsurance) as at the Solvency Reference Date.
(2) However, if the amount calculated under sub-rule (1) is more than a ceiling, calculated as:
then the Operational Risk Requirement is the amount of the ceiling.
3. Counterparty Grades
3.1. Meaning of Counterparty Grade
(1) In this Schedule:
(a) Counterparty Grade (or Grade) has the meaning given by sub-rule (2); and
(b) Invested Asset means an asset, right or interest held by a Takaful Operator or by a Takaful Fund for the primary purpose of generating revenue or for directly providing funds to meet potential cash outflows.
(2) For this Schedule, the Grade of an asset is its Grade according to the rating of its counterparty, in accordance with table A.
Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings
Item | Rating of counterparty by: | Grade of asset | |||
Standard & Poor’s | Moody’s | A. M. Best | Fitch | ||
1 | AAA | Aaa | A++ | AAA | 1 |
2 | AA+ AA AA- | Aa1 Aa2 Aa3 | A+ | AA+ AA AA- | 2 |
3 | A+ A A- | A1 A2 A3 | A A- | A+ A A- | 3 |
4 | BBB+ BBB BBB- | Baa1 Baa2 Baa3 | B++ B+ | BBB+ BBB- | 4 |
5 | BB+ or below | Ba1 or below | B or below | BB+ or below | 5 |
Unrated assets, exposures and counterparties must be classified as Grade 4.
3.2. Using different credit rating agencies
(1) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must rely on the ratings issued by the same credit rating agency for determining Counterparty Grades unless the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator has good reason to use a different credit rating agency or agencies.
(2) If a counterparty or debt obligation has been rated by more than 1 rating agency and there are 2 or more ratings that lead to different capital charges, the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must use the credit rating that results in the highest capital charge.
(3) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must not use the rating of an agency that is not in table A unless the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator has the written permission of the AFSA.
4. Investment Risk Requirement
4.1. Asset Risk Component
(1) The Asset Risk Component for a Takaful Operator or for any Takaful Fund is the sum of the amounts obtained by multiplying the value of each asset held by the relevant entity categorised according to the Counterparty Grade of the asset, by the percentage applicable to that asset, as detailed below:
- (a) for assets that are not Retakaful / reinsurance assets—table B1;
- (b) for assets that are Retakaful / reinsurance assets where the Retakaful Operator / reinsurer is subject to prudential supervision by a sub-rule (2)regulator—table B2; or
- (c) for assets that are reinsurance assets where the Retakaful Operator / reinsurer is not subject to prudential supervision by a sub rule (2) regulator— table B3.
(2) A regulator is a sub-rule (2) regulator if it is located:
- (a) in the AIFC or the Republic of Kazakhstan;
- (b) in 1 of the member states of the European Union;
- (c) in Australia, Canada, Hong Kong, Iceland, Japan, Norway, Singapore, Switzerland, the United States of America; or
- (d) in any other jurisdiction that is a signatory to the Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding on Cooperation and Information Exchange initiated by the International Association of Insurance Supervisors.
Note 1 For the list of the member states of the European Union, see http://europa.eu/about-eu/countries/index_en.htm.
Note 2 For the list of signatories to the Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding on Cooperation and Information Exchange, see http://www.iaisweb.org/MMoU-signatories605
Table B1 Percentage applicable to assets that are not Retakaful / reinsurance assets
Item | Asset | % |
1 | cash, bank deposits and other cash equivalents Grade 1 sovereign Sukuk | 0.50 |
2 | Sukuk that mature, or are redeemable, in less than 1 year issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1 or 2 (excluding subordinated debt and government debt obligations dealt with anywhere else in this table) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 1 or 2 | 1.00 |
3 | unpaid premiums due 6 months or less previously from a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1, 2 or 3 Sukuk that mature, or are redeemable, in 1 year or more issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1 or 2 (excluding subordinated debt and government debt obligations dealt with anywhere else in this table) | 2.00 |
4 | unpaid premiums due 6 months or less previously from an unrated counterparty or a counterparty with a rating of Grade 4 or 5 bonds issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 3 (excluding subordinated debt) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 3 secured loans | 4.00 |
5 | unpaid premiums due more than 6 months previously from a counterparty with a rating of Grade 1, 2 or 3 bonds issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 4 (excluding subordinated debt) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 4 | 6.00 |
6 | unpaid premiums due more than 6 months previously from an unrated counterparty or a counterparty with a rating of Grade 4 or 5 bonds issued by a counterparty with a rating of Grade 5 (excluding subordinated debt) cash management trusts with a counterparty rating of Grade 5 listed subordinated debt | 8.00 |
7 | unlisted subordinated debt preference shares | 10.00 |
8 | listed equity investment listed trusts | 16.00 |
9 | direct holdings of real estate unlisted equity investment unlisted trusts | 20.00 |
10 | loans to: (a) directors of the Takaful Operator; (b) directors of related parties; or (c) dependent relatives of such directors unsecured loans to employees (except loans of less than USD 1,000) assets subject to a fixed or floating charge | 100.00 |
11 | other non-reinsurance assets not mentioned in this table | 20.00 |
Table B2 Percentage applicable to reinsurance assets— reinsurer / Retakaful Operator supervised by sub-rule (2) regulator
Item | Asset | % |
1 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 1 | 1.00 |
2 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 2 | 2.00 |
3 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 3 | 4.00 |
4 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 4 | 6.00 |
5 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 5 | 8.00 |
Table B3 Percentage applicable to reinsurance assets—reinsurer / Retakaful Operator not by supervised by sub-rule (2) regulato
Item | Asset | % |
1 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 1 | 1.20 |
2 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 2 | 2.40 |
3 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 3 | 4.80 |
4 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 4 | 7.20 |
5 | reinsurance assets due from reinsurer / Retakaful Operators with a counterparty rating of Grade 5 | 9.60 |
4.2. Effect of guarantee or collateral
(1) Assets that have been explicitly, unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed for their remaining term to maturity by a guarantor with a counterparty rating in Grades 1, 2 or 3 who is not a related party to the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator may be assigned the asset risk charge that would apply to a debt instrument issued from the guarantor.
(2) Where an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator holds collateral against an asset, and this collateral takes the form of a charge, mortgage or other security interest in, or over, cash, or any debt security whose issuer has a counterparty rating of Grades 1, 2 or 3, the AIFCIncorporated Takaful Operator may apply the asset risk charge relevant to the collateral (instead of applying the asset risk charge that would otherwise apply to the asset).
(3) The provisions in sub-Rules (1) and (2) above apply only to so much of the asset that is covered by the guarantee or the collateral.
4.3. Assets subject to mortgage or charge
(1) Subject to (2), assets of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator that are under a fixed or floating charge, mortgage or other security are subject to an asset risk charge of 100% to the extent of the indebtedness secured on those assets. This would replace the asset risk charge that would otherwise apply to the secured assets.
(2) Where the security supports an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s Takaful Liabilities, the asset risk charge of 100% is applicable only to the amount by which the market value of the charged assets exceeds the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s supported liabilities.
4.4. Excluded assets
An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator need not include an amount in the asset risk charge for any asset excluded from Eligible Capital in accordance with the table B1 in rule 4.1.
5. Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component
5.1. When Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component must be calculated
The Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component must be calculated, if the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator or any of its Takaful Funds are, as of the Solvency Reference Date, a party to a Shari’ahcompliant Derivative contract, including a forward, future, swap, option or other similar contract, but not:
- (a) a put option serving as a guarantee;
- (b) a foreign exchange contract which has an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less; or
- (c) an instrument traded on a futures or options exchange which is subject to daily mark-tomarket and margin payments.
5.2. How to calculate Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component
The Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component must be calculated as the sum of the amounts obtained by applying the calculations set out in paragraph 5.3 in respect of each Shari’ah-compliant Derivative contract entered into by the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator or any of the Takaful Funds managed by it that meets the description in paragraph 5.1.
5.3. Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component
To calculate the amount of the Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component, the asset equivalent value of each Shari’ah-compliant Derivative (as determined in paragraph 5.4) is multiplied by the Asset Risk Component as though the asset equivalent value were a debt obligation due from the Derivative counterparty.
5.4. Asset equivalent value
(1) The asset equivalent value is the current mark-to-market exposure of the Shari’ahcompliant Derivative (where positive) and a potential exposure add-on.
(2) The potential exposure add-on is determined by multiplying the notional principal amount of the Shari’ah-compliant Derivative in accordance with the following table, according to the nature and residual maturity of the Shari’ah-compliant Derivative.
Residual maturity |
Interest rate contracts |
Foreign exchange & gold contracts |
Equity contracts |
Precious metal contracts (except gold) |
Other contracts |
Less than 1 year |
Nil |
1.0% |
6.0% |
7.0% |
10.0% |
1 year to less than 5 years |
0.5% |
5.0% |
8.0% |
7.0% |
12.0% |
5 years or more |
1.5% |
7.5% |
10.0% |
8.0% |
15.0% |
_
6. Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component
6.1 How to calculate Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component
(1) The Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component must be calculated by applying, to the face value of any credit substitute it has issued (including letters of credit, guarantees and put options serving as guarantees) the asset risk component that would be applied to the obligation or asset over which the credit substitute has been written.
(2) Where the credit substitute is supported by collateral or a guarantee, the provisions of paragraph 4.5 (Effect of guarantee or collateral) may be applied by the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator or any of the Takaful Funds managed by it.
7. Premium Risk Component
7.1. Application
(1) Paragraphs 7.2 to 7.4 apply to General Takaful Business.
(2) The calculation of Premium Risk Component of the Takaful risk requirement is applicable only to every Takaful Funds and it does not apply to the Takaful Operator’s own balance sheet.
7.2. Premium Risk Component
(1) The Premium Risk Component for each of the Takaful Funds, is calculated as the sum of the amounts obtained by multiplying the Takaful Fund’s net contribution liability that falls within each Category of General Takaful Business by the percentage applicable to that liability under table C. Table C Percentage factor— Premium Risk Component
(2) In this rule, net contribution liability means contribution liability less any expected retakaful and non-retakaful recoveries in respect of that contribution liability as at the Solvency Reference Date
Item |
Category of General Takaful Business |
Direct Takaful % |
Retakaful: proportional % |
Retakaful: non-proportional % |
1 |
Category 1, 2 |
16 |
18 |
21 |
2 |
Category 3, 18 |
13 |
15 |
18 |
3 |
Category 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 16, 17, 19 |
16 |
18 |
21 |
4 |
Category 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 20 |
21 |
23 |
26 |
_
7.3 AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator may apply for different percentages
(1) The AFSA may, on application of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator conducting General Takaful Business in Category 1, give written consent to the use of percentages other than those in table C if the AFSA is satisfied that:
- (a) adequate mortality and morbidity information exists in respect of that business; and
- (b) the information provides a reasonable basis for reliance on actuarial principles.
(2) The percentages that may be used must be those stated in the notice but may not be lower than:
- (a) 12% in the case of direct Takaful and proportional Retakaful; and
- (b) 16% in the case of non-proportional Retakaful
7.4. Certain contracts not included
(1) If an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator underwrites Takaful Contracts in General Takaful Categories 1 and 2 that are Family Takaful Contracts, the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator need not calculate a Premium Risk component in respect of those contracts.
(2) For Takaful Contracts in General Takaful Categories 1 and 2 that are Family Takaful contracts, the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must calculate a Family Takaful Risk Component.
8. Outstanding Claims Risk Component
8.1. Application
(1) Paragraphs 8.2 to 8.4 apply to General Takaful Business.
(2) The calculation of Outstanding Claims Risk Component of the Takaful risk requirement is applicable only to every Takaful Funds and it does not apply to the Takaful Operator’s own balance sheet.
8.2. Outstanding Claims Risk Component
(1) The Outstanding Claims Risk Component is calculated for each of the Takaful Funds, as the sum of the amounts obtained by multiplying the Takaful Fund’s net liability for outstanding claims that falls within each Category of Takaful Business by the percentage applicable to that liability under table D. Table D Percentage factor— Outstanding Claims Risk Component
(2) In this rule: net liability for outstanding claims means the liability in respect of future claims referred in TRR 8.3.2 (Treatment of value of future claims payments), less any expected retakaful and non-retakaful recoveries in respect of that liability as at the Solvency Reference Date.
Item |
Categories |
Direct Takaful % |
Retakaful: proportional % |
Retakaful: non-proportional % |
1 |
Category 1, 2 |
11 |
12 |
14 |
2 |
Category 3, 18 |
9 |
10 |
12 |
3 |
Category 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 16, 17, 19 |
11 |
12 |
14 |
4 |
Category 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 20 |
14 |
15 |
17 |
_
8.3. AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator may apply for different percentages
(1) The AFSA may, by written notice, allow the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator to use percentages other than those in table D if the AFSA is satisfied that:
- (a) adequate mortality and morbidity information exists in respect of that business; and
- (b) the information provides a reasonable basis for reliance on actuarial principles.
(2) The percentages that may be used must be those stated in the notice but may not be lower than 8%.
8.4. Certain contracts not included
(1) Family Takaful Contracts written to cover risks in General Takaful Categories 1 and 2 need not be included in the calculation of Outstanding Claims Risk Component for the Takaful Funds to which they are attributed.
(2) Family Takaful Contracts written to cover risks in General Takaful Cateogries 1 and 2, must be included in the calculation of the Family Takaful Risk Component.
9. Family Takaful Risk Component
9.1. Application
(1) Paragraphs 9.2 and 9.3 apply to Family Takaful Business.
(2) The calculation of Family Takaful Risk Component of the Takaful risk requirement is applicable only to Family Takaful Funds and it does not apply to the Takaful Operator’s own balance sheet.
9.2. Family Takaful Risk Component
The Family Takaful Risk Component is calculated as the sum of the following amounts, so far as they relate to the Family Takaful business of the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator:
(a) 1.25% of the amount of provisions in respect of Family Takaful Business that is [investmentlinked Takaful, where the contracts are subject to a capital guarantee;]
(b) 0.5% of the amount of provisions in respect of Family Takaful Business that is investmentlinked Takaful, where the contracts are not subject to a capital guarantee;
(c) 3% of the amount of provisions in respect of Family Takaful Business other than business described in paragraphs (a) and (b); (d) the amount obtained by multiplying the amount of capital at risk under paragraph 9.3 by 0.1%;
(e) if the relevant Takaful Fund includes policies that are contingent on mortality—the amount of anticipated claims cost arising from a 0.5 per thousand increase in the rate of lives insured dying over the following year.
9.3. Capital at risk
(1) Capital at risk of a Family Takaful Fund means the total amount of sums assured on Family Takaful Contracts issued by that Family Takaful Fund, less:
- (a) the total amount of mathematical reserves for those contracts; and
- (b) any expected Retakaful and non-Retakaful recoveries as at the Solvency Reference Date.
(2) For an annuity, the sum assured must be taken to be the present value of the annuity payments.
(3) The contribution of each contract to capital at risk must be determined separately. If the capital at risk calculated for a contract is less than zero, the capital at risk for that contract is taken to be zero
10. Takaful Concentration Risk Component
10.1. Application
(1) Paragraphs 10.2 and 10.3 apply to General Takaful Business.
(2) The calculation of Takaful Concentration Risk Component of the Takaful risk requirement is applicable only to Takaful Funds and it does not apply to the Takaful Operator’s own balance sheet.
10.2. Takaful Concentration Risk Component
(1) The Takaful Concentration Risk Component for an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator is: MER + CoR (if any) – RP (if any)
where:
MER has the meaning given in paragraph 10.3 (Maximum event retention). CoR or cost of reinstatement, in relation to an extreme event, means:
- (a) the rate that a Takaful Fund has contractually agreed to pay the Retakaful Operator concerned to reinstate the retakaful coverrelating to the extreme event; or
- (b) if the Takaful Fund has not agreed on the rate for the Retakaful / reinsurance cover— the Takaful Fund’s estimate of the cost of reinstating that cover based on current Retakaful / reinsurance market conditions (but no less than the original rate of reinsurance cover).
RP or reinstatement premiums, for a Takaful Fund that also writes retakaful, means the amount of inward reinstatement premiums from cedants in respect of catastrophe retakaful if that Takaful Fund or the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator managing it has a binding netting arrangement with the cedant.
(2) An AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator must seek advice from its Approved Actuary about estimating the MER for every Takaful Fund it operates, if the AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator:
- (a) issues policies that do not have a maximum amount insured;
- (b) insures risks in multiple lines of business; or
- (c) has a complex portfolio of Takaful risks.
10.3. Maximum event retention
(1) MER or maximum event retention, in relation to an extreme event, is the maximum amount of loss to which the Takaful Fund will be exposed due to an accumulation of exposures, after netting out any potential reinsurance / Retakaful recoveries.
(2) In calculating its MER, a Takaful Fund must:
- (a) set the amount based on the accumulation of exposures of the Takaful Fund to a single extreme event;
- (b) assume a return period of 1 in 250 years (or greater), where the return period is the expected average period within which the extreme event will re-occur; and
- (c) take into account:
- (i) its risk profile and risk tolerance;
- (ii) its claims history (using available internal and external data);
- (iii) the capital resources available to it;
- (iv) its current and future solvency needs;
- (v) its Retakaful / reinsurance programme;
- (vi) the classes of Takaful business underwritten by it; and
- (vii) the areas where it conducts business.
(3) If the Takaful Fund is exposed to more than 1 extreme event, its MER is the largest of the MERs calculated for those events.
(4) Despite anything in this rule, the AFSA may require the Takaful Fund or the AIFCincorporated Takaful Operator, to make adjustments in calculating its MER.
Schedule 6 Prudential returns by Takaful Operators
Item |
Title of return |
Form number |
Frequency for AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operators. |
Frequency for Takaful Operators which are not AIFC-Incorporated |
1 |
Statement of financial position / balance sheet |
INS100 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
2 |
Statement of comprehensive income / income statement |
INS200 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
3 |
Analysis of Derivative activities |
INS111 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
4 |
Analysis of investment concentrations in foreign currency |
INS113 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
5 |
Analysis of investment concentrations risk |
INS114 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
6 |
Supplementary information |
INS210 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
7 |
Calculation of Eligible Capital |
INS300 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
8 |
Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR) |
INS310 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
9 |
Calculation of asset risk component |
INS320 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
10 |
Calculation of off balance sheet asset risk component |
INS330 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
11 |
Calculation of off balance sheet liability risk component |
INS340 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
12 |
Calculation of Premium Risk Component |
INS350 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
13 |
Calculation of technical provisions risk component |
INS360 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
14 |
(For Long Term Takaful Operators only) Calculation of Family Takaful risk component |
INS370 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
15 |
Calculation of Takaful concentration risk component |
INS380 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
16 |
Statement of Retakaful / reinsurance |
INS400 |
Annually |
Annually and quarterly |
17 |
Statement of premium information |
INS500 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
18 |
Statement of technical provisions and claims |
INS600 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
19 |
(For Long Term Takaful Operators only) Statement of changes in long term business |
INS610 |
Annually |
n/a |
20 |
Statement of intra-group transactions |
INS700 |
Annually and quarterly |
n/a |
21 |
Statement of largest clients |
INS800 |
Annually and quarterly |
Annually and quarterly |
_
REPRESENTATIVE OFFICE RULES
Representative Office
1. APPLICATION AND PRINCIPLES
1.1 Application
Unless stated otherwise, these Rules ("REP") apply to every Person who to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Representative Office.
1.2 Principles for Representative Offices
Representative Offices shall conduct all of their business in a manner that is compatible with the principles listed in this REP 1.2.
(1) Integrity | A Representative Office must conduct its business with high standards of integrity and fair dealing. |
(2) Due skill, care and diligence | A Representative Office must conduct its business with due skill, care and diligence. |
(3) Adequate resources | A Representative Office must maintain adequate resources to conducts and manage its affairs and be able to demonstrate the existence of such resources to the AFSA. |
(4) Relationship with regulators | A Representative Office must deal with Regulators in an open and co-operative manner and must promptly disclose to the AFSA significant events or anything else relating to the Representative Office of which the AFSA would reasonably expect to be notified. |
2. LICENSING AND AUTHORISATION
2.1 Licence application
An applicant must apply for a Licence from the AFSA by completing and submitting to the AFSA the forms prescribed in Schedule 1.
2.2 Consideration and assessment of applications
(1) An applicant will only be authorised to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Representative Office and to hold a Licence if:
(a) the AFSA is satisfied that the applicant is fit and proper to hold a Licence; and
(b) the applicant is regulated by a Financial Services Regulator in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC.
(2) In making an assessment under REP 2.2(1)(a), the AFSA may consider:
(a) whether the applicant is subject to supervision by a Financial Services Regulator;
(b) the applicant's conduct with the Financial Services Regulator mentioned in REP
2.2(2)(a), including whether the applicant’s Financial Services Regulator in its home state has been made aware of the proposed application and has expressed itself as having no objection to the licensing of the applicant by the AFSA;
(c) whether the applicant is fit and proper to the AFSA's satisfaction;
(d) whether the applicant's proposed or actual Principal Representative is fit and proper to the AFSA's satisfaction;
(e) any matter which may harm or may have harmed the integrity or the reputation of the AFSA or AIFC;
(f) the activities of the applicant and the associated risks, and accumulation of risks, that those activities pose to the AFSA’s objectives described under the Framework Regulations;
(g) the cumulative effect of any factors which give the AFSA reasonable cause to doubt whether the applicant is fit and proper notwithstanding the fact that when such factors are considered individually they do not give rise to a reasonable cause to doubt whether the applicant is fit and proper; and
(h) any other matters the AFSA may deem relevant.
2.3 Scope of a Representative Office's Licence
(1) A Representative Office shall not undertake a Regulated Activity outside the scope of its Licence.
(2) The Scope of a Representative Office's Licence may include:
(a) marketing activities;
(b) activities that increase the profile, in the AIFC, of the Representative Office's head office;
(c) activities that relate to correspondence with or the provision of information from the Representative Office's head office;
(d) activities that relate to the provision of information to the Representative Office's head office relating to business trends, business opportunities and developments in the AIFC markets; and
(e) any other activities that the AFSA determine may be suitable for a Representative Office to conduct.
(3) Marketing activities as described in REP 2.3(2)(a) can include one or more of the following:
(a) providing information to third parties about Financial Products or financial services offered by the Representative Office's head office or a member of its Group that is based outside the AIFC;
(b) engaging in Financial Promotions relating to the Financial Products or financial services referred to above in REP 2.3(3)(a); and
(c) making introductions or referrals between third parties and the Representative Office's head office or a member of its Group for the financial services or Financial Products offered by them outside the AIFC.
(4) A Representative Office is prohibited from marketing any products or services offered by:
(a) any unrelated third party, notwithstanding the fact that such a third party may have an arrangement with the Representative Office's head office or a member of its Group; or
(b) a related party of the Representative Office if that related party is based in the AIFC.
(5) An Islamic Financial Institution may operate a Representative Office but it is deemed not to be conducting Islamic Financial Business through its Representative Office.
(6) A Representative Office will not be taken to be holding itself out as conducting Islamic Financial Business in circumstances where it:
(a) does not represent that it provides any services that are in accordance with Shari’ah; and
(b) acts within the scope of its Licence and does not carry on a Regulated Activity other than Operating a Representative Office.
2.4 Licence Amendments
(1) A Representative Office seeking to:
2.5 Withdrawal of a Licence
(1) A Representative Office seeking to have its Licence withdrawn must submit a request in writing to the AFSA stating:
(a) the reasons for the request;
(b) that it has ceased or will cease to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Representative Office in or from the AIFC;
(c) the date on which it ceased or will cease to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Representative Office in or from the AIFC;
(d) that it has satisfied, or will satisfy, all obligations owed in respect of its business under the Licence; and
(e) that there are no other matters relating to its business under the Licence of which the AFSA would reasonably expect to be notified, or might reasonably expect to be resolved, before agreeing to the request.
(2) The AFSA may withdraw a Representative Office's Licence pursuant to REP 5.1.
3. CONDUCTING BUSINESS
3.1 Representation
A Representative Office must not represent or hold itself out as representing any Person who is not:
- (a) itself;
- (b) its head office; or
- (c) another member of its Group
3.2 Place of Business
(1) A Representative Office must have a place of business within the geographical boundaries of the AIFC.
(2) A Representative Office must not share an office with another Authorised Firm unless such Authorised Firm is a member of the Representative Office's Group.
3.3 Fitness and Propriety
(1) A Representative Office must at all times be fit and proper to hold a Licence.
(2) The AFSA may determine the fitness and propriety of the Representative Office at any time according to the criteria set out in REP 2.2.2.
(3) If the AFSA determines that the Representative Office is not fit and proper the AFSA may revoke the Representative Office's Licence.
(4) A Representative Office must notify the AFSA immediately if it becomes aware of any pending or actual insolvency of itself or of the entity which it is representing.
3.4 Principal Representative
(1) A Representative Office must at all times have a Principal Representative who has satisfied the AFSA as to his/her fitness and propriety. The AFSA may give a Representative Office written notice that a Principal Representative is not fit and proper if the AFSA makes such a determination.
(2) If:
- (a) the Principal Representative ceases to be an employee of the Representative Office; or
- (b) the Representative Office receives the notice described in REP 3.4(1),
the Representative Office must designate a replacement Principal Representative as soon as possible after, and in any event within 28 days of, either the Principal Representative's departure or the Representative Office's receipt of the notice mentioned in REP 3.4(1). The AFSA may revoke a Representative Office's Licence if they fail to follow the procedure outlined in REP 3.4(2).
3.5 Employees
(1) A Representative Office must not permit any staff member to be an Employee of another Authorised Person.
(2) A Representative Office must ensure, as far as reasonably practical, that its Employees are fit and proper.
3.6 Dealing with property
(1) Notwithstanding REP 3.6(2), a Representative Office must not hold or control money or other property belonging to another Person.
(2) A Representative Office may hold or control money or other property belonging to a related party if such actions are necessary to deal with the Representative Office's ordinary business operating expenses.
3.7 Communications
General Communications
(1) The statements:
(a) "Regulated by the Astana Financial Services Authority as a Representative Office"; or
(b) "Regulated by the AFSA as a Representative Office",shall be disclosed in every key business document in connection with carrying on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Representative Office.
(2) A Representative Office must not expressly or impliedly misrepresent its status or hold itself out as able to carry on a Regulated Activity other than Operating a Representative Office.
(3) The AFSA logo must not be reproduced by a Representative Office without express written permission from the AFSA and in accordance with any conditions for its use.
(4) Reasonable steps must be taken by a Representative Office to ensure that communications to a Person in relation to a Financial Product or Financial Service are clear, fair and not misleading.
(5) A Representative Office must not attempt to limit or avoid any duty or liability it may have under the Framework Regulations, Rules or any other relevant legislation to any Person.
Marketing material
(6) In addition to the requirements on general communications in REP 3.7, any marketing material communicated to a Person must contain:
(a) the name of the Representative Office communicating the marketing material and on whose behalf the marketing material is being communicated; and
(b) if the marketing material is directed at a specific class or category of investor, a clear statement to that effect and that no other Person should act upon it.
(7) If the marketing material includes standard terms of a contract of insurance or banking services, or a prospectus or other offering document, the Representative Office must ensure that such material contains in a prominent position, or have attached to it, a statement that clearly:
(a) describes the foreign jurisdiction and the legislation in that jurisdiction that applies to the Financial Product;
(b) states the name of the relevant Financial Services Regulator in that jurisdiction;
(c) describes the regulatory status accorded to the Financial Product by that Financial Services Regulator; and
(d) includes the following warning:
“This document relates to a financial product which is not subject to any form of regulation or approval by the Astana Financial Services Authority (“AFSA”). The AFSA has no responsibility for reviewing or verifying any prospectus or other documents in connection with this financial product. Accordingly, the AFSA has not approved this document or any other associated documents nor taken any steps to verify the information set out in this document, and has no responsibility for it. The financial product to which this document relates may be illiquid and/or subject to restrictions on its resale. Prospective purchasers should conduct their own due diligence on the financial product. If you do not understand the contents of this document you should consult an authorised financial adviser authorised by the AFSA”.
(8) A Representative Office must not distribute marketing material if it becomes aware that the Person offering the Financial Product or financial service to which the material relates is in breach of a regulatory or legal requirement that applies to that Person in relation to that product or service.
(9) A Representative Office must ensure that any marketing material containing information or representations relating to past performance, or any future forecast based on past performance or other assumptions, which is provided to a Person is clear, fair and not misleading and contains a prominent warning that past performance is not necessarily a reliable indicator of future results.
(10) A Representative Office must take reasonable steps to ensure that no Person of or associated with the Representative Office communicates or otherwise uses the marketing material on behalf of the Representative Office in a manner that amounts to a breach of the requirements in this section.
3.8 Marketing of Foreign Funds
A Representative Office may only market a Unit of a Foreign Fund in accordance with the requirements set out in the CIR.
3.9 Record keeping
Records relating to the activities and functions of a Representative Office, including marketing materials, must be maintained for at least six years.
4. RELATIONSHIP WITH THE AFSA
4.1 Provision of Information
(1) The AFSA may request any information that a Representative Office or another member of its Group has provided to a Financial Services Regulator. Upon such a request, the Representative Office shall provide the AFSA with such information.
(2) A Representative Office must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information that it provides to the AFSA in accordance with any legislation applicable in the AIFC is:
(a) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgements, fairly and properly based; and
(b) complete, in that it should include anything of which the AFSA would reasonably expect to be notified.
4.2 Notifications
(1) A Representative Office must make a notification to the AFSA as soon as reasonably practicable if any of the following occur:
(a) the Representative Office changes its:
- (ii) legal status;
- (iii) Controller(s); or
- (iv) Address,
(i) name;
(b) the Representative Office becomes aware of or has information that reasonably suggests a breach of a Rule or of a provision of AFSA administered legislation by the Representative Office; or
(c) the Representative Office becomes aware of any materially adverse information which would on reasonable grounds be considered likely to affect the fitness and propriety of the Representative Office or Principal Representative.
(2) A Representative Office must make a notification to the AFSA immediately if it becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that:
(a) it has or may have provided the AFSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate; or
(b) information previously provided to the AFSA has or may have changed in a material particular.
(3) A notification made under REP 4.2(2) shall include the following information:
(a) details of the information which is or may be false or misleading, incomplete or inaccurate or has or may have changed;
(b) reasons why the information in REP 4.2(3)(a) was or may have been provided; and
(c) the correct information.
(4) If the information in REP 4.2(3)(c) cannot be submitted with the notification it must be submitted as soon as reasonably possible.
5. PENALTIES
5.1 Revocation of Licence
The AFSA may withdraw a Representative Office's Licence in the event that any of the provisions of the Framework Regulation or REP are breached by the Representative Office.
5.2 Fines
The AFSA may fine a Representative Office in the event that any of the provisions of the Framework Regulations or REP are breached by the Representative Office such amount as the AFSA considers appropriate in respect of the contravention.
AIFC AUDITOR RULES
Audit
Guidance: Purpose of this rulebook
The purpose of this rulebook, "AUD", is to provide a single reference point for all persons who are permitted by the AFSA and the Registrar of Companies to carry out audit services in the AIFC. AUD will assist the AIFC to ensure that auditors, and audit services undertaken in the AIFC comply with international best practice in the field of regulation of audit and the provision of audit services.
1. APPLICATION
1.1. General application rule
These AUD Rules apply to:
(a) every Person who is granted a Licence by the AFSA as an Ancillary Service Provider for the provision of Audit Services;
(b) every Person who is registered by the Registrar of Companies as an auditor under the Companies Regulations; (each such Person being an "Auditor" for the purposes of these AUD Rules); and
(c) every individual who is approved by the AFSA, and registered by the Registrar of Companies as an Audit Principal.
Guidance: Requirement to Appoint an Auditor
(1) Section 109 of the Framework Regulations provides that an Authorised Person must appoint an auditor who is an Ancillary Service Provider.
(2) GEN 1.3 outlines the requirements for a Person to obtain a Licence to carry out Ancillary Services (which includes Audit Services).
(3) Chapter 3 of Part 10 of the Companies Regulations governs the conduct of a Person who is registered as an auditor by the Registrar of Companies.
2. REGISTRATION
2.1. Registration of Auditors
2.1.1. Form of application
A Person may apply to the:
- (a) AFSA for a Licence as an Ancillary Service Provider for the provision of Audit Services; and
- (b) the Registrar of Companies to be registered as an auditor, in each case by,
- (c) completing the form prescribed in Schedule 1 and filing the form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the form;
- (d) providing such further information as the AFSA or the Registrar of Companies may require; and
- (e) paying the fee prescribed in the Fees Rules
2.1.2. Application for registration
In assessing an application by an applicant to be granted a Licence by the AFSA and to be registered as an Auditor by the Registrar of Companies, the AFSA may:
- (a) make any enquiries which it considers appropriate, including enquiries independent of the applicant; and
- (b) take into account any information which the AFSA considers to be relevant.
2.1.3. Criteria for application for registration
An applicant to be granted a Licence by the AFSA and to be registered as an auditor by the Registrar of Companies must be able to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the AFSA that it:
- (a) is fit and proper;
- (b) has obtained adequate and appropriate professional indemnity insurance as required under AUD 8.1.1;
- (c) has adequate systems, procedures and controls to ensure due compliance with the:
- (i) International Standards on Auditing;
- (ii) International Standards on Quality Control; and
- (iii) Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants;
- (d) has identified at least one appropriate individual, to be registered as, and to undertake the responsibilities of, an Audit Principal; and
- (e) has complied with any other requirement specified by the AFSA.
2.1.4. Fit and proper considerations
For the purposes of assessing whether an applicant meets the fit and proper requirement under AUD 2.1.3(a), the AFSA may consider:
- (a) the applicant’s standing with any relevant regulatory body;
- (b) the applicant’s disciplinary record;
- (c) the applicant’s procedures for monitoring and preventing Financial Crime;
- (d) the risk posed to the AIFC by the applicant’s activities; and
- (e) any other matter as the AFSA considers relevant.
2.2. Registration of Audit Principals
An individual applying for registration as an Audit Principal must be able to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the AFSA that the individual:
- (a) holds a qualification conferred by a full member of the International Federation of Accountants;
- (b) is a member in good standing of a full member of the International Federation of Accountants;
- (c) has at least 5 years of relevant post qualification audit experience in the past 7 years, including at least one year of experience in a managerial role supervising and finalising audits; and
- (d) is fit and proper to conduct audit work.
2.3. Notification by AFSA to the Registrar of Companies
If the AFSA grants a Licence to an Ancillary Service Provider for Audit Services, it will require the Companies Registrar to register:
- (a) the holder of such Licence as an Auditor in the register of auditors maintained by the Registrar of Companies together with any conditions or restrictions on the scope of the Licence; and
- (b) any Audit Principals in the register of Audit Principals maintained by the Registrar of Companies.
3. CONTINUING OBLIGATIONS
3.1. Continuing obligations of Auditors
3.1.1. Ongoing compliance with standards and legislation
An Auditor must comply on a continuing basis with:
- (a) the International Standards on Auditing, International Standards on Quality Control and the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants; and
- (b) the registration criteria in AUD 2.1.3
3.1.2. Requirement to maintain an Audit Principal
An Auditor must at all times have at least one individual appointed by it and registered by the AFSA and the Registrar of Companies to undertake the responsibilities of an Audit Principal.
3.2. Continuing obligations of Audit Principals
An Audit Principal must comply on a continuing basis with:
4. BREACH OF AUD RULES
4.1. Effect of breach of AUD
In circumstances where an Auditor or an Audit Principal breaches these AUD Rules the AFSA may:
- (a) modify the terms of, suspend or withdraw the Licence of the Auditor as an Ancillary Service Provider; and/or
- (b) require the Registrar of Companies to modify the terms of, suspend or withdraw the registration of the Auditor.
Guidance: Consequences of breach of AUD Rules
(1) GEN 1.3.6 outlines the circumstances in which the AFSA may withdraw the Licence of an Ancillary Service Provider.
(2) Section 134 of the Companies Regulations provides that the Registrar of Companies may impose restrictions on the Auditor's registration, vary or withdraw any restrictions or conditions imposed on the registration, or suspend or withdraw the Auditor's registration.
5. SUSPENSION OR WITHDRAWAL OF AUDIT PRINCIPALS
5.1. Suspension or withdrawal of Audit Principals
5.1.1. Power to suspend or withdraw registration
The AFSA may:
(a) suspend the registration of an Audit Principal on its own initiative; or
(b) withdraw the registration of an Audit Principal on its own initiative or at the request of an Auditor or an Audit Principal.
5.1.2. Conditions on suspension of registration
If the AFSA suspends the registration of an Audit Principal, it may impose such conditions on the Audit Principal as it sees fit during the period of the suspension, and requirements on the procedure for lifting the suspension as it considers appropriate.
5.2. Suspended Audit Principals
An Audit Principal that has had his registration suspended by the AFSA must not manage the conduct of any audit work undertaken by the relevant Auditor, or sign any audit reports, or other reports required by the AIFC legislation, on behalf of the Auditor.
5.3. Withdrawal of registration at the request of the Auditor or Audit Principal
5.3.1. Procedure for requesting withdrawal of registration
A request for withdrawal of an Audit Principal’s registration by the relevant Auditor or Audit Principal must be made in writing to the AFSA.
5.3.2. Criteria for granting withdrawal of registration
Before granting a request for withdrawal of an Audit Principal's registration, the AFSA must first be satisfied that:
6. ROLE OF THE REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES
6.1. Powers of Registrar of Companies
The Registrar of Companies must act only on the express instructions of the AFSA in the exercise of its powers and the making of any decision under Section 134(4) or 136(6) of the Companies Regulations.
Guidance
(1) Section 134(4) of the Companies Regulations permits the Registrar of Companies to grant or refuse to grant an application for registration as an auditor, and impose any restrictions or conditions on granting registration.
(2) Section 136(6) of the Companies Regulations permits the Registrar of Companies to, on its own initiative or at the request of the Auditor, impose or vary restrictions or conditions on an Auditor's registration, or suspend or withdraw the Auditor's resignation.
7. CORE PRINCIPLES FOR AUDIT PRINCIPALS
7.1. Application
The five Principles set out in this section apply to every Audit Principal.
Guidance
(1) These Principles are derived from the fundamental principles published in the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants.
(2) In circumstances where an Audit Principal breaches a Principle, the AFSA may consider suspending or withdrawing the registration of the Audit Principal and if that person is the only Audit Principal, the Auditor on that basis
7.2. The Core Principles
7.2.1. Principle 1 – Integrity
An Audit Principal must be straightforward and honest in all professional and business relationships.
7.2.2. Principle 2 – Objectivity
An Audit Principal must not allow bias, conflict of interest or the undue influence of others to override professional or business judgements.
7.2.3. Principle 3 – Professional competence and due care
An Audit Principal must maintain professional knowledge and skill at the level required to ensure that a client or employer receives competent professional services based on current developments in practice, legislation and techniques. An Audit Principal must act diligently and in accordance with applicable technical and professional standards.
7.2.4. Principle 4 – Confidentiality
An Audit Principal must keep confidential all information acquired as a result of professional and business relationships and specifically must not disclose any of that information to third parties without proper and specific authority, unless there is a legal or professional right or duty to disclose, nor may the Audit Principal use the information for the personal advantage of the Audit Principal or a third party.
7.2.5. Principle 5 – Professional behaviour
An Audit Principal must comply with relevant laws and regulations and must avoid any action that discredits the profession.
8. GENERAL OBLIGATIONS OF AUDITORS
8.1. Professional Indemnity Insurance
8.1.1. Requirement to maintain professional indemnity insurance
An Auditor must at all times hold adequate and appropriate professional indemnity insurance which covers all types of civil liability arising in connection with the conduct of the Auditor’s business by its Personnel.
8.1.2. Requirement to maintain run off cover
An Auditor must arrange to hold appropriate run off cover that covers a period of 2 years after the withdrawal of its Licence as an Ancillary Service Provider under the Framework Regulations or its registration as an auditor under the Companies Regulations, whichever last occurs.
8.1.3. Annual reporting
An Auditor must provide to the AFSA, on an annual basis, information relating to the Auditor’s professional indemnity insurance policy including the terms and duration of, and any claims made under that policy.
8.1.4. Obligation to maintain records
An Auditor must maintain proper records and all relevant information relating to:
- (a) its professional indemnity insurance, including the terms of cover and its duration;
- (b) how it determined the adequacy and appropriateness of the cover for the purposes of AUD 8.1.1;
- (c) any insurance claims made by it under its professional indemnity insurance policy; and
- (d) its financial standing including financial statements.
8.2. Suitability of Audit Personnel
8.2.1. Fit and proper requirements of Audit Personnel
An Auditor must ensure that all Audit Personnel:
(a) remain fit and proper to carry out their role; and
(b) if applicable, undertake continuing professional development in accordance with:
- (ii) any applicable internal standards of the Auditor; and
- (iii) any direction given by the AFSA
(i) the requirements of the International Federation of Accountants of which the Audit Personnel is a member;
8.2.2. Records of continuing professional development
An Auditor must maintain records of continuing professional development undertaken by Audit Personnel.
8.3. Working papers and records
8.3.1. Obligation to maintain working papers and records
An Auditor must maintain sufficient working papers and records to:
8.3.2. Obligation to disclose working papers and records
The working papers and records, however stored, must be capable of production in English on paper and within a reasonable period not exceeding 3 business days if requested by the AFSA.
8.4. Annual Information Return
An Auditor must complete the Annual Information Return form for each calendar year and submit the form to the AFSA by 31 January of the following year.
8.5. Notification of Events
8.5.1. Notification of changes in core information
An Auditor must provide the AFSA and the Registrar of Companies with reasonable advance notice of any change in:
8.5.2. Notification of key events
An Auditor must notify the AFSA and the Registrar of Companies immediately if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that any of the following matters may have occurred or may be about to occur:
- (a) the Auditor fails to satisfy the fit and proper requirements in AUD 2.1.3(a) or the continuing obligations in AUD 3;
- (b) any one of its Audit Principals no longer meets the registration criteria in AUD 2.2;
- (c) the Auditor or any of its Audit Principals fails to comply with their obligations under AIFC legislation;
- (d) any claim is made against the Auditor relating to the provision of Audit Services, including but not limited to, a claim lodged against the Auditor’s professional indemnity insurance policy;
- (e) the Auditor or any of its Employees including the Audit Principals breaches any requirement imposed by any applicable law relating to the provision of Audit Services; or
- (f) a significant failure in the Auditor’s systems or controls.
8.5.3. Notification of actions by other regulators
An Auditor must notify the AFSA and the Registrar of Companies immediately of:
(a) the grant or refusal of any application for, or revocation of, authorisation of the Auditor to carry on audit services in any jurisdiction outside the AIFC;
(b) the Auditor becoming aware that a government or other regulatory authority exercising powers and performing functions related to the regulation of auditors has started an investigation into the conduct of the Auditor or of any of its Audit Principals;
(c) the appointment of inspectors, howsoever named, by a governmental or other regulatory body, including a self-regulatory body or organisation exercising powers and performing functions related to the regulation of auditors, to investigate the affairs of the Auditor or any of its Audit Principals; or
(d) the imposition of disciplinary measures or disciplinary sanctions on the Auditor or any of its Audit Principals in relation to its conduct of audit work by a government or other regulatory authority exercising powers and performing functions related to the regulations of auditors.
8.6. Communication with the AFSA and Registrar of Companies
An Auditor must ensure that each notification it provides to the AFSA and the Registrar of Companies is:
- (a) in writing;
- (b) in English; and
- (c) contains the Auditor’s name
8.7. Disclosure of regulatory status
An Auditor must not:
(a) misrepresent its regulatory status with respect to the AFSA or the Registrar of Companies expressly or by implication; or
(b) use or reproduce the AFSA logo without express written permission from the AFSA and in accordance with any conditions for use imposed by the AFSA.
9. FUNCTIONS OF AUDITORS, CONDUCT OF AUDITS AND PREPARATION OF AUDIT REPORTS
9.1. Functions of Auditors
The functions of Auditors are set out in Section 138 of the Companies Regulations.
9.2. Conduct of Audits and Content of Reports
9.2.1. Standards of Reports
An Auditor must conduct an audit, and prepare the contents of any relevant audit report, referred to in AIFC legislation in accordance with the following table:
Audit Report | Requirement | Applicable Standards | Contents |
Financial Statements – Authorised Person | International Standards on Auditing | ISA 700 | |
Financial Statements – Company - | Section 137 of the Companies Regulations | International Standards on Auditing | ISA 700 |
Financial Statements – Reporting Entity | ISA 700 | ||
Financial Statements - Non-Exempt Fund | CIR 11.4(a) | ISA 700 | |
AML Policies, Procedures, Systems and Controls – Authorised Person | ISA 700AML 14.6.1(b) | ||
Client Money Auditor's Report | International Standards on Assurance Engagement (ISAE) or International Standards on Related Services (ISRS) | Annex A | |
Client Investments Auditor's Report | Annex B | ||
Insurance Intermediary Audit Report | COB 11.8.15 | Annex C |
_
9.2.2. Additional required content
An Auditor must ensure that every audit report produced by it includes the name of the:
- (a) the Auditor; and
- (b) the Audit Principal.
SCHEDULE 1: Forms
For the purpose of the AUD Rules the prescribed forms are listed in the following table.
Purpose |
Relevant Section or Rule |
Form |
Application for a Licence to be an Ancillary Service Provider for the provision of Audit Services |
AUD 2.1.1(a) |
|
Application for registration as an auditor under the Companies Regulations |
AUD 2.1.1(b) |
|
Annual Information Return |
|
_
Annex A – Client Money Auditor's Report
In producing a Client Money Auditor’s Report, an Auditor must state as at the date on which the Authorised Firm’s audited statement of financial position was prepared:
(a) the amount of Client Money the Authorised Firm was holding and controlling in accordance with the Client Money Rules in COB 8; and
(b) whether:
- (ii) the Authorised Firm's controls are such as to ensure that Client Money is identifiable and secure at all times;
- (iii) any of the requirements in the Client Money Rules in COB 8 have not been met;
- (iv) if applicable, Client Money belonging to Segregated Clients has been segregated in accordance with the Client Money Rules;
- (vi) the Auditor has received all necessary information and explanations for the purposes of preparing this report to the AFSA; and
- (vii) if applicable, there have been any material discrepancies in the reconciliation of Client Money.
(i) the Authorised Firm has maintained throughout the year systems and controls to enable it to comply with the relevant provisions of COB 8;
(v) if applicable, the Authorised Firm was holding and controlling the appropriate amount of Client Money in accordance with the Client Money Rules in COB 8 as at the date on which the Authorised Firm’s audited statement of financial position was prepared;
Guidance
Where an Authorised Firm does not hold or control any Client Money as at the date on which the Authorised Firm’s audited statement of financial position was prepared, the AFSA expects that this should be stated in order to comply with Annexure A(a).
Annex B – Client Investments Auditor's Report
In producing a Client Investments Auditor’s Report, an Auditor must state as at the date on which the Authorised Firm’s audited statement of financial position was prepared:
(a) the extent to which the Authorised Firm was holding and controlling Client Investments, Arranges Custody or Provides Custody; and
(b) whether:
- (ii) the Client Investments are registered, recorded or held in accordance with the Client Investments Rules in COB 8;
- (iii) there have been any material discrepancies in the reconciliation of Client Investments;
- (iv) the Auditor has received all necessary information and explanations for the purposes of preparing this report to the AFSA; and
(i) the Authorised Firm has, throughout the year, maintained systems and controls to enable it to comply with the Client Investments Rules in COB 8;
(v) any of the requirements of the Client Investments Rules in COB 8 have not been met.
Guidance
Where an Authorised Firm does not hold or control any Client Investments, Arrange Custody or Provide Custody as at the date on which the Authorised Firm’s audited statement of financial position was prepared, the AFSA expects that this should be stated in order to comply with Annexure B(a).
Annex C – Insurance Intermediary Auditor's Report
In producing an Insurance Intermediary's Auditor’s Report, an Auditor must state as at the date on which the Authorised Firm’s audited statement of financial position was prepared:
(a) the amount of Client Money the Insurance Intermediary was holding and controlling in accordance with COB 11; and
(b) whether:
- (ii) the Insurance Intermediary's controls are such as to ensure that Client Money is identifiable and secure at all times;
- (iii) any of the requirements in COB 8 have not been met;
- (iv) if applicable, the Insurance Intermediary was holding and controlling an appropriate amount of Client Money in accordance with COB 8 as at the date on which the Insurance Intermediary's statement of financial position was prepared;
- (vi) if applicable, there have been any material discrepancies in the reconciliation of Client Money.
(i) the Insurance Intermediary has maintained throughout the year systems and controls to enable it to comply with the relevant provisions of COB 11;
(v) the Auditor has received all necessary information and explanations for the purposes of preparing this report to the AFSA; and
Guidance
Where an Insurance Intermediary does not hold or control any Client Money as at the date on which the Insurance Intermediary's audited statement of financial position was prepared, the AFSA expects that a nil balance be stated to comply with Annexure C(a).
AIFC Financial Technology Rules
FinTech
Guidance: Purpose of these Rules
The purpose of these Rules is to establish the AIFC framework in FinTech, which regulates the FinTech Lab, a special regulatory environment to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities.
The purpose of this rulebook, “FINTECH”, is to complement the regulatory framework established by the Financial Services Framework Regulations (“the Framework Regulations”).
Part 1 sets out the commencement date, application scope, interpretation and administration matters.
Part 2 sets out the features of the FinTech Lab.
Part 2.1 is an introduction to the FinTech Lab.
Part 2.2 describes the approach to Testing FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab.
Part 2.3 describes the approach to Developing FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab.
Part 2.4 describes the Licence application process.
Part 2.5 describes the waivers, conditions and restrictions to which the Licence may be subject.
Part 2.6 describes the reporting obligations of the FinTech Lab Participant.
Part 2.7 describes the results of Testing and/or Developing the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab.
Part 3 provides for the general overview of the AFSA FinTech Office, outlines the objectives and scope of the functions performed by the CFTO.
PART 1. INTRODUCTION
1.1. Title
These Rules may be cited as the AIFC Financial Technology Rules (or FINTECH).
1.2. Commencement
These Rules commence on 15 March 2019, meaning that the AIFC FinTech Regulatory Sandbox Guidance expires.
1.3. Application
These Rules apply within the jurisdiction of the AIFC.
1.4. Interpretations
Words and expressions used in these Rules and interpretative provisions applying to these Rules are specified in the Glossary.
PART 2. FINTECH LAB
2.1. General introduction to FinTech Lab
2.1.1. The FinTech Lab is a regulatory environment within the AIFC that allows a Person to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities without being immediately subject to the full set of regulatory requirements under the Framework Regulations and Rules made thereunder.
2.1.2. FinTech Lab is designed to allow Persons to deliver effective competition in the interests of consumers by:
- (a) reducing the time, and potentially the cost, of getting FinTech to market;
- (b) enabling greater access to the market for innovative Persons, including start-ups;
- (c) the AFSA collaborating with the Person to ensure that appropriate consumer protection safeguards are built into their FinTech Activities; and
- (d) enabling FinTech Activities to be Tested and/or Developed.
2.1.3. Risk and failure are an integral part of innovation. The FinTech Lab is intended to incorporate appropriate safeguards to identify and manage potential and actual risks in order to promote development of FinTech Activities. Given that the FinTech Lab operates in a live environment, failure may result in financial losses to FinTech Lab participants and their customers arising from potential risks.
2.2. Testing the FinTech Activities
2.2.1. Eligibility Criteria
(a) The regime for Testing the FinTech Activities is a live environment which allows a Person to test the validity of the following types of activities in a cost-effective and timely manner, in close collaboration with the AFSA:
(i) Financial Activities which are being regulated in the AIFC or similar to those that are already being regulated in the AIFC, where:
- i. a different technology or process is being applied; or
- ii. the same technology or process is being applied differently, meaning that an established technology or process is being applied to create a new business model;
(ii) Financial activities not currently regulated in the AIFC but regulated in other jurisdictions; and
(iii) Activities likely to be regulated in the AIFC as a financial or an ancillary service.
(b) The regime for Testing the FinTech Activities is also suitable for a start-up that does not satisfy the full set of requirements for regulated activities, but intends to deploy FinTech Activities and to commit to complying with regulatory obligations gradually and with the approval of the AFSA
(c) The FinTech Activities specified in (a) and (b) above must be intended to bring benefits to consumers, which may include, for example, increase of the accessibility, efficiency, security and quality in the provision of financial services, thus promoting better risk management solutions and regulatory outcomes for the financial industry.
2.3. Developing the FinTech Activities
2.3.1. Eligibility Criteria
(a) Developing FinTech Activities provides access to a live market environment in which a Person can engage in activities that are currently regulated by the AFSA, or not regulated, without immediately being subject to the full set of regulatory requirements under the Framework Regulations and Rules made thereunder.
(b) Developing FinTech Activities is appropriate in the circumstances where:
- (i) it is not clear whether the proposed FinTech Activity would have demand in Kazakhstani or regional market (test the waters), and
- (ii) a Person has a licence to operate the proposed FinTech Activity in other jurisdiction(s) which are not currently regulated by the AFSA, subject to the AFSA being satisfied that those jurisdictions have appropriate regulatory standards and practice.
(c) For the purposes of 2.3.1, the FinTech Activities eligible for the FinTech Lab are those that are regulated and not regulated by the AFSA.
2.4. Application process
2.4.1. General overview
(a) A Person seeking to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab must meet the eligibility criteria specified in 2.2.1. and 2.3.1. and satisfy the application requirements specified in 2.4.3(b) to be granted with a Licence.
(b) A Person may apply to the AFSA for a Licence to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities by:
- (i) completing the pre-application and application forms and filing each completed form with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as are specified in the form; and
- (ii) providing such further information as the AFSA may require.
2.4.2. Pre-application form
(a) The pre-application process is intended to verify the eligibility of a Person to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab.
(b) The pre-application form is intended to provide information to the AFSA regarding the proposed FinTech Activities; to verify its suitability for support from the FinTech Lab; and to enable the applicant to become familiar with the AFSA’s approach in fostering innovation within the FinTech Lab.
(c) A Person must comply with the eligibility criteria before lodging the application form. 2.4.3. Application form
(a) Once the AFSA is satisfied that the Person meets the eligibility criteria, the AFSA will invite the Person to proceed with submission of additional information necessary for assessment and authorisation purposes.
(b) In assessing the application, the AFSA will consider whether:
- (i) the Person has performed a rigorous due diligence on legal and regulatory requirements of the AIFC for deploying the proposed FinTech Activities and understands them; and
- (ii) the Person has the necessary financial and non-financial resources to support Testing and/or Developing the FinTech Activities in the FinTech Lab; and
- (iii) the applicant is fit and proper; and
- (iv) the Person has submitted to the AFSA the business, testing and/or development plan(s); and
- (v) other criteria that the AFSA may consider relevant have been met.
(c) Upon submission of materially complete application form, the AFSA will review the application and inform the applicant of its authorisation decision.
(d) The procedures for assessing the application, terms and conditions of issuance of the Licence are defined by the AFSA.
(e) Nothing in these Rules prevents the Person whose application had been rejected from applying to the FinTech Lab again, provided that the issues causing the rejection of application have been addressed.
2.5. Licence
2.5.1. General
(a) A Person must not Test and/or Develop FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab unless it holds a Licence issued by the CFTO on behalf of the AFSA.
(b) A Licence issued by the CFTO, which can be subject to a set of conditions, serves as an authorisation of a Centre Participant to:
- (i) Test the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab; and/or
- (ii) Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab.
(c) The Licence has effect for 2 years from the date of its issuance.
2.5.2. Extension, varying, withdrawal of the Licence
(a) The FinTech Lab Participant is entitled to apply to the AFSA to extend, vary or withdraw the Licence.
(b) The FinTech Lab Participant may submit an application for the Licence extension, but no later than 2 months prior to the Licence expiration date.
(c) The FinTech Lab Participant is entitled to apply to the AFSA to extend the validity, to change the scope, and to have a condition/restriction varied or withdrawn from its Licence (or to have its Licence withdrawn) by:
- (i) filing a written request with the AFSA accompanied by such documents as may be requested by the AFSA;
- (ii) providing such further information as the AFSA may require.
(d) Each application for an extension, variation or withdrawal of the Licence must be accompanied by sufficient reasons for such an application.
(e) In the case of withdrawal of the Licence, the FinTech Lab Participant follows the procedure specified in 2.5.3(d) of these Rules.
(f) The CFTO may approve the extension, variation or withdrawal of the Licence on a caseby-case basis.
(g) The CFTO, subject to 7 days prior notification to the FinTech Lab Participant and consideration of any comments received from the FinTech Lab Participant, may vary the terms of the Licence on his/her own initiative and at his/her own discretion based on the progress of the FinTech Lab Participant in Testing and/or Developing the FinTech Activities.
2.5.3. Suspension, revocation of the Licence
(a) The CFTO may suspend or withdraw the Licence based on an application of the FinTech Lab Participant.
(b) The CFTO is entitled to suspend or revoke all or some of the terms of the Licence at his/her own discretion.
(c) For the purposes of 2.5.3(b), the CFTO may exercise its power only if the CFTO:
- (i) is satisfied that there is a breach, or likely breach of a provision of legislation administered by the AFSA; or there is a failure, or likely failure, to comply with any obligation to which the FinTech Lab Participant is subject under the Licence; or
- (ii) considers that the exercise of the power is necessary or desirable in the interests of the AIFC as the risks posed by the Testing and /or Developing FinTech Activities exceed the benefits to consumers or the financial system.
(d) Upon revocation or withdrawal of the Licence, the FinTech Lab Participant must:
- (i) immediately implement its exit strategy to cease provision of the FinTech Activities to new and existing customers;
- (ii) provide notification to customers informing them of the cessation and their rights to redress, where relevant;
- (iii) compensate any customers who had suffered financial losses from engaging with the FinTech Lab Participant pursuant to the safeguards submitted by the FinTech Lab Participant while submitting the application for authorisation;
- (iv) ensure that the exit strategy is employed and all the existing obligations to its customers must be fully fulfilled or addressed; and
- (v) submit a final report to the AFSA on the actions taken pursuant to the paragraph 2.7.3. of these Rules within 30 days after the revocation or withdrawal.
2.6. Waivers, conditions, restrictions
2.6.1. General
(a) Existing legislative requirements of the Framework Regulations and the Rules would not generally apply initially to FinTech Lab Participants. On receipt of an application for a Licence to carry out FinTech Lab Activities, the AFSA works with the applicant to identify the provisions of the Framework Regulations and the Rules that are relevant to the proposed FinTech Lab Activities and issues, as appropriate, individual guidance to the applicant or a FinTech Lab Participant according to the specific characteristics of, and risks associated with, the proposed FinTech Lab Activities.
(b) The AFSA may, on the application of a Person or its own initiative and by written notice:
- (i) waive or modify any condition, restriction or requirement of the Framework Regulations and the Rules in relation to FinTech Lab Activities or proposed FinTech Lab Activities; and
- (ii) define appropriate conditions for a FinTech Lab Participant at authorisation and through different stages of Testing and / or Developing the FinTech Lab Activities.
(c) Conditions defined by the AFSA in relation to a FinTech Lab Participant, referred to in (b), are reflected in the Schedule 1 of these Rules, may include, for example, conditions in relation to the following:
- (i) type of Clients with or for whom the FinTech Lab Participant is permitted to carry on FinTech Lab Activities;
- (ii) the type and size of Client transactions that the FinTech Lab Participant is permitted to enter into;
- (iii) whether the FinTech Lab Participant is permitted to hold or control Client Money and Client assets, including Investments or other financial instruments.
2.7. Reporting
2.7.1. Monitoring
(a) The FinTech Lab Participant is subject to monitoring by the AFSA throughout the validity period of the Licence. The AFSA requires that the FinTech Lab Participant submit information on fulfillment of the testing and/or development plan according to the paragraph 2.4.3(b)(iv) of these Rules.
(b) The FinTech Lab Participant must ensure proper maintenance of records during the Testing and/or Developing period to support reviews by the AFSA of the testing and/or development plan.
2.7.2. Interim reports
(a) The FinTech Lab Participant must submit interim reports to the AFSA on the progress of fulfilment of the testing and/or development plan, which must, without limitations, include information on the following:
- (i) key performance indicators, key milestones and statistical information, covering the number of clients served, number of transactions performed, values of transactions, the number of customer complaints and other indicators;
- (ii) key issues observed from his fraud or operational incident reports and resolution of customer complaints (if any); and
- (iii) actions or steps taken to address the key issues referred to in (ii) above.
(b) The frequency of, and specific details for, reporting will be defined by the AFSA, depending on the duration, complexity, scale and risks associated with the Testing and/or Developing the FinTech Activities.
2.7.3. Final report
The FinTech Lab Participant must submit a final report containing the following information to the AFSA within 30 calendar days from the expiry, or the revocation, or withdrawal of the Licence:
(a) key outcomes, key findings, risk management measures of the Testing and/or Developing the FinTech Activities and other information as per the request of the AFSA;
(b) a full account of all incident reports and resolution of customer complaints (if any); and
(c) in the case of a failed Test and/or Development, the lessons learnt.
2.8. Miscellaneous
2.8.1. Upon expiry of the Licence’s validity, the legal and regulatory requirements which have been waived or modified by the AFSA will expire.
2.8.2. Unless an extension of the Licence is requested pursuant to paragraph 2.5.2. of these Rules, or at such time as otherwise might be necessary and agreed by the CFTO, the FinTech Lab Participant will be required to exit the FinTech Lab and choose to either:
(a) migrate to the full authorisation and supervisory regime under the AIFC regulatory framework and deploy its FinTech Activities on a broader scale; or
(b) continue its business in the AIFC as a non-regulated activity; or
(c) exit following the procedure specified in paragraph 2.5.3(d).
2.8.3. Migration to full authorisation is possible provided that:
(a) both AFSA and the FinTech Lab Participant are satisfied that the intended Test and/or Development outcomes are achieved; and
(b) the FinTech Lab Participant can fully comply with the relevant legal and regulatory requirements envisaged under the AIFC acts to carry on the Regulated and/or Market Activities.
2.8.4. The FinTech Lab Participant may continue its business in the AIFC as a non-regulated activity in certain circumstances when, for instance, the Testing and/or Developing FinTech Activities will be classified by AFSA as a non-regulated activity.
2.8.5. The content of the exit strategy of the FinTech Lab Participant may vary based on commercial needs, and may include ceasing the business, or transferring the FinTech and engaged customers to other authorised financial institution(s).
PART 3. THE AFSA FINTECH OFFICE
3.1. Overview
3.1.1. The FinTech Lab and the FINTECH are administered by the CFTO.
3.1.2. The CFTO is an agent and employee of the AFSA and is subject to the same responsibilities and has the same rights as other agents or employees of the AFSA under the AIFC laws.
3.1.3. The CFTO is accountable to the AFSA Board of Directors.
3.2. Objectives and functions
3.2.1. Objectives
(a) In exercising the CFTO’s functions, the CFTO acts in an independent and non-biased way.
(b) The CFTO exercises the CFTO’s functions only in pursuit of the following objectives:
- (i) to promote good practices and observance of the requirements of these Rules; and
- (ii) to pursue effectiveness and transparency in administering of these Rules.
3.2.2. Functions
(a) The CFTO has the powers given to the CFTO by or under the applicable law of the AIFC, decisions of Governor, AFSA Board of Directors and AFSA Executive Body.
(b) Without limiting paragraph (a), the CFTO’s functions include the following:
- (i) preparing draft rules, codes of practice and submitting them to the AFSA Board Legislative Committee for consideration;
- (ii) preparing and adopting guidance for the AIFC FinTech Lab Participants, and seeking approval of the Board of Directors of the AFSA of any guidance adopted by the CFTO;
- (iii) issuing or approving the necessary forms, procedural guidance and other necessary documents pertinent to these Rules;
- (iv) initiating and convening the AFSA Committee on Authorisation of FinTech Lab applicants;
- (v) devising a tailored regulatory regime for FinTech Lab Participant to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab, including, without limitations, the following:
- i. create and modify eligibility criteria on a case by case basis at his/her own discretion after due consideration of risks posed by the proposed FinTech;
- ii. issue individual guidance to the FinTech Lab Participant having regard to specific characteristics of the participant, or risk posed by, a specific FinTech Activity of the FinTech Lab participant;
- iii. holding the signature right of various legal matters:
- i. approve the form of the Licence and other application forms, and make modifications thereto;
- ii. issue the Licence;
- iii. modify, suspend or revoke the Licence at any time at his/her own discretion due to necessity to pursue one or more regulatory objective.
- (vi) waiving or modifying any conditions, restriction, requirements of the Framework Regulations or the Rules defining the conditions to apply to FinTech Lab Participants upon authorisation through different stages of Testing and/or Developing their FinTech Activities; and/or
- (vii) exercise all or any of the following functions on behalf of the AFSA in relation to FinTech Activities:
- i. approving the form of Licence;
- ii. issuing Licences; and
- iii. modifying, suspending or revoking Licences at any time, at the CFTO’s own discretion, to give effect to or further 1 or more regulatory objectives.
(c) The CFTO may make a decision under (vi), (vii).iii with immediate effect. However, if the CFTO makes a decision under (vi), (vii).iii the CFTO must refer the decision to the AFSA Committee on Authorisation for its consideration. The committee may confirm, set aside or change the condition in any way it considers appropriate.
3.2.3. Other powers
(a) These Rules are not an exhaustive source of the CFTO’s exercise of AFSA’s statutory powers and discretion. In discharge of his/her regulatory duty, the CFTO is entitled to exercise other powers or functions which the CFTO considers necessary or desirable for or in connection with, or reasonably incidental to, the exercise of the CFTO’s functions, where it might be relevant to address any specific matter in FinTech.
(b) The CFTO may delegate all or any of the CFTO’s functions to any AFSA employee.
(c) The CFTO, and any delegate of the CFTO, is not liable to third parties for anything done or omitted to be done in the exercise or purported exercise of the CFTO’s functions (including any function delegated to the CFTO) under the AIFC Acts, decisions of Governor and AFSA Executive Body, except when it is established that such an action or omission was committed with unfair intentions and/or malicious intent and/or for the purpose of deliberate non-fulfillment or violation of his/her official duties.
Schedule 1: Conditions
1. Conditions for commencing business with Clients
1.1. A FinTech Lab Participant (the participant) must meet the following minimum requirements before commencing business with Clients:
a) the participant must demonstrate evidence of the availability of the policies, procedures, arrangements, systems and controls required by AML;
b) the participant must make the mandatory appointments as required by GEN 2.1 and must appoint a Chief Information Technology Officer, who must be an individual responsible for the participant’s ongoing information technology (IT) operations, maintenance and security oversight to ensure that the participant’ IT systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident;
c) the participant must have a Client agreement that outlines the risk disclosure measures required by the participant’s licence issued by the AFSA;
d) the participant must comply with GEN 5.2 (Outsourcing);
e) the participant must provide to the AFSA a signed statement, certifying that the participant has adequate measures in place to ensure the following:
- (i) that the participant’s IT systems are resilient and not prone to failure;
- (ii) business continuity if a part of the IT system fails;
- (iii) the protection of the IT systems from damage, tampering, misuse or unauthorised access;
- (iv) the integrity of data forming part of, or being processed through, the IT systems;(v) real time monitoring and reporting on system performance, availability and integrity;
- (vi) that policies and procedures for the IT systems are adequately established and maintained;
- (vii) that the participant has sufficient resources to operate without disruption, maintain and supervise the participant’s IT facilities.
f) the participant must provide to the AFSA evidence of the availability of adequate funds to meet at least 12 months of operational expenses, as per the participant’ application to become a FinTech Lab Participant;
g) the participant must ensure that Client Money is held in a segregated Client Money Account with a third-party account provider that is a Bank or a Regulated Financial Institution that is authorised in any jurisdiction to Accept Deposits;
h) if the participant is providing Digital Asset transactions - the participant must have arrangements in place to ensure storage of Client funds on a Hot Digital wallet at most equivalent to 10 Bitcoin (further BTC) or 10% of all Client funds or assets, whichever is greater.
2. Testing limits
2.1.
The AFSA defines conditions for activities of the FinTech Lab Participants by setting standardised limits on size of funds, types of Clients permitted for the purpose of Testing FinTech Activities, which are determined based on the maturity of the FinTech firm, riskiness and type of activities.
2.2.
The AFSA does not impose any limits on the number of Clients, size of funds, types of Clients for Developing FinTech Activities given that they are performed by the firms authorised in foreign jurisdiction/-s.
2.3.
The maximum size of funds (per Client/Investor) up to which the Client Money Accounts are permitted to be deposited and/or refilled is reflected in the Table 1:
A | B | C | D | |
# | Currency | Retail Clients and Investors: natural persons | Retail Clients and Investors: Body Corporates | Professional Clients and Accredited Investors |
1 | Fiat Currency | 1,000 (thousand) USD or equivalent | 20,000 (twenty thousand) USD or equivalent | within aggregated limits |
2 | Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility or Providing Custody for safeguarding and administering Digital Assets belonging to another Person | 0.5 (point five) BTC or equivalent amount in another Digital Asset | 5 (five) BTC or equivalent amount in another Digital Asset | within aggregated limits |
3 | Any other Digital Asset related business | 0.25 (point twenty-five) BTC or equivalent amount in other Digital Asset | 2.5 (two point five) BTC or equivalent in other Digital Asset | within aggregated limits |
2.4
The maximum size of aggregated funds of Clients that a FinTech Lab Participant is permitted to hold without ensuring compensation arrangement (which can be, for instance, in the form of performance assurance or guarantee) at any given instance for the purpose of Testing the FinTech Activities is:
a) for Retail Clients and Investors:
- (i) 200,000 (two hundred thousand) USD or equivalent Fiat Currency; or
- (ii) 50 (fifty) BTC or equivalent Digital Asset.
b) for Professional Clients and Accredited Investors:
- (i) 5,000,000 (five million) USD or equivalent Fiat Currency; or
- (ii) 1,250 (one thousand and two hundred fifty) BTC or equivalent Digital Asset.
2.5.
If a FinTech Lab Participant has an adequate arrangement to compensate its Clients against losses or damages, the AFSA may consider increasing the values of maximum sizes of Retail Clients funds outlined in 2.3 and 2.4 above.
2.6.
The AFSA must be appointed as the trustee of a performance assurance or guarantee provided by a FinTech Lab Participant
2.7.
The AFSA Committee on Authorisation may, at any time, increase or reduce a limit under 2.3. and/or 2.4. for a particular FinTech Lab Participant, or a Person who is an applicant to become a FinTech Lab Participant, if satisfied that it is justified to do so
2.8
A FinTech Lab Participant may apply to the AFSA Committee on Authorisation for a limit applying to it under this 2.3. and/or 2.4. to be increased. Without limiting the grounds on which the participant may justify the application, the participant may justify the application on 1 or more of the following grounds:
i. successful performance of the authorised FinTech Activities during a period of 6 (six) months without any incident and with properly execution of the participant’s Testing/Developing plan;
ii. fulfillment of all requirements in relation to systems and controls and all legal and regulatory requirements;
iii. providing adequate arrangement to compensate its Clients against losses or damages in the case of default.
3. Outsourcing core functions
3.1.
The AFSA generally permits a FinTech Lab Participant to outsource any of the participant’s functions to a service provider (including a service provider within the participant’s Group). However, the FinTech Lab Participant remains responsible for compliance with the requirements of the Framework Regulations and the Rules.
3.2.
If the AFSA has difficulty in obtaining information from the FinTech Lab Participant about an outsourced function, the AFSA may limit the outsourcing of the function.
4. Minimum number of employees
4.1.
FinTech Lab Participant shall appoint at least 2 (two) individuals who can carry out the functions of Approved Individuals and Designated Individuals and at the same time ensure that there is no conflict of interests in the carrying out of the functions.
Guidance
One Person may hold the positions of Senior Executive Officer and Finance Officer, and another Person may hold the positions of Compliance Officer and Money Laundering Reporting Officer
5. Use of corporate bank accounts
5.1.
A FinTech Lab Participant is allowed to receive and hold Client Money in corporate bank accounts of a Third-Party Account Provider, which is a Bank or a regulated financial institution which is authorised to accept Deposits or funds, subject to relevant segregation of funds in place
COOPERATION AND EXCHANGE OF INFORMATION RULES
Cooperation and Exchange of Information
Guidance: Purpose of this rulebook
The purpose of this rulebook, "CO-OP", is to set out the arrangements made by the AFSA in relation to co-operation and the exchange of information with other authorities, including Financial Services Regulators outside the AIFC.
This rulebook is intended to ensure that the AFSA may provide the fullest assistance permissible to other authorities. In particular, it contains guidance on the scope of the AFSA's existing powers under other AIFC laws and provides additional powers to the AFSA where appropriate. CO-OP supports Part 10 of the Framework Regulations which provides a framework for co-operation and the exchange of information. Part 10 states that the AFSA must:
• ensure the confidentiality of information received in the exercise of its functions;
• implement policies and procedures to ensure that:
• it is able to exercise its powers to obtain information that has been appropriately requested;
• protects the confidentiality of such information; and
• restricts the disclosure of such confidential information; and
• where appropriate, exercise powers to assist authorities in their regulatory functions.
CO-OP is also intended to enable the AFSA to comply with international standards on co-operation and the exchange of information, including the IOSCO Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding (MMoU), the IOSCO Enhanced MMoU and the IAIS MMoU.
1. GENERAL
1.1 Name
These Rules are the AIFC Co-operation and Exchange of Information Rules (CO-OP).
1.2 Commencement
These Rules commence on 1 March 2019.
1.3 Application of these Rules
These Rules apply within the jurisdiction of the AIFC.
2. FRAMEWORK FOR CO-OPERATION AND EXCHANGE OF INFORMATION
2.1. Arrangements for co-operation and the exchange of information
The AFSA may at its discretion, and in relation to its obligations under Part 10 (Co- operation and Exchange of Information) of the Framework Regulations enter into memoranda of understanding or other arrangements for co-operation and the exchange of information with other authorities, including Financial Services Regulators.
Guidance: Obligation in Part 10 (Co-operation and Exchange of Information) of the Framework Regulations
Part 10 of the Framework Regulations requires the AFSA to:
- (a) ensure the confidentiality of information received in the exercise of a regulatory function; and
- (b) assist the exercise by specified persons of their regulatory functions.
2.2. Exercise of powers on behalf of other authorities
Subject to subsection 2.3, the AFSA may exercise its powers, including the power to obtain information from Centre Participants, on behalf of other authorities if the request for assistance is made by:
(a) the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan;
(b) a Financial Services Regulator;
(c) a governmental or regulatory authority exercising powers and performing functions relating to anti-money laundering, counter-terrorist financing or sanctions compliance;
(d) a self-regulatory body or organisation exercising and performing powers and functions in relation to Financial Services;
(e) a law enforcement agency; or
(f) a governmental or other regulatory authority including a self-regulatory body or organisation exercising powers and performing functions in relation to the regulation of auditors, accountants or lawyers, for the purpose of assisting the exercise by any such authority of its regulatory functions.
2.3. Restrictions on regulatory co-operation
The AFSA shall not exercise its powers at the request of an authority listed in subsection 2.2 if:
(a) any exercise of the AFSA's powers would require the AFSA to act in a manner that would violate applicable criminal laws of the Republic of Kazakhstan or Acting Law of the AIFC;
(b) any request is in relation to criminal proceedings that have already been initiated in the AIFC or the Republic of Kazakhstan relating to the same facts or same Persons, or the same Persons have already been penalised or sanctioned on substantively the same allegations or charges and to the same degree by the AFSA or the competent authorities in the Republic of Kazakhstan;
(c) the request is prejudicial on the grounds of public or national interest;
(d) the requesting authority refuses to give reciprocal assistance within its jurisdiction in response to a comparable request from the AFSA; or
(e) the requesting authority fails to demonstrate a legitimate reason for the request. Where a request for assistance is denied, or where assistance is not available under the Acting Law of the AIFC or laws of the Republic of Kazakhstan, the AFSA will provide the reasons for not granting the assistance and consult pursuant to subsection 2.3.-1 (Consultation Regarding Mutual Assistance and the Exchange of Information).
2.3.-1. Consultation Regarding Mutual Assistance and the Exchange of Information
(1) The AFSA will consult periodically with other authorities, including Financial Services Regulators outside the AIFC, about matters of common concern with a view to improving its operation and resolving any issues that may arise.
(2) The AFSA will consult with the requesting authority in matters relating to specific requests, including but not limited to requests that would be so burdensome as to prejudice or disrupt the performance of the AFSA's regulatory functions and duties.
2.4. Legitimate reasons for requesting assistance
In deciding whether to comply with a request for assistance, including a request to disclose confidential information, the AFSA will assess if:
(a) there are legitimate reasons for the request; and
(b) the authority requesting the information has appropriate standards in place for dealing with confidential information.
Guidance: Factors determining legitimate requests In determining the legitimacy of a request, the AFSA may consider if:
(c) the request will enable the requesting authority to discharge more effectively its regulatory responsibilities to enforce and secure compliance with the financial services laws administered by the requesting authority;
(d) the request is for the purpose of actual or possible criminal, civil or administrative enforcement proceedings relating to a violation of financial services laws administered by the requesting authority;
(e) the requesting authority is governed by laws that are substantially equivalent to those governing the AFSA concerning regulatory confidentiality, data protection, legal privilege and procedural fairness;
(f) the request involves the administration of justice of a law, regulation or requirement that is related to enforcing and securing compliance with the financial services laws of the requesting jurisdiction;
(g) any other authority, governmental or non-governmental, is cooperating with the requesting authority or seeking information from the confidential files of the requesting authority; and
(h) fulfilling the request will foster the integrity of, and confidence in, the financial services industry in the AIFC and the requesting jurisdiction.
2.5. Asset freezing
Subject to the restrictions in subsection 2.3, the AFSA may, where appropriate, freeze or sequester funds or assets in the possession or control of a Centre Participant at the request of a Financial Services Regulator, provided that the AFSA and the Financial Services Regulator shall have entered into an MoU that allows either party to request the freezing or sequestration of such funds or assets.
3. CONFIDENTIALITY
3.1. Protecting confidential information
3.1.1. Permitted disclosures
The AFSA may disclose confidential information where such disclosure:
- (a) is permitted or required under these Regulations or under any other AIFC Regulations or Rules;
- (b) is made to any of the authorities listed in subsection 2.2 for the purpose of assisting the exercise by any such authority of its regulatory functions; or
- (c) is made in good faith for the purposes of the exercise of the functions and powers of the AFSA
3.1.2. Obligation to keep disclosed information confidential
If the AFSA is requested to disclose confidential information to an authority referred to in subsection 2.2, in circumstances other than those referred to in subsection 117(2) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA shall:
- (a) ensure that the information must be used for the sole purpose of assisting the requesting authority in performing its regulatory functions; and
- (b) require the requesting authority:
- (i) to keep the information confidential; and
- (ii) not to disclose the information to any other Person without the written consent of the AFSA.
Guidance:
Obligation in subsection 117(2) of the Framework Regulations Under subsection 117(2) of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA must disclose an individual’s compelled testimony to a law enforcement agency for the purpose of criminal proceedings if:
- (i) the person consents to the disclosure; or
- (ii) the AFSA is required by law or court order to disclose the statement.
3.2. Requests to obtain information
3.2.1. Requests made under an MoU
The AFSA may obtain confidential information following a request made under a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) or other information-sharing agreement with another Financial Services Regulator.
3.2.2. Requests by a Financial Services Regulator
The AFSA may, in accordance with the powers granted under section 114 of the Framework Regulations, conduct an investigation and obtain confidential information from Centre Participants at the request of a Financial Services Regulator.
3.2.3. Requests by an authority listed in subsection 2.2
The AFSA may exercise its powers under subsection 2.2 to obtain confidential information from Centre Participants at the request of an authority listed in subsection 2.2.
3.2.4. Scope of powers to obtain information
In order to respond to a request from an authority listed in subsection 2.2, the AFSA may require a Centre Participant to provide information, including but not limited to the following:
(a) information sufficient to reconstruct orders and transactions;
(b) information that identifies or traces funds or assets into which such funds are converted;
(c) auditing information, including audit work papers, communications and other information relating to audit or review of financial statements;
(d) subscriber records held or maintained by telephone service providers that identify subscribers (name and address), payment details and identification of phone numbers from which communications are made or received;
(e) subscriber records held or maintained by internet service providers and other electronic communications providers that identify subscribers (name and address), payment details, length of service, type of service utilised, network addresses, and session times/dates and durations; and/or
(f) recordings of telephone conversations or other electronic communications held or maintained by Centre Participants.
3.2.5. Confidentiality of requests for information
The existence and content of requests for assistance by an authority listed in subsection 2.2, and any communications between the AFSA and that authority, must not be disclosed by:
(a) the AFSA or by an officer, employee, delegate or agent of the AFSA; or
(b) any Person coming into possession of the information, without the consent of the other authority unless, and to the extent that, the AFSA is required by law or court order to disclose such information.
3.2.6. Applications to request confidential information
The AFSA may require that an application submitted by an authority listed in subsection 2.2 requesting confidential information shall:
(a) be in writing, except that an urgent request may be oral provided that it is confirmed in writing within ten business days;
(b) describe the confidential information requested and the purpose for which the requesting authority seeks the information;
(c) provide a brief description of the facts supporting the request and the relevant legal powers authorising the request;
(d) specify whether the purpose of the request is for actual or possible criminal, civil or administrative enforcement proceedings relating to a violation of the laws and regulations administered by the requesting authority;
(e) agree that it will not use the confidential information for any other purpose than that for which it was requested unless it has the express permission of the AFSA;
(f) indicate, if known, the identity of any Persons whose rights or interests may be adversely affected by the disclosure of confidential information;
(g) indicate whether obtaining the consent of, or giving notice to, the Person to whom the request for confidential information relates would jeopardise or prejudice the purpose for which the information is sought;
(h) specify whether any other authority, governmental or non-governmental, is co-operating with the requesting authority or seeking information from the confidential files of the requesting authority;
(i) specify whether onward disclosure of confidential information is likely to be necessary and the purpose such disclosure would serve;
(j) agree to revert to the AFSA in the event that it seeks to use the confidential information for any purposes other than those specified in the request;
(k) agree to keep requested confidential information confidential, including the fact that a request for confidential information was made, except as it conforms to these requirements or in response to a legally enforceable demand;
(l) agree, in the event of a legally enforceable demand, that it, the requesting authority, will notify the AFSA prior to complying with the demand, and will assert such appropriate legal exemptions or privileges with respect to such confidential information as may be available;
(m) agree that, prior to providing information to a self-regulatory organisation, the requesting authority will ensure that the self-regulatory organisation is able and will comply on an ongoing basis with the confidentiality provisions agreed to between the requesting authority and the AFSA; and
(n) agree to use its best efforts to protect the confidentiality of confidential information received from the AFSA.
3.2.7. Procedures for handling disclosure of confidential information
The AFSA must implement appropriate procedures for assessing and approving the disclosure of confidential information provided by a Financial Services Regulator under an MoU or other informationsharing arrangement to an authority listed in subsection 2.2, which shall take into account these Rules.
Guidance: Appropriate procedures for handling disclosure The procedures for assessing whether or not to disclose confidential information should include the following:
(a) the receiving party must be notified of the protected status of the confidential information;
(b) the providing Financial Services Regulator must be approached to request written approval for the disclosure of the confidential information to the receiving party;
(c) if a providing Financial Services Regulator does not approve the release of the confidential information, the AFSA must take all reasonable efforts, including any legal steps, to protect the information from disclosure;
(d) if the AFSA’s efforts to protect the confidential information from disclosure are unsuccessful, the AFSA must:
- (i) inform the providing Financial Services Regulator; and
- (ii) request that the receiving party does not make the confidential information public or disclose it to a third party.
3.2.8. Notice of disclosure
If the AFSA intends to disclose confidential information to any of the Persons specified in subsection
2.2.1(b), the AFSA may give notice to the Person(s) to whom the disclosure relates in the following circumstances:
(a) the disclosure relates to a Person’s compelled testimony to a law enforcement
(b) agency for the purpose of criminal proceedings against that Person;
(c) the disclosure relates to private civil litigation, in order that the Person may challenge the request according to the Rules of the AIFC Court; or
(d) there are serious and legitimate concerns about the appropriateness of the disclosure, including where the body requesting the confidential information does not perform a financial services related regulatory function.
Guidance: Factors in determining not to give notice of disclosure The AFSA will not normally give notice of disclosure to the person that is the subject of disclosure if giving notice may:
(a) prejudice an ongoing or pending investigation, whether carried out by the AFSA or another Financial Services Regulator or supervisory agency, or prejudice actions which the AFSA or the Financial Services Regulator or supervisory agency may want to take as a result of an investigation, including freezing assets;
(b) reveal the identity of persons who have made reports in accordance with the provisions on whistleblowing under Part 17 (Whistleblowing) of the Companies Regulations;
(c) prejudice or jeopardise the AFSA’s ability to effectively discharge its monitoring and other regulatory functions;
(d) result in disclosure of information that is not adverse to the person concerned;
(e) undermine other Financial Services Regulators' fitness and propriety tests; or
(f) seriously prejudice the AFSA’s relations with Financial Services Regulators, taking into account the AFSA’s bilateral and international obligations and the need for effective mutual cooperation and information sharing.
3.3. Where information is subject to a legally enforceable demand
If the AFSA receives a legally enforceable demand requiring the disclosure of confidential information obtained from a Financial Services Regulator under a MoU or similar information-sharing arrangement, the AFSA will:
- (a) notify the providing Financial Services Regulator; and
- (b) seek to enforce any legal rights, exemptions or privileges to protect such confidential information that are legally available to it, which may include but are not limited to an objection on the grounds of public interest or legal privilege, or a claim for injunctive relief.
Guidance: Examples of legally enforceable demands
Examples of legally enforceable demands (such as a subpoena, notice or court order) may include:
(a) An order from the AIFC Court requiring the AFSA to disclose confidential information. The Constitutional Statute provides the AIFC Court with jurisdiction in proceedings other than criminal and administrative proceedings in the AIFC and over AIFC bodies including the AFSA.
(b) A legally enforceable order from a competent authority responsible for administering the criminal laws in the Republic of Kazakhstan. The criminal laws of the Republic of Kazakhstan apply in the AIFC, requiring the AFSA to comply with any legally enforceable order.
3.4. Public interest objections
Where appropriate, including where the AFSA has received a legally enforceable demand requiring the disclosure of confidential information obtained from a Financial Services Regulator under a MoU or similar arrangement, the AFSA may apply to the AIFC Court in accordance with Rule 17.15 of the AIFC Court Rules for an order permitting the AFSA to withhold production of a document on the ground that production would damage the public interest.
Guidance: Public interest objections
The AFSA considers that an application to the AIFC Court to withhold information would be appropriate where disclosure of confidential information would:
(a) prejudice the AFSA's ability to perform its functions; or
(b) jeopardise the AFSA's ability to receive information in the future from certain sources, including Financial Services Regulators.
TERMS AND PROCEDURE FOR CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS
Terms and Procedure for Currency Transactions
ON THE TERMS OF AND THE PROCEDURE FOR CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS RELATED TO THE PROVISION OF FINANCIAL AND PROFESSIONAL SERVICES IN THE TERRITORY OF THE ASTANA INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL CENTRE
On the terms of and the procedure for currency transactions related to the provision of financial and professional services in the territory of the Astana International Financial Centre.
In accordance with paragraph 3 of article 5 of the Constitutional Statute of the Republic of Kazakhstan On the Astana International Financial Centre (the Constitutional Statute) and subparagraph 3-3) paragraph 9 of article 3 of The Structure of the Bodies of the Astana International Financial Centre, adopted by the Resolution of the Management Council on May 26, 2016 No. 20-27/1814, as amended by the Resolution of the Management Council, the Amendments and Supplementations to the Structure of the Bodies of the AIFC, adopted on October 9, 2017 No.17-61-6.2, the Governor of the Astana International Financial Centre (AIFC) ORDERS:
1)
Currency transactions related to the provision of financial and professional services in the territory of the AIFC shall be carried out in compliance with the Rules on Currency Operations Carrying-out in the Republic of Kazakhstan, approved by the Resolution of the Board of the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan No. 40 dated 30 March 2019 (the “Rules on Currency Operations”) subject tomodifications provided for in paragraph 1.1) - 1.2) hereof.
1.1) The following modifications apply to the Rules on Currency Operations:
a) the references to "authorised bank" shall be read as references to "AIFC participant authorized by the AFSA to carry out the Regulated Activity on “Providing Money Services” in the AIFC;
b) the reference to “the National Bank” or “the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan” in rule 8, rule 28, and Annex 1 to the Rules on Currency Operations shall be read as references to “the Astana Financial Services Authority”;
c) rule 19 of the Rules on Currency Operations does not apply to the legal entities incorporated outside the Republic of Kazakhstan and recognised by the AIFC and the AIFC Participants that carry out financial services or professional services in the AIFC;
d) the information referred in Annex 2 to the Rules on Currency Operations shall be submitted to the Astana Financial Services Authority.
1.2) The Astana Financial Services Authority shall:
a) inform the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan about the facts referred in rule 8 of the Rules on Currency Operations in a timely manner;
b) submit the information, referred in subparagraph (d) of paragraph 1-1hereof, to the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan.”
2)
The Astana Financial Services Authority shall develop the AIFC Act that establishes the terms of and the procedure for foreign exchange transactions related to the provision of financial and professional services in the territory of the AIFC and following approval by the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan shall submit it to the AIFC Governor for its adoption.
3)
This order comes into effect from the date of its signing and shall remain in force until the AIFC Act is adopted, provided for in Paragraph 2 hereof.
FINANCIAL SERVICES EXEMPT FROM CORPORATE TAX
Financial Services Exempt from Corporate Tax
Services Exempt from Corporate Income Tax
1. The list of financial services that are exempt from corporate income tax are specified in Schedule 1.
1.1 In the event a Centre Participant carries on any service specified in Schedule 1, the Centre Participant shall not be liable for corporation tax imposed by the Republic of Kazakhstan on income or capital resulting from that service provided the service is carried on in full compliance with AFSA Rules.
Schedule 1
A Regulated Activity and Market Activity listed in GEN.
SCHEDULE 1 of GEN: REGULATED ACTIVITIES
Capital Markets
1. Dealing in Investments as Principal
Dealing in Investments as Principal means buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting any Investment as principal.
2. Dealing in Investments as Agent
Dealing in Investments as Agent means buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting any Investment as agent.
Asset Management
3. Managing Investments
Managing Investments means managing on a discretionary basis assets belonging to another Person where the assets include any Investment.
4. Managing a Collective Investment Scheme
(1) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme means establishing, managing or otherwise operating or winding up a Collective Investment Scheme.
(2) To the extent that any activity under (1) constitutes Managing Assets, Providing Fund Administration, Dealing as Agent, Dealing as Principal, Arranging Deals in Investments, or Providing Custody, such a Regulated Activity is taken to be incorporated within Managing a Collective Investment Scheme.
5. Providing Custody
Providing Custody means one or more of the following activities:
- (a) safeguarding and administering Investments belonging to another Person; or
- (b) in the case of a Fund, safeguarding and administering Fund Property.
6. Arranging Custody
Arranging Custody means arranging for one or more Persons to carry on the Regulated Activity of Providing Custody.
7. Providing Trust Services
Providing Trust Services means:
- (a) the provision of services with respect to the creation of an express trust;
- (b) arranging for any Person to act as a trustee in respect of any express trust;
- (c) acting as trustee in respect of an express trust;
- (d) the provision of Trust Administration Services in respect of an express trust; or
- (e) acting as protector or enforcer in respect of an express trust.
8. Providing Fund Administration
Providing Fund Administration means providing one or more of the following services in relation to a Fund:
(a) processing dealing instructions including subscriptions, redemptions, stock transfers and arranging settlements;
(b) valuing of assets and performing net asset value calculations;
(c) maintaining the share register and Unitholder registration details;
(d) performing anti money laundering requirements;
(e) undertaking transaction monitoring and reconciliation functions;
(f) performing administrative activities in relation to banking, cash management, treasury and foreign exchange;
(g) producing financial statements, other than as the Fund’s registered auditor; or
(h) communicating with participants, the Fund, the Fund Manager, and investment managers, the prime brokers, the Regulators and any other parties in relation to the administration of the Fund.
9. Acting as the Trustee of a Fund
(1) Acting as the Trustee of a Fund means holding the assets of a Fund on trust for the Unitholders where the Fund is in the form of an Investment Trust.
(2) To the extent that any activity under (1) constitutes Providing Fund Administration or Providing Custody, such a Financial Service is taken to be incorporated within Acting as the Trustee of a Fund.
Private Banking
10. Advising on Investments
(1) Advising on Investments means giving advice to a Person in his capacity as an investor or potential investor, or in his capacity as agent for an investor or a potential investor, on the merits of his buying, selling, holding, subscribing for or underwriting a particular Investment (whether as principal or agent).
(2) In sub‐paragraph (1), "advice" includes a statement, opinion or report:
- (a) where the intention is to influence a Person, in making a decision, to select a particular Investment or an interest in a particular Investment; or
- (b) which could reasonably be regarded as being intended to have such an influence.
11. Arranging Deals in Investments
Arranging Deals in Investments means making arrangements with a view to another Person buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting an Investment (whether that other Person is acting as principal or agent).
Islamic Finance
12. Managing a Profit Sharing Investment Account
Managing a Profit Sharing Investment Account means managing an account or portfolio which is a Profit Sharing Investment Account.
Other financial services
13. Insurance Intermediation
(1) Insurance Intermediation means:
- (a) advising on a Contract of Insurance;
- (b) acting as agent for another Person in relation to the buying or selling of a Contract of Insurance for that other Person; or
- (c) making arrangements with a view to another Person, whether as principal or agent, buying a Contract of Insurance.
(2) In (1)(a), ‘advising’ means giving advice to a Person in his capacity as a Policyholder, or in his capacity as agent for a Policyholder on the merits of his entering into a Contract of Insurance whether as principal or agent.
(3) In (2), ‘advice’ includes a statement, opinion or report:
- (a) where the intention is to influence a Person, in making a decision, to select a Contract of Insurance or insurance cover; or
- (b) which could reasonably be regarded as being intended to have such influence.
(4) The arrangements in (1)(c) include arrangements which do not bring about the transaction.
(5) The arrangements in (1)(c) do not include the mere provision of information about:
- (a) a Contract of Insurance, insurer, insurance intermediary or insurance manager to a Policyholder; or
- (b) a Policyholder to an insurer, insurance intermediary or insurance manager, if the Person providing that information does not take any further steps to assist in concluding the Contract of Insurance.
14. Operating a Representative Office
(1) Operating a Representative Office means the marketing, from an establishment in the AIFC, of one or more financial services or investments which are offered in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC.
(2) For the purposes of this paragraph, "marketing" means:
(a) providing information on one or more investments or financial services;
(b) engaging in promotions in relation to such information provision; or
(c) making introductions or referrals in connection with the offer of financial services or investments; provided that such activities do not constitute:
(d) advising on Investments; or
(e) receiving and transmitting orders in relation to an Investment.
(3) An Authorised Person which is authorised to Operate a Representative Office may not have a Licence to carry on any other Regulated Activity.
(4) An Authorised Person which does not have a Licence to Operate a Representative Office does not Operate a Representative Office if it undertakes any activities of the kind described in sub‐paragraph (2) that constitute marketing.
(5) Any communication which amounts to marketing in respect of a Financial Service or Investment, which is issued by or on behalf of a Government or non‐commercial governmental entity, does not constitute marketing for the purposes of sub‐paragraph (2).
SCHEDULE 3 of FSFR: Market Activities
1. Operating an Exchange
(1) Operating an Exchange means operating a facility which functions regularly and brings together multiple third party buying and selling interests in Investments, in accordance with its non-discretionary rules, in a way that can result in a contract in respect of Investments admitted to trading or traded on the facility.
(2) The facility referred to in (1) may be organised on a temporary or permanent basis and can be an order driven system, a quote driven system or a hybrid of such systems that enables the market to operate electronic trading or trading by other means.
2. Operating a Clearing House
(1) Operating a Clearing House means operating a facility where confirmation, clearance and/or settlement of transactions in Investments are carried out in accordance with the nondiscretionary rules of the facility, under which the Person operating the facility:
(a) becomes a Central Counterparty (“CCP”); or
(b) provides a book-entry Securities Settlement System (“SSS”), regardless of whether or not such a Person also operates a Central Securities Depository.
(2) In (1):
(a) “confirmation” means verifying the terms of a transaction and checking that Investments, cash or both, including margin, are available to secure the exposure arising from the transaction;
(b) “clearance” means transmitting and reconciling orders prior to settlement and establishing settlement positions, including the calculation of net positions arising from transactions in Investments; and
(c) “settlement” means the completion of a transaction with the aim of securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise) of the rights and liabilities in relation to the transaction.
(3) In (1)(a), a Person operates as a CCP where it:
(a) ensures the performance of open contracts relating to Investments made on a facility for trading Securities; and
(b) does so by interposing itself between counterparties to such contracts by becoming either the buyer to every seller, or the seller to every buyer.
(4) In (1)(b), a Person operates an SSS where it operates a system which enables Investments held in accounts to be transferred and settled by book entry according to a set of predetermined multilateral rules.
(5) Acting as a Central Securities Depository in (1) means holding Investments in uncertificated (dematerialised) form to enable book entry transfer of such Investments for the purposes of clearing or settlement of transactions on its own facility and on any other similar facility.
GLOSSARY
Glossary
1. APPLICATION
The AIFC Glossary sets out interpretative provisions of words and expressions used in the following AIFC Financial Services Regulations and Rules:
(a) AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations (FSFR)
(b) AIFC General Rules (GEN)
(c) AIFC Authorised Market Institutions Rules (AMI)
(d) AIFC Market Rules (MAR)
(e) AIFC Recognition Rules (REC)
(f) AIFC Conduct of Business Rules (COB)
(g) AIFC Representative Office Rules (REP)
(h) AIFC Fees Rules (FEES)
(i) AIFC Anti-Money Laundering, Counter – Terrorist Financing and Sanctions Rules (AML)
(j) AIFC Collective Investment Scheme Rules (CIS)
(k) AIFC Auditor Rules (AUD)
(l) AIFC Prudential Rules for Investment Firms (PRU(INV))
(m) AIFC Prudential Rules for Insurance Intermediaries (PRU (INT)
(n) AIFC Islamic Finance Rules (IFR)
(o) AIFC Islamic Banking Business Prudential Rules (IBB)
(p) AIFC Banking Business Prudential Rules (BBR)
(q) AIFC Insurance and Reinsurance Prudential Rules (PINS)
(r) AIFC Takaful and Retakaful Prudential Rules (TRR)
(s) AIFC Multilateral and Organised Trading Facilities Rules (MOTF)
(t) AIFC Recovery and Resolution Rules (RAR)
(u) AIFC Rules on Regulation of Digital Asset Activities (DAA).
2. INTERPRETATION
Accepting Deposits |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 17 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Accredited Investor |
(In MAR) means: (i) any natural person who acquires or intends to acquire Securities for a total consideration of at least USD100,000 (or an equivalent amount in another currency) per Person for each separate offer; or (ii) an Authorised Person; or (iii) a Body Corporate. |
Acting as the Trustee of a Fund |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 9 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Admission to Clearing Rules |
(In AMI) rules prepared by an Authorised Clearing House in accordance with AMI 4.1. |
Admission to Trading Rules |
(In AMI) rules prepared by an Authorised Investment Exchange in accordance with AMI 3.2. |
Advising on a Credit Facility |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 19 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Advising on Investments |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Advisor |
In relation to a Fund, a Person who is retained by the Fund, its Eligible Custodian, a Person providing oversight or its Fund Manager under a commercial arrangement which is not a contract of service: (a) to supply any of them with the advice in relation to the Fund as to the merits of investment opportunities or information relevant to the making of judgments about the merits of investment opportunities; or (b) to exercise for any of the functions concerning the management of the Fund Property. |
Affiliate |
In relation to a Firm, any entity of which the Firm holds directly or indirectly or controls 10% or more but less than a majority of the voting power. |
AFSA |
Astana Financial Services Authority |
AIFC |
Astana International Financial Centre |
AIFC Court |
The court specified under Article 13 of the Constitutional Law. |
AIFC ESG Debenture |
A Debenture that meets the requirements of MAR 1.10.2. |
AIFC Operation |
The PRU Investment Business of an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm that is (a) carried on through an establishment in the AIFC or (b) carried on through an establishment outside the AIFC but with customers who are resident in the AIFC. |
AIFC-Incorporated Insurer |
An Insurer that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC |
AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator |
A Takaful Operator that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC |
AIFC Legal Services Board |
A designated body for the registration and regulation of Legal Advisers to maintain the safety and soundness of the legal services market in the AIFC. |
Algorithmic stablecoin |
A Digital Asset which uses, or purports to use, an algorithm to increase or decrease the supply of Digital Assets in order to stabilise its price or reduce volatility in its price |
AMI |
The Authorised Market Institution Rules. |
AML |
The Anti-Money Laundering, Counter-Terrorist Financing and Sanctions Rules. |
AML Return |
A report in a prescribed format to be filed on an annual basis as described in AML 13.7. |
Ancillary Service |
An activity specified in Schedule 2 of GEN. |
Ancillary Service Provider |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more Ancillary Services. |
Annual Operating Expenditure |
The amount determined as such in accordance with PRU(INV) 4.4. |
Approved Actuary |
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.5 (Approved Actuary) The Approved Individual performing the role identified at TRR 2.4.5 (Approved Actuary). |
Approved ECAI |
An External Credit Assessment Institution in respect of which the AFSA has given approval for its ratings to be relied on by PRU Investment Firms in relation to PRU(INV) 4. |
Approved Individual |
An individual who is: 1) approved by the AFSA to carry out a Controlled Function; and 2) approved by the AFSA to be appointed by a DNFBP and Registered Auditor to carry out the MLRO function |
Arranging a Credit Facility |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 20 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Arranging Custody |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 6 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Arranging Deals in Investments |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 11 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Assessed Professional Client |
Has the meaning given in COB 2.5.1 and 2.5.6. |
Asset Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 4.1 of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement) The capital component identified in paragraph 4.1 of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement |
Associate |
In respect of a Person ‘A’, any Person, including an affiliated company which is: (a) an Undertaking in the same Group as A; or (b) any other person whose business or domestic relationship with A or his Associate might reasonably be expected to give rise to a community of interest between them which may involve a conflict of interest in dealings with third parties. |
Associated Party |
PINS: (a) a holding company, subsidiary or related company of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, (b) a subsidiary or related company of a holding company of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, (c) a holding company of a subsidiary of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, or (d) a company that, alone or with associates, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, more than 50% of the voting power in the general meeting of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer. TRR: (a) a holding company, subsidiary or related company of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator, (b) a subsidiary or related company of a holding company of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator, (c) a holding company of a subsidiary of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator, or (d) a company that, alone or with associates, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, more than 50% of the voting power in the general meeting of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator. |
AT1 Capital |
Additional Tier 1 Capital, as defined in BBR 4.16 In (RAR) rules mean Additional Tier 1 Capital. |
Audit Personnel |
An individual: (a) who is employed or appointed by an Auditor in connection with the Auditor's business in the AIFC, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or (b) whose services provided in the AIFC, under an arrangement between the Auditor and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of the Auditor. |
Audit Principal |
A natural person who is appointed by an Auditor under AUD 2.1.3(d). |
Auditor |
(a)in relation to an Authorised Person which is incorporated in the AIFC has the meaning given in AUD 1. (b)in relation to an Authorised Person which is a Recognised Company or Recognised Partnership – an auditor of that Authorised Person; (c)in relation to a Reporting Entity – an auditor. |
Authorised Clearing House |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Clearing House. |
Authorised Crowdfunding Platform |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform and/or the Market Activity of Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform. |
Authorised Firm |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more Regulated Activities. |
Authorised Investment Exchange |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating an Investment Exchange. |
Authorised Market Institution |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more Market Activities. |
Authorised Person |
Either an Authorised Firm or an Authorised Market Institution |
Authorised Promoter |
Has the meaning given in COB 3.3.1. |
Bail-In Tool |
The Resolution Tool referred to in section 147(1)(i) and 149 of the FSFR. |
Bank |
A Regulated Financial Institution that is authorised to accept deposits or Open and Operate Bank Accounts or both, as defined in BBR 1.5. |
Bank Account |
A Correspondent Account, Current Account, or Savings Account. |
Banking Book |
Includes all on and off-balance sheet positions, exposures, items, which are not included in the Trading Book. |
Banking Business Firm |
Has the meaning given in AIFC BBR rule 1.4 |
Base Capital Requirement |
The meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(3). For Banking Business Firms has the meaning given in BBR 4.10. |
Basel Requirements |
The rules and guidance from time to time published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. |
BBR |
AIFC Banking Business Prudential Rules |
Beneficial owner |
(1) Beneficial owner, in relation to a customer, is: (a) for an account – a natural person who ultimately owns, or exercises effective control over the account; (b) for a transaction – a natural person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the transaction is being conducted; (c) for a legal person or arrangement – a natural person who ultimately owns or exercises effective control over the legal person or arrangement. (2) Without limiting subrule (1) (a), a beneficial owner for an account includes any natural person on whose instructions the signatories of an account, or any intermediaries instructing such signatories, are acting (either temporarily or permanently). (3) Without limiting (1) (c), the beneficial owner for: (a) a legal person includes: (i) a natural person who, directly or indirectly, owns or controls at least 25% of the shares, participation interest or voting rights of the legal person; or (ii) a natural person who, directly or indirectly, otherwise exercises control over the legal person’s management; (b) a legal arrangement that administers and distributes funds (such as a trust) includes: (i) where the beneficiaries and their distributions have already been determined - a natural person who is to receive at least 25% of the funds of the arrangement; (ii) where the beneficiaries or their distributions have not already been determined – a natural person who is part of the class of natural persons for whose benefit the arrangement is established or operated and who could receive at least 25% of the funds of the arrangement; or (iii) where a natural person, directly or indirectly, exercises control over at least 25% (by value) of the property of the arrangement. |
Board |
In reference to a corporation, the board of directors of the corporation. |
Body Corporate |
Any body corporate, including a limited liability partnership and a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the AIFC. |
Borrower |
A Person who seeks and/or receives funding in the form of one or more loans under an agreement with a lender via the sale of a Debenture which may be facilitated via a Loan Crowdfunding Platform as set out in paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 of AIFC General Rules. |
BPG |
AIFC Banking Business Prudential Guideline |
Branch |
A Centre Participant which is incorporated pursuant to the law of a jurisdiction other than the AIFC. |
Broker Dealer |
Has the meaning given in BBR 1.6 |
Business Reorganisation Plan |
A plan drawn up in accordance with RAR 4.4.7. |
Business Rules |
(In AMI) rules established and maintained by an Authorised Market Institution in accordance with AMI 2.5.1. (In MOTF) rules established and maintained by a MTF Operator or an OTF Operator in accordance with MOTF 6.1. |
Capital Conservation Buffer |
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.31 |
Capital Floor |
The minimum paid up share capital, or equivalent in any currency acceptable to the AFSA, which must be maintained by an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer pursuant to paragraph 1.1 (The Capital Floor) of PINS Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)). The minimum paid up share capital, or equivalent in any currency acceptable to the AFSA, which must be maintained by an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator pursuant to paragraph 1.1 (The Capital Floor) of TRR Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)). |
Capital Resources |
In PRU(INV) has the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.2. In PRU(INT) has the meaning given in PRU(INT) 3.1(1). |
Captive Insurance Business |
The business of Effecting or Carrying out Contracts of Insurance only for the business or operations of the Group to which the Captive Insurer belongs. |
Captive Insurer |
An Authorised Firm with a Licence to carry on Insurance Business only for the business or operations of the Group to which it belongs. |
Captive Takaful Business |
The business of Effecting or Carrying out Takaful Contracts only for the business or operations of the Group to which the Captive Takaful Operator belongs. |
Captive Takaful Operator |
An Authorised Firm with a Licence to carry on Takaful Business only for the business or operations of the Group to which it belongs. |
CDD |
Customer Due Diligence, as described generally in AML 6 |
Central Counterparty |
A legal person that interposes itself between the counterparties to the contracts traded on one or more financial markets, becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer. |
Central Securities Depository |
A Person who holds Securities or Units in a Listed Fund in uncertificated (dematerialised) form so as to act as a repository of ownership entitlements to such Investments to enable book entry transfer of such Investments for the purposes of settlement of transactions. |
Centralised Digital Asset |
Digital Asset issued by a single or several administrating authorities that establish the rules for its use, maintain a central payment ledger, and have authority to redeem the Currency (withdraw it from circulation). |
Centre Bodies |
The bodies identified in Article 9 of the Constitutional Statute |
Centre Participant |
As defined in Article 1(5) of the Constitutional Statute: “legal entities incorporated pursuant to the acting law of the Centre, and other legal entities accredited by the Centre” |
CET1 Capital |
(In RAR) rules means Common Equity Tier 1 Capital , described in BBR. |
Certificate |
An instrument: (a) which confers on the holder contractual or property rights to or in respect of a Share, Debenture or Warrant held by a Person; and (b) the transfer of which may be effected by the holder without the consent of that other Person; but excludes rights under an Option. |
CIS |
The Collective Investment Scheme Rules. |
Client |
A Person to whom a Centre Participant provides, intends to provide or has provided a service in the course of carrying on a Regulated Activity, Market Activity or Ancillary Service. |
Client Assets |
Client Money and Client Investments |
Client Investment |
An investment as defined in COB 8.3.1. |
Client Investment Account |
An account as defined in COB 8.3.4. |
Client Investments Auditor's Report |
The report specified in COB 8.3.14. |
Client Investments Rule |
The Rules contained in COB 8.3. |
Client Money |
In COB 8, has the meaning given in Rule 8.2.1; In COB 11, Money of any currency that an Insurance Intermediary receives or holds for, or on behalf of, a Client in the course of, or in connection with, Insurance Intermediation, except Money which is: (a) due and payable by the Client to the Insurance Intermediary: (i) for its own account; or (ii) in its capacity as agent of an insurer where the Insurance Intermediary acts in accordance with COB 11.8.4; (b) otherwise received by the Insurance Intermediary under an arrangement made between an insurer and another Person that has authority to underwrite risks, settle claims, or handle refunds of premiums on behalf of that insurer outside the AIFC and where the Money relates to that business. |
Client Money Account |
Has the meaning given in COB 8.2.4 |
Client Money Auditor's Report |
The report specified in COB 8.2.19. |
Client Money Distribution Rules |
In COB 8, the Rules contained in COB 8.2.16; In COB 11, the Rules contained in COB 11.8.14. |
Client Money Rules |
The Rules contained in COB 8.2. |
COB |
The Conduct of Business Rules. |
Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants |
The code of ethics for accountants issued by the International Ethics Standard Board for Accountants (IESBA) of IFAC. |
Cold Digital wallet
|
A Digital wallet that is stored in a platform (device) that is not connected to the Internet. |
Collateral |
An Investment which belongs to a Client has been paid for in full by the Client and which is held or controlled by the Authorised Firm under the terms of a deposit, pledge, charge or other security arrangement. |
Collective Investment Scheme |
As defined in section 92 of the Framework Regulations, which is, in summary, any arrangements with respect to property of any description, including money, the purpose or effect of which is to enable Persons taking part in the arrangements (whether by becoming owners of the property or any part of it or otherwise) to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income. |
Commercial Captive Finance |
As an activity of a Credit Provider, means providing finance to a Professional Client or a Market Counterparty to enable them to lease or purchase (through finance lease, operating lease, hire-purchase or a similar form) an asset (usually immoveable properties, machinery, vehicles and equipment) from the Credit Provider’s parent entity or from a member of the parent entity’s group. |
Commitment Period |
The period specified by an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform in which lenders or Investors may commit to lending to a particular Borrower or investing with a particular Issuer. |
Commodities Risk Capital Requirement |
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG. |
Commodity |
Any goods of a fungible nature that are capable of being delivered, including but not limited to metals and their ores and alloys, agricultural products, energy, such as gas and electricity, and Environmental Instruments. |
Commodity Derivative |
A Derivative in respect of a Commodity |
Company service provider |
A Company service provider is a Person, not captured by (a) to (e) of the definition of DNFBP that, by way of business, provides any of the following services to a customer: (a) acting as an agent of legal persons to form a company; (b) acting as, or arranging for another Person to act as, a director or secretary of a company, a partner of a partnership, or a similar position in relation to other legal persons; (c) providing a registered office, business address, or accommodation, correspondence or administrative address for a company, a partnership, or any other legal person or arrangement; or (d) acting as, or arranging for another Person to act as, a nominee shareholder for another Person, including through acting on trust for discretionary purposes. |
Compliance Officer |
The individual performing the Controlled Function identified in GEN 2.2.5. |
Connected Person |
In relation to a Person (A), a Person which has or at any relevant time had the following relationship to A: (a) a member of A’s Group; (b) a Controller of A; (c) a member of a partnership of which A is a member; (d) an Employee or former Employee of A; (e) if A is a Body Corporate: (i) an officer or manager of A or of a parent of A; (ii) an agent of A or of a parent of A; (f) if A is a Partnership is or has been a member, manager or agent of A; or (g) if A is an unincorporated association of persons which is not a Partnership, is or has been an officer, manager or agent of A. |
Consolidated Return |
A Consolidated prudential return means a prudential return which reflects the accounts, statements and reports of a Bank consolidated with those of the other members of its Financial Group |
Constitution |
In relation to a Fund: (a) which is in the form of a Body Corporate, the instrument of incorporation; (b) which is in the form of a Trust, the trust deed; (c) which is in the form of a Partnership, the partnership deed; or (d) adopting a form other than one specified in (a) to (c), any instrument creating the legal form of the Fund to which the Fund Manager is a party setting out provisions relating to any aspect of the operation or management of the Fund.
|
Contingency Funding Plan |
Has the meaning given in BBR 9.10 |
Contingent Liability Transaction |
A Derivative under the terms of which the Client will or may be liable to make further payments (other than charges, and whether or not secured by margin) when the transaction falls to be completed or upon the earlier closing out of his position. |
Contract for Differences |
(1) Subject to sub‐paragraph (2), rights under— (a) a contract for differences; or (b) any other contract the purpose or pretended purpose of which is to secure a profit or avoid a loss by reference to fluctuations in— (i) the value or price of property of any description; or (ii) an index or other factor designated for that purpose in the contract. (2) There are excluded from sub‐paragraph (1) — (a) rights under a contract if the parties intend that the profit is to be secured or the loss is to be avoided by one or more of the parties taking delivery of any property to which the contract relates; (b) rights under a contract under which money is received by way of deposit on terms that any interest or other return to be paid on the sum deposited will be calculated by reference to fluctuations in an index or other factor; (c) rights under a Contract of Insurance. |
Contract of Insurance |
Any contract of insurance or contract of reinsurance. |
Contract of Insurance |
Any enforceable contract under which a 'provider' undertakes: (1) in consideration of one or more payments; (2) to pay money or provide a corresponding benefit (including in some cases services to be paid for by the provider) to a 'recipient'; (3) in response to a defined event the occurrence of which is uncertain (either as to when it will occur or as to whether it will occur at all) and adverse to the interests of the recipient |
Contract of Reinsurance |
A Contract of Insurance covering all or part of a risk to which a Person is exposed under a Contract of Insurance |
Contravention |
The conduct identified in section 119 of FSFR. |
Control |
In relation to a Family Business or Family Entity, the exercise of at least 75 per cent of voting control or other direct or indirect control over the affairs of that Family Business or Family Entity by: (a) one or more members of a Single Family; (b) one or more Family Fiduciary Structures; (c) one or more Family Entities; or (d) a combinations of any of the above. |
Controlled Function |
A function of an Authorised Person that may only be carried out by an Approved Individual. |
Controller |
A Person who, either alone or with any Associate: (a) holds 10% or more of the shares in either the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person; or (b) is entitled to exercise, or controls the exercise of, 10% or more of the voting rights in either the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person; or (c) is able to exercise significant influence over the management of the Authorised Person as a result of holding shares or being able to exercise voting rights in the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person or having a current exercisable right to acquire such shares or voting rights. |
Conversion Rate |
The ratio that determines the number of Shares into which a liability of a specific class will be converted, by reference either to a single instrument of the class or to a specified unit of value of a debt claim. |
Core Business Lines |
Business lines and associated services which represent material sources of revenue, profit or franchise value for an Authorised Person or its Group. |
Corporate Governance Principles |
The principles prescribed in MAR 2.2. |
Corpporate Treasury Centre |
An entity within a multinational corporation carrying out only corporate treasury activities. |
Correspondent Account |
An arrangement under which a Bank (correspondent) holds funds on behalf of other bank (respondent) to make payments and other related services for or on behalf of the respondent bank. |
Counterparty Grade |
The grade of an asset according to the rating of its counterparty, in accordance with the table at paragraph 3.1 (Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) The grade of an asset according to the rating of its counterparty, in accordance with the table at paragraph 3.1 (Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Credit Conversion Factor |
In relation to an off-balance sheet exposure of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm. |
Credit Equivalent Amount |
Has the meaning given in BBR 5.11 |
Credit Facility |
Any facility which includes any arrangement or agreement which extends monetary credit whether funded or unfunded to a Person including but not limited to any loan or syndicated loan, mortgage, overdraft, financial lease, letter of credit, financial guarantee, trade finance, transaction finance, project finance, asset finance or, where applicable, Commercial Captive Finance. |
Credit Provider |
Has the meaning given in BBR 1.7 |
Credit Rating |
An opinion regarding the creditworthiness of an entity, Security, debt or other financial obligation which is disseminated to the public or distributed to a Person by subscription and expressed using an established and defined ranking system regarding the creditworthiness of the rating subject. |
Credit Risk |
In relation to an Authorised Firm, the risk of loss if a counterparty fails to perform or on (or) meet its financial obligation to the Authorised Firm. |
Credit Risk Capital Requirement |
The meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(4). For Banking Business Firms has the meaning given in BBR 4.11 and in Chapter 5 of BBR. |
Credit Risk Mitigation |
Has the meaning given in BBR 5.14 |
Critical Functions |
Activities, services or operations the discontinuance of which is likely to lead to: (a) the disruption of services that are essential to the financial services industry in the AIFC or to the AIFC economy; or (b) the disruption of financial stability due to the size, market share, external or internal interconnectedness, complexity, or crossborder activities of an Authorised Person or its Group, with particular regard to the substitutability of those activities, services or operations. |
Crowdfunding Platform |
An Investment Crowdfunding Platform or a Loan Crowdfunding Platform. |
CTF |
Counter-Terrorist Financing. |
Current Account |
An account with a Bank held in the name of a Client through which the Client can place funds, withdraw cash and execute and receive payment transactions. |
Customer |
Unless otherwise indicated, a customer is: (a) A person where, in relation to a business relationship between the person and a Relevant Person, there is a firm intention or commitment by each party to enter into a contractual relationship or where there is a firm commitment by each party to enter into a transaction, in connection with a product or service provided by the Relevant Person; (b) A client of an Authorised Firm; (c) A member, prospective member, or an applicant for admission of Investments to trading on an Authorised Market Institution; or (d) A person with whom a Relevant Person is otherwise establishing or has established a business relationship. |
Dealing in Investments as Agent |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 2 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Dealing in Investments as Principal |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Debenture |
An instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness, whether secured or not, but excludes: (a) an instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness for, or for money borrowed to defray, the consideration payable under a contract for the supply of goods or services; (b) a cheque or other bill of exchange, a banker’s draft or a letter of credit (but not a bill of exchange accepted by a banker); (c) a banknote, a statement showing a balance on a bank account, or a lease or other disposition of property; and (d) a Contract of Insurance. |
Decentralised Digital Asset |
Digital Asset that has no central administrating authority, and no central monitoring or oversight, gives rise to no claims on their issuer, and contains no contractual right to receive Fiat Currency or another financial asset. |
Decision Notice |
A notice issued by the AFSA pursuant to paragraph 5 of schedule 1 of the Framework Regulations. |
Deemed Professional Client |
Has the meaning given in COB 2.4.1. |
Default Rules |
(In AMI) rules prepared by an Authorised Market Institution in accordance with AMI 3.5 or AMI 4.6. (In MOTF) rules prepared by a MTF Operator or OTF Operator in accordance with MOTF 17.1. |
Definitive Valuation |
A valuation referred to in RAR 4.1.5, which is carried out after a Provisional Valuation. |
Delivery Versus Payment Transaction (DVP) |
A transaction in which the transfer of Investments and the payment of Money between the buyer and the seller are intended to occur simultaneously. |
Deposit |
1. A Deposit means a sum of money paid on terms: (a) under which it will be repaid, with or without interest or a premium, and either on demand or at a time or in circumstances agreed by or on behalf of the Person making the payment and the Person receiving it; and (b) which is not relevant to the provision of property (other than currency) or services or the giving of security. 2. In (1) money is paid on terms which are relevant to the provision of property or services or the giving of security if: (a) it is paid by way of advance or part payment under a contract for the sale, hire or other provision of property or services, and is repayable only in the event that the property or services are not in fact sold, hired or otherwise provided; (b) it is paid by way of security for the performance of a contract or by way of security in respect of loss which may result from the non-performance of a contract; or without prejudice to (b), it is paid by way of security for the delivery up of property, whether in a particular state of repair or otherwise. Exclusions .3. A sum is not a Deposit if it is paid: (a) by a Person in the course of carrying on a business consisting wholly or to a significant extent of lending money; (b) by one company to another at a time when both are members of the same Group: (c) by an Authorised Firm authiruseto carry on the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits; (d) by a Person who is a close relative of the Person receiving it or who is a director, manager or Controller of that Person .4. A sum is not a Deposit if it is received: (a) by a lawyer acting in his professional capacity; (b) by an accountant acting in his professional capacity; (c) by an Authorised Firm or an Authorised Market Institution authorised to carry on any one or more of the Regulated Activities defined in Schedule 1 of the GEN, except Accepting Deposits, in the course of or for the purpose of any such Regulated Activity disregarding any applicable exclusions; or by a Person as consideration for the isuue by him of a Debenture. |
Derivative |
An Option, a Future or a Contract for Differences. |
Derivative Token |
A digital representation of a Derivative that is issued, transferred and stored using DLT or other similar technology approved by the AFSA. |
Designated Functions |
Any of the functions specified in GEN 2.3. |
Designated Individual |
An individual who is appointed by an Authorised Person to carry out a Designated Function |
Developing FinTech Activities |
The activity as defined in paragraph 2.3.1 of FINTECH |
Digital Asset Business |
Any one or more of the following Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets: (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal; (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent; (c) Managing Investments; (d) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme; (e) Providing Custody; (f) Arranging Custody; (g) Advising on Investments; (h) Arranging Deals in Investments; (i) Providing Money Services; and (j) Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility.
A Person wishing to carry on or more of the above Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets, cannot carry on the Regulated Activities in relation to other types of Investments. |
Digital Asset Derivative |
A Derivative the value of which is determined by reference to: a Digital Asset; or an index that includes a Digital Asset. |
DASP |
Digital Asset Service Provider |
Digital Asset Service Provider |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more of the following Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets: (a) Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility; (b) Dealing in Investments as Principal; (c) Dealing in Investments as Agent; (d) Managing Investments; (e) Providing Custody; (f) Arranging Custody; (g) Advising on Investments; (h) Arranging Deals in Investments; and (i) Providing Money Services.
A Person wishing to carry on one or more of the above Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets, cannot carry on the Regulated Activities in relation to other types of Investments. |
DATF |
Digital Asset Trading Facility |
Digital Asset Trading Facility |
A facility on which Digital Assets, rights or interests in Digital Assets are traded. |
Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator |
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility. |
Digital wallet (or E-wallet)
|
A means (software application, electronic device or other mechanism/medium) for holding, storing and transferring Digital Asset, E-money and/or other assets, investments. |
Digital wallet Service Provider |
An Authorised Firm Providing Custody of Investment Tokens, Qualified Investment Tokens or Digital Assets by holding and controlling the public and private cryptographic keys relating to the Investment Tokens, Qualified Investment Tokens or Digital Assets. |
Direct Access Member |
In relation to an Authorised Market Institution, means a Person that the Authorised Market Institution admits as a Member in accordance with AMI 2.6.1 (1) (d). |
Direct Electronic Access |
Direct Electronic Access means: (a) an arrangement (called direct market access), through which a Member or a client of a member is able to electronically transmit, using the Member’s trading code, an order relating to a Digital Asset, Security, Unit in a Listed Fund or Qualified Investment directly to the facility operated by the Authorised Market Institution, Diital Asset Trading Facility Operator or MTF or OTF Operator. It includes arrangements for the use, by a Person, of the infrastructure (or connecting system) of the Member, client of the Member or another participant; or (b) an arrangement (called sponsored access) through which a Member or a client of a member is able to electronically transmit, using the Member’s trading code, an order to the facility operated by the Authorised Market Institution or MTF or OTF Operator without using the infrastructure (or connecting system) of the Member or another participant or client. |
Direct Electronic Access Rules |
(In AMI) the rules prepared by an Authorised Market Institution in accordance with AMI 2.7. |
Director |
A Person, by whatever name called, who is: (a) appointed to the position of a director; or (b) appointed to the position of an alternate director, and is acting in that capacity; or (c) not validly appointed as a director but is acting in the position of a director (i.e. a de-facto director). |
Distribution Event |
A distribution event is: (a) the appointment of a liquidator, receiver or administrator, or trustee in bankruptcy, over the Authorised Firm or its Nominee Company; (b) the appointment of a liquidator, receiver or administrator, or trustee in bankruptcy, over a Third-Party Account Provider of the Authorised Firm or its Nominee Company; or (c) the coming into force of a direction by the AFSA in respect of all Client Assets held by the Authorised Firm. |
DLT (Distributed Ledger Technology) |
A class of technologies that support the recording of encrypted data where the data: (a) is held on a distributed ledger; (b) is electronically accessible, from multiple locations, by a network of participants; and (c) can be updated by those participants, based on agreed consensus, protocol or procedures. For the purposes of MAR, AMI, MOTF and COB, DLT also includes any other similar technology approved by the AFSA, which is used for the issuance, transfer and storage of an Investment Token and Qualified Investment Token. |
DNFBP |
Designated Non-Financial Business and Profession. The following class of persons whose business or profession is carried on in or from the AIFC constitute DNFBPs: (a) A real estate developer or agency which carries out transactions with a customer involving the buying or selling of real property; (b) A dealer in precious metals or precious stones; (c) A dealer in any saleable item of a price equal to or greater than USD 15,000; (d) A law firm, notary firm, or other independent legal business; (e) An accounting firm, audit firm, or insolvency firm; or (f) A Company service provider; or (g) A Single Family Office. A person who is an Authorised Person or a Registered Auditor is not a DNFBP. |
Domestic Firm |
An Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider which: (a) has its registered and head office in the AIFC; or (b) if it is a subsidiary of an Undertaking whose principal place of business and head office is in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC, has its registered office in the AIFC. |
Domestic Fund |
A Collective Investment Scheme that is established or domiciled in the AIFC. |
Domestic Fund Manager |
A Fund Manager located in the AIFC. |
ECRA |
External Credit Rating Agency |
E-currency (or E-money) |
A digital representation of Fiat Currency used to electronically transfer value denominated in Fiat Currency. |
EDD |
Enhanced Due Diligence, as described in AML 7.1.1. |
Eligible Capital |
The capital instruments that may be recognised by an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer for the purpose of meeting its MCR and PCR in accordance with PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) The capital instrument that may be recognised by an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator for the purpose of meeting its MCR and PCR in accordance with TRR Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) |
Eligible Custodian |
A custodian of a Fund's property appointed in accordance with CIS. |
EligibleDepositor |
A Person who, at the relevant time, is a creditor of a Bank (i) which is a Domestic Firm over which a provisional liquidator, liquidator, receiver or administrator, or trustee in bankruptcy has been appointed, or (ii) which is a Domestic Firm over which the AFSA imposed a prohibition to deal with any relevant property, by virtue of being owed an amount of Money held by the Bank as a Deposit.
Eligible Depositor excludes any creditor which is: (i) a Market Counterparty; or (ii) a Bank. |
Eligible Liabilities |
Liabilities and capital instruments that do not qualify as CET1 Capital instruments, AT1 Capital instruments or T2 Capital instruments of an Authorised Person and that are not excluded from the exercise of the Write Down or Conversion Power under RAR 4.4.1(3) or (4). |
Employee |
As defined in the Employment Regulations, an individual who works or will work in the service of another person under an express or implied contract of hire under which the other person has the right to control the details of work performance. The other person is the Employee’s Employer. |
Employee Share Scheme |
A scheme or arrangement for encouraging or facilitating the holding of Shares or Debentures in a Company by or for the benefit of: (a) the bona fide Employees or former Employees of the Company, the Company’s subsidiary or Holding Company or a subsidiary of the Company’s Holding Company; or (b) the wives, husbands, widows, widowers or minor children or minor step-children of the individuals referred to in (a). |
Environmental Instrument |
An Investment which: a) enables its holder to emit greenhouse gases into the atmosphere in accordance with any emissions trading scheme, including such carbon units as emissions allowances or equivalent; b) evidences the reduction or removal of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, including such carbon units as carbon credits or equivalent; or с) evidences the environmental attributes of an underlying unit (i.e., renewable energy or environmental attribute certificates). |
Environmental Instrument Token |
A digital representation of an Environmental Instrument, that is issued, transferred and stored using DLT or other similar technology approved by the AFSA. |
Equity Risk Capital Requirement |
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG. |
Equity Securities |
(In MAR) Include, but are not limited to, Securities which are Shares, Warrants over Shares, Certificates over Shares and Depository Receipts (where the Depository Receipt is over Shares). |
Equivalent Regulated Exchange |
An exchange as defined in MAR 1.2.2(2) |
Equivalent Regulated Exchange for Listed Funds |
A Regulated Exchange in relation to which the AFSA has determined, either on the application of a Fund Manager or upon its own initiative, that is equivalent to an Authorised Investment Exchange in relation to the listing of Listed Funds. The AFSA may publish a list from time to time identifying Regulated Exchanges it has determined to be Equivalent Regulated Exchanges. |
ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) Fund |
A Fund which integrates ESG criteria into its investment strategy and decision-making process. |
Execute or Execution |
The exercise of a Client order that results in a binding transaction. |
Exempt Fund |
A Collective Investment Scheme identified in CIS 2.2(a). |
Exempt Offeror |
The Persons identified in MAR 1.2.1. |
Exempt Securities |
The Securities listed in MAR 1.2.2. |
Expert |
Has the meaning given in MAR 1.9.3. |
Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm |
A Person who is specified as such in a direction made by the AFSA under PRU(INV) 1.3(9). |
Family Business |
In relation to a Single Family, a business controlled by a Single Family. |
Family Captive Takaful Business |
Captive Takaful Business in relation to Family Takaful Contracts.
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Family Client |
In relation to a Single Family: (a) a member of the Single Family; (b) a Family Fiduciary Structure; (c) a Family Entity; or (d) a Family Business. |
Family Entity |
In relation to a Single Family, an entity controlled by a Single Family. |
Family Fiduciary Structure |
In relation to a Single Family, a Trust, Foundation or similar entity: (a) of which a member of the Single Family or a Family Entity related to the Single Family is the settler or Founder; and (b) the beneficiaries of which, or Persons otherwise capable of benefiting from which, are all: (i) members of the Single Family; (ii) charities; (iii) Family Entities; or (iv) other Family Fiduciary Structures related to the Single Family. |
Family Member |
In relation to an individual: (a) his spouse; (b) his child, step-child, parent, step-parent, brother, sister, step-brother, or step-sister; or (c) a spouse of any individual within (b). |
Family Takaful Business |
Takaful Business in relation to Family Takaful Contracts |
Family Takaful Contract |
A Shari’ah-Compliant Takaful Contracts that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 2 of TRR |
Family Takaful Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 9.2 (Family Takaful Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
FATF |
Financial Action Task Force, as described in AML 1.4(a). |
FATF Recommendations |
The publication entitled the "International Standards on Combating Money Laundering and the Financing of Terrorism and Proliferation" as published and amended from time to time by FATF. |
Feeder Fund |
A Fund which is dedicated to investing in the Units or Debentures of a single other Fund (Master Fund). |
Fiat Currency |
Currency which is issued by or on behalf of the government in its country (or countries) of issuance, and which is designated as legal tender in that or those countries through government decree, regulation or law. |
Fiat stablecoin |
A Digital Asset whose value purports to be determined by reference to a Fiat Currency. |
Finance Officer |
The individual performing the Controlled Function specified in GEN 2.2.4. |
Financial Condition Report |
The report identified in PINS 9.1.2 (Financial Condition Reports) The report identified in TRR 9.1.2 (Financial Condition Reports) |
Financial Crime |
Any kind of conduct relating to money or to financial services or markets that would amount to criminal conduct under Kazakh law (whether or not such conduct takes place in the Republic of Kazakhstan), including any offence involving: (a) fraud or dishonesty; or (b) misconduct in, or misuse of information relating to, a financial market; or (c) handling the proceeds of crime; or (d) the financing of terrorism; or (e) money laundering |
Financial Group |
A group of entities which includes an Authorised Firm and: (a) any parent incorporated in the AIFC; (b) any Financial Institution subsidiaries (whether direct or indirect) of the parent or parents in (a) or of the Authorised Firm; and any entity which the AFSA directs the Authorised Firm to be included in the Financial Group. |
Financial Institution |
A regulated or unregulated entity, whose activities are primarily financial in nature. |
Financial Product |
A Contract of Insurance or Investment. |
Financial Promotion |
Any communication (made via any medium including brochures, telephone calls and presentations) the purpose or effect of which is: (a) to promote or advertise (i) Investments or (ii) any Regulated Activity; or (b) to invite or induce any Person (i) to enter into an agreement with any Person in relation to a Financial Product or (ii) to engage in any Regulated Activity. |
Financial Service |
A Regulated Activity or a Market Activity. |
Financial Services Regulator |
A regulator of Financial Services established in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC. |
FinTech |
Means technology-enabled innovation in financial services that could result in new business models, applications, processes or products with an associated material effect on the provision of financial services. |
FinTech Lab Activities |
Activities specified in GEN 1.4. carried out for the purposes of Developing or Testing FinTech Activities. |
FinTech Lab Participant |
Means an Authorised Person who was issued a Licence to carry on one or more FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab. |
FIU |
The Financial Intelligence Unit of the Republic of Kazakhstan is the state authority, or any other such state authority, responsible for financial monitoring and other measures to combat money laundering in accordance with the AML Law. |
Foreign Exchange Risk Capital Requirements |
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG |
Foreign Fund |
A Collective Investment Scheme that is not established or domiciled in the AIFC. |
Foreign Fund Manager |
A Fund Manager not located in the AIFC. |
Framework Regulations or FSFR |
The Financial Services Framework Regulations. |
Fund |
A Collective Investment Scheme. |
Fund Manager |
A Person responsible for the management of the property held for or within a Fund and (or) who operates the Fund. |
Fund of Funds |
A Fund which restricts its investment activities to investing in Units or Debentures of only two or more other Funds. |
Fund Property |
The property held for or within a Fund. |
Future |
An instrument comprising rights under a contract: (a) for the sale of a commodity or property of any other description under which delivery is to be made at a future date and at a price agreed on when the contract is made, and that contract: (i) is made or traded on a regulated exchange; (ii) is made or traded on terms that are similar to those made or traded on a regulated exchange; or (iii) would, on reasonable grounds, be regarded as made for investment and not for commercial purposes; or (b) where the value of the contract is ultimately determined by reference, wholly or in part, to fluctuations in: (i) the value or price of property of any description; or (ii) an index, interest rate, any combination of these, exchange rate or other factor designated for that purpose in the contract; and which is wholly settled by cash or set-off between the parties but excludes: (iii) rights under a contract where one or more of the parties takes delivery of any property to which the contract relates; (iv) a contract under which money is received by way of deposit or an acknowledgement of a debt on terms that any return to be paid on the sum deposited or received will be calculated by reference to an index, interest rate, exchange rate or any combination of these or other factors; or (v) a Contract of Insurance. |
GEN |
The General Rules. |
General Captive Insurance Business |
Captive Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts. |
General Captive Takaful Business |
Captive Takaful Business in relation to General Takaful Contracts.
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General Insurance Business |
Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts |
General Insurance Contract |
A Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 1 of PINS. |
General Prohibition |
The prohibition in section 24 of the Framework Regulations. |
General Takaful Business |
Takaful Business in relation to General Takaful Contracts |
General Takaful Contract |
A Takaful Contract that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 1 of TRR. |
Governing Body |
The board of directors, partners, committee of management or other governing body of an Undertaking. |
Group |
Means a group of entities which includes an entity (the ‘first entity’) and: (a) any parent of the first entity; and (b) any subsidiaries (direct or indirect) of the parent or parents in (a) or the first entity. |
Guidance |
(a) guidance adopted under, or contained in, any AIFC Act; or (b) a code of practice, standard, policy statement or anything else adopted as guidance under any AIFC Act. |
Holding Company |
(As defined in the Companies Regulations) a holding Body Corporate that is a Company. |
Hot Digital wallet |
A Digital wallet that is stored in a platform (software application) that is connected to the Internet. |
ICAAP |
Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process, as defined in Pillar II of the Basel framework for banking supervision |
IFAC |
The International Federation of Accountants. |
IFR |
The Islamic Finance Rules. |
Individual Capital Requirement |
Has the meaning given in BBR 11.3 |
Inside Information |
Information of a precise nature which: (a) has not been made public; and (b) relates directly or indirectly, to one or more Issuers or Listed Funds or to one or more Securities or Units in a Listed Fund; and (c) would, if it were made public, be likely to have a significant effect on the prices of those Securities or Units in a Listed Fund or on the price of related derivative Securities or Units in a Listed Fund. |
Insider Dealing |
(a) The use, by a Person who possesses Inside information, of that information by acquiring or disposing of, for its own account or for the account of a third party, directly or indirectly, Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to which that information relates; or (b) the use of Inside Information by cancelling or amending an order concerning a Security or Units in a Listed Fund to which the information relates where the order was placed before the Person concerned possessed the Inside Information; or (c) the use of recommendations or inducements to engage in Insider Dealing, where the Person using the recommendation or inducement knows or ought to know that it is based on Inside Information. |
Insurance Business |
The business of conducting either or both of the following regulated activities: (a) effecting Contracts of Insurance; (b) carrying out Contracts of Insurance. |
Insurance Intermediary |
An Authorised Firm whose Licence authorises it to carry on the Regulated Activity of Insurance Intermediation. |
Insurance Intermediary Audit Report |
The report specified in COB 11.8.15. |
Insurance Intermediation |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 15 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Insurance Liabilities |
Liabilities of an Insurer arising out of its General Insurance Business and Long-Term Insurance Business. |
Insurance Risk Requirement |
The capital component identified in 2.3 (Insurance Risk Requirement) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Insurer |
An Authorised Firm with an authorisation to conduct Insurance Business. |
Interest Rate Risk Capital Requirement |
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG. |
Internal Auditor |
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.4 (Internal Auditor). The Approved Individual performing the role identified at TRR 2.4.4 (Internal Auditor). |
International Standards on Auditing |
The international standards on auditing issued by the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) of IFAC. |
International Standards on Quality Control |
The international standards on quality control issued by the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) of IFAC. |
Investment |
A Security, Unit, Derivative, Digital Asset or Environmental Instrument and a |
Investment Business |
The business of: (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal; (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent; (c) Managing Investments; (d) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme; (e) Providing Custody; (f) Arranging Custody; (g) Acting as the Trustee of a Fund; (h) Advising on Investments; (i) Arranging Deals in Investments; (j) Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account; or (k) Operating an Exchange. but not including Digital Asset Business. |
Investment Crowdfunding Platform |
An electronic platform or a facility referred to in paragraph 5(1) of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules. |
Investment Research |
Research or other information recommending or suggesting an investment strategy, explicitly or implicitly, concerning one or several Investments or the issuers of Investments, including any opinion as to the present or future value or price of such Investments, intended for distribution channels or for the public, and in relation to which the following conditions are met: (a) it is labelled or described as investment research or in similar terms, or is otherwise presented as an objective or independent explanation of the matters contained in the recommendation; and (b) if the recommendation in question were to be made by an Authorised Firm to a Client, it would not constitute Advising on Investments. |
Investment Risk Requirement |
The sum of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Asset Risk Component, Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component and Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component. The sum of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s Asset Risk Component, Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component and Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component |
Investment Service |
The service of: (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal; (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent; (c) Managing Investments; (d) Advising on Investments; or (e) reception and transmission of orders in relation to Investments. |
Investment Token |
A digital representation of an Investment (other than a Digital Asset and a right or interest in the Digital Asset) that is issued, transferred and stored using DLT or other similar technology approved by the AFSA. |
Investor |
A Person who invests or seeks to invest in Investments issued by an Issuer. |
IRRBB |
Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book as defined in chapter 8 of BBR |
Islamic Finance Business |
Any part of the financial business of an Authorised Person which is carried out in accordance with Shari’a. |
Issuer |
In relation to any Security, the Person by whom it is or is to be issued. |
Key Business Document |
(In REP) includes: (a) letterhead communications issued by post, fax or electronic means including email; (b) written promotional materials; (c) business cards; and (d) websites, but does not include compliment slips, or text messages. |
LAC |
Loss-Absorbing Capacity as defined in section 141 of the FSFR. |
LAC requirement |
A requirement under section 141 of the FSFR for an Authorised Person to hold and maintain a minimum amount of Loss Absorbing Capacity. |
Legal Adviser |
In relation to the provision of legal services, an individual:
(a) who is employed or appointed by an AIFC Body, its organisation, or an AIFC Participant in connection with the business of an AIFC Body, its organisation, or AIFC Participant in the AIFC, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or
(b) whose services provided in the AIFC, under an arrangement between an AIFC Body, its organisation, or an AIFC Participant and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of an AIFC Body, its organisation, or an AIFC Participant; or
(c) who is otherwise specified to be eligible for the purposes of these Regulations by the AIFC Legal Services Board, including one particular class of such individuals being legal advisers or counsel based outside Kazakhstan who spend a limited amount of time in the AIFC for the purposes of, for example, a corporate transaction.
In the AIFC Legal Services Regulations, rules made thereunder and in any other document produced by any Person in connection with the AIFC Legal Services Regulations, the expression “Counsel” may be substituted for “Legal Adviser” if that appears preferable in the context. |
Leverage Ratio |
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.37 |
Licence |
A licence granted by the AFSA under Part 3 of the Framework Regulations. |
Life Policy |
A Long-Term Insurance Contract (other than a Contract of Reinsurance or a Pure Protection Contract) and includes a Long-Term Care Insurance Contract |
Liquid Assets |
The amount determined as such in accordance with PRU(INV) 4.3. |
Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) |
Has the meaning given in BBR 9.16 |
Liquidity Risk |
The risk of loss to an Authorised Firm as a result of inability to meet its obligations as they fall due. |
List of Digital Assets admitted to trading |
A list of Digital Assets which could be traded in the AIFC and do not require the AFSA’s approval. |
Listed Fund |
A Fund whose Units have been admitted to the Official List. |
Listing Rules |
(In AMI) the rules prepared by an Authorised Investment Exchange in accordance with AMI 3.6. |
Loan Administrator |
A Person appointed by an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform to administer the collection of amounts due and payable under a loan or Debenture pursuant to AMI 7.4.2. |
Loan Crowdfunding Platform |
An electronic platform or a facility referred to in paragraph 4(1) of Schedule 4 the AIFC General Rules. |
Long-Term Captive Insurance Business |
Captive Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts |
Long-Term Care Insurance Contract |
A Long-Term Insurance Contract: (a) that satisfies the following conditions: (i) it provides (or would at the Policyholder’s option provide) benefits for the Policyholder in the event that the Policyholder’s mental or physical health deteriorates to the extent that he or she is incapacitated, is unable to live independently without assistance, and is not expected to recover to the extent that he or she could live independently without assistance; (ii) those benefits are payable or provided for services, accommodation or goods that are necessary or desirable for the continuing care of the Policyholder because of that incapacity; (iii) those benefits can be paid periodically for all or part of the period during which the Policyholder is unable to live independently without assistance; or (b) that is sold or held out as providing benefits for the Policyholder as set out in paragraph (a). A Family Takaful Contract that: (a) satisfies the following conditions: (i) it provides (or would at the Policyholder’s option provide) benefits for the Policyholder in the event that the Policyholder’s mental or physical health deteriorates to the extent that he or she is incapacitated, is unable to live independently without assistance, and is not expected to recover to the extent that he or she could live independently without assistance; (ii) those benefits are payable or provided for services, accommodation or goods that are necessary or desirable for the continuing care of the Policyholder because of that incapacity; (iii) those benefits can be paid periodically for all or part of the period during which the Policyholder is unable to live independently without assistance; or (b) is sold or held out as providing benefits for the Policyholder as set out in paragraph (a). |
Long-Term Insurance Business |
Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts |
Long-Term Insurance Contract |
A Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 2 of PINS |
Long-Term Insurance Fund |
A fund established by an Insurer for the purposes of PINS 7 (Segregation of Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities) |
Long-Term Insurance Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 9.2 (Long-Term Insurance Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Major Acquisition |
As defined in Rule 6.2.4 of GEN |
Management Information System |
Has the meaning given in RAR 5.1. |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 4 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 12 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Managing Investments |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 3 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Mandate |
An arrangement under which a Client gives an Authorised Firm the ability to control the Client's assets or liabilities, including having over an account held with a third party in the Client's own name. |
MAR |
The AIFC Market Rules. |
Market Abuse |
As defined in MAR 5.1 and, in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7: (a) unlawful disclosure of Inside Information; and (b) engaging or attempting to engage in Insider Dealing; and (c) recommending that another Person engage in Insider Dealing; and (d) inducing another Person to engage in Insider Dealing; and (e) engaging or attempting to engage in Market Manipulation; but not: (a) disclosure of Inside Information made in the course of a Market Sounding; and (b) the behaviour described in MAR 5.3.4 to 5.3.6 (and in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7); and (c) accepted market practices established under MAR 5.4.4 (and in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7). |
Market Activity |
An activity referred to in specified of Schedule 4 of AIFC General Rules, subject to any rules made by the AFSA adding to, removing, or otherwise modifying the specified activity. |
Market Contract |
(a) A contract entered into by an Authorised Investment Exchange or Authorised Clearing House with Members to settle their transactions; and (b) a contract entered into by a Member of an Authorised Investment Exchange with a Person other than that Authorised Investment Exchange made on, or subject to the rules of, the Authorised Investment Exchange; and (c) a contract entered into by a Recognised Non-AIFC Member of an Authorised Investment Exchange with a person other than that Authorised Investment Exchange made on, or subject to the rules of, the Authorised Investment Exchange; and (d) a contract entered into by an Authorised Investment Exchange, in its capacity as such, with a Member, an Authorised Clearing House, or another Authorised Investment Exchange for the purpose of enabling the rights and liabilities of that Member, Authorised Clearing House, or Authorised Investment Exchange under a transaction to be settled; and (e) a contract entered into by an Authorised Investment Exchange with a Member, an Authorised Clearing House, or another Authorised Investment Exchange for the purpose of providing Central Counterparty clearing services to that Member, Authorised Clearing House, or Authorised Investment Exchange. |
Market Counterparty |
A Client that meets the requirements for a Market Counterparty in COB 2.7. |
Market Counterparty Business |
The following activities carried on by an Authorised Firm with or for a Market Counterparty: (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal; (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent; or (c) receiving and transmitting Client orders. |
Market Making Agreement |
(In AMI) a written agreement between an Authorised Investment Exchange and a Member pursuing a Market Making Strategy by using its facilities. |
Market Making Strategy |
In relation to an Investment, a strategy by which a Person holds himself out as able and willing to enter into transactions of sale and purchase in Investments of that description at prices determined by him generally and continuously rather than in respect of each particular transaction. |
Market Manipulation |
The activities set in MAR 5.4.2 and the conduct set out in MAR 5.4.3 and, in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7. |
Market Risk |
The risk of loss that arises from fluctuations in the values of, or income from, assets or in interest or exchange rates. |
Market Risk Capital Requirement |
the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(5). For Banking Business Firms, has the meaning given in BBR 6.5 |
Market Sounding |
The conduct set out in MAR 5.5.1 and, in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7. |
Marketing Material |
(in REP) Includes any material communicated to a Person in the course of marketing financial services or financial products or making introductions or referrals. |
Master Fund |
A Fund which issues its Units or Debentures only to other Funds which are dedicated to investing in that Master Fund. |
Matched Principal |
An Authorised Firm which deals in Investments subject to the following conditions: (i)it enters into transactions as a principal only for the purpose of fulfilling its Clients’ orders; (ii)it holds positions for its own account (“positions”) only as a result of a failure to match Clients’ orders; (iii)the total market value of the positions it holds is no more than 15% of its Tier 1 Capital; and the positions are incidental in nature and are strictly limited to the time reasonably required to carry out a transaction of that nature. |
MCR |
Minimum Capital Requirement |
Member |
A Person who is entitled, under an arrangement or agreement between him and an Authorised Market Institution, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, a MTF Operator or an OTF Operator, to use that institution’s or operator’s facilities. |
Membership Rules |
(In AMI) the membership rules of an Authorised Market Institution prepared in accordance with AMI 2.6.3. (In MOTF) the membership rules of a MTF Operator or OTF Operator prepared in accordance with MOTF 3.2. |
Minimum Capital Requirement |
In PRU(INV), the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(2). In PRU(INT), the meaning given in PRU(INT) 3.2. |
MLRO |
Money-Laundering Reporting Officer, as described in AML 13.1 |
Money |
Any form of money, including cheques and other payable orders. |
Money Laundering Reporting Officer |
The individual performing the Designated Function identified at GEN 2.3.4. |
MTF Operator |
A Centre Participant which is licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility. |
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) |
Has the meaning given in BBR 9.19 |
Nominee Company |
A company incorporated in the AIFC whose business consists solely of acting as a holder of Client Assets where such assets are held by the Nominee Company as agent of an Authorised Firm. |
Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements |
The requirements for recognition of Recognised Non-AIFC Members set out in section 91 of the Framework Regulations. |
Non-Exempt Fund |
(In CIS) A Collective Investment Scheme that is registered as a Non-Exempt Fund. |
Non-Fungible Token |
An Investment which: (a) is unique and not fungible with any other Non-Fungible Token; (b) related to an identified asset; and (c) is used to prove the ownership or provenance of the asset. |
Non-Investment Insurance Contract |
A Contract of Insurance that is a General Insurance Contract or a Pure Protection Contract but is not a Long-Term Care Insurance Contract |
Non-Investment Takaful Contract |
a Takaful Contracts that is a General Takaful Contract or a Pure Protection Contract but is not a Long Term Care Takaful Contract |
Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business |
Activities defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(7). |
Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 5 (Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). The capital component identified in paragraph 5 (Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 6 (Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). The capital component identified in paragraph 6 (Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Offer |
(1) In relation to Securities, an Offer of Securities. (2) In relation to Units, an Offer of Units (and "Offered" and "Offering" and similar terms have corresponding meanings). |
Offer of Securities |
A communication to any Person in any form or by any means, presenting information on the terms of the offer and the Securities offered, so as to enable an investor to decide whether or not to buy or subscribe to those Securities but excluding: (a) any communication in connection with the trading of Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange; or (b) any communication made for the purposes of complying with the on-going reporting requirements of the AFSA or an Authorised Market Institution; or (c) any other communication prescribed in the Rules by the AFSA. |
Offer of Units |
A communication to any Person in any form or by any means, presenting information on the terms of the offer and the Unit offered, so as to enable an investor to decide whether or not to buy or subscribe to those Units but excluding: (a) (in relation to Listed Funds only) any communication in connection with the trading of Units admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange; or (b) (in relation to Listed Funds only) any communication made for the purposes of complying with the on-going reporting requirements of the AFSA or an Authorised Market Institution; or (c) any other communication prescribed in the Rules by the AFSA. |
Offering Materials |
The offering materials or particulars of a Fund. |
Official List |
The Official List of Securities and Units in Listed Funds maintained by the AFSA or the relevant Authorised Investment Exchange pursuant to section 64 of the Framework Regulations. |
Operating a Clearing House |
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 2 of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules. |
Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform |
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 5 of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules. |
Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform |
The Market Activity as defined in paragraph 4 of Schedule 3 of the Framework Regulations. |
Operating a Digital Asset Business |
Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility or Providing Custody for safeguarding and administering Digital Assets belonging to another Person, or both. |
Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility |
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 30 of Schedule 14 of the AIFC General Rules. |
Operating a facility for Investment Tokens |
In relation to an Authorised Market Institution, means carrying on one or more of the following activities: (a) Operating an Investment Exchange on which Investment Tokens are traded; or (b) Operating a Clearing House on which transactions in Investment Tokens are cleared. |
Operating a facility for Qualified Investment Tokens |
In relation to an Authorised Firm, means Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility or Operating an Organised Trading Facility on which Qualified Investment Token are Traded. |
Operating a Representative Office |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 16 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Operating an Exchange |
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 1 of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules. |
Operation of a Payment System |
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 27 of Schedule 1 of AIFC General Rules. |
Opening and Operating Bank Accounts |
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 26 of Schedule 1 of AIFC General Rules. |
Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility |
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 28 of Schedule 1 of AIFC General Rules. |
Operating an Organised Trading Facility |
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 29 of Schedule 1 of AIFC General Rules. |
Operating a Private Financing Platform |
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 6 of Schedule 4 of AIFC General Rules. |
Operational Risk |
Operational Risk is defined as the risk of incurring losses due to inadequate or failed internal systems, processes, and people, or from external events. |
Operational Risk Capital Requirement |
the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(6). For Banking Business Firms, has the meaning given in BBR 7.6 |
Operational Risk Requirement |
The capital component identified in paragraph 2.4 (Operational Risk Requirement) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) The capital component identified in paragraph 2.4 (Operational Risk Requirement) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Option |
An instrument that confers on the holder, upon exercise, rights of the kind referred to in any of the following: (a) a right to acquire or dispose of: (i) a Security (other than a Warrant) or contractually based investment; (ii) currency of any country or territory; (iii) a commodity of any kind; (b) a right to receive a cash settlement, the value of which is determined by reference to: (i) the value or price of an index, interest rate or exchange rate; or (ii) any other rate or variable; or (c) a right to acquire or dispose of another Option under (a) or (b). |
Option Risk Capital Requirement |
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG. |
OTF Operator |
A Centre Participant which is licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating an Organised Trading Facility. |
Outstanding Claims Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 8 (Outstanding Claims Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) The capital component identified in paragraph 8 (Outstanding Claims Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Overseas Listed Fund |
A Fund: (a) that is not established or domiciled in the AIFC; (b) that is not registered or required to be registered under CIS; (c) that is not managed by a Domestic Fund Manager; and (d) whose Units have been admitted to trading on another Authorised Investment Exchange, a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution or other Equivalent Regulated Exchange for Listed Funds. |
Packaged Product |
(a) a Life Policy; or (b) a Family Takaful Contract; or (с) a Unit in a Collective Investment Scheme |
Partner |
In relation to an Undertaking which is a Partnership, a Person occupying the position of a partner, by whatever name called. |
Partnership |
Any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a jurisdiction other than the AIFC, but not including a Limited Liability Partnership. |
PCR |
Prescribed Capital Requirement |
PEP |
Politically Exposed Person. A PEP is a natural person (including a family member or known associate) who is or has been entrusted with a prominent public function, including but not limited to: a head of state or of government, senior politician, member of a legislative or constitutional assembly, senior government official, senior judicial official, senior military officer, ambassador, senior person in an international organisation, senior executive of a state-owned entity, a senior political party official, or an individual who has been entrusted with similar functions such as a director or a deputy director; at an international, national, or regional level. This definition does not include middle-ranking or more junior individuals in the above categories. |
Person |
A Person includes any natural person, Body Corporate or body unincorporated, including a legal person, company, Partnership, unincorporated association, government or state. |
Personal Transaction |
A transaction in an Investment executed for or on behalf of a natural person, where at least one of the following criteria are met: (1) that person is acting outside the scope of the activities he carried out in that capacity; (2) the transaction is carried out for the account of any of the following persons: (a) the natural person; (b) the spouse or civil partner of the natural person or any partner of that natural person considered by national law as equivalent to a spouse; (c) a dependent child or stepchild of that natural person; (d) any other relative of that natural person who has shared the same household as that person for at least one year on the date of the personal transaction concerned; (e) any person with whom he has close links; (f) a person whose relationship with that natural person is such that the natural person has a direct or indirect material interest in the outcome of the trade, other than a fee or commission for the execution of the transaction. |
Policyholder |
Includes a potential policyholder. |
Policyholder |
The Person who for the time being is the legal holder of a Contract of Insurance, including any Person to whom, under the Contract of Insurance, a sum is due, a periodic payment is payable or any other benefit is to be provided or to whom such a sum, payment or benefit is contingently due, payable or to be provided |
Policyholder or Participant |
The Person who for the time being is the legal holder of a Takaful Contract, including any Person to whom, under the Takaful Contract, a sum is due, a periodic payment is payable, or any other benefit is to be provided or to whom such a sum, payment or benefit is contingently due, payable or to be provided |
Preliminary Notice |
A notice issued by the AFSA pursuant to paragraph 4 of schedule 1 of the Framework Regulations. |
Premium Risk Component |
The capital component identified in paragraph 7 (Premium Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) The capital component identified in paragraph 7 (Premium Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)) |
Pre-Resolution Valuation |
A valuation referred to in section 146(1) of the FSFR. |
Price Information Provider |
A price reporting agency or an index provider which constructs, compiles, assesses or reports, on a regular and systematic basis, prices of Investments, rates, indices, commodities or figures, which are made available to users. |
Principal Representative |
An individual designated by a Representative Office in accordance with REP. |
Digital Asset (or Private Electronic Currency or Private E-money) |
A digital representation of value that (1) can be digitally traded and functions as (a) a medium of exchange; or (b) a unit of account; or (c) a store of value; (2) can be exchanged back-and-forth for Fiat Currency, but is neither issued nor guaranteed by the government of any jurisdiction, and (3) fulfils the above functions only by agreement within the community of users of the Digital Asset; and accordingly (4) is to be distinguished from Fiat Currency and E-money. An Excluded Digital Asset is excluded from the scope of the DAA. |
Privacy Device |
Any technology, Digital wallet or another mechanism or device (excluding a VPN), which has any feature or features used, or intended to be used, to hide, anonymise, obscure or prevent the tracing of any of the following information: (a) a Digital Asset transaction; or (b) the identity of the holder of a Digital Asset; or (c) the cryptographic key associated with a Person; or (d) the identity of parties to a Digital Asset transaction; or (e) the value of a Digital Asset transaction; or (f) the beneficial owner of a Digital Asset. |
Privacy Token |
A Digital Asset where the Digital Asset or the DLT or another similar technology used for the Digital Asset, has any feature or features that are used, or intended to be used, to hide, anonymise, obscure or prevent the tracing of any of the following information: (a) a Digital Asset transaction; or (b) the identity of the holder of a Digital Asset; or (c) the cryptographic key associated with a Person; or (d) the identity of parties to a Digital Asset transaction; or (e) the value of a Digital Asset transaction; or (f) the beneficial owner of a Digital Asset. |
Private Equity Fund |
A type of Specialist Fund defined in CIS 2.4(b)(ii). |
Private Placement |
An Offer made to a Person who is likely to be interested in the Offer having regard to: (a) previous contact between the Person making the Offer and that Person; (b) a professional or other connection between the Person making the Offer and that Person; or (c) statements or actions by that Person that indicate that he is interested in Offers of that kind. |
Privileged Communication |
A communication attracting a privilege arising from the provision of professional legal advice and any other privilege applicable at law, but which does not include a general duty of confidentiality. |
Product Disclosure Document |
For a Packaged Product produced by an Authorised Firm: a statement in writing prepared by the firm for the product in accordance with COB 5.6 (Packaged products—additional disclosure) |
Professional Client |
A Client that is either a Deemed Professional Client or an Assessed Professional Client. |
Profit Sharing Investment Account |
An account or portfolio in relation to property of any kind, including the currency of any country or territory, held for or within the account or portfolio, which: (a) is managed under the term of an agreement whereby: (i) the investor agrees to share any profit with the manager of the account or portfolio in accordance with a predetermined specified percentage or ratio; and (ii) the investor agrees that he alone will bear any losses in the absence of negligence or breach of contract on the part of the manager; and (b) is held out as being managed in accordance with Shari'ah. |
Property Manager |
A Person appointed to provide Real Estate Management and Servicing Activities in respect of Real Properties. |
Prospectus |
A document referred to in MAR 1.3. |
Prospectus Summary |
The document referred to in MAR 1.4. |
Providing Accountancy Services |
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 3 of Schedule 2 of GEN. |
Providing Audit Services |
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 of GEN. |
Providing Consultancy Services |
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 4 of Schedule 2 of GEN. |
Providing Credit |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 18 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Providing Custody |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 5 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Providing Fund Administration |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 8 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Providing Legal Services |
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 1 of Schedule 2 of GEN. |
Providing Money Services |
A Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 21 of Schedule 1 of the GEN. |
Providing Transaction Services for Decentralised Digital Assets |
Operating a facility that functions regularly to validate and add transaction records to the ledger of all transactions. |
Providing Trust Services |
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 7 of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Provisional Valuation |
A valuation referred to in section 146(2) of the FSFR. |
PRU Dealing Investment Firm |
A Person defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(3). |
PRU Intermediary Investment Firm |
A Person defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(4). |
PRU Investment Business |
Activities defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(5). |
PRU Investment Firm |
A Person defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(2). |
Public Fund |
A Domestic Fund shall be constituted as a Public Fund if: (a) some or all of its Units are offered to investors by way of a public offer; or (b) its Unitholders include, or may include, Retail Clients. |
Pure Protection Contract |
A Long-Term Insurance Contract that meets all of the following conditions: (a) the benefits under the contract are payable only on death or for incapacity due to injury, sickness or infirmity; (b) the contract has no surrender value, or the consideration consists of a single premium and the surrender value does not exceed that premium; (c) the contract makes no provision for its conversion or extension in a way that would result in it ceasing to comply with paragraph (a) or (b); (d) the contract is not a Contract of Reinsurance.
A Family Takaful Contract that meets all of the following conditions: (a) the benefits under the contract are payable only on death or for incapacity due to injury, sickness or infirmity; (b) the contract has no surrender value, or the consideration consists of a single premium and the surrender value does not exceed that premium; (c) the contract makes no provision for its conversion or extension in a way that would result in it ceasing to comply with paragraph (a) or (b); (d) the contract is not a Contract of Retakaful. |
Qualified Investment |
In accordance with MOTF 5.2, Qualified Investment means a financial or commodity instrument, agreement or transaction under which, at a specified time or within a specified period of time: (a) a payment or delivery obligation is to be performed, or title to commodity or asset is to be transferred; or (b) an obligation to make payment or delivery, or to transfer title to commodity or asset, is to be entered into or incurred. |
Quilified Investment Token |
A digital representation of a Quilified Investment that is issued, transferred and stored using DLT or other similar technology approved by the AFSA. |
Qualifying ESG Debenture Standards |
Means any one of the standards mentioned in MAR 1.10.3. |
RAR |
The AIFC Recovery and Resolution Rules. |
RBA |
Risk-Based Approach, as described in AML 4.1.1. |
Real Estate Investment Trust or REIT |
A type of Specialist Fund defined in CIS 2.4(b)(iv). |
Real Estate Management and Servicing Activities |
Activities relating to managing and supervising real estate on behalf of the owner, including (but not limited to) carrying out or contracting for the provision of maintenance, cleaning and administration and appointing of leasing agents, but excluding selling or renting such real estate. |
Real Property |
Any form of direct or indirect interest in real estate. |
REC |
The Recognition Rules. |
Recognised Jurisdiction |
A jurisdiction which has been recognised by the AFSA in accordance with CIS Schedule 2. |
Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House |
A Person declared by the AFSA to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House under section 89 of the Framework Regulations. |
Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange |
A Person declared by the AFSA to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange under section 89 of the Framework Regulations. |
Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institutions |
Either a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House or a Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange. |
Recognised Non-AIFC Member |
A Person declared by the AFSA to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Member under section 91 of the Framework Regulations. |
Recognition Requirements |
The requirements specified in section 89(3) of the Framework Regulations in relation to the declaration by the AFSA of a Person to be either Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange or Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House. |
Recovery |
The process of restoring the financial position of an Authorised Person (or one or more entities in its Group) in the event of a serious deterioration of an Authorised Person’s financial position. |
Recovery Measures |
The measures, set out in a Recovery Plan, to be taken to restore the financial position of an Authorised Person in the event of a serious deterioration of its financial position. |
Recovery Plan |
A plan referred to in section 137(2) of the FSFR. |
Registered Auditor |
An auditor or audit firm registered, licensed, or otherwise regulated by any competent authority worldwide. |
Registrar of Companies |
The registrar of companies appointed pursuant to the AIFC Companies Regulations. |
Registration Document |
In relation to a Prospectus structured as multiple documents, the document referred to in MAR 1.3.1(a)(ii). |
Regulated Activity |
An activity specified of Schedule 1 of GEN. |
Regulated Exchange |
An exchange regulated by a financial services regulator. |
Regulated Financial Institution |
A Person who does not hold a Licence but who is authorised in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC to carry on any financial service by another Financial Services Regulator. |
Regulation |
A regulation enacted under Article 4(3) of the Constitutional Statute. |
Regulatory Capital |
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.13 |
Regulatory Objectives |
The objectives of the AFSA identified in section 7(3) of the Framework Regulations. |
Related Party |
(1) In MAR has the meaning given in MAR 2.5.2(a). (2) In CIS, in relation to a Fund: (a) its Fund Manager; (b) its Governing Body; (c) an individual director of a Body Corporate acting as director of a Fund; (d) its Custodian; (e) its Trustee or other Persons providing oversight; (f) any Advisor; (g) a holder of 5% or more of the Units of the Fund; or (h) an Associate of a Person in (a) to (g). |
Related Party Transaction |
(1) In MAR has the meaning given in MAR 2.5.2(b). (2) In CIS, in relation to a Fund, means a transaction in respect of Fund Property entered into by a Fund Manager with a Related Party. |
Related Person |
A Person (the second Person) is a Related Person of that Firm if: (a) the Firm and the second Person are members of the same Group; (b) the second Person is an individual who is a director or officer of the Firm or of another member of the same Group; (c) the second Person is the spouse or minor child of an individual mentioned in paragraph (b); or (d) the second Person is a company that is subject to significant influence by or from an individual mentioned in paragraph (b) or (c). |
Relevant Person |
In AML has the meaning given in AML 1.2(a). |
REMS |
Regional Equity Markets Segment |
REMS shares |
Shares as defined in MAR 1.3.1 |
REP |
The Representative Office Rules. |
Reporting Entity |
A Person who: (a) has Securities or Units admitted to an Official List; (b) is the Fund Manager of a Listed Fund; or (c) is declared by the AFSA to be a Reporting Entity. |
Residual Institution |
In circumstances where part of the business of an Authorised Person has been sold to a private sector purchaser applying the Sale of Business Tool, the unsold or non-transferred part of the Authorised Person |
Resolution |
The process of resolving an Authorised Person, including the stabilisation and restructuring of that Authorised Person through the exercise or application of one or more Resolution Powers or Resolution Tools. |
Resolution Action |
The exercise of a Resolution Power or application of a Resolution Tool and any activity connected with that exercise or application. |
Resolution Authority |
Authority entrusted with the powers to exercise Resolution in a relevant jurisdiction. |
Resolution Conditions |
The conditions referred to in section 144(1) of the FSFR. |
Resolution Objectives |
The AFSA’s objectives set out in section 7(3A), 7(3B) and 7(3C) of the FSFR. |
Resolution Plan |
A plan referred to in section 138(1) of the FSFR. |
Resolution Power |
A power referred to in section 147 of the FSFR. |
Resolution Recognition Order |
An order made by the AFSA under section 153 of the FSFR that recognises, in whole or in part, Resolution Action taken by another Resolution Authority. |
Resolution Safeguards |
The safeguards referred to in section 151 of the FSFR and RAR 4.6. |
Resolution Tool |
The Sale of Business Tool or Bail-In Tool referred to in section 148 and 149 respectively of the FSFR. |
Retail Client |
A Client that is not classified as a Professional Client or Market Counterparty. |
Retail Investor |
(In MAR) means any natural person that is not an Accredited Investor, provided that the aggregate amount in current value of Securities which are the subject of the offer that were sold by the offeror to each Retail Investor, during the 12-month period preceding the date of any offer made under this rule, does not exceed the greater of USD2,000 or 10 percent of the annual income or 5 percent of net worth of such Retail Investor (excluding the value of the primary residence), whichever is lesser, but not to exceed a maximum aggregate amount sold of USD100,000. |
Risk Management Policy |
A written policy that complies with the requirements of PINS 3.1.3 (Contents of Risk Management Policy) A written policy that complies with the requirements of TRR 3.1.3 (Contents of Risk Management Policy) |
Risk Management Strategy |
A written strategy document that complies with the requirements of PINS 3.1.2 (Contents of Risk Management Strategy) A written strategy document that complies with the requirements of TRR 3.1.2 (Contents of Risk Management Strategy) |
Risk Officer |
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.3 (Risk Officer) The Approved Individual performing the role identified at TRR 2.4.3. |
Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) |
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.7 |
Risk-Weight |
In relation to an asset or an off-balance sheet exposure of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm. |
Risk-Weighted Assets Amount |
The amount calculated in respect of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm as identified in guidance to PRU(INV) 3.3(4). |
Rule |
A rule made by the AFSA under Article 4(3) of the Constitutional Statute. |
Sale of Business Tool |
The Resolution Tool referred to in section 147(1)(h) and section 148 of the FSFR. |
Savings Account |
An account with a Bank held in the name of a Client through which the Client can place and withdraw Deposits. |
SDD |
Simplified Due Diligence, as described in AML 8.1.1. |
Securities Note |
In relation to a Prospectus structured as multiple documents, the document referred to in MAR 1.3.1(a)(iii). |
Securities Settlement System |
A system operated by a Person which enables Investments held in accounts to be transferred and settled by book entry according to a set of laws and predetermined multilateral rules to provide legal certainty. |
Security |
1. A Security is: (a) a Share; (b) a Debenture; (c) a Warrant; (d) a Certificate; or (e) a Structured Product. 2. Only for the purposes of article 6 of the Constitutional Statute, a Security includes a Unit or a Security Token. |
Security Token |
A digital representation of a Security or Unit, that is issued, transferred and stored using DLT or other similar technology approved by the AFSA. |
Segregated Client |
A Client whose assets or Money is required to be held in compliance with either COB 8.2, COB 8.3 or COB 11.8. |
Self-hosted Digital Wallet |
A software or hardware that enables a person to store and transfer Digital Assets on his own behalf, and in relation to which the public and private cryptographic keys are controlled or held by that Person. |
Senior Executive Officer |
The individual performing the Controlled Function specified in GEN 2.2.2. |
Senior Manager |
The individual performing the Designated Function specified in GEN 2.3.2. |
Share |
A share or stock in the share capital of any Body Corporate or any unincorporated body (excluding a Unit) |
Shell Bank |
A bank that has no physical presence in the country in which it is incorporated or licensed and which is not affiliated with a regulated financial group that is subject to effective consolidated supervision. In this definition, physical presence in a jurisdiction is a presence involving meaningful decision-making and management and not merely the presence of a local agent or low level staff. |
Single Family |
in relation to a Single Family Office, means a group of individuals, who at th time of estanlishment of the Single Family Office in the AIFC, are the legitimate or illegitimate lineal descendants of a common ancestor who is no more than 3 generations removed from the youngest generation of descendants. The individuals who make up the Single Family may include stepchildren, foster children, children adopted under judicial proceedings or by legal guardianship and the spouses of the individuals that make up the Single Family (including widows or widowers, whether or not remarried). An individual who, after the Single Family Office is established in the AIFC, becomes: (a) a descendant of the common ancestor; or (b) a spouse of the descendant (including a widow or widower, whether or not remarried); is a member of the Single Family even if the individual is more than 3 generations removed from the common ancestor. |
Single Family Office |
a Body Corporate established in the AIFC that: (a) is indirectly or wholly owned by members of a Single Family; and (b) does not hold itself out to the public as carrying on Regulated Activities; and (c) carries on Regulated Activities on behalf of Family Clients only. |
Skilled Person |
A Person appointed to make a report required by the AFSA under section 97 of the Framework Regulations. |
Smart-Contract
|
A computer code that represents a contract, and that executes and enforces the terms of such contract on an automated basis, without the need for intermediation by any person. |
Solo Prudential Return |
A prudential return is referred to as a Solo Prudential Return if it reflects the individual Bank’s accounts, statements and reports. |
Solvency Reference Date |
The date at which an Insurer’s compliance with the requirements of PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements) is assessed. The date at which a Takaful Operator’s compliance with the requirements of TRR 5 is assessed. |
Source(s) of Funds |
The origin of the customer's funds which relate to a transaction or service and includes how such funds are connected to a customer's source of wealth. |
Source(s) of Wealth |
How the customer's global wealth or net worth is or was acquired or accumulated. |
STR |
Suspicious Transaction Report. A report in a prescribed format regarding suspicious activity or suspicious transactions made to the FIU. |
Structured Product |
An instrument comprising rights under a contract where: (a) the gain or loss of each party to the contract is ultimately determined by reference to the fluctuations in the value or price of property of any description, an index, interest rate, exchange rate or a combination of any of these as specified for that purpose in the contract (“the underlying factor”) and is not leveraged upon such fluctuations; (b) the gain or loss of each party is wholly settled by cash or setoff between the parties; (c) each party is not exposed to any contingent liabilities to any other counterparty; and (d) there is readily available public information in relation to the underlying factor; but excludes any rights under an instrument: (e) where one or more of the parties takes delivery of any property to which the contract relates; (f) which is a Debenture; or (g) which is a Contract of Insurance. |
Subsidiary |
In accordance with paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 of the Companies Regulations, a Body Corporate (the first Body Corporate) is a Subsidiary of another Body Corporate (the second Body Corporate) if: (a) the second Body Corporate: (i) holds a majority of the voting rights in the first Body Corporate; or (ii) is a shareholder of the first Body Corporate and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of Directors or managers of the first Body Corporate; or (iii) is a shareholder of the first Body Corporate and controls alone, under an agreement with other shareholders, a majority of the voting rights in the first Body Corporate; or (b) the first Body Corporate is a subsidiary of another Body Corporate that is itself a subsidiary of the second Body Corporate, which is its Holding Company. |
Sub-Fund |
A separate pool of Fund Property within an Umbrella Fund. |
Supplementary Prospectus |
An updated or replacement Prospectus produced in accordance with in section 73 of the Framework Regulations. |
Takaful Business |
A Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 24 of Schedule 1 of the GEN. |
Takaful Contract |
Any Contract of Insurance which is Shari’ah-compliant and is either a Family Takaful Contract or a General Takaful Contract |
Takaful Fund |
Has the meaning given in TRR 1.1.5 (2) |
Takaful Liabilities |
Liabilities of a Takaful Operator arising out of its General Takaful Business and Family Takaful Business. |
Takaful Operator |
Has the meaning given in TRR 1.1.5 (1) |
Takaful Risk Requirement |
The capital component identified in 2.3 (Takaful Risk Requirement) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)). |
Takeover |
A takeover or merger transaction however effected, including schemes of arrangements which have similar commercial effect to takeovers and mergers, partial bids, bid by a parent company for shares in its subsidiary and (where appropriate) share repurchases by general bid. |
Takeover Offer |
A public offer (other than by the offeree company itself) made to the holders of the Securities of a company to acquire all or some of those Securities, whether mandatory or voluntary, which follows or has as its objective the acquisition of control of the offeree company. |
Takeover Principles |
Principles prescribed by the AFSA pursuant to section 88(1)(b) of the Framework Regulations. |
Takeover Rules |
Rules prescribed by the AFSA pursuant to section 88(1)(a) of the Framework Regulations. |
Temporary Administrator |
A person appointed by the AFSA under section 150 of the FSFR to be a Temporary Administrator of an Authorised Person. |
Testing FinTech Activities |
The activity as defined in paragraph 2.2.1 of FINTECH |
Third Party Account Provider |
In relation to a Client Money Account or a Client Investment Account, means an Authorised Firm or Regulated Financial Institution (including a bank, custodian, intermediate broker, settlement agent, clearing house, exchange and/or "over the counter" counterparty) that is a separate legal entity from the Authorised Firm that is required under COB to establish the Client Money Account or Client Investment Account. |
Third Party Agent |
In relation to a Client Account, means an Authorised Firm or Regulated Financial Institution (including a bank, custodian, an intermediate broker, a settlement agent, a clearing house, an exchange and ‘over the counter’ counterparty) that is a separate legal entity from the Authorised Firm that is required under COB to establish the Client Account. |
Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider |
(1) A Digital wallet Service Provider other than a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator Providing Custody of Digital Assets traded on its facility; or (2) A Person in another jurisdiction Providing Custody of Investment Tokens, Qualified Investment Tokens or Digital Assets by holding and controlling the public and private cryptographic keys relating to the Investemnt Tokens, Qualified Investment Tokens or Digital Assets, which is authorised and appropriately supervised for that activity by a Financial Services Regulator. |
Tier 1 Capital |
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.13 |
Tier 1 Capital |
The components of capital identified at paragraph 3 (Components of Tier 1 Capital) of PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) The components of capital identified at paragraph 3 of TRR Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital). |
Tier 2 Capital |
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.18 |
Tier 2 Capital |
The components of capital identified at paragraph 4 (Components of Tier 2 Capital) of PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) The components of capital identified at paragraph 4 of TRR Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital) |
Trade Repository |
A centralised registry that maintains an electronic database containing records of transactions in Derivatives, including over-the-counter Derivatives. |
Token |
A digital representation of value, rights or obligations, which may be issued, transferred and stored electronically, using DLT or other similar technology. |
Trading Book |
Has the meaning given in BBR 6.2 |
Trading Facility Operator |
Has the meaning given in MOTF 1.2 (5). |
Transaction |
Any transaction undertaken by an Authorised Firm in the course of carrying on a Financial Service in or from the AIFC. |
Transaction Services for Decentralised Digital Assets (also known as Mining) |
Validation and adding transactions made with a Decentralised Digital Assets to the ledger of all transactions. |
Travel Rule |
Has the meaning given to it in FATF’s Updated Guidance for a Risk-Based Approach for Virtual Assets and Virtual Asset Service Providers [October 2021], as may be amended from time to time |
Umbrella Fund |
A Fund in which the contributions of the Unitholders in the Fund and the profits or income out of which payments made to them are pooled separately in a number of Sub-Funds constituting separate parts of the Fund Property. |
Undertaking
|
(a) a Body Corporate; or (b) Partnership; or (c) an unincorporated association carrying on a trade or business, with or without a view to profit. |
Unit |
A unit in or a share representing the rights or interests of a Unitholder in a Fund. |
Unitholder |
A Person who participates in a Fund. |
UNSCR |
United Nations Security Council Resolutions, as referenced in AML 12.1. |
Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion |
Has the meaning given in COB 3.4.2. |
Utility Token |
A Digital Asset: (a) which can be used by the holder only to pay for, receive a discount on, or access a product or service (whether current or proposed); and (b) the product or service referred to in (a) is provided by the issuer of the Digital Asset or of another entity in the issuer’s Group. |
Valuer |
A valuer of a Fund's property appointed in accordance with CIS. |
Venture Capital Fund |
A type of Specialist Fund defined in CIS 2.4(b)(iii). |
Warrant |
an instrument that confers on the holder a right entitling the holder to acquire an unissued Share or Debenture |
Write Down or Conversion Power |
The power referred to in section 147(1)(e) of the FSFR. |
[A]
Accepting Deposits
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 17 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Acting as the Trustee of a Fund
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 9 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Admission to Clearing Rules
(In AMI) rules prepared by an Authorised Clearing House in accordance with AMI 4.1.
Admission to Trading Rules
(In AMI) rules prepared by an Authorised Investment Exchange in accordance with AMI 3.2.
Advising on a Credit Facility
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 19 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Advising on Investments
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Affiliate
In relation to a Firm, any entity of which the Firm holds directly or indirectly or controls 10% or more but less than a majority of the voting power.
AFSA
Astana Financial Services Authority.
AIFC
Astana International Financial Centre
AIFC Court
The court specified under Article 13 of the Constitutional Law.
AIFC Operation
The PRU Investment Business of an Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm that is (a) carried on through an establishment in the AIFC or (b) carried on through an establishment outside the AIFC but with customers who are resident in the AIFC.
AIFC-Incorporated Insurer
An Insurer that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC
AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator
A Takaful Operator that is incorporated as a legal entity under the laws of the AIFC
AMI
The Authorised Market Institution Rules.
AML
The Anti-Money Laundering, Counter-Terrorist Financing and Sanctions Rules.
AML Return
A report in a prescribed format to be filed on an annual basis as described in AML 13.7.
Ancillary Service
An activity specified in Schedule 2 of GEN.
Ancillary Service Provider
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more Ancillary Services.
Annual Operating Expenditure
The amount determined as such in accordance with PRU(INV) 4.4.
Approved Actuary
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.5 (Approved Actuary).
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at TRR 2.4.5 (Approved Actuary).
Approved ECAI
An External Credit Assessment Institution in respect of which the AFSA has given approval for its ratings to be relied on by PRU Investment Firms in relation to PRU(INV) 4.
Approved Individual
An individual who is approved by the AFSA to carry out a Controlled Function.
Arranging a Credit Facility
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 20 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Arranging Custody
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 6 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Arranging Deals in Investments
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 11 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Assessed Professional Client
Has the meaning given in COB 2.5.1 and 2.5.6.
Asset Risk Component
The capital component identified in paragraph 4.1 of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement).
The capital component identified in paragraph 4.1 of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement).
Associate
In respect of a Person ‘A’, any Person, including an affiliated company which is:
- (a) an Undertaking in the same Group as A; or
- (b) any other person whose business or domestic relationship with A or his Associate might reasonably be expected to give rise to a community of interest between them which may involve a conflict of interest in dealings with third parties.
Associated Party
PINS: (a) a holding company, subsidiary or related company of an AIFCIncorporated Insurer, (b) a subsidiary or related company of a holding company of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, (c) a holding company of a subsidiary of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer, or (d) a company that, alone or with associates, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, more than 50% of the voting power in the general meeting of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer.
TRR: (a) a holding company, subsidiary or related company of an AIFCIncorporated Takaful Operator, (b) a subsidiary or related company of a holding company of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator, (c) a holding company of a subsidiary of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator, or (d) a company that, alone or with associates, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, more than 50% of the voting power in the general meeting of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator.
AT1 Capital
Additional Tier 1 Capital, as defined in BBR 4.16.
Audit Personnel
An individual:
- (a) who is employed or appointed by an Auditor in connection with the Auditor's business in the AIFC, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or
- (b) whose services provided in the AIFC, under an arrangement between the Auditor and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of the Auditor.
Auditor
- (a) in relation to an Authorised Person which is incorporated in the AIFC has the meaning given in AUD 1.
- (b) in relation to an Authorised Person which is a Recognised Company or Recognised Partnership – an auditor of that Authorised Person;
- (c) in relation to a Reporting Entity – an auditor.
Authorised Clearing House
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Clearing House.
Authorised Crowdfunding Platform
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform and/or the Market Activity of Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform.
Authorised Firm
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more Regulated Activities.
Authorised Investment Exchange
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating an Investment Exchange.
Authorised Market Institution
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on one or more Market Activities.
Authorised Person
Either an Authorised Firm or an Authorised Market Institution
Authorised Private E-currency Trading Facility
A Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Market Activity of Operating a Private E-currency Trading Facility.
Authorised Promoter
Has the meaning given in COB 3.3.1.
AIFC Legal Services Board
A designated body for the registration and regulation of Legal Advisers to maintain the safety and soundness of the legal services market in the AIFC.
[B]
Bank
A Regulated Financial Institution that is authorised to accept deposits or Open and Operate Bank Accounts or both, as defined in BBR 1.5.
Bank Account
A Correspondent Account, Current Account, or Savings Account.
Banking Book
Includes all on and off-balance sheet positions, exposures, items, which are not included in the Trading Book.
Base Capital Requirement
The meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(3). For Banking Business Firms has the meaning given in BBR 4.10.
Basel Requirements
The rules and guidance from time to time published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
BBR
AIFC Banking Business Prudential Rules
Beneficial owner
The beneficial owner, in relation to a customer, is a natural person:
- (a) who ultimately controls, directly or indirectly, a customer;
- (b) who, in relation to a customer which is a legal person or arrangement, exercises (whether directly or indirectly) ultimate effective control over the person or arrangement, or the management of such person or arrangement;
- (c) who ultimately owns or has an ownership interest in the customer, whether legally or beneficially, directly or indirectly;
- (d) on whose behalf or for whose benefit a transaction is being conducted; or
- (e) on whose instructions the signatories of an account, or any intermediaries instructing such signatories, are for the time being accustomed to act.
A person not falling into (a) or (b) is not a beneficial owner by reason of (c) or (d) if, having regard to a risk-based assessment of the customer, the ownership interest is small and in the circumstances poses an insignificant (or no) risk of money laundering.
In (a) to (e), a reference to a "customer" includes a customer account, customer assets, and the underlying legal person or arrangements which constitute or make up the customer, customer account, or customer assets.
Board
In reference to a corporation, the board of directors of the corporation.
Body Corporate
Any body corporate, including a limited liability partnership and a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the AIFC.
Borrower
A Person who seeks and/or receives funding in the form of one or more loans under an agreement with a lender via the sale of a Debenture which may be facilitated via a Loan Crowdfunding Platform as set out in paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 of AIFC General Rules.
BPG
AIFC Banking Business Prudential Guideline
Branch
A Centre Participant which is incorporated pursuant to the law of a jurisdiction other than the AIFC.
Broker Dealer
Has the meaning given in BBR 1.6
Business Rules
(In AMI) rules established and maintained by an Authorised Market Institution in accordance with AMI 2.5.1.
(In MOTF) rules established and maintained by a MTF Operator or an OTF Operator in accordance with MOTF 6.1.
[C]
Capital Conservation Buffer
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.31
Capital Floor
The minimum paid up share capital, or equivalent in any currency acceptable to the AFSA, which must be maintained by an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer pursuant to paragraph 1.1 (The Capital Floor) of PINS Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)).
The minimum paid up share capital, or equivalent in any currency acceptable to the AFSA, which must be maintained by an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator pursuant to paragraph 1.1 (The Capital Floor) of TRR Schedule 4 (Calculation of Minimum Capital Requirement (MCR)).
Capital Resources
In PRU(INV) has the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.2.
In PRU(INT) has the meaning given in PRU(INT) 3.1(1).
Captive Insurance Business
The business of Effecting or Carrying out Contracts of Insurance only for the business or operations of the Group to which the Captive Insurer belongs.
Captive Insurer
An Authorised Firm with a Licence to carry on Insurance Business only for the business or operations of the Group to which it belongs.
Captive Takaful Business
The business of Effecting or Carrying out Takaful Contracts only for the business or operations of the Group to which the Captive Takaful Operator belongs.
Captive Takaful Operator
An Authorised Firm with a Licence to carry on Takaful Business only for the business or operations of the Group to which it belongs.
CDD
Customer Due Diligence, as described generally in AML 6
Central Counterparty
A legal person that interposes itself between the counterparties to the contracts traded on one or more financial markets, becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer.
Central Securities Depository
A Person who holds Securities or Units in a Listed Fund in uncertificated (dematerialised) form so as to act as a repository of ownership entitlements to such Investments to enable book entry transfer of such Investments for the purposes of settlement of transactions.
Centralised Private E-currency
Private E-currency issued by a single or several administrating authorities that establish the rules for its use, maintain a central payment ledger, and have authority to redeem the Currency (withdraw it from circulation).
Centre Bodies
The bodies identified in Article 9 of the Constitutional Law.
Centre Participant
As defined in Article 1(5) of the Constitutional Law: “legal entities incorporated pursuant to the acting law of the Centre, and other legal entities accredited by the Centre”
Certificate
An instrument:
- (a) which confers on the holder contractual or property rights to or in respect of a Share, Debenture or Warrant held by a Person; and
- (b) the transfer of which may be effected by the holder without the consent of that other Person;
but excludes rights under an Option
CIS
The Collective Investment Scheme Rules
Client
A Person to whom a Centre Participant provides, intends to provide or has provided a service in the course of carrying on a Regulated Activity, Market Activity or Ancillary Service.
Client Investment
An investment as defined in COB 8.3.1
Client Investment Account
An account as defined in COB 8.3.4.
Client Investments Auditor's Report
The report specified in COB 8.3.14.
Client Investments Rule
The Rules contained in COB 8.3.
Client Money
In COB 8, has the meaning given in Rule 8.2.1;
In COB 11, Money of any currency that an Insurance Intermediary receives or holds for, or on behalf of, a Client in the course of, or in connection with,
Insurance Intermediation, except Money which is:
(a) due and payable by the Client to the Insurance Intermediary:
- (ii) in its capacity as agent of an insurer where the Insurance Intermediary acts in accordance with COB 11.8.4;
(i) for its own account; or
(b) otherwise received by the Insurance Intermediary under an arrangement made between an insurer and another Person that has authority to underwrite risks, settle claims, or handle refunds of premiums on behalf of that insurer outside the AIFC and where the Money relates to that business.
Client Money Account
Has the meaning given in COB 8.2.4
Client Money Auditor's Report
The report specified in COB 8.2.19.
Client Money Rules
The Rules contained in COB 8.2
COB
The Conduct of Business Rules.
Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants
The code of ethics for accountants issued by the International Ethics Standard Board for Accountants (IESBA) of IFAC.
Cold Digital wallet
A Digital wallet that is stored in a platform (device) that is not connected to the Internet.
Collateral
An Investment which belongs to a Client has been paid for in full by the Client and which is held or controlled by the Authorised Firm under the terms of a deposit, pledge, charge or other security arrangement.
Collective Investment Scheme
As defined in section 92 of the Framework Regulations, which is, in summary, any arrangements with respect to property of any description, including money, the purpose or effect of which is to enable Persons taking part in the arrangements (whether by becoming owners of the property or any part of it or otherwise) to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income.
Commitment Period
The period specified by an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform in which lenders or Investors may commit to lending to a particular Borrower or investing with a particular Issuer.
Commodities Risk Capital Requirement
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG.
Company service provider
A Company service provider is a Person, not captured by (a) to (e) of the definition of DNFBP that, by way of business, provides any of the following services to a customer:
- (a) acting as an agent of legal persons to form a company;
- (b) acting as, or arranging for another Person to act as, a director or secretary of a company, a partner of a partnership, or a similar position in relation to other legal persons;
- (c) providing a registered office, business address, or accommodation, correspondence or administrative address for a company, a partnership, or any other legal person or arrangement; or
- (d) acting as, or arranging for another Person to act as, a nominee shareholder for another Person, including through acting on trust for discretionary purposes.
Compliance Officer
The individual performing the Controlled Function identified in GEN 2.2.5.
Connected Person
In relation to a Person (A), a Person which has or at any relevant time had the following relationship to A:
- (a) a member of A’s Group;
- (b) a Controller of A;
- (c) a member of a partnership of which A is a member;
- (d) an Employee or former Employee of A;
- (e) if A is a Body Corporate:
- (i) an officer or manager of A or of a parent of A;
- (ii) an agent of A or of a parent of A;
- (f) if A is a Partnership is or has been a member, manager or agent of A; or
- (g) if A is an unincorporated association of persons which is not a Partnership, is or has been an officer, manager or agent of A.
Consolidated Return
A Consolidated prudential return means a prudential return which reflects the accounts, statements and reports of a Bank consolidated with those of the other members of its Financial Group.
Constitution
In relation to a Fund:
- (a) which is in the form of a Body Corporate, the instrument of incorporation;
- (b) which is in the form of a Trust, the trust deed;
- (c) which is in the form of a Partnership, the partnership deed; or
- (d) adopting a form other than one specified in (a) to (c), any instrument creating the legal form of the Fund to which the Fund Manager is a party setting out provisions relating to any aspect of the operation or management of the Fund.
Contingency Funding Plan
Has the meaning given in BBR 9.10.
Contingent Liability Transaction
A Derivative under the terms of which the Client will or may be liable to make further payments (other than charges, and whether or not secured by margin) when the transaction falls to be completed or upon the earlier closing out of his position.
Contract for Differences
(1) Subject to sub‐paragraph (2), rights under—
- (a) a contract for differences; or
- (b) any other contract the purpose or pretended purpose of which is to secure a profit or avoid a loss by reference to fluctuations in—
- (i) the value or price of property of any description; or
- (ii) an index or other factor designated for that purpose in the contract.
(2) There are excluded from sub‐paragraph (1) —
- (a) rights under a contract if the parties intend that the profit is to be secured or the loss is to be avoided by one or more of the parties taking delivery of any property to which the contract relates;
- (b) rights under a contract under which money is received by way of deposit on terms that any interest or other return to be paid on the sum deposited will be calculated by reference to fluctuations in an index or other factor;
- (c) rights under a Contract of Insurance.
Contract of Insurance
Any contract of insurance or contract of reinsurance.
Contract of Insurance
Any enforceable contract under which a 'provider' undertakes: (1) in consideration of one or more payments; (2) to pay money or provide a corresponding benefit (including in some cases services to be paid for by the provider) to a 'recipient'; (3) in response to a defined event the occurrence of which is uncertain (either as to when it will occur or as to whether it will occur at all) and adverse to the interests of the recipient.
Contract of Reinsurance
A Contract of Insurance covering all or part of a risk to which a Person is exposed under a Contract of Insurance.
Contravention
The conduct identified in section 119 of FSFR.
Control
In relation to a Family Business or Family Entity, the exercise of at least 75 percent of voting control or other direct or indirect control over the affairs of that Family Business or Family Entity by:
- (a) one or more members of a Single Family;
- (b) one or more Family Fiduciary Structures;
- (c) one or more Family Entities; or
- (d) a combinations of any of the above.
Controlled Function
A function of an Authorised Person that may only be carried out by an Approved Individual.
Controller
A Person who, either alone or with any Associate:
- (a) holds 10% or more of the shares in either the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person; or
- (b) is entitled to exercise, or controls the exercise of, 10% or more of the voting rights in either the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person; or
- (c) is able to exercise significant influence over the management of the Authorised Person as a result of holding shares or being able to exercise voting rights in the Authorised Person or a Holding Company of that Authorised Person or having a current exercisable right to acquire such shares or voting rights.
Corporate Governance Principles
The principles prescribed in MAR 2.2.
Correspondent Account
An arrangement under which a Bank (correspondent) holds funds on behalf of other bank (respondent) to make payments and other related services for or on behalf of the respondent bank.
Counterparty Grade
The grade of an asset according to the rating of its counterparty, in accordance with the table at paragraph 3.1 (Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
The grade of an asset according to the rating of its counterparty, in accordance with the table at paragraph 3.1 (Table A Grade of assets according to counterparty ratings) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Credit Conversion Factor
In relation to an off-balance sheet exposure of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm.
Credit Equivalent Amount
Has the meaning given in BBR 5.11
Credit Facility
Any facility which includes any arrangement or agreement which extends monetary credit whether funded or unfunded to a Person including but not limited to any loan or syndicated loan, mortgage, overdraft, financial lease, letter of credit, financial guarantee, trade finance, transaction finance, project finance or asset finance.
Credit Provider
Has the meaning given in BBR 1.7
Credit Rating
An opinion regarding the creditworthiness of an entity, Security, debt or other financial obligation which is disseminated to the public or distributed to a Person by subscription and expressed using an established and defined ranking system regarding the creditworthiness of the rating subject.
Credit Risk
In relation to an Authorised Firm, the risk of loss if a counterparty fails to perform or on (or) meet its financial obligation to the Authorised Firm.
Credit Risk Capital Requirement
The meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(4).
For Banking Business Firms has the meaning given in BBR 4.11 and in Chapter 5 of BBR
Credit Risk Mitigation
Has the meaning given in BBR 5.14.
Crowdfunding Platform
An Investment Crowdfunding Platform or a Loan Crowdfunding Platform.
CTF
Counter-Terrorist Financing.
Current Account
An account with a Bank held in the name of a Client through which the Client can place funds, withdraw cash and execute and receive payment transactions.
Customer
Unless otherwise indicated, a customer is:
(a) A person where, in relation to a business relationship between the person and a Relevant Person, there is a firm intention or commitment by each party to enter into a contractual relationship or where there is a firm commitment by each party to enter into a transaction, in connection with a product or service provided by the Relevant Person;
(b) A client of an Authorised Firm;
(c) A member, prospective member, or an applicant for admission of Investments to trading on an Authorised Market Institution; or
(d) A person with whom a Relevant Person is otherwise establishing or has established a business relationship.
[D]
Dealing in Investments as Agent
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 2 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Dealing in Investments as Principal
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Debenture
An instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness, whether secured or not, but excludes:
- (a) an instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness for, or for money borrowed to defray, the consideration payable under a contract for the supply of goods or services;
- (b) a cheque or other bill of exchange, a banker’s draft or a letter of credit (but not a bill of exchange accepted by a banker);
- (c) a banknote, a statement showing a balance on a bank account, or a lease or other disposition of property; and
- (d) a Contract of Insurance.
Decentralised Private E-currency
Private E-currency that have no central administrating authority, and no central monitoring or oversight, give rise to no claims on their issuer, and contain no contractual right to receive Fiat Currency or another financial asset.
Decision Notice
A notice issued by the AFSA pursuant to paragraph 5 of schedule 1 of the Framework Regulations
Deemed Professional Client
Has the meaning given in COB 2.4.1.
Default Rules
(In AMI) rules prepared by an Authorised Market Institution in accordance with AMI 3.5 or AMI 4.6.
(In MOTF) rules prepared by a MTF Operator or OTF Operator in accordance with MOTF 17.1.
Delivery Versus Payment Transaction (DVP)
A transaction in which the transfer of Investments and the payment of Money between the buyer and the seller are intended to occur simultaneously.
Deposit
1. A Deposit means a sum of money paid on terms:
- (a) under which it will be repaid, with or without interest or a premium, and either on demand or at a time or in circumstances agreed by or on behalf of the Person making the payment and the Person receiving it; and
- (b) which is not relevant to the provision of property (other than currency) or services or the giving of security.
2. In (1) money is paid on terms which are relevant to the provision of property or services or the giving of security if:
- (a) it is paid by way of advance or part payment under a contract for the sale, hire or other provision of property or services, and is repayable only in the event that the property or services are not in fact sold, hired or otherwise provided;
- (b) it is paid by way of security for the performance of a contract or by way of security in respect of loss which may result from the non-performance of a contract; or
- (c) without prejudice to (b), it is paid by way of security for the delivery up of property, whether in a particular state of repair or otherwise. Exclusions
3. A sum is not a Deposit if it is paid:
- (a) by a Person in the course of carrying on a business consisting wholly or to a significant extent of lending money;
- (b) by one company to another at a time when both are members of the same Group;
- (c) by an Authorised Firm authorised to carry on the Regulated Activity of Accepting Deposits;
- (d) by a Person who is a close relative of the Person receiving it or who is a director, manager or Controller of that Person
4. A sum is not a Deposit if it is received:
- (a) by a lawyer acting in his professional capacity;
- (b) by an accountant acting in his professional capacity;
- (c) by an Authorised Firm or an Authorised Market Institution authorised to carry on any one or more of the Regulated Activities defined in
Schedule 1 of the GEN, except Accepting Deposits, in the course of or for the purpose of any such Regulated Activity disregarding any applicable exclusions; or by a Person as consideration for the issue by him of a Debenture.
Designated Functions
Any of the functions specified in GEN 2.3.
Designated Individual
An individual who is appointed by an Authorised Person to carry out a Designated Function.
Developing FinTech Activities
The activity as defined in paragraph 2.3.1 of FINTECH.
Digital wallet (or E-wallet)
A means (software application, electronic device or other mechanism/medium) for holding, storing and transferring Private E-currency, E-money and/or other assets, investments.
Direct Electronic Access
Direct Electronic Access means:
(a) an arrangement (called direct market access), through which a Member or a client of a member is able to electronically transmit, using the Member’s trading code, an order relating to a Security, Unit in a Listed Fund or Qualified Investment directly to the facility operated by the Authorised Market Institution or MTF or OTF Operator. It includes arrangements for the use, by a Person, of the infrastructure (or connecting system) of the Member, client of the Member or another participant; or
(b) an arrangement (called sponsored access) through which a Member or a client of a member is able to electronically transmit, using the Member’s trading code, an order to the facility operated by the Authorised Market Institution or MTF or OTF Operator without using the infrastructure (or connecting system) of the Member or another participant or client.
Direct Electronic Access Rules
(In AMI) the rules prepared by an Authorised Market Institution in accordance with AMI 2.7.
Director
A Person, by whatever name called, who is:
- (a) appointed to the position of a director; or
- (b) appointed to the position of an alternate director, and is acting in that capacity; or
- (c) not validly appointed as a director but is acting in the position of a director (i.e. a de-facto director).
Distribution Event
A distribution event is:
- (a) the appointment of a liquidator, receiver or administrator, or trustee in bankruptcy, over the Authorised Firm or its Nominee Company;
- (b) the appointment of a liquidator, receiver or administrator, or trustee in bankruptcy, over a Third-Party Account Provider of the Authorised Firm or its Nominee Company; or
- (c) the coming into force of a direction by the AFSA in respect of all Client Assets held by the Authorised Firm.
DNFBP
Designated Non-Financial Business and Profession.
The following class of persons whose business or profession is carried on in or from the AIFC constitute DNFBPs:
(a) A real estate developer or agency which carries out transactions with a customer involving the buying or selling of real property;
(b) A dealer in precious metals or precious stones;
(c) A dealer in any saleable item of a price equal to or greater than USD 15,000;
(d) A law firm, notary firm, or other independent legal business;
(e) An accounting firm, audit firm, or insolvency firm; or
(f) A Company service provider; or
(g) A Single Family Office.
A person who is an Authorised Person or a Registered Auditor is not a DNFBP.
Domestic Fund
A Collective Investment Scheme that is established or domiciled in the AIFC.
Domestic Fund Manager
A Fund Manager located in the AIFC.
[E]
ECRA
External Credit Rating Agency
E-currency (or E-money)
A digital representation of Fiat Currency used to electronically transfer value denominated in Fiat Currency.
EDD
Enhanced Due Diligence, as described in AML 7.1.1.
Eligible Capital
The capital instruments that may be recognised by an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer for the purpose of meeting its MCR and PCR in accordance with PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital).
The capital instrument that may be recognised by an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator for the purpose of meeting its MCR and PCR in accordance with TRR Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital).
Employee
As defined in the Employment Regulations, an individual who works or will work in the service of another person under an express or implied contract of hire under which the other person has the right to control the details of work performance. The other person is the Employee’s Employer.
Employee Share Scheme
A scheme or arrangement for encouraging or facilitating the holding of Shares or Debentures in a Company by or for the benefit of:
- (a) the bona fide Employees or former Employees of the Company, the Company’s subsidiary or Holding Company or a subsidiary of the Company’s Holding Company; or
- (b) the wives, husbands, widows, widowers or minor children or minor stepchildren of the individuals referred to in (a).
Equity Risk Capital Requirement
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG.
Equivalent Regulated Exchange for Listed Funds
A Regulated Exchange in relation to which the AFSA has determined, either on the application of a Fund Manager or upon its own initiative, that is equivalent to an Authorised Investment Exchange in relation to the listing of Listed Funds. The AFSA may publish a list from time to time identifying Regulated Exchanges it has determined to be Equivalent Regulated Exchanges.
Exempt Fund
A Collective Investment Scheme identified in CIS 2.2(a).
Exempt Offeror
The Persons identified in MAR 1.2.1.
Exempt Securities
The Securities listed in MAR 1.2.2.
Externally Regulated PRU Investment Firm
A Person who is specified as such in a direction made by the AFSA under PRU(INV) 1.3(9).
Expert
Has the meaning given in MAR 1.9.3.
[F]
Family Business
In relation to a Single Family, a business controlled by a Single Family.
Family Captive Takaful Business
Captive Takaful Business in relation to Family Takaful Contracts.
Family Client
In relation to a Single Family:
- (a) a member of the Single Family;
- (b) a Family Fiduciary Structure;
- (c) a Family Entity; or
- (d) a Family Business.
Family Entity
In relation to a Single Family, an entity controlled by a Single Family.
Family Fiduciary Structure
In relation to a Single Family, a Trust, Foundation or similar entity:
- (a) of which a member of the Single Family or a Family Entity related to the Single Family is the settler or Founder; and
- (b) the beneficiaries of which, or Persons otherwise capable of benefiting from which, are all:
- (i) members of the Single Family;
- (ii) charities;
- (iii) Family Entities; or
- (iv) other Family Fiduciary Structures related to the Single Family
Family Member
In relation to an individual:
- (a) his spouse;
- (b) his child, step-child, parent, step-parent, brother, sister, step-brother, or stepsister; or
- (c) a spouse of any individual within (b).
Family Takaful Business
Takaful Business in relation to Family Takaful Contracts.
Family Takaful Contract
A Shari’ah-Compliant Takaful Contracts that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 2 of TRR.
Family Takaful Risk Component
The capital component identified in paragraph 9.2 (Family Takaful Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
FATF
Financial Action Task Force, as described in AML 1.4(a).
FATF Recommendations
The publication entitled the "International Standards on Combating Money Laundering and the Financing of Terrorism and Proliferation" as published and amended from time to time by FATF.
Fiat Currency
Currency which is issued by or on behalf of the government in its country (or countries) of issuance, and which is designated as legal tender in that or those countries through government decree, regulation or law.
Finance Officer
The individual performing the Controlled Function specified in GEN 2.2.4.
Financial Condition Report
The report identified in PINS 9.1.2 (Financial Condition Reports).
The report identified in TRR 9.1.2 (Financial Condition Reports).
Financial Crime
Any kind of conduct relating to money or to financial services or markets that would amount to criminal conduct under Kazakh law (whether or not such conduct takes place in the Republic of Kazakhstan), including any offence involving:
- (a) fraud or dishonesty; or
- (b) misconduct in, or misuse of information relating to, a financial market; or
- (c) handling the proceeds of crime; or
- (d) the financing of terrorism.
Financial Group
A group of entities which includes an Authorised Firm and:
- (a) any parent incorporated in the AIFC;
- (b)any Financial Institution subsidiaries (whether direct or indirect) of the parent or parents in (a) or of the Authorised Firm; and any entity which the AFSA directs the Authorised Firm to be included in the Financial Group.
Financial Institution
A regulated or unregulated entity, whose activities are primarily financial in nature.
Financial Product
Financial Promotion
Any communication (made via any medium including brochures, telephone calls and presentations) the purpose or effect of which is:
- (a) to promote or advertise (i) Investments or (ii) any Regulated Activity; or
- (b) to invite or induce any Person (i) to enter into an agreement with any Person in relation to a Financial Product or (ii) to engage in any Regulated Activity.
Financial Service
A Regulated Activity or a Market Activity.
Financial Services Regulator
A regulator of Financial Services established in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC.
FinTech
Means technology-enabled innovation in financial services that could result in new business models, applications, processes or products with an associated material effect on the provision of financial services.
FinTech Lab Activities
Activities specified in GEN 1.4. carried out for the purposes of Developing or Testing FinTech Activities.
FinTech Lab Participant
Means an Authorised Person who was issued a Licence to carry on one or more FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab.
Foreign Exchange Risk Capital Requirements
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG.
Foreign Fund
A Collective Investment Scheme that is not established or domiciled in the AIFC.
Foreign Fund Manager
A Fund Manager not located in the AIFC.
Framework Regulations
The Financial Services Framework Regulations.
Fund
A Collective Investment Scheme.
Fund Manager
A Person responsible for the management of the property held for or within a Fund and (or) who operates the Fund.
Fund Property
The property held for or within a Fund.
Future
An instrument comprising rights under a contract:
- (a) for the sale of a commodity or property of any other description under which delivery is to be made at a future date and at a price agreed on when the contract is made, and that contract:
- (i) is made or traded on a regulated exchange;
- (ii) is made or traded on terms that are similar to those made or traded on a regulated exchange; or
- (iii) would, on reasonable grounds, be regarded as made for investment and not for commercial purposes; or
- (b) where the value of the contract is ultimately determined by reference, wholly or in part, to fluctuations in:
- (i) the value or price of property of any description; or
- (ii) an index, interest rate, any combination of these, exchange rate or other factor designated for that purpose in the contract; and which is wholly settled by cash or set-off between the parties but excludes:
- (iii) rights under a contract where one or more of the parties takes delivery of any property to which the contract relates;
- (iv) a contract under which money is received by way of deposit or an acknowledgement of a debt on terms that any return to be paid on the sum deposited or received will be calculated by reference to an index, interest rate, exchange rate or any combination of these or other factors; or
- (v) a Contract of Insurance.
[G]
GEN
The General Rules.
General Captive Insurance Business
Captive Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts.
General Captive Takaful Business
Captive Takaful Business in relation to General Takaful Contracts.
General Insurance Business
Insurance Business in relation to General Insurance Contracts
General Insurance Contract
A Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 1 of PINS.
General Prohibition
The prohibition in section 24 of the Framework Regulations.
General Takaful Business
Takaful Business in relation to General Takaful Contracts.
General Takaful Contract
A Takaful Contract that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 1 of TRR.
Governing Body
The board of directors, partners, committee of management or other governing body of an Undertaking.
Group
Means a group of entities which includes an entity (the ‘first entity’) and:
- (a) any parent of the first entity; and
- (b) any subsidiaries (direct or indirect) of the parent or parents in (a) or the first entity.
[H]
Holding Company
(As defined in the Companies Regulations) a holding Body Corporate that is a Company.
Hot Digital wallet
A Digital wallet that is stored in a platform (software application) that is connected to the Internet.
[I]
ICAAP
Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process, as defined in Pillar II of the Basel framework for banking supervision
IFAC
The International Federation of Accountants.
IFR
The Islamic Finance Rules.
Individual Capital Requirement
Has the meaning given in BBR 11.3.
Inside Information
Information of a precise nature which:
- (a) has not been made public; and
- (b) relates directly or indirectly, to one or more Issuers or Listed Funds or to one or more Securities or Units in a Listed Fund; and
- (c) would, if it were made public, be likely to have a significant effect on the prices of those Securities or Units in a Listed Fund or on the price of related derivative Securities or Units in a Listed Fund.
Insider Dealing
- (a) The use, by a Person who possesses Inside information, of that information by acquiring or disposing of, for its own account or for the account of a third party, directly or indirectly, Securities or Units in a Listed Fund to which that information relates; or
- (b) the use of Inside Information by cancelling or amending an order concerning a Security or Units in a Listed Fund to which the information relates where the order was placed before the Person concerned possessed the Inside Information; or
- (c) the use of recommendations or inducements to engage in Insider Dealing, where the Person using the recommendation or inducement knows or ought to know that it is based on Inside Information.
Insurance Business
The business of conducting either or both of the following regulated activities: (a) effecting Contracts of Insurance; (b) carrying out Contracts of Insurance.
Insurance Intermediary
An Authorised Firm whose Licence authorises it to carry on the Regulated Activity of Insurance Intermediation
Insurance Intermediary Audit Report
The report specified in COB 11.8.15.
Insurance Intermediation
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 15 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Insurance Liabilities
Liabilities of an Insurer arising out of its General Insurance Business and LongTerm Insurance Business.
Insurance Risk Requirement
The capital component identified in 2.3 (Insurance Risk Requirement) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Insurer
An Authorised Firm with an authorisation to conduct Insurance Business.
Interest Rate Risk Capital Requirement
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG.
Internal Auditor
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.4 (Internal Auditor).
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at TRR 2.4.4 (Internal Auditor).
International Standards on Auditing
The international standards on auditing issued by the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) of IFAC.
International Standards on Quality Control
The international standards on quality control issued by the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) of IFAC.
Investment
A Security, Unit, Derivative or a Private E-currency and a right or interest in the relevant Security, Unit, Derivative or a Private E-currency.
Investment Business
The business of:
- (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
- (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
- (c) Managing Investments;
- (d) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme;
- (e) Providing Custody;
- (f) Arranging Custody;
- (g) Acting as the Trustee of a Fund;
- (h) Advising on Investments;
- (j) Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account; or
- (k) Operating an Exchange.
(i) Arranging Deals in Investments;
Investment Crowdfunding Platform
An electronic platform or a facility referred to in paragraph 5(1) of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules.
Research or other information recommending or suggesting an investment strategy, explicitly or implicitly, concerning one or several Investments or the issuers of Investments, including any opinion as to the present or future value or price of such Investments, intended for distribution channels or for the public, and in relation to which the following conditions are met:
- (a) it is labelled or described as investment research or in similar terms, or is otherwise presented as an objective or independent explanation of the matters contained in the recommendation; and
- (b) if the recommendation in question were to be made by an Authorised Firm to a Client, it would not constitute Advising on Investments.
Investment Risk Requirement
The sum of an AIFC-Incorporated Insurer’s Asset Risk Component, Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component and Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component.
The sum of an AIFC-Incorporated Takaful Operator’s Asset Risk Component, Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component and Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component.
Investment Service
The service of:
- (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
- (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
- (c) Managing Investments;
- (d) Advising on Investments; or
- (e) reception and transmission of orders in relation to Investments.
IRRBB
Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book as defined in chapter 8 of BBR.
Islamic Finance Business
Any part of the financial business of an Authorised Person which is carried out in accordance with Shari’a.
[K]
Key Business Document
(In REP) includes:
- (a) letterhead communications issued by post, fax or electronic means including email;
- (b) written promotional materials;
- (c) business cards; and
- (d) websites,
but does not include compliment slips, or text messages
[L]
Leverage Ratio
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.37
Licence
A licence granted by the AFSA under Part 3 of the Framework Regulations.
Life Policy
A Long-Term Insurance Contract (other than a Contract of Reinsurance or a Pure Protection Contract) and includes a Long-Term Care Insurance Contract.
Liquid Assets
The amount determined as such in accordance with PRU(INV) 4.3.
Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)
Has the meaning given in BBR 9.16
Liquidity Risk
The risk of loss to an Authorised Firm as a result of inability to meet its obligations as they fall due.
Listed Fund
A Fund whose Units have been admitted to the Official List.
Listing Rules
(In AMI) the rules prepared by an Authorised Investment Exchange in accordance with AMI 3.6.
Loan Administrator
A Person appointed by an Authorised Crowdfunding Platform to administer the collection of amounts due and payable under a loan or Debenture pursuant to AMI 7.4.2.
Loan Crowdfunding Platform
An electronic platform or a facility referred to in paragraph 4(1) of Schedule 4 the AIFC General Rules.
Long-Term Captive Insurance Business
Captive Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts.
Long-Term Care Insurance Contract
A Long-Term Insurance Contract:
- (a) that satisfies the following conditions:
- (i) it provides (or would at the Policyholder’s option provide) benefits for the Policyholder in the event that the Policyholder’s mental or physical health deteriorates to the extent that he or she is incapacitated, is unable to live independently without assistance, and is not expected to recover to the extent that he or she could live independently without assistance;
- (ii) those benefits are payable or provided for services, accommodation or goods that are necessary or desirable for the continuing care of the Policyholder because of that incapacity;
- (iii) those benefits can be paid periodically for all or part of the period during which the Policyholder is unable to live independently without assistance; or
- (b) that is sold or held out as providing benefits for the Policyholder as set out in paragraph (a).
A Family Takaful Contract that:
- (a) satisfies the following conditions:
- (i) it provides (or would at the Policyholder’s option provide) benefits for the Policyholder in the event that the Policyholder’s mental or physical health deteriorates to the extent that he or she is incapacitated, is unable to live independently without assistance, and is not expected to recover to the extent that he or she could live independently without assistance;
- (ii) those benefits are payable or provided for services, accommodation or goods that are necessary or desirable for the continuing care of the Policyholder because of that incapacity;
- (iii) those benefits can be paid periodically for all or part of the period during which the Policyholder is unable to live independently without assistance; or
- (b) is sold or held out as providing benefits for the Policyholder as set out in paragraph (a).
Long-Term Insurance Business
Insurance Business in relation to Long-Term Insurance Contracts.
Long-Term Insurance Contract
A Contract of Insurance that falls within one of the categories set out in Schedule 2 of PINS.
Long-Term Insurance Fund
A fund established by an Insurer for the purposes of PINS 7 (Segregation of Long-Term Insurance assets and liabilities).
Long-Term Insurance Risk Component
The capital component identified in paragraph 9.2 (Long-Term Insurance Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Legal Adviser
In relation to the provision of legal services, an individual:
(a)who is employed or appointed by an AIFC Body, its organisation, or an AIFC Participant in connection with the business of an AIFC Body, its organisation, or AIFC Participant in the AIFC, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or
(b)whose services provided in the AIFC, under an arrangement between an AIFC Body, its organisation, or an AIFC Participant and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of an AIFC Body, its organisation, or an AIFC Participant; or
(c) who is otherwise specified to be eligible for the purposes of these Regulations by the AIFC Legal Services Board, including one particular class of such individuals being legal advisers or counsel based outside Kazakhstan who spend a limited amount of time in the AIFC for the purposes of, for example, a corporate transaction.
In the AIFC Legal Services Regulations, rules made thereunder and in any other document produced by any Person in connection with the AIFC Legal Services Regulations, the expression “Counsel” may be substituted for “Legal Adviser” if that appears preferable in the context.
[M]
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 4 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 12 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Managing Investments
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 3 of Schedule 1 of GEN
Mandate
An arrangement under which a Client gives an Authorised Firm the ability to control the Client's assets or liabilities, including having over an account held with a third party in the Client's own name.
MAR
The AIFC Market Rules.
Market Abuse
As defined in MAR 5.1 and, in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7:
- (a) unlawful disclosure of Inside Information; and
- (b) engaging or attempting to engage in Insider Dealing; and
- (c) recommending that another Person engage in Insider Dealing; and
- (d) inducing another Person to engage in Insider Dealing; and
- (e) engaging or attempting to engage in Market Manipulation; but not:
- (a) disclosure of Inside Information made in the course of a Market Sounding; and
- (b) the behaviour described in MAR 5.3.4 to 5.3.6 (and in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7); and
- (c) accepted market practices established under MAR 5.4.4 (and in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7).
Market Activity
An activity referred to in specified of Schedule 4 of AIFC General Rules, subject to any rules made by the AFSA adding to, removing, or otherwise modifying the specified activity.
Market Contract
(a) A contract entered into by an Authorised Investment Exchange or Authorised Clearing House with Members to settle their transactions; and
(b) a contract entered into by a Member of an Authorised Investment Exchange with a Person other than that Authorised Investment Exchange made on, or subject to the rules of, the Authorised Investment Exchange; and
(c) a contract entered into by a Recognised Non-AIFC Member of an Authorised Investment Exchange with a person other than that Authorised Investment Exchange made on, or subject to the rules of, the Authorised Investment Exchange; and
(d) a contract entered into by an Authorised Investment Exchange, in its capacity as such, with a Member, an Authorised Clearing House, or another Authorised Investment Exchange for the purpose of enabling the rights and liabilities of that Member, Authorised Clearing House, or Authorised Investment Exchange under a transaction to be settled; and
(e) a contract entered into by an Authorised Investment Exchange with a Member, an Authorised Clearing House, or another Authorised Investment Exchange for the purpose of providing Central Counterparty clearing services to that Member, Authorised Clearing House, or Authorised Investment Exchange.
Market Counterparty Business
The following activities carried on by an Authorised Firm with or for a Market Counterparty:
- (a) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
- (b) Dealing in Investments as Agent; or
- (c) receiving and transmitting Client orders
Market Making Agreement
(In AMI) a written agreement between an Authorised Investment Exchange and a Member pursuing a Market Making Strategy by using its facilities.
Market Making Strategy
In relation to an Investment, a strategy by which a Person holds himself out as able and willing to enter into transactions of sale and purchase in Investments of that description at prices determined by him generally and continuously rather than in respect of each particular transaction.
Market Manipulation
The activities set in MAR 5.4.2 and the conduct set out in MAR 5.4.3 and, in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7.
Market Risk
The risk of loss that arises from fluctuations in the values of, or income from, assets or in interest or exchange rates.
Market Risk Capital Requirement
the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(5).
For Banking Business Firms, has the meaning given in BBR 6.5
Market Sounding
The conduct set out in MAR 5.5.1 and, in relation to Listed Funds, as applied pursuant to MAR 7.
Marketing Material
(in REP) Includes any material communicated to a Person in the course of marketing financial services or financial products or making introductions or referrals.
Matched Principal
An Authorised Firm which deals in Investments subject to the following conditions:
(i) it enters into transactions as a principal only for the purpose of fulfilling its Clients’ orders;
(ii) it holds positions for its own account (“positions”) only as a result of a failure to match Clients’ orders;
(iii) the total market value of the positions it holds is no more than 15% of its Tier 1 Capital; and the positions are incidental in nature and are strictly limited to the time reasonably required to carry out a transaction of that nature.
MCR
Minimum Capital Requirement
Member
A Person who is entitled, under an arrangement or agreement between him and an Authorised Market Institution, a MTF Operator or an OTF Operator, to use that institution’s or operator's facilities
Membership Rules
(In AMI) the membership rules of an Authorised Market Institution prepared in accordance with AMI 2.6.3.
(In MOTF) the membership rules of a MTF Operator or OTF Operator prepared in accordance with MOTF 3.2.
Minimum Capital Requirement
In PRU(INV), the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(2).
In PRU(INT), the meaning given in PRU(INT) 3.2.
MLRO
Money-Laundering Reporting Officer, as described in AML 13.1
Money
Any form of money, including cheques and other payable orders.
Money Laundering Reporting Officer
The individual performing the Designated Function identified at GEN 2.3.4.
MTF Operator
A Centre Participant which is licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility.
[N]
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR)
Has the meaning given in BBR 9.19.
Nominee Company
A company incorporated in the AIFC whose business consists solely of acting as a holder of Client Assets where such assets are held by the Nominee Company as agent of an Authorised Firm.
Non-AIFC Member Recognition Requirements
The requirements for recognition of Recognised Non-AIFC Members set out in section 91 of the Framework Regulations.
Non-Exempt Fund
(In CIS) A Collective Investment Scheme that is registered as a Non-Exempt Fund.
Non-Investment Insurance Contract
A Contract of Insurance that is a General Insurance Contract or a Pure Protection Contract but is not a Long-Term Care Insurance Contract.
Non-Investment Takaful Contract
a Takaful Contracts that is a General Takaful Contract or a Pure Protection Contract but is not a Long Term Care Takaful Contract.
Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business
Activities defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(7).
[O]
Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component
The capital component identified in paragraph 5 (Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
The capital component identified in paragraph 5 (Off-Balance Sheet Asset Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component
The capital component identified in paragraph 6 (Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
The capital component identified in paragraph 6 (Off-Balance Sheet Liability Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Offer
(1) In relation to Securities, an Offer of Securities.
(2) In relation to Units, an Offer of Units (and "Offered" and "Offering" and similar terms shall be construed accordingly).
Offer of Securities
A communication to any Person in any form or by any means, presenting information on the terms of the offer and the Securities offered, so as to enable an investor to decide whether or not to buy or subscribe to those Securities but excluding:
- (a) any communication in connection with the trading of Securities admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange; or
- (b) any communication made for the purposes of complying with the on-going reporting requirements of the AFSA or an Authorised Market Institution; or
- (c) any other communication prescribed in the Rules by the AFSA.
Offer of Units
A communication to any Person in any form or by any means, presenting information on the terms of the offer and the Unit offered, so as to enable an investor to decide whether or not to buy or subscribe to those Units but excluding:
- (a) (in relation to Listed Funds only) any communication in connection with the trading of Units admitted to trading on an Authorised Investment Exchange; or
- (b) (in relation to Listed Funds only) any communication made for the purposes of complying with the on-going reporting requirements of the AFSA or an Authorised Market Institution; or
- (c) any other communication prescribed in the Rules by the AFSA.
Offering Materials
The offering materials or particulars of a Fund.
Official List
The Official List of Securities and Units in Listed Funds maintained by the AFSA or the relevant Authorised Investment Exchange pursuant to section 64 of the Framework Regulations.
Operating a Clearing House
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 2 of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules.
Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 5 of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules.
Operating a Loan Crowdfunding Platform
The Market Activity as defined in paragraph 4 of Schedule 3 of the Framework Regulations.
Operating a Private E-currency Business
Operating a Private E-currency Trading Facility or Providing Custody for safeguarding and administering Private E-currencies belonging to another Person, or both.
Operating a Private E-currency Trading Facility
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 3 of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules.
Operating a Representative Office
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 16 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Operating an Exchange
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 1 of Schedule 4 of the AIFC General Rules.
Operation of a Payment System
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 27 of Schedule 1 of AIFC General Rules.
Opening and Operating Bank Accounts
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 26 of Schedule 1 of AIFC General Rules.
Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 28 of Schedule 1 of the AIFC General Rules.
Operating an Organised Trading Facility
The Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 29 of Schedule 1 of the AIFC General Rules.
Operating a Private Financing Platform
The Market Activity defined in paragraph 6 of Schedule 4 of AIFC General Rules.
Operational Risk
Operational Risk is defined as the risk of incurring losses due to inadequate or failed internal systems, processes, and people, or from external events.
Operational Risk Capital Requirement
the meaning given in PRU(INV) 3.3(6).
For Banking Business Firms, has the meaning given in BBR 7.6
Operational Risk Requirement
The capital component identified in paragraph 2.4 (Operational Risk Requirement) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
The capital component identified in paragraph 2.4 (Operational Risk Requirement) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Option
An instrument that confers on the holder, upon exercise, rights of the kind referred to in any of the following:
- (a) a right to acquire or dispose of:
- (i) a Security (other than a Warrant) or contractually based investment;
- (ii) currency of any country or territory;
- (iii) a commodity of any kind;
- (b) a right to receive a cash settlement, the value of which is determined by reference to:
- (i) the value or price of an index, interest rate or exchange rate; or
- (ii) any other rate or variable; or
- (c) a right to acquire or dispose of another Option under (a) or (b).
Option Risk Capital Requirement
A component of Market Risk Capital Requirement and calculated in accordance with BBR 6.5 and chapter 6 of BPG.
Outstanding Claims Risk Component
The capital component identified in paragraph 8 (Outstanding Claims Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
The capital component identified in paragraph 8 (Outstanding Claims Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Overseas Listed Fund
A Fund:
- (a) that is not established or domiciled in the AIFC;
- (b) that is not registered or required to be registered under CIS;
- (c) that is not managed by a Domestic Fund Manager; and
- (d) whose Units have been admitted to trading on another Authorised Investment Exchange, a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution or other Equivalent Regulated Exchange for Listed Funds.
OTF Operator
A Centre Participant which is licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating an Organised Trading Facility.
[P]
Packaged Product
(a) a Life Policy; or
(b) a Family Takaful Contract; or
(с) a Unit in a Collective Investment Scheme
Partner
In relation to an Undertaking which is a Partnership, a Person occupying the position of a partner, by whatever name called.
Partnership
Any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a jurisdiction other than the AIFC, but not including a Limited Liability Partnership.
PCR
Prescribed Capital Requirement
PEP
Politically Exposed Person. A PEP is a natural person (including a family member or known associate) who is or has been entrusted with a prominent public function, including but not limited to: a head of state or of government, senior politician, member of a legislative or constitutional assembly, senior government official, senior judicial official, senior military officer, ambassador, senior person in an international organisation, senior executive of a state-owned entity, a senior political party official, or an individual who has been entrusted with similar functions such as a director or a deputy director; at an international, national, or regional level.
This definition does not include middle-ranking or more junior individuals in the above categories.
Person
A Person includes any natural person, Body Corporate or body unincorporated, including a legal person, company, Partnership, unincorporated association, government or state.
Personal Transaction
A transaction in an Investment executed for or on behalf of a natural person, where at least one of the following criteria are met:
(1) that person is acting outside the scope of the activities he carried out in that capacity;
(2) the transaction is carried out for the account of any of the following persons:
- (a) the natural person;
- (b) the spouse or civil partner of the natural person or any partner of that natural person considered by national law as equivalent to a spouse;
- (c) a dependent child or stepchild of that natural person;
- (d) any other relative of that natural person who has shared the same household as that person for at least one year on the date of the personal transaction concerned;
- (e) any person with whom he has close links;
- (f) a person whose relationship with that natural person is such that the natural person has a direct or indirect material interest in the outcome of the trade, other than a fee or commission for the execution of the transaction.
Policyholder
Includes a potential policyholder.
Policyholder
The Person who for the time being is the legal holder of a Contract of Insurance, including any Person to whom, under the Contract of Insurance, a sum is due, a periodic payment is payable or any other benefit is to be provided or to whom such a sum, payment or benefit is contingently due, payable or to be provided.
Policyholder or Participant
The Person who for the time being is the legal holder of a Takaful Contract, including any Person to whom, under the Takaful Contract, a sum is due, a periodic payment is payable, or any other benefit is to be provided or to whom such a sum, payment or benefit is contingently due, payable or to be provided.
Preliminary Notice
A notice issued by the AFSA pursuant to paragraph 4 of schedule 1 of the Framework Regulations.
Premium Risk Component
The capital component identified in paragraph 7 (Premium Risk Component) of PINS Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
The capital component identified in paragraph 7 (Premium Risk Component) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Principal Representative
An individual designated by a Representative Office in accordance with REP.
Private E-currency (or Private Electronic Currency or Private E-money)
A digital representation of value that (1) can be digitally traded and functions as
- (a) a medium of exchange; or (b) a unit of account; or (c) a store of value; (2) can be exchanged back-and-forth for Fiat Currency, but is neither issued nor guaranteed by the government of any jurisdiction, and (3) fulfils the above functions only by agreement within the community of users of the Private E-currency; and accordingly (4) is to be distinguished from Fiat Currency and E-money.
Private Placement
An Offer made to a Person who is likely to be interested in the Offer having regard to:
Privileged Communication
A communication attracting a privilege arising from the provision of professional legal advice and any other privilege applicable at law, but which does not include a general duty of confidentiality.
Product Disclosure Document
For a Packaged Product produced by an Authorised Firm: a statement in writing prepared by the firm for the product in accordance with COB 5.6 (Packaged products—additional disclosure).
Professional Client
A Client that is either a Deemed Professional Client or an Assessed Professional Client.
Profit Sharing Investment Account
An account or portfolio in relation to property of any kind, including the currency of any country or territory, held for or within the account or portfolio, which:
- (a) is managed under the term of an agreement whereby:
- (i) the investor agrees to share any profit with the manager of the account or portfolio in accordance with a predetermined specified percentage or ratio; and
- (ii) the investor agrees that he alone will bear any losses in the absence of negligence or breach of contract on the part of the manager; and
- (b) is held out as being managed in accordance with Shari'ah
Property Manager
A Person appointed to provide Real Estate Management and Servicing Activities in respect of Real Properties.
Prospectus
A document referred to in MAR 1.3.
Prospectus Summary
The document referred to in MAR 1.4.
Providing Accountancy Services
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 3 of Schedule 2 of GEN.
Providing Audit Services
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 of GEN.
Providing Consultancy Services
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 4 of Schedule 2 of GEN.
Providing Credit
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 18 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Providing Custody
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 5 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Providing Fund Administration
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 8 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Providing Legal Services
The Ancillary Service as defined in paragraph 1 of Schedule 2 of GEN.
Providing Money Services
A Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 21 of Schedule 1 of the GEN.
Providing Transaction Services for Decentralised Private Ecurrencies
Operating a facility that functions regularly to validate and add transaction records to the ledger of all transactions.
Providing Trust Services
The Regulated Activity as defined in paragraph 7 of Schedule 1 of GEN.
PRU Dealing Investment Firm
A Person defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(3).
PRU Intermediary Investment Firm
A Person defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(4).
PRU Investment Business
Activities defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(5).
PRU Investment Firm
A Person defined as such in PRU(INV) 1.3(2).
Pure Protection Contract
A Long-Term Insurance Contract that meets all of the following conditions:
- (a) the benefits under the contract are payable only on death or for incapacity due to injury, sickness or infirmity;
- (b) the contract has no surrender value, or the consideration consists of a single premium and the surrender value does not exceed that premium;
- (c) the contract makes no provision for its conversion or extension in a way that would result in it ceasing to comply with paragraph (a) or (b);
- (d) the contract is not a Contract of Reinsurance. A Family Takaful Contract that meets all of the following conditions:
- (a) the benefits under the contract are payable only on death or for incapacity due to injury, sickness or infirmity;
- (b) the contract has no surrender value, or the consideration consists of a single premium and the surrender value does not exceed that premium;
- (c) the contract makes no provision for its conversion or extension in a way that would result in it ceasing to comply with paragraph (a) or (b);
- (d) the contract is not a Contract of Retakaful.
[R]
RBA
Risk-Based Approach, as described in AML 4.1.1.
Real Estate Management and Servicing Activities
Activities relating to managing and supervising real estate on behalf of the owner, including (but not limited to) carrying out or contracting for the provision of maintenance, cleaning and administration and appointing of leasing agents, but excluding selling or renting such real estate
Real Property
Any form of direct or indirect interest in real estate.
REC
The Recognition Rules.
Recognised Jurisdiction
A jurisdiction which has been recognised by the AFSA in accordance with CIS Schedule 2.
Recognised NonAIFC Clearing House
A Person declared by the AFSA to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House under section 89 of the Framework Regulations.
Recognised NonAIFC Investment Exchange
A Person declared by the AFSA to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange under section 89 of the Framework Regulations.
Recognised NonAIFC Market Institutions
Either a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House or a Recognised Non-AIFC Investment Exchange.
Recognised NonAIFC Member
A Person declared by the AFSA to be a Recognised Non-AIFC Member under section 91 of the Framework Regulations.
Recognition Requirements
The requirements specified in section 89(3) of the Framework Regulations in relation to the declaration by the AFSA of a Person to be either Recognised NonAIFC Investment Exchange or Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House.
Registered Auditor
An auditor or audit firm registered, licensed, or otherwise regulated by any competent authority worldwide.
Registrar of Companies
The registrar of companies appointed pursuant to the AIFC Companies Regulations.
Registration Document
In relation to a Prospectus structured as multiple documents, the document referred to in MAR 1.3.1(a)(ii).
Regulated Activity
An activity specified of Schedule 1 of GEN.
Regulated Exchange
An exchange regulated by a financial services regulator.
Regulated Financial Institution
A Person who does not hold a Licence but who is authorised in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC to carry on any financial service by another Financial Services Regulator.
Regulation
A regulation enacted under Article 4(3) of the Constitutional Law.
Regulatory Capital
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.13.
Regulatory Objectives
The objectives of the AFSA identified in section 7(3) of the Framework Regulations.
Related Party
In MAR has the meaning given in MAR 2.5.2(a).
Related Party Transaction
In MAR has the meaning given in MAR 2.5.2(b).
Related Person
A Person (the second Person) is a Related Person of that Firm if:
- (a) the Firm and the second Person are members of the same Group;
- (b) the second Person is an individual who is a director or officer of the Firm or of another member of the same Group;
- (c) the second Person is the spouse or minor child of an individual mentioned in paragraph (b); or
- (d) the second Person is a company that is subject to significant influence by or from an individual mentioned in paragraph (b) or (c).
Relevant Person
In AML has the meaning given in AML 1.2(a).
REP
The Representative Office Rules.
Reporting Entity
A Person who:
- (a) has Securities or Units admitted to an Official List;
- (b) is the Fund Manager of a Listed Fund; or
- (c) is declared by the AFSA to be a Reporting Entity.
Retail Client
A Client that is not classified as a Professional Client or Market Counterparty.
Risk Management Policy
A written policy that complies with the requirements of PINS 3.1.3 (Contents of Risk Management Policy).
A written policy that complies with the requirements of TRR 3.1.3 (Contents of Risk Management Policy).
Risk Management Strategy
A written strategy document that complies with the requirements of PINS 3.1.2 (Contents of Risk Management Strategy).
A written strategy document that complies with the requirements of TRR 3.1.2 (Contents of Risk Management Strategy).
Risk Officer
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at PINS 2.2.3 (Risk Officer).
The Approved Individual performing the role identified at TRR 2.4.3.
Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs)
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.7.
Risk-Weight
In relation to an asset or an off-balance sheet exposure of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm.
Risk-Weighted Assets Amount
The amount calculated in respect of a PRU Dealing Investment Firm as identified in guidance to PRU(INV) 3.3(4).
Rule
A rule made by the AFSA under Article 4(3) of the Constitutional Law.
[S]
SAR
Suspicious Activity Report. A report in a prescribed format regarding suspicious activity or suspicious transactions made to the AFSA.
Savings Account
An account with a Bank held in the name of a Client through which the Client can place and withdraw Deposits.
SDD
Simplified Due Diligence, as described in AML 8.1.1.
Securities Note
In relation to a Prospectus structured as multiple documents, the document referred to in MAR 1.3.1(a)(iii).
Securities Settlement System
A system operated by a Person which enables Investments held in accounts to be transferred and settled by book entry according to a set of laws and predetermined multilateral rules to provide legal certainty.
Security
- 1. A Security is:
- (a) a Share;
- (b) a Debenture;
- (c) a Warrant;
- (d) a Certificate; or
- (e) a Structured Product.
- 2. For the purposes of article 6 of the Constitutional Law, a Security shall be treated as if it includes a Unit.
Segregated Client
A Client whose assets or Money is required to be held in compliance with either COB 8.2, COB 8.3 or COB 11.8.
Senior Executive Officer
The individual performing the Controlled Function specified in GEN 2.2.2.
Senior Manager
The individual performing the Designated Function specified in GEN 2.3.2.
Share
A share or stock in the share capital of any Body Corporate or any unincorporated body (excluding a Unit).
Shell Bank
A bank that has no physical presence in the country in which it is incorporated or licensed and which is not affiliated with a regulated financial group that is subject to effective consolidated supervision. In this definition, physical presence in a jurisdiction is a presence involving meaningful decision-making and management and not merely the presence of a local agent or low level staff.
Single Family
An individual or group of individuals that are the lineal descendants (including minors, descendants by adoption (that is, stepchildren, adopted children, foster children, children adopted by legal guardianship), and illegitimate children) of a common ancestor (who is no more than 10 generations removed from the youngest generation of family members) or their spouses (including widows or widowers, whether or not remarried).
Single Family Office
a Body Corporate established in the AIFC that:
- (a) is indirectly or wholly owned by members of a Single Family; and
- (b) does not hold itself out to the public as carrying on Regulated Activities; and
- (c) carries on Regulated Activities on behalf of Family Clients only.
Skilled Person
A Person appointed to make a report required by the AFSA under section 97 of the Framework Regulations.
Smart-Contract
A computer code that represents a contract, and that executes and enforces the terms of such contract on an automated basis, without the need for intermediation by any person.
Solo Prudential Return
A prudential return is referred to as a Solo Prudential Return if it reflects the individual Bank’s accounts, statements and reports.
Solvency Reference Date
The date at which an Insurer’s compliance with the requirements of PINS 5 (Capital adequacy requirements) is assessed. The date at which a Takaful Operator’s compliance with the requirements of TRR 5 is assessed.
Source(s) of Funds
The origin of the customer's funds which relate to a transaction or service and includes how such funds are connected to a customer's source of wealth.
Source(s) of Wealth
How the customer's global wealth or net worth is or was acquired or accumulated.
Structured Product
An instrument comprising rights under a contract where:
- (a) the gain or loss of each party to the contract is ultimately determined by reference to the fluctuations in the value or price of property of any description, an index, interest rate, exchange rate or a combination of any of these as specified for that purpose in the contract (“the underlying factor”) and is not leveraged upon such fluctuations;
- (b) the gain or loss of each party is wholly settled by cash or setoff between the parties;
- (c) each party is not exposed to any contingent liabilities to any other counterparty; and
- (d) there is readily available public information in relation to the underlying factor; but excludes any rights under an instrument:
- (e) where one or more of the parties takes delivery of any property to which the contract relates;
- (f) which is a Debenture; or
- (g) which is a Contract of Insurance.
Subsidiary
In accordance with paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 of the Companies Regulations, a Body Corporate (the first Body Corporate) is a Subsidiary of another Body Corporate (the second Body Corporate) if:
- (a) the second Body Corporate:
- (i) holds a majority of the voting rights in the first Body Corporate; or
- (ii) is a shareholder of the first Body Corporate and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of Directors or managers of the first Body Corporate; or
- (iii) is a shareholder of the first Body Corporate and controls alone, under an agreement with other shareholders, a majority of the voting rights in the first Body Corporate; or
- (b) the first Body Corporate is a subsidiary of another Body Corporate that is itself a subsidiary of the second Body Corporate, which is its Holding Company.
Sub-Fund
A separate pool of Fund Property within an Umbrella Fund.
Supplementary Prospectus
An updated or replacement Prospectus produced in accordance with in section 73 of the Framework Regulations.
[T]
Takaful Business
A Regulated Activity defined in paragraph 24 of Schedule 1 of the GEN.
Takaful Contract
Any Contract of Insurance which is Shari’ah-compliant and is either a Family Takaful Contract or a General Takaful Contract.
Takaful Fund
Has the meaning given in TRR 1.1.5 (2).
Takaful Liabilities
Liabilities of a Takaful Operator arising out of its General Takaful Business and Family Takaful Business.
Takaful Operator
Has the meaning given in TRR 1.1.5 (1).
Takaful Risk Requirement
The capital component identified in 2.3 (Takaful Risk Requirement) of TRR Schedule 5 (Calculation of Prescribed Capital Requirement (PCR)).
Takeover
A takeover or merger transaction however effected, including schemes of arrangements which have similar commercial effect to takeovers and mergers, partial bids, bid by a parent company for shares in its subsidiary and (where appropriate) share repurchases by general bid.
Takeover Offer
A public offer (other than by the offeree company itself) made to the holders of the Securities of a company to acquire all or some of those Securities, whether mandatory or voluntary, which follows or has as its objective the acquisition of control of the offeree company.
Takeover Principles
Principles prescribed by the AFSA pursuant to section 88(1)(b) of the Framework Regulations.
Takeover Rules
Rules prescribed by the AFSA pursuant to section 88(1)(a) of the Framework Regulations.
Testing FinTech Activities
The activity as defined in paragraph 2.2.1 of FINTECH
Third Party Account Provider
In relation to a Client Money Account or a Client Investment Account, means an Authorised Firm or Regulated Financial Institution (including a bank, custodian, intermediate broker, settlement agent, clearing house, exchange and/or "over the counter" counterparty) that is a separate legal entity from the Authorised Firm that is required under COB to establish the Client Money Account or Clienet Investment Account.
Tier 1 Capital
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.13.
Tier 1 Capital
The components of capital identified at paragraph 3 (Components of Tier 1 Capital) of PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital)
The components of capital identified at paragraph 3 of TRR Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital).
Tier 2 Capital
Has the meaning given in BBR 4.18
Tier 2 Capital
The components of capital identified at paragraph 4 (Components of Tier 2 Capital) of PINS Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital).
The components of capital identified at paragraph 4 of TRR Schedule 3 (Calculation of Eligible capital).
Trading Book
Has the meaning given in BBR 6.2.
Transaction
Any transaction undertaken by an Authorised Firm in the course of carrying on a Financial Service in or from the AIFC.
Transaction Services for Decentralised Private Ecurrencies (also known as Mining)
Validation and adding transactions made with a Decentralised Private Ecurrencies to the ledger of all transactions.
[U]
Umbrella Fund
A Fund in which the contributions of the Unitholders in the Fund and the profits or income out of which payments made to them are pooled separately in a number of Sub-Funds constituting separate parts of the Fund Property.
Undertaking
- (a) a Body Corporate; or
- (b) Partnership; or
- (c) an unincorporated association carrying on a trade or business, with or without a view to profit
Unit
A unit in or a share representing the rights or interests of a Unitholder in a Fund.
Unsolicited Real Time Financial Promotion
Has the meaning given in COB 3.4.2
[V]
[Q]
Qualified Investment | In accordance with MOTF 5.2, Qualified Investment means a financial or commodity instrument, agreement or transaction under which, at a specified time or within a specified period of time: (a) a payment or delivery obligation is to be performed, or title to commodity or asset is to be transferred; or (b) an obligation to make payment or delivery, or to transfer title to commodity or asset, is to be entered into or incurred. |
FEES RULES
Fees Rules
Guidance: Purpose of this rulebook
The purpose of this rulebook, “FEES”, is to set out the framework for entities to pay fees in order to apply to operate within the jurisdiction of the AIFC and, in some cases, they may pay annual supervision fees to continue operating in this way. In addition, where such entities fail to comply with legal and regulatory requirements, they may also be liable to pay a late fee and/or fine as set out in FEES.
1. APPLICATION FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA
1.1. Application
This Chapter applies to:
(a) an Authorised Firm, or a Person applying for Authorised Firm status;
(b) an Authorised Market Institution, or a Person applying for Authorised Market Institution status;
(c) an Ancillary Service Provider, or a Person applying for Ancillary Service Provider status;
(d) a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution or Recognised Non-AIFC Member, or a Person applying for Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution or Recognised Non-AIFC Member status;
(e) a Centre Participant or Person applying for waivers and/or modifications under AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations;
(f) a Centre Participant or Person applying for no-action letter under AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations;
(g) a Domestic Fund Manager that intends to manage an Exempt or Non-Exempt Fund; and
(h) a Foreign Fund Manager that intends to manage an Exempt Fund.
Guidance
FEES 1 deals only with application fees for the AFSA. Centre Participants may also be required to pay application fees to the Registrar of Companies under the Companies Regulations as specified in FEES 2.
1.2. Application fees
1.2.1. Application fees payable to the AFSA in respect of Regulated Activities
An applicant seeking to conduct Regulated Activities or an Authorised Firm applying to modify or withdraw a Licence to carry on Regulated Activities must pay to the AFSA:
1.2.2. Application fees payable to the AFSA in respect of Market Activities
An applicant seeking to conduct Market Activities or an Authorised Firm applying to modify or withdraw a Licence to carry on Market Activities must pay to the AFSA:
1.2.3. Application fees payable to the AFSA in respect of Ancillary Services
An applicant seeking to carry on one or more Ancillary Services or an Ancillary Service Provider applying to vary or withdraw a Licence to carry on Ancillary Services, must pay to the AFSA:
- (a) the application fees specified in Schedule 3; and
- (b) any supplementary fee required by the AFSA in accordance with FEES 6.
Guidance
REC 1.1.1 states that a Person that operates an investment exchange or clearing house outside the AIFC may apply to the AFSA to become a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution by providing specified information and records, and by paying the fee prescribed in FEES.
REC 2.1.1 states that a Person located in a jurisdiction other than the AIFC may apply to the AFSA to become a Recognised Non-AIFC Member by completing an application, providing information required, and by paying the fee prescribed in FEES.
CIS 4.3 states that the AFSA will register a Fund if the Fund Manager is either: (i) authorised as a Fund Manager by the AFSA; or (ii) a Foreign Fund Manager that is authorised by a Financial Services Regulator: (1) in a Recognised Jurisdiction; or (2) in a jurisdiction that is otherwise acceptable to the AFSA pursuant to CIS Schedule 3.
1.2.4. Application fees payable in respect of a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution, Recognised Non-AIFC Member or Foreign Fund Manager
An applicant seeking recognition as a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution, Recognised Non-AIFC Member or Foreign Fund Manager must pay:
1.2.5. Application fees payable to the AFSA in respect of waivers and/or modifications
An applicant seeking AFSA decision on waiver and/or modification under the AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations, must pay to the AFSA:
(a) the application fees specified in Schedule 7; and
(b) any supplementary fee required by the AFSA in accordance with FEES 6.
1.2.6. Application fees payable to the AFSA in respect of no-action letter
1.2.6. An applicant seeking AFSA decision on no-action letter under the AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations, must pay to the AFSA:
(a) the application fees specified in Schedule 7; and
(b) any supplementary fee required by the AFSA in accordance with FEES 6.
1.3. Approved Individuals
Fees are payable in respect of any application for an Approved Individual as specified in Schedules 1, 2 or 6, depending on the nature of the entity on whose behalf the Approved Individual is acting.
1.4. Non-refundable nature of application fees
Any application fees paid, whether in respect of an applicant, Authorised Firm or Approved Individual, are non-refundable, regardless of whether the application is successful or not.
2. APPLICATION AND OTHER FEES PAYABLE TO THE REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES
2.1. Application
2.1.1. Application fees payable to the Registrar of Companies in respect of a Company or Partnership
An applicant seeking to register or have recognised a legal entity must pay to the Registrar of Companies the application fees specified in Schedule 5.
Guidance
The fee specified in relation to each matter above is payable to the Registrar of Companies on the registration of the documents so delivered
2.1.2. Application fees payable to the Registrar of Companies in respect of a Foreign Company or Partnership incorporated outside the AIFC
An applicant on behalf of a Company or Partnership incorporated outside the AIFC seeking recognition as a Recognised Company or Partnership or continuation in order to carry on business in the AIFC and applying for a relevant certificate, must pay to the Registrar of Companies the application fees specified in Schedule 5.
Guidance
The fee specified in relation to each matter above is payable to the Registrar of Companies on the registration of the documents so delivered.
2.1.3. Application fees payable to the Registrar of Companies in respect of transfer of incorporation from the AIFC
A Company or Partnership registered in the AIFC seeking to transfer its incorporation from the AIFC must pay to the Registrar of Companies the application fee specified in Schedule 5.
2.2. Non-refundable nature of application fees
Any application fees paid, whether in respect of an applicant, Authorised Firm or Approved Individual, are non-refundable, regardless of whether the application is successful or not.
2.3. Filing fee for annual return or annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register
2.3.1. Fee payable to the Registrar of Companies in respect of filing an annual return or annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register or accounts in relation to each financial year.
When an annual return or annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register or accounts in relation to each financial year is filed under the Companies Regulations and other Legislation Administered by the Registrar, it must be accompanied by the filing fee specified in Schedule 5-2.
Guidance
Section 26(2) of the Companies Regulations specifies that a company’s annual return must be accompanied by the filing fee prescribed by the Registrar of Companies from time to time.
Section 26-1(10) of the Companies Regulations specifies that a company’s annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register must be accompanied by the filing fee prescribed by the Registrar of Companies from time to time.
2.4. Fees for Post - Registration Procedures
2.4.1. Fee for Post- Registration Procedures
A Person seeking to proceed with Post-Registration Procedure in relation to a Centre Participant may be required to pay a prescribed fee specified in Schedule 5-1 for each specific procedure.
Guidance
Sections (17) and (148) of the Companies Regulations specify that the Registrar of Companies may charge a fee for the procedure of change in Registered Details or other Post-Registration Procedures under the Companies Regulations, Rules or any other Legislation administered by the Registrar.
2.5. Fee for keeping information in the Register kept by the Registrar
2.5.1. A Person seeking to make election to keep information in the Register kept by the Registrar may be required to pay a fee prescribed by the Registrar from time to time.
2.6. Fee for reservation of a name
2.6.1. A Person seeking to apply to the Registrar of Companies for the reservation of a name may be required to pay a fee prescribed by the Registrar from time to time.
Guidance
Rule 2.4. of the Companies Rules specifies that an application for the reservation of a name for a Company (or proposed Company) must be accompanied by the prescribed fee set out in the Rules from time to time.
Rule 2.1. of the General Partnership Rules specifies that an application for the reservation of a name for a General Partnership (or proposed General Partnership) must be accompanied by the prescribed fee set out in the Rules from time to time.
Rule 2.2. of the Limited Partnership Rules specifies that an application for the reservation of a name for Limited Partnership (or proposed Limited Partnership) must be accompanied by the prescribed fee set out in the Rules from time to time.
Rule 2.2. of the Limited Liability Partnership Rules specifies that an application for the reservation of a name for a Limited Liability Partnership (or proposed Limited Liability Partnership) must be accompanied by the prescribed fee set out in the Rules from time to time.
Rule 2.4. of the Non-Profit Incorporated Organisations Rules specifies that an application for the reservation of a name for an Incorporated Organisation (or proposed Incorporated Organisation) must be accompanied by the prescribed fee set out in the Rules from time to time.
2.7. Application fees payable to the Registrar of Companies in respect of waivers and/or modifications
An applicant seeking decision of the Registrar of Companies on waiver and/or modification under the Companies Regulations, must pay the fee prescribed by the Registrar of Companies from time to time.
3. ANNUAL SUPERVISION FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA
3.1.1. What annual supervision fees must be paid
An Authorised Firm, Authorised Market Institution, Ancillary Service Provider, Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution or Recognised Non-AIFC Member must pay to the AFSA:
- (a) the annual supervision fee specified in Schedule 6; and
- (b) any supplementary fee required by the AFSA
3.1.2. When annual supervision fees must be paid – initial annual fee
The initial annual supervision fee must be paid in full to the AFSA within 21 days of the date of the commencement of operations.
Guidance
For the purposes of this Rule, a firm is deemed to have commenced operations having received its authorisation and satisfied pre-conditions of its authorisation.
3.1.3. When annual supervision fees must be paid– subsequent annual fee
Subsequent annual supervision fees must be paid in full to the AFSA on or before 1 January of every calendar year
3.1.4. Initial annual supervision fee
- (a) An initial annual supervision fee must be paid for the initial period of regulation after the grant of licensed status and the commencement of operations.
- (b) The initial annual supervision fee is calculated as the annual supervision fee, pro-rated over the whole months remaining between the date of the commencement of operations and the end of the year.
3.1.5. Subsequent annual supervision fees
(a) A standard annual supervision fee must be paid for any period of regulation after the period described in FEES 3.1.4.
(b) The standard annual supervision fee is:
the highest of the fees specified in the fees table corresponding to the activities which the relevant entity is licensed to carry on.
(ii) [intentionally omitted].
4. FEES FOR EXTRACTS OF INFORMATION
4.1. Fee for extracts from information held by the Registrar of Companies
4.1.1. General requirement
Persons seeking extracts of information or other documentation held by the Registrar of Companies in relation to a Centre Participant or Approved Individual may be required, upon application, to pay a prescribed fee specified in Schedule 5-1 for each specific information request.
4.1.2. Charges to be specified
The Registrar of Companies may determine the amount of the fee specified in FEES 4.1.1 at a later date.
Guidance
Section 189(3)(b) of the Companies Regulations specifies that the Registrar of Companies may charge a fee for the inspection of documents or other material held by the Registrar under the Companies Regulations, the Rules or any other Legislation administered by the Registrar.
4.2. Fee for extracts from information held by the AFSA
4.2.1. General requirement
Persons seeking extracts of information maintained in the public registers by the AFSA in relation to a Centre Participant or Approved Individual may be required, upon application, to pay a prescribed fee for each specific information request.
4.2.2. Charges to be specified
The AFSA may determine the amount of the fee specified in FEES 4.2.1 at a later date.
5. GENERAL PROVISIONS
5.1.1. Application not regarded as submitted until fee paid
Where a fee is payable for any application to the AFSA or the Registrar of Companies, the application may not be regarded by the AFSA or the Registrar of Companies as submitted, and therefore ready to be reviewed, until the fee has been paid in full.
5.1.2. Increase of sum due if fee not paid
Where an annual fee or supplementary fee in relation to ongoing supervision is due from a Person under a provision of these rules, it must be paid by the date upon which it falls due.
Should a Person fail to pay by the due date then, without limiting the right of the AFSA to take any other action, the sum due will be increased by 1% for each month, or part of a month, that it remains outstanding beyond the due date.
5.1.3. Power of the AFSA and Registrar of Companies to reduce or waive fees
The AFSA or Registrar of Companies may reduce, waive or refund all or part of any fee if, having considered the circumstances of a particular case, it deems it would be equitable to do so.
6. SUPPLEMENTARY FEES
6.1. AFSA and the Registrar of Companies may require supplementary fees in certain cases
6.1.1. The AFSA and the Registrar of Companies may require a Person, AIFC Participant or applicant, to pay a supplementary fee to the AFSA or the Registrar of Companies in circumstances where substantial additional costs are expected to be incurred when dealing with an application or conducting ongoing supervision or dealing with a particular supervisory event.
6.1.2. In case of dealing with an application the AFSA or Registrar of Companies will notify the applicant as soon as reasonably practicable that a supplementary fee is likely to be required, in order that the applicant may make an informed decision as to whether to make representations, withdraw or modify its application.
6.1.3. If a supplementary fee is required, the AFSA or Registrar of Companies will notify the Person, AIF participant or applicant as soon as reasonably practicable of the amount of the supplementary fee. The Person, AIFC participant or applicant must pay the supplementary fee within the period specified in the notification.
6.1.4. The AFSA may issue guidance on supplementary fees required from AIFC Participants when conducting ongoing supervision or dealing with a particular supervisory event.
7. LATE FILING FEES AND FINES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA AND REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES
7.1. Late fees for failure to provide notification, report or return
7.1.1. General
FEES 7.1 applies if a Person breaches any Rule by failing to provide a notification, report or return (however described) to the AFSA as, or within the time within which, that rule requires it to be provided.
7.1.2. Nature of failure to provide a notification, report, or return
Without limiting FEES 7.1.3 and, to remove any doubt, FEES 7.1 applies to a failure to provide a notification, report, or return (however described) to the AFSA as, or within the time within which, it was required to be provided, if:
- (a) the notification, report or return was not received (or considered to have been received) by the AFSA within that time; or
- (b) the notification, report or return was received by the AFSA within that time, but:
- (i) it was incomplete or inaccurate in a material respect;
- (ii) if under any regulations or rules it was required to be in a particular form, it was not in substantially that form;
- (iii) if under any regulations or rules it was required to be prepared, completed or signed in a particular way, it was not prepared, completed or signed in that way; or
- (iv) if under any regulations or rules it was required to be provided (however described) to the authority in a particular way, it was not provided in that way.
7.1.3. Late fees payable to the AFSA
A Person falling within FEES 7.1 shall pay to the AFSA the late fee specified in Schedule 10.
7.2. Fines for breaches of the Companies Regulations
7.2.1. General
FEES 7.2 applies if the Registrar of Companies is satisfied that a Person has contravened the Companies Regulations, and contravention of the relevant provision is expressed to be punishable by a fine.
7.2.2. Fines payable to the Registrar of Companies
Subject to any amounts prescribed and/or limits on fees specified in the Companies Regulations, the Registrar of Companies may determine at its discretion the amount payable for a fine falling within FEES 7.2.
7.3. Fines for breaches of the AIFC Rules administered by the AFSA
7.3.1. General
If the AFSA is satisfied that a Person has contravened a provision in the AIFC Rules administered by the AFSA, that Person shall be liable to pay a fine.
7.3.2. Fines payable to the AFSA
Subject to any amounts prescribed and/or limits on fees specified in the AIFC Rules administered by the AFSA, the AFSA may determine at its discretion the amount payable for a fine falling within FEES 7.3.1.
7.4. Late fees for failure to comply with direction issued by the AFSA
7.4.1. General
FEES 7.4 applies if an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider fails to comply with a written requirement by the AFSA that specifies:
- (a) an action that the firm is to take; and
- (b) a date by which the action is to be taken.
7.4.2. Nature of failure to comply
For the purposes of FEES 7.4.1, an Authorised Person or Ancillary Service Provider fails to comply with such a requirement if the firm:
- (a) does not take the specified action by the specified date; or
- (b) purports to take the action but does so in a way that the authority regards as inadequate.
7.4.3. Late fees payable to the AFSA
Subject to any amounts prescribed and/or limits on fees specified in the AIFC Rules administered by the AFSA, a Person falling within FEES 7.4 shall pay to the AFSA the late fee specified in Schedule 10.
7.5. Other action not prevented
Nothing in this Chapter prevents the AFSA taking any action or exercising any of its powers under AIFC Financial Services Framework Regulations, including Part 8 and 9, or any other applicable AIFC acts in relation to a contravention to which this Chapter applies.
7.6. Late filing fees for failure to provide annual return, annual confirmation statement or accounts in relation to each financial year
7.6.1. General
FEES 7.6 applies if a Person breaches any Rule by failing to provide annual return, annual confirmation statement or accounts to Registrar of Companies within the required time.
7.6.2. Nature of failure to provide annual return, annual confirmation statement or accounts
Without limiting FEES 7.6.3. and, to remove any doubt, FEES 7.6 applies to a failure to provide annual return, annual confirmation statement or accounts to the Registrar of Companies within the required time including if:
(a) annual return, annual confirmation statement or accounts was not received (or considered to have not been received) by the Registrar of Companies within the required time; or
(b) annual return, annual confirmation statement or accounts was received by the Registrar of the Companies within the required time, but:
- (i) it was incomplete or inaccurate in a material respect;
- (ii) if under any regulations or rules it was required to be in a particular form, it was not in substantially that form;
- (iii) if under any regulations or rules it was required to be prepared, completed or signed in a particular way, it was not prepared, completed or signed in that way;
- or
- (iv) if under any regulations or rules it was required to be provided (however described) to the authority in a particular way, it was not provided in that way.
7.6.3 Late filing fees payable to the Registrar of Companies
A Person falling within FEES 7.6 shall pay to the Registrar of Companies the late filing fees specified in Schedule 11.
8. FINTECH LAB FEES
8.1. Application and other fees payable to the AFSA by the FinTech Lab firms
8.1.1. Pre-application fee to the FinTech Lab
A Person seeking to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab must pay to the AFSA the pre-application fee specified in Schedule 8 prior to commencing any eligibility assessment in accordance with FINTECH 2.4.2.
8.1.2. Application fees to the FinTech Lab
In accordance with FINTECH 2.4.3, once the AFSA is satisfied that the Person meets the eligibility criteria, a Person seeking to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab must pay to the AFSA the application fees specified in Schedule 8.
8.1.2-1. Application fees for modification of a Licence
In accordance with FINTECH 2.5.2, a FinTech Lab Participant, which intends to change the scope of its Licence, must pay to the AFSA the application fees specified in Schedule 8.
8.1.3. Migration fees to full authorisation
In accordance with FINTECH 2.8.3, a FinTech Lab Participant, which intends to migrate to the full authorisation and supervisory regime under the AIFC regulatory framework and deploy its FinTech Activities on a broader scale, must pay to the AFSA the migration fees specified in Schedule 8.
8.2. Supervision fees payable to the AFSA by the FinTech Lab Participants
- A FinTech Lab Participant must pay to the AFSA the supervision fee specified in Schedule 8.
- A FinTech Lab Participant, whose Licence has been extended beyond 2 years from the date of its issuance, must pay to the AFSA the supervision fee specified in accordance with FEES 3.
8.2-1. Supplementary fees
A FinTech Lab Participant or an applicant seeking to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab must pay to the AFSA any supplementary fee required by the AFSA in accordance with FEES 6.
8.3. Possibility of fee deferral
The Chief FinTech Officer may defer the time for payment of a fee on a case-by-case basis if an applicant or FinTech Lab Participant cannot make the required payment within the prescribed period on reasonable grounds.
9. OTHER FEES
9.1. Application to register a Non-Exempt Fund or provide notification for an Exempt Fund
9.1.1. A Domestic Fund Manager or the Person proposing to be the Domestic Fund Manager of a Domestic Fund which is a Non-Exempt Fund, who is applying to register the Non-Exempt Fund in accordance with CIS 4.2, must pay to the AFSA:
(a) the application fee specified in Schedule 9; and
(b) any supplementary fee required by the AFSA in accordance with FEES 6.
9.1.2. A Domestic Fund Manager or the Person proposing to be the Domestic Fund Manager of a Domestic Fund which is an Exempt Fund in accordance with CIS 4.7 must pay to the AFSA:
(a) the notification fee specified in Schedule 9; and
(b) any supplementary fee required by the AFSA in accordance with FEES 6.
9.2. Management of a Domestic Fund by a Foreign Fund Manager
A Foreign Fund Manager providing a declaration to the AFSA of its intention to manage a Domestic Fund which is an Exempt Fund in accordance with CIS 4.2 must pay to the AFSA:
(a) the application fee specified in Schedule 9; and
(b) any supplementary fee require by the AFSA in accordance with FEES 6.
9.3. Application to make amendments to the Constitution or Offering Materials of a Non-Exempt Fund
A Domestic Fund Manager seeking to make amendments to the Constitution or Offering Materials of a Non-Exempt Fund must pay to the AFSA the application fee specified in Schedule 9.
SCHEDULE 1: APPLICATION FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA FOR REGULATED ACTIVITIES
1.1 Application fees for applying for Licence to carry on Regulated Activities
Application fees are determined by the activities the Authorised Firm conducts or intends to conduct, as set out below:
Application fee by activities |
Fee (USD) |
Operating a Representative Office |
3000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme |
5000 |
Arranging Custody |
5000 |
Providing Fund Administration |
5000 |
Advising on Investments |
5000 |
Arranging Deals in Investments |
5000 |
Insurance Intermediation |
5000 |
Managing Investments |
5000 |
Providing Custody |
5000 |
Providing Trust Services |
5000 |
Acting as the Trustee of a Fund |
5000 |
Dealing in Investments as Agent |
10 000 |
Dealing in Investments as Principal |
10 000 |
Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account |
10 000 |
Islamic Banking Business |
15 000 |
Providing Islamic Financing |
10 000 |
Accepting Deposits |
15 000 |
Providing Credit |
10 000 |
Advising on a Credit Facility |
5000 |
Arranging a Credit Facility |
5000 |
Providing Money Services |
5000 |
Conducting Insurance Business |
10 000 |
Conducting Takaful Business |
10 000 |
Conducting Captive Insurance Business through a Protected Cell Company |
5000 plus 1000 for each cell |
Conducting Captive Insurance Business other than through a Protected Cell Company |
5000 |
Conducting Captive Takaful Business through a Protected Cell Company |
5000 plus 1000 for each cell |
Conducting Captive Takaful Business other than through a Protected Cell Company |
5000 |
Providing Insurance Management |
5000 |
Opening and Operating Bank Accounts |
5000 |
Operation of a Payment System |
5000 |
Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility |
5000 |
Operating an Organised Trading Facility |
5000 |
Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility |
70 000 |
_
1.1-1 Application fee in relation to Digital Assets
An applicant seeking to conduct Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets must pay to the AFSA an additional application fee in the amount of 2 000 USD.
1.2 Application fees for modification and withdrawal of a Licence or Approved Individual's registration
Notes
Fees for initial application—firm to conduct one or more Regulated Activities, or Regulated and Market Activities
An applicant seeking authorisation to conduct one or more Regulated Activities, or Regulated and Market Activities specified in the fees table must pay:
(a) the fee specified for the Regulated Activity in the table above (or, if the applicant intends to carry on more than one Regulated Activity, or Regulated and Market Activities, the highest fee specified in the table for any of those activities); and
(b) the fee, for each individual for whom Approved Individual status is sought, specified below; and
(c) if the applicant intends to carry on Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets, the fee specified in 1.1-1 above.
Application fee for Approval of Individuals
An Authorised Firm submitting applications on behalf of additional individuals seeking Approved Individual status must pay an application fee in the amount of 300 USD in respect of each additional Approved Individual application.
Application fee for change of control
An Authorised Firm applying for change of control must pay to the AFSA an application fee in the amount of 1 000 USD.
Fees for application to modify and withdraw
An Authorised Firm or Approved Individual applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence or Approved Individual status, to have a condition or restriction varied or withdrawn, or to have its Licence or Approved Individual status withdrawn, must pay the prescribed fee set out in the table above.
Application to Modify |
Fee (USD) |
Modification of an Authorised Firm's Licence |
(a) An Authorised Firm applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence must pay to the AFSA an application fee equal to 50% of the application fee for a new Regulated or Market Activity payable under table 1.1 of Schedule 1 or table 1.1 of Schedule 2 of FEES. (b) An Authorised Firm applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence, which intends to carry on more than one new Regulated and/or Market Activity, must pay to the AFSA an application fee equal to 50% of the highest of the application fees for new activities payable under table 1.1 of Schedule 1 or table 1.1 of Schedule 2 of FEES. (c) An Authorised Firm applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence and seeking to carry on the Regulated Activities in respect of Digital Assets must pay to the AFSA an additional application fee specified in 1.1-1 of Schedule 1 of FEES above in full. |
Modification of an Approved Individual's registration |
300 |
_
* Application fees for modification of a Licence or Approved Individual's registration prescribed herein are applied from 1 May 2022. Before 1 May 2022, these fees are not applied.
Application to Withdraw |
Fee (USD) |
Withdrawal of an Authorised Firm's Licence
|
At present, the AFSA does not intend to charge an application fee for these activities. Any such application fee shall be determined by the AFSA at a later date. |
Withdrawal of an Approved Individual's registration |
SCHEDULE 2: APPLICATION FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA FOR MARKET ACTIVITIES
1.1 Application fees for applying for Licence to carry on Market Activities
Application fees are determined by the Market Activities the Authorised Person conducts or intends to conduct, as set out below:
Application fee by activities |
Fee (USD) |
Operator of a Clearing House |
125 000; and 5 000 if the Operator intends to clear Investment Tokens and have Direct Access Members |
Operator of an Investment Exchange |
125 000; and 5 000 if the Operator intends to trade Investment Tokens and have Direct Access Members |
Operator of a Crowdfunding Platform |
5 000 |
Operating a Private Financing Platform |
5 000 |
_
1.2 Application fees for modification and withdrawal of a Licence or Approved Individual's registration
Notes
Fees for initial application—firm to conduct one or more Market Activities, or Market and Regulated Activities
An applicant seeking authorisation to conduct one or more Market Activities, or Market and Regulated Activities specified in the fees table must pay:
- (a) the fee specified for the Market Activity in the table above (or, if the applicant intends to carry on more than one Market Activity, or Market and Regulated Activities, the highest fee specified in the table for any of those activites); and
- (b) the fee for each individual for whom Approved Individual status is sought specified below.
Application fee for Approval of Individuals
An Authorised Market Institution submitting applications on behalf of additional individuals seeking
Approved Individual status must pay an application fee in the amount of 300 USD in respect of each additional Approved Individual application.
Application fee for change of control
An Authorised Market Institution applying for change of control must pay to the AFSA an application fee in the amount of 1 000 USD.
Fees for application to modify and withdraw
An Authorised Market Institution or Approved Individual applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence or Approved Individual status, to have a condition or restriction varied or withdrawn, or to have its Licence or Approved Individual status withdrawn, must pay the prescribed fee set out in the table above.
Application to Modify |
Fee (USD)* |
Modification of an Authorised Firm's Licence |
(a) An Authorised Market Institution applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence must pay to the AFSA an application fee equal 50% of the application fee for a new Market or Regulated Activity payable under table 1.1 of Schedule 2 or table 1.1 of Schedule 1 of FEES. (b) An Authorised Market Institution applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence, which intends to carry on more than one new Market and/or Regulated Activity, must pay to the AFSA an application fee equal to 50% of the highest of the application fees for new activities payable under table 1.1 of Schedule 2 or table 1.1 of Schedule 1 of FEES. |
Modification of an Approved Individual's registration |
300 |
_
* Application fees for modification of a Licence or Approved Individual's registration prescribed herein are applied from 1 May 2022. Before 1 May 2022, these fees are not applied.
Application to Withdraw |
Fee (USD) |
Withdrawal of an Authorised Market Institution’s Licence
|
At present, the AFSA does not intend to charge an application fee for these activities. Any such application fee shall be determined by the AFSA at a later date. |
Withdrawal of an Approved Individual's registration |
SCHEDULE 3: APPLICATION FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA FOR ANCILLARY SERVICES
1.1 Application fees for Ancillary Services
Fees for applications to carry on Ancillary Services An applicant seeking to carry on one or more Ancillary Services must pay to the AFSA the application fee for each type of Ancillary Serevices set out in the table 1.1 above.
Activity |
Fee (USD) |
Providing Legal Services |
2 000 |
Providing Audit Services |
2 000 |
Providing Accountancy Services |
2 000 |
Providing Consulting Services |
2 000 |
Providing Credit Rating Services |
2 000 |
_
1.2 Fees for variation or withdrawal of a Licence
Applications to modify or withdraw
An Ancillary Service Provider applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence, to have a condition or restriction varied or withdrawn, or to have its Licence withdrawn must pay the prescribed fee set out in the table at 1.2 above.
Application to Modify or Withdraw a Licence |
Fee (USD)* |
Variation of an Ancillary Service Provider's Licence |
The application fee under table 1.1 of Schedule 3 of FEES for an additional type of Ancillary Service currently being sought. This applies only to a variation (change) of the scope of Licence where new Ancillary Services sought to be included. |
Withdrawal of an Ancillary Service Provider's Licence |
At present, the AFSA does not intend to charge an application fee for these activities. Any such application fee shall be determined by the AFSA at a later date. |
_
Application fee for variation of a Licence prescribed herein is applied from 1 May 2022. Before 1 May 2022, this fee is not applied.
SCHEDULE 4: APPLICATION FEES PAYABLE TO AFSA FOR RECOGNISED NON-AIFC MARKET INSTITUTION, RECOGNISED NON-AIFC MEMBERS AND FOREIGN FUND MANAGERS
1.1 Application fees for recognition as a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution, Recognised Non-AIFC Member and Foreign Fund Manager
Fees for applications for Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution and Recognised Non-AIFC Member status and recognition as a Foreign Fund Manager.
An applicant seeking recognition as a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution, Recognised Non-AIFC Member or Foreign Fund Manager must pay to the AFSA the application fee set out in the table at 1.1 below.
Application fee | Fee (USD) |
Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution | 5 000 |
Recognised Non-AIFC Member | 2 000 |
Foreign Fund Manager | 2 000 |
_
1.2 Application fees for modification or withdrawal
Fees for application to modify or withdraw
A Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution, Recognised Non-AIFC Member or Foreign Fund Manager applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its status, or to have its status withdrawn, must pay the prescribed fee set out in the table at 1.2 above.
Application to Modify or Withdraw | Fee (USD) |
Modification or withdrawal of a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution status | At present, the AFSA does not intend to charge an application fee for these activities. Any such application fee shall be determined by the AFSA at a later date. |
Modification or withdrawal of Recognised Non-AIFC Member status | |
Modification or withdrawal of Foreign Fund Manager status |
_
SCHEDULE 5: FEES PAYABLE TO THE REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES
5.1. An applicant seeking registration or recognition must pay the following fees to the Registrar of Companies:
|
Effecting the registration or recognition |
|
|
Online* |
Paper |
Company Limited by Shares |
300 |
500 |
Recognised Company |
300 |
500 |
Partnerships |
300 |
500 |
Recognised Partnership |
300 |
500 |
Non-Profit Incorporated Organisations |
1 000 |
1 700 |
Special Purpose Companies |
300 |
500 |
Restricted Scope Companies |
300 |
500 |
Protected Cell Companies |
300 |
500 |
Representative offices |
300 |
500 |
Foundations |
1 000 |
1 700 |
5.2. Company or Partnership seeking to transfer its incorporation to or from the AIFC must pay to the Registrar of Companies an application fee in the amount of 3 000 USD.
NOTE:
Applicants registered or recognised after July 5, 2018, but before July 5, 2019 are subject to one single payment of 100 USD within the 12 months period from the date of registration or recognition.
Application fees for registration of Non-Profit Incorporation Organisations and Foundations are applied from 1 January 2023. Before 1 January 2023, application fee for registration of Non-Profit Incorporation Organisations is 300 USD (online) and 500 USD (paper), application fee for registration of Foundations is 400 USD without distinguishing the method of application submission.
* Online means submission through the AIFC approved digital systems (excluding email).
SCHEDULE 5-1: ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES FEES PAYABLE TO THE REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES *
An AIFC Participant must pay the following administrative services fees to the Registrar of Companies:
Administrative Services | Fee (USD)
| |
online** | paper | |
Processing inquiries*** | 20 | 40 |
Post-registration procedures**** | 50
| 100 |
*Fees for paper-based administrative services listed herein are applied from 1 January 2023. Before 1 January 2023, the processing inquiries fee is 20 USD, post-registration fee is 50 USD regardless of the submission method.
** Online means submission through the AIFC approved digital systems (excluding email).
***Fees for administrative services for Foundations and Non-Profit Incorporated Organisations is 100 USD for online based and 200 USD for paper-based processing inquiries.
****Fees for administrative services for Foundations and Non-Profit Incorporated Organisations is 150 USD for online based and 300 USD for paper based post-registration procedures.
SCHEDULE 5-2: Fees payable to the Registrar of Companies in respect of filing an annual return, annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register or accounts in relation to each financial year
An AIFC Participant filing an annual return, annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register or accounts in relation to each financial year must pay the following fees to the Registrar of Companies:
Annual report filings | Fee (USD)* | |
online** | paper | |
Accounts in relation to each financial year | 10 | 20 |
Annual return | 10 | 20 |
Annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register | 10 | 20 |
*Fees in respect of filing an annual return, annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register or accounts in relation to each financial year are applied from 1 January 2023. Before 1 January 2023, filing an annual return, annual confirmation of accuracy of information in the register or accounts in relation to each financial year is free of charge regardless of the submission method.
** Online means of submission through the AIFC approved digital systems (excluding email).
SCHEDULE 6: ANNUAL SUPERVISION FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA
6.1 Annual supervision fees for Regulated Activities
Annual supervision fees for Regulated Activities are determined by the activities the Authorised Firm conducts as set out below:
Regulated Activities |
Fee (USD)* |
Operating a Representative Office
|
1 000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme
|
3 000 |
Arranging Custody
|
3 000 |
Providing Fund Administration
|
2 000 |
Advising on Investments
|
1 000 |
Arranging Deals in Investments
|
1 000 |
Insurance Intermediation
|
1 000 |
Managing Investments
|
3 000 |
Providing Custody
|
3 000 |
Providing Trust Services
|
2 000 |
Acting as the Trustee of a Fund
|
2 000 |
Dealing in Investments as Agent
|
7 000 |
Dealing in Investments as Principal
|
8 000 except as a matched principal; 5 000 as a matched principal |
Managing a Restricted Profit Sharing Investment Account
|
7 000 |
Islamic Banking Business
|
n/a |
Providing Islamic Financing
|
n/a |
Accepting Deposits
|
10 000 |
Providing Credit
|
7 000 |
Advising on a Credit Facility
|
1 000 |
Arranging a Credit Facility
|
1 000 |
Providing Money Services
|
3 000 |
Conducting Insurance Business
|
7 000 |
Conducting Takaful Business
|
n/a |
Conducting Captive Insurance Business through a Protected Cell Company
|
3 500 plus 700 for each cell |
Conducting Captive Insurance Business other than through a Protected Cell Company
|
3 000 |
Conducting Captive Takaful Business through a Protected Cell Company
|
n/a |
Conducting Captive Takaful Business other than through a Protected Cell Company
|
n/a |
Providing Insurance Management
|
1 000 |
Opening and Operating Bank Accounts
|
3 000 |
Operation of a Payment System
|
3 000 |
Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility Operating an Orginised Trading Facility |
· fixed fee - 3 000 USD ; and · variable fee - trading levy of 0.0006% of the average daily trading value **. Note: The AFSA will not invoice the variable fee unless it exceeds 500 USD. |
Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility |
· fixed fee - 25 000 USD; and · variable fee calculated on a quarterly basis: • where the average daily trading value is less than 500 000 USD, is not applicable; • where the average daily trading value is more than 500 000 USD: - trading levy of 0.0006% of the average daily trading value; or - 5 000 USD, whichever is greater. Note: The AFSA will not invoice the variable fee for the amount exceeding 1 million USD in one year. |
*Supervision fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 May 2022. Before 1 May 2022, these fees are not applied.
Notes
**1. For Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility, and Organised Trading Facility or Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility, fixed component of the annual supervision fees must be paid in full to the AFSA on a yearly basis on or before 1 January of every calendar year and variable component of the annual supervision fees must be paid in full to the AFSA on a quarterly basis following each quarter.
2. For Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility, Organised Trading Facility or Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility, variable fee is calculated on a quarterly basis by multiplying the average daily trading value by the active trading days in the relevant quarter.
3. The following is an example of how the variable fee is calculated for Operator of a Digital Asset Trading Facility:
(a) Average daily trading value of a Digital Asset Trading Facility is 450 000 USD in quarter 1, the variable fee will not be applied in quarter 1;
(b) Average daily trading value of the firm is 1 million USD in quarter 2, the variable fee will be calculated as follows: 1 million * 90 (average trading days in quarter) * 0.0006% = 540 USD. As 5 000 USD is more than 540 USD, the variable fee will be 5 000 USD for quarter 2;
(c) Average daily trading value of the firm is 5 million USD in quarter 3, the variable fee will be 2 700 USD. As 5 000 USD is more than 2 700 USD, the variable fee will be 5 000 USD for quarter 3;
(d) Average daily trading value of the firm is 10 million USD in quarter 4, the variable fee will be 5 400 USD for quarter 4.
Thus, the firm must pay 15 400 USD as the variable fee for that year.
4. Variable fee is paid quarterly (paid within 21 days after the issuance of an invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter).
6.1-1 Annual supervision fee in relation to Digital Assets
An Authorised Firm conducting Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets, except for the Regulated Activity of Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility, must pay to the AFSA an additional annual supervision fee in the amount of 2 000 USD.
**For Operating a Multilateral and Organised Trading Facilities, fixed component of the annual supervision fees must be paid in full to the AFSA on a yearly basis on or before 1 January of every calendar year and variable component of the annual supervision fees must be paid in full to the AFSA on a quarterly basis following each quarter.
6.2 Annual supervision fees for Market Activities
Annual supervision fees for Market Activities are determined by the activities the Authorised Market Institution conducts as set out below:
Market Activities |
Fee (USD)*** |
Operator of an Investment Exchange |
Calculated according to formula 1 below; and an additional annual fee of 5 000 if the Operator trades Investment Tokens and has Direct Access Members |
Operator of a Clearing House |
Calculated according to formula 2 below; and an additional annual fee in the amount of 5 000 if the Operator clears Investment Tokens and has Direct Access Members |
Operator of a Crowdfunding Platform |
3 000 |
Operating a Private Financing Platform |
3 000 |
Formula 1
SF= FF+TVF+LF,
where
SF – Supervision fee
FF – Fixed fee, which is 15 000 USD (paid annually)
TVF – Trading value fee, calculated as 0.003% of trading value in one year (paid quarterly within 21 days after the issuance of invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter)
LF – Listing fee, calculated as 2% of all listing fees collected by an Operator of an Investment Exchange in one year (paid quarterly within 21 days after the issuance of invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter)
Formula 2
SF=FF+SVF+DVF+CVF,
where
SF – Supervision fee
FF – Fixed fee, which is 15 000 USD (paid annually)
SVF – Settlement value fee (excluding On-Exchange Trades on Secondary Market), calculated as 0.001% of settlement value (paid quarterly within 21 days after the issuance of invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter)
DVF – Depository value fee, calculated as 0.00005% of depository value (paid quarterly within 21 days after the issuance of invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter)
CVF – Clearing value fee, calculated as 0.001% of clearing value, applicable only to an Operator of a Clearing House acting as a Central Counterparty (paid quarterly within 21 days after the issuance of invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter)
Notes
Where an Operator of a Clearing House carries on a clearing or settlement function for the trading facility operated by the same entity or a member of its Group, relevant clearing or settlement fee is not applied.
***Supervision fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 January 2023.
6.3 Annual supervision fees for Ancillary Services
Annual supervision fees for Ancillary Services are determined by the activities the Ancillary Service Provider conducts as set out below:
Ancillary Services |
Fee (USD)**** |
Providing Legal Services |
1 500 |
Providing Audit Services |
2 000 |
Providing Accountancy Services |
1 500 |
Providing Consulting Services |
1 000 excluding Company service provider activity 2 000 including Company service provider activity |
Providing Credit Rating Services |
1 000 |
****Supervision fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 May 2022. Before 1 May 2022, these fees are not applied.
6.4 Annual recognition fees for Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institutions and Recognised Non-AIFC Members
Recognition fee |
Fee (USD) |
||
Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution |
|
Fixed annual recognition fee (USD) |
Variable annual recognition fee (USD) |
Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution operating as an Investment Exchange |
15 000 |
0.003% of trading value in one year generated for Authorised Market Institutions |
|
Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution operating as a Clearing House |
15 000 |
0.001% of settlement value + 0.00005% of depositary value + 0.001% of cleaning value* generated for Authorised Market Institutions, Multilateral or Orgonised Trading Facilities *Clearing value fee is applicable only to a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Instituition acting as a Central Counterparty |
|
Recognised Non-AIFC Member |
For Recognised Non-AIFC Members that are admitted to trading by an Authorised Investment Exchange, Multilateral or Organised Trading Facility or Digital Asset Trading Facility: calculated according to formula 1 below. For Recognised Non-AIFC Members that are not admitted to trading by an Authorised Investment Exchange, Multilateral or Organised Trading Facility or Digital Asset Trading Facility, or whose trading value is lower than 25 million USD per quarter on each trading platform: a fixed amount of 1 000 USD pro-rated over a calendar year.
|
Formula 1
RF= FF+TVF,
where
RF – Annual recognition fee
FF – Fixed fee, which is 1 000 USD pro-rated over a calendar year
TVF – Trading value fee, calculated as 0.001% of trading value, applicable only to Recognised Non-AIFC Members admitted to trading by Operator of an Investment Exchange, Multilateral or Organised Trading Facility or Digital Asset Trading Facility, whose trading value is over 25 million USD per quarter on each trading platform (paid within 21 days after the issuance of invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter).
Notes
Where a Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institution operating as a Clearing House carries on a clearing or settlement function for the trading facility operated by the same entity or a member of its Group, relevant clearing or settlement fee is not applied.
SCHEDULE 7: APPLICATION FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA IN RESPECT OF WAIVERS, MODIFICATIONS AND OTHER RELIEFS
The Chief Executive Officer of the AFSA may determine the amount of fee specified in 1.2.5 (a) and 1.2.6. (a) from time to time.
SCHEDULE 8: FINTECH LAB FEES
8.1 Pre-application fee*
A Person seeking to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab must pay to the AFSA the pre-application fee in the amount of 100 USD prior to commencing any eligibility assessment.
*Pre-application fee prescribed herein is applied from 1 January 2023. Before 1 January 2023, the pre-application fee is not applied.
8.2 Application fees
Application fees payable to the AFSA by a Person seeking to Test and/or Develop the FinTech Activities within the FinTech Lab are determined by the activities the applicant conducts or intends to conduct as set out below:
Activities within the FinTech Lab |
Fee (USD)** |
Regulated Activities |
· 10% of the application fees under table 1.1 of Schedule 1 of FEES; and · 10% of the additional application fee under Rule 1.1-1 of Schedule 1 of FEES, where applicable. |
Market Activities |
10% of the application fees under table 1.1 of Schedule 2 of FEES |
**Application fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 January 2023. Before 1 January 2023, the application fees are not applied.
Notes
Fees for initial application—firm to conduct one or more activities within the FinTech Lab
An applicant seeking authorisation to conduct one or more activities specified in the fees table must pay:
(a) the fee specified for the activity in the table above (or, if the applicant intends to carry on more than one activity, the highest fee specified in the table for any of those activities); and
(b) the amount of 50 USD for each individual for whom Approved Individual status is sought.
Application fee for Approval of Individuals
An applicant submitting applications on behalf of additional individuals seeking Approved Individual status must pay an application fee in the amount of 50 USD in respect of each additional Approved Individual application.
Fees for application to modify or withdraw
Approved Individual applying to the AFSA to change the scope of his/her Approved Individual status, to have a condition or restriction varied or withdrawn must pay the fee in the amount of 50 USD.
8.3 Migration fees to full authorisation
1. Migration fees payable to the AFSA by FinTech Lab Participants are determined by the activities the FinTech Lab Participant conducts as set out below:
Applications |
Fee (USD)*** |
Regulated Activities |
A migration fee equal to the difference between:
(a) the application fee which would be payable under table 1.1 of Schedule 1 of FEES if it were an applicant for a full Licence; and
(b) the application fee which was paid under Schedule 8 of FEES. |
Market Activities |
A migration fee equal to the difference between:
(a) the application fee which would be payable under table 1.1 of Schedule 2 of FEES if it were an applicant for a full Licence; and
(b) the application fee which was paid under Schedule 8 of FEES. |
Regulated and Market Activities |
A migration fee equal to the difference between: (a) the application fee which would be payable under Schedules 1 and 2; and (b) the application fee which was paid under Schedule 8 of FEES. |
Approved Individual's registration |
A migration fee equal to the difference between:
(a) the application fee which would be payable under Schedule 1 or 2 of FEES if it were an applicant for a full Licence; and
(b)the application fee under Schedule 8 of FEES.
|
***Migration fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 January 2023. Before 1 January 2023, the migration fees are not applied.
2.The initial supervision fee payable to the AFSA by a FinTech Lab Participant, which migrated to the full supervisory regime, is the difference between:
a. the initial annual supervision fee which would be payable under FEES 3; and
b. the annual supervision fee which was paid under Schedule 8 of FEES.
8.4 Supervision fees payable to the AFSA by FinTech Lab Participants
Supervision fees payable to the AFSA by FinTech Lab Participants are determined by the activities the FinTech Lab Participant conducts as set out below:
|
||
Activities within the FinTech Lab |
Fee type |
Fee (USD)**** |
Regulated Activities |
|
· 20% of the supervision fees under table 6.1 of Schedule 6 of FEES; and · 20% of the additional supervision fee under Rule 6.1-1 of Schedule 6 of FEES, where applicable. |
Market Activities |
|
·10% of the supervision fees under table 6.2 of Schedule 6 of FEES (fixed); and ·trading levy of 0.001% of the average daily trading value (variable)*****
Note: AFSA will not invoice the trading levy (variable) fee unless it exceeds 200 USD |
****Supervision fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 January 2023. Before 1 January 2023, the supervision fees are not applied.
*****Fixed component of the annual supervision fees must be paid in full to the AFSA on a yearly basis on or before 1 January of every calendar year and variable component of the annual supervision fees is paid quarterly (paid within 21 days after the issuance of an invoice by the AFSA, but no later than within 1 month following each corresponding quarter.
Notes
A FinTech Lab Participant licensed to conduct more than one Regulated and/or Market Activity must pay to the AFSA the highest of the supervision fees specified in table 8.4.
8.5. Application fees for modification of a Licence
(a) A FinTech Lab Participant applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence must pay to the AFSA an application fee equal to 50% of the application fee for a new Regulated or Market Activity payable under table 8.2 of Schedule 8 of FEES.
(b) A FinTech Lab Participant applying to the AFSA to change the scope of its Licence, which intends to carry on more than one new Regulated and/or Market Activity, must pay to the AFSA an application fee equal to 50% of the highest of the application fees for new activities payable under table 8.2 of Schedule 8 of FEES.
SCHEDULE 9: OTHER FEES
9.1. Application to register a Non-Exempt Fund and Exempt Fund or provide notification for an Exempt Fund
A Domestic Fund Manager that intends to manage a Domestic Fund which is a Non-Exempt or Exempt Fund and a Foreign Fund Manager that intends to manage a Domestic Fund which is an Exempt Fund must pay to the AFSA the following fees:
Application types |
Fee (USD)* |
Domestic Fund Manager that intends to manage a Non-Exempt Fund |
2 000 |
Domestic Fund Manager that intends to manage an Exempt Fund |
1 000 |
Foreign Fund Manager that intends to manage an Exempt Fund |
1 000 |
*Application fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 May 2022. Before 1 May 2022, these fees are not applied.
9.2 Application to make amendments to the Constitution or Offering Materials of a Non-Exempt Fund
A Domestic Fund Manager that intends to make amendments to the Constitution or Offering Materials of a Non-Exempt Fund must pay to the AFSA an application fee in the amount of 500 USD.
SCHEDULE 10: LATE FEES PAYABLE TO THE AFSA*
10.1 Late fees for failure to provide notification, report or return
A Person falling within FEES 7.1 must pay to the AFSA a late fee in the amount of 300 USD, if the Person fails to provide notification, report or return within 3 business days after it has committed a contravention. Non-payment of the late fee within 30 calendar days incurs a further late payment fee equal to 10% of the late fee for each calendar day.
10.2 Late fees for failure to comply with direction issued by the AFSA
A Person falling within FEES 7.4 must pay to the AFSA a late fee in the amount of 300 USD, if the Person fails to comply with direction issued by the AFSA within 3 business days after such failure. Non-payment of the late fee within 30 calendar days incurs a further late payment fee equal to 10% of the late fee for each calendar day.
*Late fees prescribed herein are applied from 1 January 2023.
SCHEDULE 11: LATE FILING FEES PAYABLE TO THE REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES
11. A person falling within FEES 7.6 must pay to the Registrar of Companies a late fee in the amount of 50 USD, if the Person fails to provide annual return, annual confirmation statement or annual accounts within 5 business days after it has committed a contravention. Non-payment of the late fee within 30 calendar days incurs a further late payment fee equal to 5% of the late fee for each calendar day.
*Late filing fees for failure to provide annual return, annual confirmation statement or accounts in relation to each financial year payable to the Registrar of Companies are applied from 1 April 2023.
RULES ON CURRENCY REGULATION AND PROVISION OF INFORMATION ON CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS IN THE AIFC
1. General Provisions
1.1.These rules are the Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC (hereafter, the Rules).
1.2.These Rules commence on December 1, 2021.
1.3. These Rules have been developed in furtherance of paragraphs 3, 4 and 5 of Article 5 of the Constitutional Statute of the Republic of Kazakhstan "On the Astana International Financial Centre" No 438-V ZRK of December 7, 2015.
1.4. The provisions of these Rules apply to:
(a) AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations;
(b) AIFC banks;
(c)residents and non-residents of RK carrying out transactions with AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations or using bank accounts opened in AIFC banks;
(d)STBs of RK to the extent of transactions regulated by these Rules.
Transactions that are not regulated by these Rules are carried out by STBs of RK in accordance with the legislation of RK and by AIFC banks in accordance with the Acting Law of the AIFC.
1.5.Definitions
1.5.1.Schedule 1 (Terms and Definitions) contains definitions of the key terms used in these Rules.
1.5.2.Other terms and definitions used in these Rules and not defined by Schedule 1 to these Rules are used in accordance with the definitions stipulated by the Acting Law of the AIFC and the legislation of RK.
1.6.Objectives
The Rules define:
(a)conditions and procedure for currency transactions related to the provision of financial services by AIFC participants;
(b)conditions and procedure for currency transactions related to the provision of professional services by AIFC participants;
(c)conditions and procedure for currency transactions on the territory of the AIFC that do not fall under subparagraphs (a) and (b) of this paragraph;
(d)list of the financial and professional services provided by AIFC participants to residents of RK that are not AIFC participants.
2. Currency Residency in the AIFC
2.1 Currency Residency
For the purposes of these Rules:
(a)AIFC participants are recognised as residents;
(b)natural and legal entities are recognised as residents in accordance with terms and definitions given in Schedule 1;
(c)natural and legal entities are recognised as non-residents in accordance with terms and definitions given in Schedule 1.
3. Rights of AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations. Transactions in the AIFC
3.1 Rights of AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations
3.1.1 Unless otherwise prohibited under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK, AIFC participants have the right to provide financial and related services to residents that are not AIFC participants only in accordance with Schedule 2 to these Rules.
3.1.2 AIFC participants (except for the AIFC banks), AIFC Bodies and their organisations have the right to:
(a) open bank accounts in foreign banks in any currency and make payments and money transfers using such accounts, subject to the requirements specified under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK;
(b) open bank accounts in AIFC banks (except Islamic banks) in foreign currency only and make payments and money transfers using such accounts, subject to the requirements specified under the Acting Law of the AIFC;
(с) open bank accounts in STBs of RK or in Islamic banks of the AIFC in any currency and make payments and money transfers using such accounts, subject to the requirements specified under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK.
3.1.3 AIFC banks, including Islamic banks of the AIFC, have the right to:
(а) open bank accounts in other banks, including foreign banks, and transfer own funds using such bank accounts in national or foreign currency, subject to the requirements specified under the Acting Law of the AIFC and the legislation of RK;
(b) open bank accounts for residents that are AIFC participants and non-residents, subject to the requirements of subparagraph (b) of paragraph 3.1.4 of these Rules and make payments and (or) money transfers using such accounts, subject to the requirements set out in these Rules;
(с) open correspondent accounts in the STBs of RK in the national and foreign currency in accordance with the procedure established by the legislation of RK and carry out transactions using such correspondent accounts subject to the requirements set out in these Rules and (or) the legislation of RK;
(d) open savings (deposit) accounts in foreign currency for non-residents, and AIFC participants the controlling shareholder (controlling shareholders) of which is non-resident;
(e) carry out transactions envisaged by Schedule 4 to these Rules through their correspondent accounts in national currency in STBs of RK.
3.1.4AIFC banks (except Islamic banks of the AIFC) are prohibited to:
(a) open bank accounts in the national currency for residents, including AIFC participants and non-residents;
(b) open savings (deposits) accounts for residents, including AIFC participants, except for the case specified in subparagraph (d) of paragraph 3.1.3;
(c) carry out transactions of residents related to export or import of goods (works, services), and (or) transactions subject to assignment of registration number in accordance with the currency legislation of RK;
(d) carry out exchange transactions under instructions of clients using national currency, except for the cases of executing the instructions of clients as part of transactions set out in Schedule 4 to these Rules;
(e) make payments and (or) money transfers with respect to the services which are, under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK, prohibited to be provided by AIFC participants to residents that are not AIFC participants;
(f) provide services to residents that are not AIFC participants, the provision of which by AIFC banks is prohibited in accordance with the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK; and
(g) carry out transactions through correspondent accounts in the national currency in STBs of RK that are not in the list set out in Schedule 4 to these Rules.
3.1.5 Islamic banks of the AIFC are prohibited to:
(a) carry out transactions of residents related to export or import of goods (works, services) and (or) transactions subject to assigning of registration number in accordance with the currency legislation of the RK;
(b) carry out exchange transactions under instruction of clients using the national currency;
(c) make payments and (or) transfers of clients' money for the services not related to Islamic financing and (or) with the realisation of the project for which a client of the AIFC Islamic bank attracted financing from this bank;
(d) provide services to residents that are not AIFC participants, the provision of which by Islamic banks of the AIFC is prohibited in accordance with the Acting law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK.
3.2 Transactions of AIFC Bodies, their organisations and the AIFC participants
3.2.1 Transactions between AIFC Bodies, their organisations and the AIFC participants are carried out in national or foreign currency, subject to the requirements set out in these Rules.
3.2.2 Transactions between AIFC Bodies, their organisations or the AIFC participants (except AIFC banks) and non-residents are carried out in any currency at the discretion of the parties in accordance with the requirements specified under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK.
3.2.3 Transactions between AIFC participants and residents that are not the AIFC participants are carried out in national or foreign currency in accordance with the requirements specified under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK.
3.3 Provision of financial services by AIFC participants
3.3.1 AIFC banks provide financial services to residents that are not AIFC participants in accordance with the list of financial services set out in Schedule 2 to these Rules, subject to the Acting Law of AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK.
3.3.2 AIFC participants, except AIFC banks, have the right to provide financial services to other AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations, non-residents in accordance with their AFSA licence in national or foreign currency, subject to the following requirements:
- financial services to be rendered in the national currency are provided using the bank accounts of AIFC participants opened in STBs of RK;
- financial services to be rendered in foreign currency are provided using the bank accounts of AIFC participants opened in AIFC banks or STBs of RK.
3.3.3 AIFC participants, (except for the AIFC banks), provide financial and related services to residents that are not AIFC participants in accordance with the list of financial services and in the currency set out in Schedule 2 to these Rules, subject to the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK, and in compliance with the following requirements:
- financial and related services to be rendered in the national currency are provided using the bank accounts of AIFC participants opened in STBs of RK;
- financial and related services to be rendered in foreign currency are provided using the bank accounts of AIFC participants opened in AIFC banks or STBs of RK.
3.4 Provision of professional services by AIFC participants
3.4.1 AIFC participants provide professional services to other AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations and non-residents in accordance with the list, determined in the Schedule 2 of the AIFC General Rules, in any currency, subject to the following requirements:
- professional services to be rendered in the national currency are provided using the bank accounts of AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations opened in STBs of RK;
- professional services to be rendered in foreign currency are provided using the bank accounts of AIFC participants, AIFC Bodies and their organisations opened in AIFC banks or STBs of RK.
3.5 AIFC participants (except AIFC banks) carry out transactions related to export or import of goods (works, services), exchange transactions using the national currency and transactions subject to assignment of registration number in accordance with the currency legislation of the RK, using bank accounts of AIFC participants opened in STBs of RK only.
3.6 AIFC participants carry out transactions with residents that are not AIFC participants in accordance with these Rules and (or) the currency legislation of RK.
3.7 AIFC participants have the right to provide professional services in foreign currency to residents that are not AIFC participants, only in accordance with the list set out in Schedule 3 to these Rules.
3.8 The AIFC participants, the AIFC Bodies and their organisations have the right to carry out operations for the formation of share capital through the STB of the RK in any currency and AIFC banks in foreign currency under the Acting Law of the AIFC.
4. Payments and (or) money transfers on transactions of residents and non-residents in the AIFC
4.1 Payments and (or) money transfers on foreign exchange transactions of AIFC participants (except AIFC banks) are carried out through bank accounts in AIFC banks and (or) the STBs of RK in compliance with the conditions specified by the Acting Law of the AIFC and the legislation of RK.
4.2 The AIFC bank transfers money of AIFC participants from their accounts in the AIFC bank to their accounts in a STB of RK, as well as from their accounts in the STB of RK to their accounts in the AIFC bank in foreign currency.
4.3 Payments and (or) money transfers for client transactions are made in accordance with the following conditions:
(a) The AIFC bank requests from the client the following identifying documents and information:
(i) currency contract (for transactions in the equivalent of over USD 10,000);
(ii) BIN;
(iii) if the client is a legal entity or an organisation that are not legal entities – documents defining the country of registration and the founders of the entity or organisation, if these documents have not been submitted or have been changed.
(b) The AIFC bank must have sufficient identification information about the client to determine the client’s residency, link to the AIFC public register and, if applicable, client’s status as an AIFC participant;
(c) The AIFC bank must have sufficient information about the transaction or operation for which the payment and (or) transfer of money is carried out to determine matters, including, but not limited to:
(i) the country of registration or residence of the payer and beneficiary;
(ii) the sender of the payment and (or) money transfer and its ultimate beneficiary;
(iii) the affiliation of the payer and the beneficiary (for the allocation of intra-corporate transfers and payments between affiliated parties);
(iv)the economic sector for the payer and the beneficiary;
(v) the purpose of the payment.
(d) The AIFC bank must refuse to make a payment and (or) to transfer money to the client if:
(i) the payment and (or) money transfer is made in the national currency (for the AIFC banks that are not Islamic banks);
(ii) the payment and (or) money transfer is made in the national currency and is not in respect of provision of Islamic finance services (for Islamic banks of the AIFC);
(iii)the payment and (or) money transfer is made under the transactions stipulated by paragraphs 3.5 and 4.4 of these Rules;
(iv) the payment and (or) transfer of money contravenes the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK.
(e) This pragragh does not apply to payments and money transfers made between non-residents not registered in RK and (or) not operating in the territory on RK.
4.4 Residents that are not AIFC participants, are not entitled to carry out, through AIFC banks, currency transactions related to export or import of goods (works, services), exchange transactions using the national currency, and transactions subject to assignment of registration number in accordance with the currency legislation of RK. These transactions are carried out solely through the STBs of RK or foreign banks to the extent permitted by the currency legislation of RK.
5. Exchange transactions in the AIFC
5. A purchase and (or) sale of foreign currency can be carried out only through AIFC banks, brokers and (or) dealers of the AIFC licensed by AFSA to carry out exchange transactions or STBs of RK and foreign banks, subject to the following requirements:
(a) the purchase or sale of non-cash foreign currency is carried out on the basis of a request indicating the purpose of the purchase or sale;
(b) the purchase or sale of non-cash foreign currency for the national currency is carried out solely through STBs of RK;
(c) the purchase or sale of non-cash foreign currency for other non-cash foreign currency is carried out through AIFC banks, brokers and (or) dealers of the AIFC licensed by AFSA to carry out exchange transactions, or STBs of RK and foreign banks;
(d) purchase or sale of foreign currency in cash is carried out through STBs of RK or through legal entities carrying out the transactions solely through exchange offices on the basis of a NBRK licence for exchange transactions with foreign currency in cash, in accordance with the procedure established by the legislation of RK.
6. Provision of information on currency transactions in the AIFC for the purposes of currency regulation
6.1 The list and procedure for providing information on carried out transactions is established in accordance with Schedule 5 to these Rules.
7. Exchange of information between the AIFC and NBRK bodies
7.1 Procedure for information interaction
The procedure for exchanging information on the matters related to currency transactions carried out in the AIFC is determined in accordance with Schedule 5 to these Rules.
8. Confidentiality
Any commercial, banking and other information, protected by the Acting Law of AIFC, that AIFC participants, their employees and agents became aware of while carrying out the transactions both on their own behalf and on behalf of other persons must be kept secret.
9. Responsibility for Rules contravention
9.1Contravention
An AIFC participant who:
(a)commits an act prohibited under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK;
(b)omits to do an act that is required under the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK; or
(c)otherwise contravenes the Acting Law of the AIFC and (or) the legislation of RK,
commits contravention of these Rules, which entails responsibility established by the Acting Law of the AIFC, the legislation of RK and AFSA policy.
9.2 In case of non-submission or late submission by the AIFC participants of the reporting provided by these Rules, the AFSA will apply measures to them in accordance with subsection 7.1.3 of AIFC Fees Rules.
Schedule 1
TERMS AND DEFINITIONS
1) AFSA – Astana Financial Services Authority;
2) ARDFM – Agency of the Republic of Kazakhstan for Regulation and Development of Financial Market;
3) AIFC bank – an AIFC participant licensed by AFSA to provide the following services, subject to the requirements set out in these Rules:
a)accepting deposits, granting the loans, providing money services, opening and maintaining bank accounts;
b)Islamic banking and Islamic financing;
4) STB of RK - an authorised bank recognised as such in accordance with the currency legislation of RK;
5) national currency – national currency of the Republic of Kazakhstan;
6) NBRK – National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan;
7) non-residents – legal and natural entities recognised as non-residents under the Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan "On Currency Regulation and Currency” Control";
8) AIFC Bodies – as defined in Article 9 of the Constitutional Statute of the Republic of Kazakhstan "On the Astana International Financial Centre", No. 438-V ZRK of 7 December 2015;
9) RK – Republic of Kazakhstan;
10) for the purposes of currency regulation the following persons are recognised as residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan:
(a)legal and natural entities as well as branches (and representative offices) of foreign entities recognised as residents under the Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan "On Currency Regulation and Currency Control";
(b) AIFC participants.
11) AIFC participants – legal entities registered in accordance with the Acting Law of the AIFC as well as other legal entities accredited by the AIFC;
12) KASE – JSC "Kazakhstan Stock Exchange";
13) Controlling shareholder – a shareholder who owns, whether on its own or jointly with its affiliates, 50%+1 of the shares of an AIFC participant.
14) Credit provider - the AIFC participant, licensed by the AFSA to provide services for granting the loans, subject to the requirements established by these Rules;
15) AIFC Islamic bank is the AIFC participant, except AIFC bank, that has license from the AFSA to provide banking services, accept deposits and (or) open and maintain bank accounts in accordance with the principles of Islamic financing in the territory of the AIFC;
16) Islamic financial organisation is the AIFC participant, with the exception of the AIFC Islamic bank, the exclusive activity of which is the provision of financial services that comply with principles of Islamic financing, based on license of AFSA;
17) AIFC Broker and (or) Dealer - an AIFC participant licensed by AFSA to carry out investment transactions as an Agent and (or) Proncipal.
Schedule 2
LIST OF FINANCIAL SERVICES PROVIDED BY AIFC PARTICIPANTS TO RESIDENTS THAT ARE NOT AIFC PARTICIPANTS
No. |
Name of the service |
Currency |
1 |
Banking, credit and payment services |
|
1.1 |
Islamic banking carried out by Islamic banks and Islamic financing carried out by Islamic banks and Islamic financial organisations |
Any currency |
1.2 |
loans to legal entities of the Republic of Kazakhstan |
Foreign currency |
1.3 |
opening and maintaining current bank accounts for clients (for lending and investment banking services) |
Foreign currency |
1.4 |
receiving and making payments and (or) money transfers using current bank account (within the permitted types of services) |
Foreign currency |
1.5 |
leasing services for legal entities of RK, including business entities (farms, and other legal entities engaged in the agro-industrial complex and road transport infrastructure) |
Any currency |
2 |
Insurance |
|
2.1 |
Direct voluntary insurance |
|
2.1.1. |
air transport insurance |
Any currency |
2.1.2 |
water transport insurance |
Any currency |
2.1.3 |
space objects insurance |
Any currency |
2.1.4 |
insurance of cargo related to air transport, water transport and space objects |
Any currency |
2.1.5 |
legal liability insurance of air transport owners |
Any currency |
2.1.6 |
legal liability insurance of water transport owners |
Any currency |
2.1.7 |
legal liability insurance of space objects owners |
Any currency |
2.2 |
Reinsurance activities |
|
2.2.1 |
acceptance of all risks from Kazakhstani insurers for reinsurance |
Any currency |
2.3 |
Reinsurance broker’s activity |
|
2.3.1 |
Kazakhstani insurers have the right to transfer insurance risks for reinsurance through the insurance broker- AIFC participant |
Any currency |
2.4 |
Additional types of insurance |
|
2.4.1 |
insurance of guarantees and bails |
Any currency |
2.4.2 |
insurance of court costs |
Any currency |
2.4.3 |
title insurance |
Any currency |
2.4.4 |
Islamic insurance |
Any currency |
2.5 |
New types of specific risks insurance |
|
2.5.1 |
catastrophe risks |
Any currency |
2.5.2 |
climate -related risks |
Any currency |
2.5.3 |
cyber risks |
Any currency |
2.5.4 |
terrorism-related risks |
Any currency |
2.5.5 |
political risks |
Any currency |
3 |
Investment services |
|
3.1 |
Investment banking services |
|
3.1.1 |
underwriting (placement of securities during IPO / SPO at the AIX, foreign stock exchanges) |
Any currency |
3.1.2 |
financial consulting (M&A structuring, private equity, restructuring, hedging) |
Any currency |
3.2 |
Dealer activity |
|
3.2.1 |
dealer services (making deals for own benefit) |
Any currency |
3.3 |
Brokerage services (conclusion of transactions in the interests of the client) |
|
3.3.1 |
Brokerage services on international capital markets, at the AIFC exchange for securities and other types of investments issued in accordance with the Acting Law of the AIFC and foreign law |
Any currency |
3.3.2 |
Brokerage services for Kazakhstani securities and financial instruments if the AIFC participant has appropriate ARDFM license and (or) direct access to settlements at the Central Securities Depository JSC and (or) direct access to settlements of the central counterparty |
Any currency |
3.4 |
Providing custody services (nominal holding, accounting and safeguarding of securities) |
|
3.4.1 |
Providing custody of the securities issued in accordance with foreign legislation and Acting Law of the AIFC |
Any currency |
3.4.2 |
Providing custody by the AIFC participant in respect to Kazakhstani securities provided that the AIFC participant has relevant ARDFM licence |
Any currency |
3.4.3 |
Settlement and depository services or custodial services of the AIFC Central Depository in respect to all securities included in the Official list of the AIFC Exchange and foreign securities |
Any currency |
3.5 |
Managing Investment (including investment funds) |
|
3.5.1 |
in relation to clients (investors) who are citizens and legal entities of the Republic of Kaszakhstan investing in securities of the funds incorporated in the AIFC included in the Official List of the AIFC Exchange or KASE and managed by management companies licensed by AFSA. in relation to clients (investors) who are citizens and legal entities of the republic of Kazakhstan, investing in securities of funds created in the AIFC, not included in the Official List of the AIFC Exchange or KASE and managed by management compamies licensed by the ARDFM |
Any currency |
3.5.2 |
in relation to clients (investors) who are professional investors and have financial assets in the equivalent of not less than USD 150 000, when transferring the investments under the management or investing in securities of the funds incorporated in the AIFC and managed by fund manager licensed by AFSA The requirements of this subparagraph do not apply to transactions made prior to commencement of these Rules.
|
Any currency |
3.6 |
Trust services |
|
3.6.1 |
trust services (provision of services related to express trust creation and management) without restrictions |
Any currency |
3.7 |
Crowdfunding services |
|
3.7.1 |
operating an investment crowdfunding platform |
Any currency |
4 |
Services with digital assets |
|
4.1 |
operating a digital assets platform (crypto exchange) |
Any currency |
4.2 |
dealer services with digital assets on the digital assets exchange |
Any currency |
4.3 |
brokerage services with digital assets on the digital asset exchange: - in relation to clients (investors) who are retail investors with a monthly limit of USD 1 000 equivalent; - in relation to clients (investors) who are professional investors without restrictions |
Any currency |
4.4 |
custody services with digital assets |
Any currency |
4.5 |
investment management of digital assets in relation to clients (investors) who are professional investors and have financial assets in the equivalent of not less than USD 150 000, when transferring investments or investing in digital assets (crypto assets) of funds established in the AIFC and managed by fund managers, licensed by the AFSA |
Any currency |
* Note: the services specified in this section are provided (operations are carried out) in accordance with the Procedure for interaction between the digital assets exchange and (or) the AIFC participant, who has a license to carry out activities related to digital assets with STBs of RK, after its approval by the AIFC act in agreement with the NBRK and ARDFM (in accordance with paragraph 5 of Article 4-1 of the Constitutional Statute of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated December 7, 2015 No. 438-V "On the Astana International Financial Centre). |
LIST OF RELATED SERVICES PROVIDED BY AIFC PARTICIPANTS TO RESIDENTS THAT ARE NOT AIFC PARTICIPANTS
No. |
Name of the service |
Currency |
1 |
Arranging Custody |
|
1.1 |
intermediary consulting services, collecting and processing customer payments disclosure and settlement of agreement terms between the custodian and the person who receives the custody |
Any currency |
2 |
Advising on Investments |
|
2.1 |
giving advice to a person in his capacity as an investor or potential investor on the merits of his buying, selling, holding, subscribing for or underwriting a particular investment |
Any currency |
3 |
Arranging Deals in Investments |
|
3.1 |
making arrangements with a view to another person buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting an investment |
Any currency |
4 |
Advising on a Credit Facility |
|
4.1 |
giving advice to a person in his capacity as a borrower or a potential borrower, on the merits of his entering into a particular credit facility |
Any currency |
5 |
Arranging a Credit Facility |
|
5.1 |
collecting and processing commissions, fees, and other payments, assisting the lender in placing funds and the borrower in obtaining credit facility, agreement and settlement of the terms of the contractual relationship between the lender and the borrower, transmission of instructions or confirmations concerning credit facility
|
Any currency |
6 |
Services of Providing Investment Fund Establishment and Administration |
|
6.1 |
assets valuation and calculation of the value of assets, undertaking transactions monitoring and reconciliation of functions, communication with stakeholders |
Any currency |
7 |
Acting as Trustee of a fund |
|
7.1 |
holding the assets of a Fund on trust for the unitholders |
Any currency |
8 |
Managing a restricted profit sharing investment account based on Islamic financial contract |
|
8.1 |
managing an investment account (portfolio, fund), involving restriction of investments only within the Islamic Financial Contract with profit/loss sharing between the management company and the holder of the Islamic account (client)
|
Any currency |
Schedule 3
LIST OF PROFESSIONAL SERVICES THAT CAN BE PROVIDED BY AIFC PARTICIPANTS TO RESIDENTS THAT ARE NOT AIFC PARTICIPANTS, IN ANY CURRENCY
No. | Name of professional service |
1 | Legal services |
2 | Audit services |
3 | Accounting services |
Schedule 4
LIST OF TRANSACTIONS THAT AIFC BANKS ARE ENTITLED TO CARRY OUT THROUGH THEIR CORRESPONDENT ACCOUNTS IN THE NATIONAL CURRENCY IN STBs OF RK
No. | Type of transaction |
1 | Accepting and transferring money on the bank's own transactions |
2 | Execution of clients’ instructions on payment of taxes and obligatory payments to the budget, as well as execution by the AIFC bank of collection orders (tax authorities and bailiffs) brought forward to the client's current bank account |
3 | Payment of brokerage commissions, listing and other exchange fees for securities transactions in national currency at the AIFC Exchange and KASE |
4 | Settlements on transactions and payments on securities in national currency at the AIFC Exchange and KASE exchange |
5 | Settlement of transactions and payments on financial instruments in the national currency, including the securities being in nominal holding of the AIFC bank and transferred for custody in STBs of RK |
6 | Payment for consulting services provided by the AIFC bank |
Schedule 5
PROCEDURE FOR PROVIDING INFORMATION ON CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS IN THE AIFC
1. GENERAL PROVISIONS
1.1.This Schedule sets out requirements for AIFC participants to provide information for purposes of currency regulation on currency transactions carried out by them, including on behalf of clients, as well as for STBs of RK on currency transactions carried out on behalf of AIFC participants.
1.2. The information on currency transactions including client operations provided by AIFC participants includes:
(a) information on payments and (or) money transfers on currency transactions carried out by AIFC banks, including on behalf of clients, as well as by a STB of RK - on behalf of AIFC participants;
(b) information on resident clients' transactions and the status of their accounts provided by AIFC banks;
(c)information on deals and transactions carried out by AIFC participants, including on behalf of clients, that affected the change in requirements for non-residents and obligations in front of them;
(d) information on transactions with securities and derivatives carried out by AIFC participants with non-residents;
(e) information on income accrued and received from foreign exchange transactions with financial instruments of AIFC participants.
1.3. Information on currency transactions carried out, including on behalf of clients, is provided by AIFC participants and STBs of RK to the AFSA in the form of regular reports, the format and timing of which are determined by these Rules, or at the request of the AFSA.
1.4. AIFC participants provide the AFSA with the data and information in accordance with these Rules electronically through secure communication channels with confirmation by an electronic digital signature.
1.5.AIFC participants are responsible for non-submission, late submission, as well as the provision of false data in accordance with the Acting Law of the AIFC.
1.6.AIFC Bodies and their organisations include information about their own transactions in the reports submitted by the AFSA to the NBRK on the transactions carried out by AIFC participants.
1.7. The data in the reports related to monetary obligations and payments (or transfers) of money are reflected in USD. Unless otherwise indicated, if the currency of the obligation or payment (or transfer) of money differs from the USD, the equivalent in USD is calculated using the market exchange rate at the date of the transaction.
1.8 Zero values are provided for types of operations prohibited for AIFC participants provision of information on which is required by these Rules.
1.9 For all types of reporting provided by the AIFC participants, including AIFC banks, and STBs of RK to the AFSA, in the absence of transactions, the provision of information on which is provided for by these Rules, during the reporting period, it is necessary to submit zero values reports to the AFSA. This paragragh does not apply to Annex 4 of Schedule 5 of these Rules.
2. TERMS AND DEFINITIONS
2.1. For the purposes of this Schedule of the Rules, the key definitions specified in the Rules on Currency Regulation in the AIFC are used, together with the following definitions:
(a) the object of investment is a legal entity, investment fund, whose securities (votes of participants) are being acquired (acquired), as well as organisations to whose property contributions are being made (were made). In the case of depositary receipts, the object of investment is an issuer of the security that is their underlying asset;
(b) own transactions – currency transactions of a resident who is a party to an agreement, carried out on his own behalf and at his own expense.
2.2.Accepting Deposits is a type of regulated activity, as defined in paragraph 17 of Schedule 1 of the AIFC General Rules.
2.3.Providing Custody is a type of regulated activity, as defined in paragraph 5 of Schedule 1 of the AIFC General Rules.
3. PROCEDURE FOR PROVIDING INFORMATION ON CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS BY AIFC BANKS AND STBs OF RK
3.1. An AIFC bank and a STB of RK provide to the AFSA the following:
(a) a report on payments and (or) transfers made on foreign currency transactions, including on behalf of AIFC participants, made in the AIFC territory, for an amount equal to or exceeding the equivalent of USD 50,000, in accordance with Annex 1 to this Schedule. The report is submitted monthly no later than the 15th (fifteenth) day of the month following the reporting month;
(b) a report on clients' bank accounts in foreign currency, including a list of residents who have bank accounts in foreign currency with the AIFC bank, and aggregated data on cash balances on them, in accordance with Annex 2 to this Schedule. The report is submitted monthly no later than the 10th (tenth) day of the month following the reporting month;
(c) a report on the bank accounts of the AIFC participants who have opened deposit accounts in STBs of RK in the form in accordance with Annex 5 to this Schedule. The report is submitted quarterly no later than the 10th (tenth) day of the month following the reporting quarter.
3.2. In order to clarify the circumstances of currency transactions, the AFSA has the right to request from the AIFC bank the provision of a contract on the basis and (or) pursuant to which a payment and (or) money transfer was made or a corresponding obligation of the AIFC bank arises.
3.3. The AFSA, no later than the 18th (eighteenth) day of the month following the reporting month, provides information to the NBRK in the form of Annex 1 to this Schedule and no later than the 15th (fifteenth) day of the month following the reporting month, provides information to the NBRK in the form of Annex 2 to this Schedule electronically via secure communication channels.
4.PROCEDURE FOR PROVIDING INFORMATION BY AIFC PARTICIPANTS PROVIDING DEPOSITORY AND BROKERAGE SERVICES
4.1. AIFC participants providing dealer, and (or) brokerage; custodian; depository services in accordance with the their AFSA licence (hereinafter referred to as participants), quarterly no later than the 10th (tenth) 15 (fifteenth) day of the month following the reporting month, submit reports on securities to AFSA in accordance with Annex 3 to this Schedule.
The AFSA submits the participants' reports on Annex 3 to the NBRK no later than the 20th (twentieth) day of the month following the reporting quarter.
The AFSA, no later than the 10th day of the second month following the reporting quarter, provides to the NBRK in accordance with Annex 6 to this Schedule data on the volume of investments managed by AIFC participants providing investment management services.
4.2. The report is submitted on the AIFC participants' own transactions and transactions of their clients:
AIFC participants providing dealer and/or brokerage; custodial services in accordance with the Committee's license shall not provide data on transactions conducted on behalf of the following clients
- which are other participants of the AIFC;
- Joint Stock Company Development Bank of Kazakhstan;
- professional participants of the securities market of the Republic of Kazakhstan, having an appropriate license of the Agency of the Republic of Kazakhstan on Regulation and Development of Financial Market.:
4.3. The report reflects data on transactions carried out during the reporting period.
1) with securities issued by residents in the Republic of Kazakhstan and owned by a non-resident client of an AIFC participant (transaction code - 1111);
2) with securities issued by non-residents and owned by an AIFC participant and a client-resident of an AIFC participant (transaction code - 2220);
3) with securities issued by residents abroad and belonging to the AIFC participant or client-resident of the AIFC participant (operation code 2120);
4) with securities issued by residents abroad and belonging to the client-nonresident of the AIFC participant (transaction code - 2121).
The report proviede data on the number of securities, their value at the beginning and end of the reporting period, and, if available, investment income from the ownership of securities and service fees, including in the absence of transactions in the reporting period.
Transactions of securities repurchased (direct and reverse repurchase agreements) are not reflected in Annex 3 to this Schedule. Data at the beginning and end of the reporting period on the security involved in repo transactions are reflected by the original owner of the security.
4.4. The data is presented separately for each type of security by final beneficiary:
A) country code - three-digit numerical code of account owner's country – final beneficiary in accordance with national classifier of the Republic of Kazakhstan "Codes for representation of names of countries and their administrative-territorial subdivisions";
B) sector code of account owner-beneficiary:
«1» central government;
«2» regional and local governments;
«3» central (national) banks;
«4» other depositary organisations;
«5» other financial organisations;
«6» state non-financial organisations;
«7» non-state non-financial organisations;
«8» non-profit organisations serving households;
«9» households.
An AIFC participant providing custody services specifies the country and sector code for its AIFC depositary customer in an aggregated manner.
4.5. Financial transactions include transactions between a resident and a non-resident involving a change of economic ownership of securities and are recorded at the value specified in the transaction (if not, the price quoted in the market on the date of the agreement): purchase (sale) on the primary and secondary securities markets, crediting/writing of securities by mutual agreement; receipt (transfer) of securities as a gift, by inheritance.
4.6. Other transactions include:
1) Transactions between a resident and a non-resident which do not result in the transfer of ownership of securities (transfer of securities into nominal holding, transfer of clients from one nominee holder or registrar to another nominee holder or registrar);
2) Transactions between residents and non-residents with transfer of ownership, except those classified as financial transactions: alienation of securities by court decision;
3) Transactions between non-residents with transfer of ownership (purchase at the secondary market, sale at the secondary market);
4) Transactions between residents with transfer of ownership (purchase on the secondary market, sale on the secondary market).
4.7. Financial transactions include transactions between a resident and a non-resident involving a change in the economic ownership of securities, and are reflected at the value specified in the transaction (in case of absence of the value - at the price quoted on the market on the date of the agreement): purchase (sale) on the primary and secondary securities markets, receipt (transfer) of securities as a gift, by inheritance.
4.8. Only data on debt securities are reflected in column 23:
1) accrual of announced fees for days of holding a security by the respondent or his/her client during the reporting period;
2) amortization of premium or discount for the days of holding a security by the respondent or his client during the reporting period.
4.9. Column 24 are reflected data on income received in the reporting period:
1) dividends received by the respondent or his/her client during the reporting period;
2) remuneration received by the respondent or his/her client during the reporting period upon repayment of accrued interest on debt securities by the issuer.
The income referred to in this paragraph are reflected in the amount including any fees or taxes withheld therefrom.
4.10. Column 25 are reflected the fee income for brokerage, advisory, information and other services paid by a non-resident client to the respondent.
For the Depositary of AIFC, it is allowed to show fees and commissions in aggregate for each non-resident client of the Depositary. In this case, the fee is recorded for the security (at the highest amount at the end of the period) owned by the non-resident customer.
4.11. Purchases and sales of securities on the secondary market are reflected in columns 13 and 15 at the current market value, or the value corresponding to the price indicated by the buyer or seller customer.
4.12. The securities positions at the beginning of the reporting period in columns 6 and 7 are reflected equal to their positions at the end of the previous period. The securities position at the end of the reporting period in column 22 are reflected determined on the basis of the market price announced on the organised securities market at the end of the reporting period.
4.13. In the case of securities for which transactions are executed on the unorganised market, the following prices shall be applied in order of preference to assess the position of securities at the end of the reporting period:
(a) the price of the security on the last transaction;
(b) price of the security at purchase value, excluding acquisition related costs (brokerage fees, bank fees);
(c) the nominal value of the security.
4.14. Financial transactions and other items denominated in other foreign currencies are translated into US dollars at cross rates determined as follows:
1) the value at the beginning of the period is translated at the cross rate at the end of the preceding period;
2) the value at the end of the period - at the cross rate at the end of the reporting period;
3) financial and other operations, investment income and commissions - at cross-exchange rate as of the date of operation or at the average weighted cross-exchange rate for the reporting period.
5. PROCEDURE FOR PROVIDING INFORMATION ON CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS OF CAPITAL MOVEMENTS BY AIFC PARTICIPANTS
5.1. The AIFC participant provides the AFSA with information on the contract, on the basis of and pursuant to which capital movement transactions are carried out, for an amount equal to or exceeding the equivalent of USD 500,000, in accordance with Annex 4 to this Schedule. The information is provided before the expiration of 30 (thirty) calendar days from the date of commencement of payments under this contract. For financial loans attracted by AIFC banks from non-residents, Part 1 of the form is completed in case of conclusion of an agreement for a period of more than 180 days
If the party and (or) the currency of the contract change, the AIFC participant submits information to the AFSA in accordance with Annex 4 to this Schedule. The information is provided before the expiration of 30 (thirty) calendar days from the date of amendments to the contract.
5.2. At the request of the NBRK, the AIFC participant submits to the AFSA information on forecast data on repayment of debt on financial loans.
5.3. The AFSA provides information to the NBRK in the form of Annex 4 to this Schedule, and on the forecast data on repayment of debt on financial loans (if any) - monthly, no later the 10th day of the month following the reporting period.
Annex 1 to Schedule 5
Report on executed currency transactions
(structure of payment information in the bank's report)
BIN of AIFC Bank/STB of RK
Frequency: monthly
Reporting period: _______ month ____ year
Submission deadline: before the 15th (fifteenth) day (inclusive) of the month following the reporting period
Form
1. Details of the currency contract |
||
Number of currency contract |
Date of currency contract |
Account number of currency contract |
1.1 |
1.2 |
1.3 |
table continuation
2. Sender of money under payment document |
||||
Name or surname, first name, patronymic (if any) |
Business identification number (hereinafter referred to as BIN), individual identification number (hereinafter referred to as IIN) |
Country code |
Residency indicator |
Economic sector code |
2.1 |
2.2 |
2.3 |
2.4 |
2.5 |
|
table continuation
3. Beneficiary of payment document |
||||
3.1 |
3.2 |
3.3 |
3.4 |
3.5 |
Name or surname, first name, patronymic (if any) |
BIN/ IIN |
Country code |
Residency indicator |
Economic sector code
|
… |
|
|
|
|
table continuation
4. Information about currency transaction |
||||||||
Date |
Currency transaction reference |
Currency transaction code |
Payment purpose code (PPC) |
Amount in currency units |
Payment currency code |
Payment indicator |
Indicator of an intra-corporate money transfer |
Indicator of transaction related to the withdrawal of money |
4.1 |
4.2 |
4.3 |
4.4 |
4.5 |
4.6 |
4.7 |
4.8 |
4.9 |
… |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
table continuation
5. Information about the organisation (bank) of the counterparty for the currency transaction |
||
Identification code of the organisation (bank) (BIC) |
Name |
Country code |
5.1 |
5.2 |
5.3 |
|
table continuation
6. Sender of money under currency contract |
||||
Name or surname, first name, patronymic (if any) |
BIN, IIN |
Country code |
Residency indicator |
Economic sector code |
6.1 |
6.2 |
6.3 |
6.4 |
6.5 |
|
table continuation
7. The recipient of money under currency contract |
||||
Name or surname, first name, patronymic (if any) |
BIN/ IIN |
Country code |
Residency indicator |
Economic sector code |
7.1 |
7.2 |
7.3 |
7.4 |
7.5 |
table continuation
8. Note |
|
Address
___________________________________________________________
Phone
___________________________________________________________
E-mail address
___________________________________________________________
Type of activity
___________________________________________________________
Executor
________________________________________________________________________
surname, name and patronymic (if any) signature, phone number
Manager or person authorised to sign the report
_________________________________________________ _________________________________
surname, name and patronymic (if any) signature, phone number
Date of signing the report "____" ______________ 20___
(identification code) ____________________________________
Appendix to the report form on executed currency transactions
Guidance for Completing the Form
Report on executed currency transactions
1. The Form does not include information on the purchase (sale) of foreign currency in cash through exchange offices.
Information on payments and (or) money transfers on foreign exchange transactions made using payment cards is corrected by the AIFC Bank and (or) STB of the Republic of Kazakhstan as information about such payments and (or) money transfers is received from a resident or non-resident.
2. Parts 1, 6 and 7 of the Form are filled out in case of carrying out foreign currency transactions based on a currency contract.
3. Part 1 of the Form contains details of the currency contract. Column 1.3 is filled in if the currency contract has been assigned an account number.
4. Parts 2 and 3 of the Form contain information about the sender of money and the beneficiary in accordance with the payment document.
Columns 2.3 and 3.3 indicate the two-letter code of the country of registration (for a legal entity, branch (representative office) of a legal entity) or country of permanent residence (for an individual on the basis of citizenship or the right granted in accordance with the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan or a foreign state) of the sender of money, beneficiary in accordance with the national classifier of the Republic of Kazakhstan NC RK ISO 3166-1 “Codes for representing the names of countries and units of their administrative-territorial divisions. Part 1. Country codes”.
Columns 2.4, 2.5, 3.4 and 3.5 are filled in in accordance with the rules for the application of codes of sectors of the economy and the purpose of payments, approved by the Resolution of the Board of the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated August 31, 2016 No. 203, registered in the Register of State Registration of Regulatory Legal Acts under No. 14365, (hereinafter - Rules for the use of codes of sectors of the economy and the purpose of payments).
When depositing (withdrawing) cash from a bank account, in parts 2 and 3, information about the account holder is filled in, except for cases of depositing (withdrawing) cash by a third party to the bank account of an individual. When depositing cash by a third party to the bank account of an individual, in part 2, information about the person who deposits the money shall be filled, in part 3 - on the owner of the account.
When withdrawing cash from a bank account of an individual by a third party, information about the account holder shall be filled in part 2, information about the person who withdraws money shall be filled in part 3.
When AIFC Bank and (or) STBs of RK sell foreign currency, checks, bills of exchange, other payment documents or other currency valuables, part 2 of the Form reflects information about the AIFC Bank and (or) STBs of RK, part 3 of the Form - about the client-buyer. When the AIFC Bank and (or) STBs of RK purchase foreign currency, checks, bills, other payment documents or other currency valuables, part 2 of the Form reflects information about the client-seller, part 3 of the Form - about the AIFC Bank and (or) STBs of RK.
5. Part 4 of the Form contains information about the currency transaction.
Column 4.2 shall indicate the reference of the currency operation consisting of four parts:
1) the first part shall indicate the three-digit code of the STB RK or the code of the AIFC bank assigned by the Committee,
2) the second part shall indicate the code of the branch of STB RK or the code of the AIFC bank assigned by the Committee, consisting of three digits;
3) the third part shall indicate the serial number of the currency operation in the report;
4) the fourth part shall indicate the reporting date in the format "DDMMYYYY".
Column 4.3 shall be filled in in accordance with the table of currency transaction codes, which is an Annex to the explanation for filling out the form "Information on the currency transaction" of the Rules for the implementation of currency transactions in the Republic of Kazakhstan, approved by the Resolution of the Board of the NB RK dated March 30, 2019 No. 40.
Column 4.4 is filled in in accordance with the Rules for the use of codes of sectors of the economy and the purpose of payments.
In column 4.6, a three-digit alphabetic currency code is indicated in accordance with the national classifier of the Republic of Kazakhstan NC RK 07 ISO 4217 "Codes for representing currencies and funds".
In column 4.7, "01" is indicated - for sent payments or money transfers, operations for withdrawing cash foreign currency or selling by the AIFC Bank and (or) STB of RK foreign currency, checks, bills, other payment documents or other currency values, "02" - for incoming payments or money transfers, operations to credit foreign currency in cash or purchase by the AIFC Bank and (or) STB of RK foreign currency, checks, bills of exchange, other payment documents or other currency values.
In column 4.8, shall be indicated “1” if the payment and (or) money transfer is carried out between a legal entity and its structural divisions or between structural divisions of one legal entity, in other cases, shall be indicated “0”.
Column 4.9 shall be filled in accordance with paragraphs 16-1 and 16-2 of Rules for carrying out currency transactions in the Republic of Kazakhstan as follows:
"1.1" - a financial loan providing for the provision of money by a non-resident to a resident (except for the STB of the RK), if the terms of the relevant currency agreement (initially or after amendments and (or) additions to the currency agreement) do not provide for the transfer of money to be received from a non-resident to the resident's bank accounts in the STB of the RK;
"1.2" - a financial loan that provides for the emergence of a resident's (except for the STB of the RK) claims against a non-resident for the return of money, if the terms of the relevant currency agreement (initially or after amendments and (or) additions to the currency agreement) do not provide for the transfer of money to be received from a non-resident to the resident's bank accounts in the STB of the RK;
"1.3" - a financial loan providing for the provision of money by a resident to a non-resident who is not an affiliated person, if the terms and conditions of the relevant currency agreement (initially or after amendments and (or) additions to the currency agreement) do not provide for the payment of remuneration for the use of the subject of the financial loan;
"1.4" - export operations, if the terms of the respective currency agreement (initially or after amendments and (or) additions to the currency agreement) stipulate that the term of fulfillment of the non-resident's obligations to pay for exports exceeds 720 (seven hundred and twenty) days from the date of fulfillment of obligations by the resident;
"1.5" - import operations, if the terms of the respective currency agreement (initially or after amendments and (or) additions to the currency agreement) stipulate that the term of fulfillment of the non-resident's obligations on delivery of goods (performance of work, rendering of services) or on return of money, including advance payment or prepayment amount in full (in case of non-fulfillment by the non-resident of its obligations on import), exceeds 720 (seven hundred and twenty) days from the date of fulfillment of obligations by the resident;
"1.6" - transfer of money by a resident to a non-resident professional participant of the securities market, performing currency transactions on clients' instructions, for an amount exceeding 50,000 (fifty thousand) US dollars in equivalent;
"1.7" - transfer by a resident of money to his/her own account abroad in an amount exceeding 50,000 (fifty thousand) US dollars in equivalent;
"1.8" - gratuitous money transfer made by a resident in favor of a non-resident for the amount exceeding 50,000 (fifty thousand) US dollars in equivalent;
"2" - payments and (or) money transfers of one person in a calendar month under two or more currency contracts concluded with the same non-resident for the total amount exceeding the threshold value above which such currency contracts shall be subject to assignment of the accounting number;
“0”- in other cases.
6. Part 5 of the Form contains information about the organisation (bank) of the counterparty for the currency transaction - the organisation (bank) of the sender of money for received payments and (or) money transfers, the organisation (bank) of the beneficiary for sent payments and (or) money transfers. For intra-bank currency transactions, information on the reporting AIFC Bank and (or) STB of the RK is indicated. If there is no information about the organisation (bank) of the sender of money in the documents based on which the payment and (or) money transfer is made, Part 5 shall not fill out.
Column 5.3 indicates the two-letter code of the country of the organisation (bank) of the sender of money or the beneficiary in accordance with the national classifier of the Republic of Kazakhstan NC RK ISO 3166-1 “Codes for representing the names of countries and units of their administrative-territorial divisions. Part 1. Country codes. For intra-bank currency transactions, the code "KZ" shall be indicated.
7. Parts 6 and 7 of the Form contain information about the sender of money or the recipient of money under a currency contract. If the sender (recipient) of money under the currency contract matches the sender of money (beneficiary) under the payment document, then in part 6 (7) information shall be filled in similarly to part 2 (3) of the Form.
Columns 6.3 and 7.3 indicate the two-letter code of the country of registration (for a legal entity, branch (representative office) of a legal entity) or country of permanent residence (for an individual on the basis of citizenship or a right granted in accordance with the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan or a foreign state) of the sender or recipient money under a currency contract in accordance with the national classifier of the Republic of Kazakhstan NC RK ISO 3166-1 “Codes for representing the names of countries and units of their administrative-territorial divisions. Part 1. Country codes.
Columns 6.4, 6.5, 7.4 and 7.5 shall be filled in in accordance with the Rules for the use of codes of sectors of the economy and the purpose of payments.
8. Part 8 of the Form contains additional information that is not included in parts 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Form: information about the investment object, issuer of securities, country of the property, special payment terms, date of crediting money to the account of storage of instructions of the sender under the currency legislation.
9. The absence of clarifying information in part 8 of the Form is not a violation. Inclusion in the Form of currency transactions in the amount less than the established threshold value is not a violation.
10. In the absence of information for the reporting period, the Form is submitted with zero values.
11. Corrections (changes, additions) to the Form shall be made within 1 (one) month after the submission deadline.
Annex 2 to Schedule 5
Report on the monetary movement on clients' bank accounts in foreign currency __________
Name of AIFC Bank/STB of RK
BIN of AIFC Bank/STB of RK
Frequency: monthly
Reporting period: on "____" __________ 20____
Submission deadline: monthly until the 10th (tenth) day (inclusive) of the month following the reporting
Name of the AIFC Bank / STBs of RK_____________
Form in currency
№ |
№ |
Line code |
Total |
1 |
… |
|||||||||||||
Client name |
Total(tenge) |
from which by currency type (in currency units) |
Total(tenge) |
from which by currency type (in currency units) |
Total(tenge) |
from which by currency type (in currency units) |
||||||||||||
Business identification number (BIN) of the client |
||||||||||||||||||
Indicator name \ Bank account currency |
USD |
E U R |
R U B |
C N Y |
U S D |
E U R |
R U B |
C N Y |
|
USD |
EUR |
RUB |
C N Y |
|||||
А |
B |
C |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
11 |
|
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
1 |
Balance at the beginning of period |
100000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
2 |
Receipt to clients' bank accounts in foreign currency, total |
210000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
3 |
from: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
4 |
residents |
211000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
5 |
including operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
6 |
sale of goods and intangible assets |
211110 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
7 |
provision of services |
211120 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
8 |
receipt of the principal amount of the debt and income on loans issued |
211130 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
9 |
attracting loans from resident banks |
211140 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
10 |
operations with securities, bills of exchange and contributions providing participation in capital: |
211150 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
11 |
other money transfers |
211160 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
12 |
non-residents |
212000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
13 |
including operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
14 |
sale of goods and intangible assets |
212110 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
15 |
provision of services |
212120 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
16 |
receipt of the principal amount of the debt and income on loans issued |
212130 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
17 |
attraction of loans |
212140 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
18 |
operations with securities, bills of exchange and contributions providing participation in capital: |
212150 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
19 |
other money transfers |
212160 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
20 |
money transfers by customers from their bank accounts |
210300 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
21 |
which are opened in: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
22 |
resident banks |
210301 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
23 |
non-resident banks |
210302 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
24 |
purchase of foreign currency for tenge |
210400 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
25 |
crediting cash foreign currency to own bank accounts |
210500 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
26 |
Withdrawal of money from clients' bank accounts in foreign currency, total |
220000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
27 |
including in favor of: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
28 |
residents |
221000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
29 |
including operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
30 |
purchase of goods and intangible assets |
221110 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
31 |
receiving services |
221120 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
32 |
issuance of loans |
221130 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
33 |
fulfillment of obligations under loans attracted from resident banks |
221140 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
34 |
operations with securities, bills of exchange and contributions providing participation in capital: |
221150 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
35 |
other money transfers |
221160 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
36 |
non-residents |
222000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
37 |
including operations: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
38 |
purchase of goods and intangible assets |
222110 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
39 |
receiving services |
222120 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
40 |
issuance of loans |
222130 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
41 |
fulfillment of loan obligations |
222140 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
42 |
operations with securities, bills of exchange and contributions providing participation in capital: |
222150 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
43 |
other money transfers |
222160 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
44 |
money transfers by customers to own bank accounts |
220300 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
45 |
which are opened in: |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
46 |
resident banks |
220301 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
47 |
non-resident banks |
220302 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
48 |
sale of foreign currency for tenge |
220400 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
49 |
withdrawal of cash foreign currency from their bank accounts |
220500 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
50 |
Balance at the end of the period |
300000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
51 |
Purchase of foreign currency (including for other foreign currency), total |
410400 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
52 |
including for making payments and transfers in favor of non-residents |
412400 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
53 |
Sale of foreign currency (including for other foreign currency), total |
420400 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Address____________________________
Phone _____________________________
E-mail address ________________________________________________
Type of activity ________________________________________________
Contractor ______________________________________ ________________
surname, name and patronymic (if any) signature, phone number
Chief accountant or person authorised to sign the report
_________________________________________________ __________________
surname, name and patronymic (if any) signature, phone number
First manager or person authorised to sign the report
___________________________________________ ______________________
surname, name and patronymic (if any) signature, phone number
Date of signing the report "____" ______________ 20___
Appendix to the report form for foreign currency movement in customer bank accounts
Guidance for Completing the Form
This section provides an explanation for properly filling out the form titled "Report on Foreign Currency Movements in Client Bank Accounts"
Part 1. General Provisions
1. This explanation outlines the standardised guidelines for completing the designated administrative data collection form titled "Report on Foreign Currency Movements in Client Bank Accounts" (hereinafter referred to as "the Form").
2. The Form should be endorsed by the primary manager or an authorised representative responsible for report signatures, the chief accountant or an authorised representative responsible for report signatures, and the executing party.
Part 2. Guidance for Completing the Form
3. The Form shall be completed for every individual bank client, encompassing an overview of their foreign currency bank account status, this includes: the balances at both the commencement and conclusion of the reporting period, with notable emphasis on alterations that occurred during the period due to transactions involving bank accounts held in US dollars, Euros, Russian rubles and Chinese yuans. The data on the total column shall be filled in tenge, the columns by types of currencies shall be filled in units of bank account currency.
4. In instances where the AIFC Bank and/or STB of RK initiate a payment (transfer) on behalf of a client in a currency differing from that of the client's bank account, the transaction should be documented based on its actual purpose, rather than being treated as a currency conversion.
5. When completing the Form, adhere to the following conditions:
for all rows of the table, columns 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are equal to the sums of values for all clients;
line with code 100000 = lines with code 300000 for the previous reporting period;
line with code 300000 = line with code 100000 + (line with code 210000 - line with code 210400) + line with code 410400 - (line with code 220000 - line with code 220400) - line with code 420400;
line with code 210000 = line with code 211000 + line with code 212000 + line with code 210300 + line with code 210400 + line with code 210500;
line with code 211000 = line with code 211110 + line with code 211120 + line with code 211130 + line with code 211140 + line with code 211150 + line with code 211160;
in line with code 211140, operations to attract loans from resident banks also include loans attracted from the reporting bank;
line with code 212000 = line with code 212110 + line with code 212120 + line with code 212130 + line with code 212140 + line with code 212150 + line with code 212160;
line with code 210300 = line with code 210301 + line with code 210302;
in the line with code 210301, transfers by clients of money from their bank accounts opened with resident banks also include transfers by clients of money from a bank account opened with the reporting bank (intrabank transfers);
line with code 220000 = line with code 221000 + line with code 222000 + line with code 220300 + line with code 220400 + line with code 220500;
line with code 221000 = line with code 221110 + line with code 221120 + line with code 221130 + line with code 221140 + line with code 221150 + line with code 221160;
in the line with code 221140, the operation to fulfill obligations on loans attracted from resident banks also includes operations to fulfill obligations on loans attracted from the reporting bank;
line with code 222000 = line with code 222110 + line with code 222120 + line with code 222130 + line with code 222140 + line with code 222150 + line with code 222160;
line with code 220300 = line with code 220301 + line with code 220302;
in the line with code 220301, transfers by clients of money to their bank accounts opened with resident banks also include transfers by clients of money to their bank account opened with the reporting bank (intrabank transfers);
line with code 410400 > = line with code 412400.
6. Corrections, alterations, or additions to the data within the Form should be made within 1 (one) month following the submission deadline.
7. If information is unavailable for the reporting period, the Form should be submitted with zero values.
Annex 3 to Schedule 5
Report on transactions of resident clients with securities of foreign issuers, with securities issued by residents in accordance with the legislation of other states and on their territory, and on transactions of non-resident clients with securities issued by residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan
Name of AIFC participant |
|
|||
Address |
|
|||
BIN |
|
|||
Name of Implementing Officer of the AIFC participant |
|
|||
Period |
Number of quarter |
|
Year |
|
Phone |
|
|||
|
|
|||
Type of activity |
|
|
|
|
Account holder type code |
At the beginning of the reporting period |
Financial transactions |
|||||||||
amount |
value of the security |
primary market purchase |
redemption / redemption by the issuer |
buying on the secondary market |
sale on the secondary market |
|||||||||
Country code |
Economy sector code ки |
amount |
value of the security |
amount |
value of the security |
amount |
value of the security |
amount |
value of the security |
|||||
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
Other operations |
Cost changes |
At the end of the reporting period |
Investment income |
Commission received |
Name of the asset/financial instrument |
Issuer's name |
Currency of issuance |
|||||
on crediting a security |
write-off of a security |
amount |
value of the security |
Accrued in the reporting period |
Received in the reporting period |
|||||||
amount |
value of the security |
amount |
value of the security |
|||||||||
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
26 |
27 |
28 |
Transaction code - 1111. Securities issued by residents in the Republic of Kazakhstan and owned by a non-resident customer of an AIFC participant;
Transaction code - 2220. Securities issued by non-residents and owned by an AIFC participant or a client-resident of an AIFC participant;
Transaction code - 2120. Securities issued by residents abroad and owned by the AIFC participant or the client-resident of the AIFC participant;
Transaction code - 2121. Securities issued by residents abroad and held by a client which is a non-resident of an AIFC participant.
Annex 4 to Schedule 5
Information on contracts on the basis of and pursuant to which currency transactions of capital movements are carried out
The information is provided under currency contracts, on the basis of and pursuant to which currency transactions of capital movements are carried out, for an amount equal to or exceeding the equivalent of USD 500,000. The equivalent in USD is calculated at the market exchange rate (cross-rate) on the effective date of the contract.
The information is provided according to the following structure:
Name of the AIFC participant ________________________ BIN____________
1.Information on financial loans attracted by AIFC participant from a non-resident (issued by AIFC participants to a non-resident)
Subparagraph No |
Indicator name |
Information about the financial loan 1 |
Information about the financial loan 2 |
А |
B |
1 |
2 |
1 |
Contract identification data (name, number, date) |
|
|
2 |
Aim and purpose of financing under the contract (if specified in the contract) |
|
|
3 |
Effective date of the contract |
|
|
4 |
Resident status under the contract (lender/borrower/agent) |
|
|
5 |
Non-resident(s)-participant(s) of the contract (name) |
|
|
5.1 |
Non-resident status under the contract (lender/borrower/agent) |
|
|
5.2 |
Relation to the resident party to the contract (affiliation) |
|
|
5.3 |
Country of registration of a non-resident (code) |
|
|
6 |
Currency of a contract |
|
|
7 |
Contract amount (in thousands of units of the contract currency) |
|
|
8 |
Contract duration (up to a year/over a year) |
|
|
9 |
The interest rate (in the case of a fixed interest rate, % per annum is indicated, in the case of a floating interest rate, the basis of its calculation and the margin size are indicated) |
|
|
10 |
Debt repayment schedule (thousands of units of the contract currency) |
|
|
11 |
Note |
|
|
2. Information about participation of a non-resident in the capital of AIFC participant (AIFC participant in the capital of a non-resident)
Subparagraph No |
Indicator name |
Information about capital participation 1 |
Information about capital participation 2 |
А |
B |
1 |
2 |
1 |
Contract identification data (name, number, date) |
|
|
2 |
Type of participation in the capital (acquisition of equity, units, shares, participatory inputs, etc.) |
|
|
3 |
Share of participation based on the results of the transaction, as a percentage |
|
|
4 |
Effective date of the contract |
|
|
5 |
Resident status under the contract (investor/investment object/buyer/seller) |
|
|
6 |
Investor (name or full name) |
|
|
6.1 |
Residency indicator |
|
|
6.2 |
BIN for residents |
|
|
6.3 |
Country of legal registration for non-residents |
|
|
7 |
Investment object (name) |
|
|
7.1 |
Residency indicator |
|
|
7.2 |
BIN for residents |
|
|
7.3 |
Country of legal registration for non-residents |
|
|
8 |
Seller (name or full name) |
|
|
8.1 |
Residency indicator |
|
|
8.2 |
BIN for residents |
|
|
8.3 |
Country of legal registration for non-residents |
|
|
9 |
Buyer (name or full name) |
|
|
9.1 |
Residency indicator |
|
|
9.2 |
BIN for residents |
|
|
9.3 |
Country of legal registration for non-residents |
|
|
10 |
Currency of a contract |
|
|
11 |
Contract amount (in thousands of units of the contract currency) |
|
|
12 |
Note |
|
|
3. Information on other capital transactions of an AIFC participant
N |
Indicator name |
Contract information 1 |
Contract information 2 |
А |
B |
1 |
2 |
1 |
Type of transaction (ownership of real estate, exclusive right to intellectual property, joint venture, gratuitous transfer of money and other currency values) |
|
|
2 |
Identification of the contract (name, number, date) |
|
|
3 |
Non-resident(s)-contracting parties (name or surname) |
|
|
4 |
Non-resident's country of registration (code) |
|
|
5 |
Currency of the contract |
|
|
6 |
Contract amount (in thousands of units of the contract currency) |
|
|
7 |
Brief description of the operation |
|
|
8 |
Note |
|
|
Explanation of completion:
1. non-resident to resident ratio is selected from the list:
1) _direct ownership by non-resident of 10 (ten) per cent or more of voting shares, votes of resident participants;
2) _indirect ownership by non-resident of 10 (ten) percent or more of voting shares, votes of resident participants;
3) _direct ownership by a resident of 10 (ten) per cent or more of voting shares, votes of non-resident participants;
4) _indirect ownership by a resident of 10 (ten) per cent or more of voting shares, votes of non-resident participants;
5) _ resident and non-resident do not have any control or influence over each other but are controlled or influenced by the same investor owning directly or indirectly at least 10 (ten) per cent of voting shares, votes of participants of a resident;
6) _cases not specified in subparagraphs 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) of this paragraph.
1. Debt repayment schedule (in thousand units of the loan currency):
Quarter, year |
Repayment of principal |
Payment of remuneration |
|
|
|
Total |
|
|
Annex 5 to Schedule 5
List of AIFC participants which opened deposit accounts in a STB
Name of STB of RK |
|
|||
Address |
|
|||
BIN |
|
|||
Name of Implementing Officer of the STB of RK |
|
|||
Period |
Number of month |
|
Year |
|
Phone |
|
|||
|
|
|||
Type of activity |
|
№ |
IIN/ BIN |
Status of the AIFC participant |
Account type |
Currency of an account |
Date of opening an account |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Annex 6 to Schedule 5
Report on the volume of investments of AIFC participants providing investment management services
Name of the AIFC body |
AFSA |
|||
Address |
|
|||
BIN |
|
|||
Reporting period |
Number of quarter |
|
Year |
|
Division of AIFC body |
|
|||
Phone |
|
|||
|
||||
Type of activity |
Investment management |
|
|
Volume of assets under management |
|
At the beginning of the reporting period |
At the end of the reporting period |
||
1 |
2 |
4 |
5 |
RULES ON THE SUBSTANTIAL PRESENCE OF THE AIFC PARTICIPANTS APPLYING TAX EXEMPTIONS FOR THE PAYMENT OF CIT, VAT
1. GENERAL PROVISIONS
1) These Rules on the Substantial Presence of the Astana International Financial Centre (hereinafter, the Centre) Participants Applying Tax Exemptions for the Payment of Corporate Income Tax, Value Added Tax (hereinafter, the Rules) are developed pursuant to paragraph 6 of the List of Financial Services Income from which is Exempt from the Payment of Corporate Income Tax and Value Added Tax, provided by participants of the Centre (hereinafter, the Centre Participants) approved by the Joint Order of the Governor of the Astana International Financial Centre dated May 26, 2020 No.126, the Minister of Finance of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated May 29, 2020 No.547 and the Minister of National Economy of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated 12 June 2020 No.118 (hereinafter, the List of Financial Services).
2) The Rules apply to the Centre Participants who apply tax exemptions in accordance with paragraphs 3 and/or 4 of Article 6 of the Constitutional Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated December 7, 2015 "On the Astana International Financial Centre" (hereinafter, the Constitutional Law).
3) For the purposes of applying the Rules, the basic concepts provided by the Constitutional Law, joint orders, as well as other regulatory legal acts of the Republic of Kazakhstan are used to the extent that they do not contradict the Constitutional Law.
4) The concepts of tax, civil and other branches of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan, used in the Rules, shall be applied in the meaning in which they are used in these branches of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan, unless otherwise provided by the Rules and/or the Constitutional Law.
5) Provisions on the fulfilment of tax obligations not established by the Rules are governed by the tax legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan.
2. REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBSTANTIAL PRESENCE ON THE TERRITORY OF THE CENTRE
6) The Centre Participant is recognised as substantially present on the territory of the Centre, if the Centre Participant simultaneously fulfils the following conditions:
- 1.The Core Income Generating Activities (hereinafter, CIGA) of the Centre Participant are provided on the territory of the Centre and consist of the services established by paragraphs 3 and/or 4 of Article 6 of the Constitutional Law and/or Chapter 3 of the List of Financial Services.
- 2.The amount of operating expenses incurred by the Centre Participant must correspond to the adequate amount required for performing of the CIGA.
- 3.The number of qualified full-time employees of the Centre Participant must correspond to the adequate number required for delivery of the CIGA.
7) The Centre Participants must submit to the local state revenue authority an economic study of the project, including the justification of costs and the number of employees.
8) The procedure for determination of compliance of the Centre Participant with the conditions established by this Chapter is determined by the state revenue authority during a tax audit. The level of adequacy of the number of full-time employees and the volume of expenses incurred is determined by identical types of activities of similar operating industries.
9) In case of a Centre Participant’s non-compliance with the conditions provided in these Rules the taxation procedure established by the Tax Code of the Republic of Kazakhstan is applied.
3. CORE INCOME GENERATING ACTIVITIES
10) The Core Income Generating Activities are the essential and valuable activities that generate income and business value for the Centre Participant. The Centre Participant is not required to carry out a full list of activities constituting the CIGA for a particular sector, however, in order to comply with the substantial presence, the Centre Participant must carry out the main activities that are profitable in the Centre.
11) The list of services provided in the course of the CIGA is established in paragraphs 3 and/or 4 of Article 6 of the Constitutional Law and/or Chapter 3 of the List of Financial Services and must be applied in conjunction with these Rules.
12) Income derived from intellectual property, including royalties, capital gains and other income from the sale of intellectual property is not exempt from tax.
13) Outsourcing / subcontracting of types of work that are directly related to the CIGA is not allowed outside of the Republic of Kazakhstan.
4. PROCEDURE FOR APPLYING THE RULES
14) The Bodies of the Centre, if questions arise regarding the application of the Rules that are not regulated by the Rules, must, to the extent that does not contradict the Constitutional Law, and the provisions of these Rules:
- 1.make changes and additions to the Rules in agreement with the Ministry of Finance of the Republic of Kazakhstan;
- 2.adopt acts that regulate issues arising from the Centre Participants and/or the Bodies of the Centre on the application of the Rules.
The acts of the Centre adopted in accordance with this paragraph must not contradict the Constitutional Law, as well as the current law of the Republic of Kazakhstan in the part not regulated by the Constitutional Law.
MULTILATERAL AND ORGANISED TRADING FACILITIES RULES
1. GENERAL
1.1. Application of these Rules
These Rules, which may be cited as the AIFC Multilateral and Organised Trading Facilities Rules (“MOTF”), apply to a Person with respect to:
(a)the operation, in or from the AIFC, of a Multilateral Trading Facility; or
(b)the operation, in or from the AIFC, of an Organised Trading Facility.
Guidance
A MTF Operator or an OTF Operator is an Authorised Firm to which the following provisions of GEN are applicable either directly or in respect of their officers and Employees who are Approved Individuals or Designated Individuals:
(a)GEN 2: Controlled and Designated Functions;
(b)GEN 3: Control of Authorised Persons;
(c)GEN 4: Core Principles;
(d)GEN 5: Systems and Controls;
(e)GEN 6: Supervision.
MOTF supplement, and should be read in conjunction with, GEN.
PRU(INV) Rules do not apply to a MTF Operator or an OTF Operator. As an Authorised Person, a MTF Operator or an OTF Operator also needs to comply with the wider Rulebooks relevant to all Authorised Persons, including AML.
1.2. Definitions
(1)A Trading Facility is a facility on which investments, rights or interests in Investments are traded. A Trading Facility may be a Multilateral Trading Facility (“MTF”) or an Organised Trading Facility (“OTF”).
(2)A Multilateral Trading Facility is operated by a MTF Operator while an Organised Trading Facility is operated by an OTF Operator.
(3)A MTF Operator is a Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility.
(4)An OTF Operator is a Centre Participant which has been licensed by the AFSA to carry on the Regulated Activity of Operating an Organised Trading Facility.
(5) A Trading Facility Operator is either a MTF Operator or an OTF Operator.
Guidance
Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility and Operating an Organised Trading Facility are defined as Regulated Activities in Schedule 1 of GEN.
For MTF Operators, one of the important requirements concerns the obligation that the Investments, rights, or interests in Investments be brought together in the system through non-discretionary rules set by the Operator. That requirement means that they are brought together under the Operator’s rules or through the Operator’s protocols or internal operating procedures, including procedures embodied in computer software. The term ‘non-discretionary rules’ means rules that leave the Operator with no discretion as to how Investments, rights, or interests in Investments may interact. The definition requires that Investments, rights, or interests in Investments be brought together in such a way as to result in a contract which occurs where execution takes place under the Operator’s rules or through the Operator’s protocols or internal operating procedures.
While MTF Operators have non-discretionary rules for the execution of transactions, OTF Operators should carry out order execution on a discretionary basis subject to the pre-transparency requirements and best execution obligations. Consequently, conduct of business rules, best execution and client order handling obligations should apply to the transactions executed by an OTF Operator.
1.3. Exclusions for order routing
For the purpose of these Rules, a Person does not operate a Trading Facility if it operates a facility which is an order routing system where buying and selling interests in, or orders for, financial instruments are merely transmitted but do not interact or consummate a trade.
2. AUTHORISATION
A Person wishing to operate a MTF or OTF must be an Authorised Firm licensed to operate a MTF or OTF, respectively, by the AFSA.
2.1. Requirements for Trading Facility Operator authorisation
The AFSA may not grant authorisation or variation to operate a MTF or OTF unless the applicant satisfies all of the following requirements:
(1)general authorisation requirements applicable to the applicant under the Framework Regulations and other applicable rules, and
(2)the applicant must hold the following minimum capital at all times:
- (a)an amount equal to 6 months' operational expenses; plus
- (b)an additional amount equal to 6 months' operational expenses, unless the AFSA directs otherwise.
Guidance
According to PRU(INV) 1.3(8), if a PRU Investment Firm holds both an Authorisation to carry on PRU Investment Business and Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business, which includes Trading Facility Operators, it will be also subject to PRU(INV) Rules in relation to the whole of its business, including its Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business. However, the AFSA may direct that the PRU Investment Firm will be deemed to satisfy:
(a) some or all of PRU(INV) Rules if it satisfies the rules that apply to it by reason of the Authorisation to carry on Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business; or
(b) some or all of the rules that apply to it by reason of the Authorisation to carry on Non-PRU(INV) Investment Business where it satisfies the PRU(INV) Rules.
3. MEMBERSHIP CRITERIA AND ACCESS
3.1.Admission criteria
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must ensure that access to its facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors.
(2) A Trading Facility Operator may, subject to MOTF 3.2(2) and (3), accept as a Member:
(a)an Authorised Firm;
(b)a Body Corporate other than the Authorised Firm; or
(c)a Person not referred to in (a) and (b), only if:
- (i)the facility is one on which Qualified Investments are traded; and
- (ii)the Person’s access is only for trading Qualified Investments.
(3) The AFSA may, if it considers on reasonable grounds that it is appropriate to do so, require the Trading Facility Operator to have effective systems and controls in place to restrict the maximum number of Persons referred to in MOTF 3.1(2)(c) allowed to trade on its facility.
3.2.Membership Rules
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities. In particular, those rules must specify the obligations of users or Members of its facilities arising from:
- (a)the constitution and administration of the Operator;
- (b)rules relating to transactions on the Operator’s market;
- (c)in case of an Authorised Firm, its professional standards for staff having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the Operator;
- (d)in case of a Body Corporate other than the Authorised Firm, conditions for access to or membership by Persons of a financial market operated by the Operator;
- (e)in case of a natural person, conditions for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the Operator; and
- (f)the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions.
(2) A Trading Facility Operator may only give access to or admit to membership a Person who:
- (a)is fit and proper and of good repute;
- (b)if applicable, has a sufficient level of ability, competence and experience, including appropriate standards of conduct for its staff; and
- (c)if applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, including financial and technological resources.
(3) In assessing whether access to a Trading Facility Operator’s facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market or of those facilities and the interests of investors, the AFSA may have regard to whether:
(a)the Operator limits access as a Member to such Persons:
- (i)over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;
- (ii)who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities; and
- (iii)if appropriate, who have adequate financial resources in relation to their exposure to the Operator;
(b)indirect access to the Operator’s facilities is subject to suitable criteria, remains the responsibility of a Member of the Operator and is subject to the Operator’s rules; and
(c)the Operator’s rules:
- (i)set out the design and operation of the Operator’s relevant systems;
- (ii)set out the risk for Members and other users when accessing and using the Operator’s facilities;
- (iii)contain provisions for the resolution of Members’ and other users’ disputes and an appeal process for the decisions of the Operator;
- (iv)contain disciplinary proceedings, including any sanctions that may be imposed by the Operator against its Members and other users; and
- (v)set out other matters necessary for the proper functioning of the Operator and the facilities operated by it.
3.3.Lists of users or Members
A Trading Facility Operator must regularly make arrangements to provide the AFSA with a list of users or Members of its facilities.
4. DIRECT ELECTRONIC ACCESS
4.1.Permitting Members that are Body Corporates to provide Direct Electronic Access to clients
(1)This rule applies if a Trading Facility Operator proposes to permit a Member that is a Body Corporate to provide its clients Direct Electronic Access to the Operator’s facilities.
(2)A Trading Facility Operator may permit a Member to provide its clients Direct Electronic Access to the Operator’s facilities only if:
- (a)the clients meet the suitability criteria established by the Member in order to meet the requirements in MOTF 4.2;
- (b)the Member retains responsibility for the orders and trades executed by its clients who are using Direct Electronic Access; and
- (c)the Member has adequate mechanisms to prevent its clients placing or executing orders using Direct Electronic Access in a manner that would result in the Member exceeding its position or margin limits.
4.2.Criteria, standards and arrangements for providing Direct Electronic Access to clients of Members that are body corporates
(1)A Trading Facility Operator which permits its Members to provide its clients Direct Electronic Access to the Operator’s facilities under MOTF rule 4.1 must:
- (a)set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through Direct Electronic Access;
- (b)be able to identify orders and trades made through Direct Electronic Access; and
- (c)if necessary, be able to stop orders or trades made by a client using Direct Electronic Access provided by the Member without affecting the other orders or trades made or executed by that Member.
(2)A client who is permitted to have Direct Electronic Access to an Operator’s facilities through a Member is not, by virtue of such permission, a Member of the Operator. However, such client is subject to the jurisdiction of the MTF or OTF.
(3)In determining whether a Trading Facility Operator has adequate arrangements to permit Direct Electronic Access to its facilities and to prevent and resolve problems likely to arise from the use of electronic systems to provide indirect access to its facilities to Persons other than the Operator’s Members, the AFSA may have regard to:
- (a)the rules and guidance governing Members’ procedures, controls and security arrangements for inputting instructions into the system;
- (b)the rules and guidance governing the facilities that Members provide to its clients to input instructions into the system and the restrictions placed on the use of those systems;
- (c)the rules and practices to detect, identify, and halt or remove instructions breaching any relevant restrictions;
- (d)the quality and completeness of the audit trail of a transaction processed through an electronic connection system; and
- (e)procedures to determine whether to suspend trading by those systems or access to them by or through individual Members.
4.3.Criteria, standards and arrangements for giving Direct Electronic Access to Members who are natural persons
(1)This rule applies if a Trading Facility Operator proposes to give to a Member who is a natural person Direct Electronic Access to the Operator’s facilities.
(2) A Trading Facility Operator must ensure that:
(a)its rules clearly set out:
- (i)the duties owed by the Operator to its Members with Direct Electronic Access, and how the Operator is held accountable for any failure to fulfil those duties; and
- (ii)the duties owed by the Members with Direct Electronic Access to the Operator and how such Members are held accountable for any failure to fulfil those duties;
(b)appropriate investor redress mechanisms are available, in accordance with COB Chapter 15, and disclosed to Members permitted to trade Qualified Investments on its facility; and
(c)its facility contains a prominent disclosure of the risks associated with trading and clearing Qualified Investments.
(3) Without limiting the generality of the systems and controls obligations of the Trading Facility Operator, the Operator must have adequate systems and controls to address market integrity, AML, CTF and investor protection risks in giving Direct Electronic Access to a Member, to trade on its facility, including procedures to:
(a)ensure that appropriate customer due diligence sufficient to address AML and CTF risks has been conducted on each Member, before permitting the Member to trade on its facility;
(b)detect and address market manipulation and abuse; and
(c)ensure that there is adequate disclosure relating to the Qualified Investments that are traded on the facility.
(4) A Trading Facility Operator must have adequate controls and procedures to ensure that trading in Qualified Investments by Members with Direct Electronic Access does not pose any risks to the orderly and efficient functioning of the facility’s trading system, including controls and procedures to:
(a)mitigate counterparty risks that may arise from defaults by such Members through adequate collateral management measures, such as margin requirements, based on the settlement cycle adopted by the Operator;
(b)identify and distinguish orders that are placed by such Members, and, if necessary, enable the Operator to stop orders of, or trading by, such Members;
(c)prevent such Members from allowing access to other Persons to trade on the trading facility; and
(d)ensure that such Members fully comply with the rules of the facility and promptly address any gaps and deficiencies that are identified.
(5) A Trading Facility Operator must have adequate resources and systems to carry out front-line monitoring of the trading activities of Members with Direct Electronic Access.
5. QUALIFIED INVESTMENTS
5.1.Permitted products
(1) A Trading Facility Operator may allow a product to be traded on its MTF or OTF only if the product is a financial or commodity product that is a Qualified Investment.
(2) In (1) a "Qualified Investment Token" is treated in the same way as the Qualified Investment which it represents.
5.2.Qualified Investments
(1) Qualified Investment means a financial or commodity instrument, agreement or transaction under which, at a specified time or within a specified period of time:
(a)a payment or delivery obligation is to be performed, or title to commodity or asset is to be transferred; or
(b)an obligation to make payment or delivery, or to transfer title to commodity or asset, is to be entered into or incurred.
(2) In particular, an instrument, agreement or transaction of one of the following kinds is a Qualified Investment:
(a)a commodity swap;
(b)a commodity derivative;
(c)an emissions derivative, including an emissions allowance or emissions reduction transaction;
(d)a spot, future, forward or other securities or commodities transaction;
(e)a commodities contract, including an agreement to buy, sell, borrow or lend commodities, such as a commodities repurchase or reverse repurchase agreement, a commodities lending agreement or a commodities buy/sell back agreement;
(f)a collateral arrangement under which the properties held are investment-based assets such as securities, units, derivatives or environmental instruments;
(g)any other instrument, agreement or transaction similar to an instrument, agreement or transaction of a kind referred to in (a) to (f) with respect to one or more reference items relating to commodities, energy products, electricity, equities, weather, sukuk, bonds or other debt instruments and precious metals.
(3) However, the following Financial Products are not Qualified Investments:
(a)a Contract of Insurance entered into by a licensed or authorised insurance company as part of its insurance business; and
(b) a Digital Asset.
(4) In case of commodity derivative contracts which require physical delivery, a Trading Facility Operator must ensure that such contracts traded on its facilities have terms and conditions which:
(a)promote price discovery of the underlying commodity;
(b)ensure, to the extent possible, that there is a correlation to the operation of the physical market in the underlying commodity;
(c)include contract delivery specifications which address the matters specified in Schedule 1; and
(d)provide for legally enforceable settlement and delivery procedures.
(5) The AFSA may require a Person issuing certain Qualified Investments to provide a product summary note to investors. The AFSA may set out in guidance circumstances in which it is likely to exercise such power and the content of the product summary note.
5.3.Designation of financial products as Qualified Investments
(1) The AFSA may, by publishing a notice to that effect, designate as a Qualified Investment any kind of instrument, agreement or transaction in addition to those specifically mentioned in MOTF 5.2.
(2) The AFSA may, by publishing a notice to that effect, revoke the designation of any kind of instrument, agreement or transaction. However, the revocation of a designation does not apply:
(a)to an instrument, agreement or transaction entered into before the revocation; or
(b)to a transaction entered into (before or after the revocation) under an instrument or agreement:
(i)entered into before the revocation: or
(ii)to which an instrument or agreement entered into before the revocation applies.
(3) The AFSA may exercise the power under MOTF 5.3(1) either upon written application made by a Person or on its own initiative.
(4) Without limiting the generality of the matters that the AFSA may consider when exercising its power under MOTF 5.3(1), it must consider the following factors:
(a)the economic effect of the financial instrument or class of financial instruments;
(b)the class of potential investors to whom the financial instrument is intended to be marketed;
(c)the treatment of similar financial instruments for regulatory purposes in other jurisdictions; and
(d)the possible impact of such a declaration on any person issuing or marketing such a financial instrument.
(5) A Person who makes an application for a designation under MOTF 5.3(1) must address, as far as practicable, the factors specified in MOTF 5.3(4).
(6) The AFSA must publish any proposed designation under MOTF 5.3(1) for public consultation for at least thirty calendar days after the date of publication, except if:
(a)it designates a financial product to be a particular type of an existing Investment, excluding a Digital Asset;
(b)it determines that any delay likely to result from public consultation is prejudicial to the interests of the AIFC; or
(c) it determines that there is a commercial exigency that warrants such a declaration being made without any public consultation or being published shorter than the thirty-day consultation period.
6. RULES AND CONSULTATION
6.1.Requirement to prepare, review and amend Business Rules
A Trading Facility Operator must ensure that appropriate procedures are adopted for it to make rules, for keeping its rules under review and for amending them (“Business Rules”). The procedures must include procedures for consulting users of the Operator’s facilities in appropriate cases.
6.2.Amendment of rules
An amendment to a Trading Facility Operator’s Business Rules must, before the amendment becomes effective:
(i)be made available for public consultation; and
(ii)be approved by the AFSA.
6.3.Waiver of consultation requirement
The AFSA may dispense with the requirement in MOTF 6.2(a)(i) in cases of emergency, force majeure, typographical errors, minor administrative matters, or to comply with applicable laws. A Trading Facility Operator must have procedures for notifying users of these amendments for which the ASFA has dispensed with public consultation.
6.4.Public Consultation
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must, before making any amendment to its Business Rules, undertake public consultation on the proposed amendment in accordance with the requirements in this Chapter.
(2) For these purposes, a Trading Facility Operator must publish a consultation paper setting out:
(a)the text of both the proposed amendment and the Business Rules that are to be amended;
(b)the reasons for proposing the amendment; and
(c)a reasonable consultation period, which must not be less than thirty calendar days after the date of publication, within which Members and other stakeholders may provide comments.
The Trading Facility Operator must lodge with the AFSA the consultation paper no later than the time when it is released for public comment.
(3) The AFSA may, if it considers on reasonable grounds that it is appropriate to do so, require the Trading Facility Operator to extend its proposed period of public consultation specified in the consultation paper.
(4) A Trading Facility Operator must:
(a)facilitate, as appropriate, informal discussions on the proposed amendment with Members and other stakeholders including any appropriate representative bodies of such Persons;
(b)consider the impact the proposed amendment has on the interests of its Members and other stakeholders; and
(c)have proper regard to any public comments received.
(5) Following public consultation, a Trading Facility Operator must publish the final Business Rules and consider whether it would be appropriate to discuss the comments received and any amendments made before publication.
6.5.Review of Rules
(1) In determining whether a Trading Facility Operator’s procedures for consulting Members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the AFSA may have regard to:
(a)the range of Persons to be consulted by the Trading Facility Operator under those procedures; and
(b)the extent to which the procedures include:
(i)informal discussions at an early stage with users of its facilities or appropriate representative bodies;
(ii)publication to users of its facilities of a formal consultation paper which includes clearly expressed reasons for the proposed changes and an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits;
(iii)adequate time for users of its facilities to respond to the consultation paper and for the Trading Facility Operator to take their responses properly into account;
(iv)adequate arrangements for making responses to consultation available for inspection by users of its facilities, unless the respondent requests otherwise; and
(v)adequate arrangements for ensuring that the Trading Facility Operator has proper regard to the representations received.
(2) Consultation with a smaller range of Persons may be appropriate if limited, technical changes to an Operator’s Business Rules are proposed. An Operator’s procedures may include provision to restrict consultation if it is essential to make a change to the Business Rules without delay in order to ensure continued compliance with the Operator authorisation requirements or other legal obligations.
6.6. Additional requirement to prepare Business Rules
A Trading Facility Operator must incorporate into its Business Rules the substance of additional provisions to be found in the COB, for the purpose of regulating the conduct of Business of a Person referred to in MOTF 3.1.(2)(b) or (c) as a Member of the Trading Facility Operator.
7. FAIR AND ORDERLY TRADING
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must ensure that it has transparent rules and procedures to provide for fair and orderly trading, and to establish objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders.
(2) A Trading Facility Operator must have an arrangement to effectively facilitate the efficient and timely finalisation of the transactions effected on and through its MTF or OTF.
(3) In determining whether a Trading Facility Operator is ensuring that business conducted through its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner, the AFSA may have regard to the extent to which the Trading Facility Operator’s rules and procedures:
(a)are consistent with these Rules;
(b)prohibit abusive trading practices, including reporting or publication of false or misleading information;
(c)prohibit or prevent:
- (i)trades in which a party is improperly indemnified against losses;
- (ii) trades intended to create a false appearance of trading activity;
- (iii) cross trades executed for improper purposes;
- (iv) front running of customer orders;
- (v) improperly prearranged or pre‐negotiated trades;
- (vi) trades intended to assist or conceal any potentially identifiable trading abuse;
- (vii) entering bids and offers with no underlying intention to deal at that price; and
- (viii)market manipulation or price manipulation.
(d)include appropriate measures to prevent the use of its facilities for abusive or improper purposes;
(e)provide appropriate safeguards for investors against fraud or misconduct, recklessness, negligence or incompetence by users of its facilities;
(f)provide appropriate information to enable users to monitor their use of the facilities;
(g)include appropriate arrangements to enable users to raise queries about the use of the facilities for transactions which they are reported to have made;
(h)include appropriate arrangements to enable users of its facilities to comply with any relevant regulatory or legal requirements; and
(i)include appropriate arrangements to reduce the risk that those facilities are used in ways that are incompatible with relevant regulatory or legal requirements.
In this paragraph, “appropriate” is taken to mean appropriate having regard to the nature and scale of the Trading Facility Operator’s facilities, the types of Persons who use the facilities and the use which they make of those facilities.
(4) In determining whether a Trading Facility Operator is ensuring that business conducted through its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner, the AFSA may have regard to whether the Operator’s arrangements and practices:
(a)enable Members and their clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;
(b)include procedures which enable the Operator to influence trading conditions or suspend trading promptly when necessary to maintain an orderly market; and
(c)if the arrangements and practices support or encourage liquidity:
- (i)are transparent;
- (ii)are not likely to encourage any Person to enter into transactions other than for proper trading purposes (which may include hedging, investment, speculation, price determination, arbitrage and filling orders from any client for whom he acts);
- (iii)are consistent with a reliable, undistorted price‐formation process; and
- (iv)alleviate dealing or other identified costs associated with trading on the Operator’s markets and do not subsidise a market position of a user of its facilities.
(5) A Trading Facility Operator must be able to suspend or remove a Qualified Investment or participant which no longer complies with its rules or otherwise violates these Rules. The Operator must immediately comply with a direction from the AFSA to suspend or remove a Qualified Investment or Member.
(6) The rules of a Trading Facility Operator must provide that the Operator must not exercise its power to suspend or remove from trading on a market operated by it any Qualified Investment which no longer complies with one or more Operator’s rules, if such step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interests of investors or the orderly functioning of the relevant market.
8. PUBLIC DISCLOSURE
8.1. General
(1)Any arrangement to make information public must satisfy the following conditions:
(a)it must include all reasonable steps necessary to ensure that the information to be published is reliable, monitored continuously for errors, and corrected as soon as errors are detected;
(b)it must facilitate the consolidation of the data with similar data from other sources; and
(c)it must make the information available to the public on a non‐discriminatory commercial basis at a reasonable cost.
(2) For the purposes of MOTF 8.1((a)a(a), a verification process must be an independent cross‐check of the accuracy of the information generated by the trading process and may or may not involve the use of an external publishing entity. This process must have the capability to at least identify price and volume anomalies, be systematic and conducted in real‐time. The chosen process must be reasonable and proportionate to the business.
(3) In respect of arrangements for public disclosure in MOTF 8.1(1):
(a)For the purposes of MOTF 8.1(a)a(b), information is made public, if it:
- (i)is accessible by automated electronic means in a machine‐readable way;
- (ii)utilises technology that facilitates consolidation of the data and permits commercially viable usage; and
- (iii)is accompanied by instructions outlining how users can access the information.
(b)For the purposes of MOTF 8.1(a)(i)(i)(a)(i)(i), an arrangement fulfils the ‘machine‐readable’ criteria if the data:
- (i)is in a physical form that is designed to be read by a computer;
- (ii)is in a location on a computer storage device where that location is known in advance by the party wishing to access the data; and
- (iii)is in a format that is known in advance by the party wishing to access the data.
(c)Publication on a non‐machine‐readable website does not meet the requirements of MOTF 8.1(a)(i)(i)(1).
(4) Information that is made public must conform to a consistent and structured format based on industry standards. A Trading Facility Operator can choose which structure to use.
8.2. Proper information
In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to Persons engaged in dealing in Qualified Investments admitted to trading on the Trading Facility Operator’s facilities, the AFSA may have regard to:
- (1) the extent to which Members and their clients for whom they act are able to obtain information about those Qualified Investments, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media, to make a reasonably informed judgment about the value and the risks associated with those Qualified Investments in a timely manner;
- (2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to the Operator’s Members and their clients for whom they act; and
- (3) whether relevant information is or can be kept to restricted groups of Persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage dealing in contravention of these Rules.
8.3. Own means of dissemination
Trading Facility Operators do not need to maintain their own arrangements for disseminating news or information about Qualified Investments (or underlying assets) to their Members where they have made adequate arrangements for other Persons to do so on their behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose.
9. TRANSPARENCY REQUIREMENTS
9.1.Pre-Trade Disclosure
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must disclose to its users as appropriate, on a continuous basis during normal trading, the following information relating to trading of Qualified Investments on its MTF or OTF:
- (a)the current bid and offer prices and volume;
- (b)the depth of trading interest shown at the prices and volumes advertised through its systems for the Qualified Investments; and
- (c)any other information relating to Qualified Investments which would promote transparency relating to trading.
(2) The AFSA may waive or modify the disclosure requirement in MOTF 9.1 in relation to certain transactions where the order size is predetermined, exceeds a pre-set and published threshold level and the details of the exemption are made available to an Operator’s Members and the public.
(3) In assessing whether an exemption from pre-trade disclosure is allowed, the AFSA has regard to factors such as:
- (a)the level of order threshold compared with normal market size for the Qualified Investment;
- (b)the impact such an exemption would have on price discovery, fragmentation, fairness and overall market quality;
- (c)whether there is sufficient transparency relating to trades executed without pre-trade disclosure (as a result of orders executed on execution platforms without pre-trade transparency), whether or not they are entered in transparent markets;
- (d)whether the Trading Facility Operator supports transparent orders by giving priority to transparent orders over dark orders, for example, by executing such orders at the same price as transparent orders; and
- (e)whether there is adequate disclosure of details relating to dark orders available to Members and other participants on the MTF or OTF to enable them to understand the manner in which their orders are handled and executed on the MTF or OTF.
(4) When making disclosure, a Trading Facility Operator must adopt a technical mechanism showing differentiations between transactions that have been recorded in the central order book and transactions that have been reported to the MTF or OTF as off-order book transactions. Any transactions that have been cancelled pursuant to its rules must also be identifiable.
(5) A Trading Facility Operator must use appropriate mechanisms to enable pre-trade information to be made available to users in an easy to access and uninterrupted manner at least during business hours.
9.2.Post-Trade Disclosure
A Trading Facility Operator must disclose the price, volume and time of the transactions effected in respect of Qualified Investments to users as close to real-time as is technically possible on reasonable commercial terms and on a non-discretionary basis. An Operator must use adequate mechanisms to enable post-trade information to be made available to users in an easy to access and uninterrupted manner at least during business hours.
10. LIQUIDITY PROVIDER
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must not introduce a liquidity incentive scheme unless:
(a)participation in such a scheme is limited to Members or any other Persons if:
- (i)the Operator has undertaken due diligence to ensure that the Person is of good repute and has adequate competencies and, if applicable, organisational arrangements; and
- (ii)the Person has agreed in writing to comply with the Operator’s operating rules so far as those rules are applicable to that Person’s activities; and
- (iii)the Operator has obtained the prior approval of the AFSA.
(2) For the purposes of this Chapter, a “liquidity incentive scheme” means an arrangement designed to provide liquidity to the market in relation to Qualified Investments traded on the MTF or OTF.
(3) If a Trading Facility Operator proposes to introduce or amend a liquidity incentive scheme, it must lodge with the AFSA, at least ten business days before the date by which it expects to obtain the AFSA approval, a statement setting out:
- (a)the details of the relevant scheme, including benefits to the MTF or OTF and Members arising from that scheme; and
- (b)the date when the scheme is intended to become operative.
(4) The AFSA must within ten business days after receiving the proposal referred to in MOTF 10(3), approve a proposed liquidity incentive scheme unless it has reasonable grounds to believe that the introduction of the scheme would be detrimental to the MTF or OTF or to markets in general. If the AFSA does not approve the proposed liquidity incentive scheme, it must notify the Trading Facility Operator of its objections to the introduction of the proposed liquidity incentive scheme, and its reasons for that decision.
(5) To enable interested parties to participate, a Trading Facility Operator must, within a reasonable period before the launch of a liquidity incentive scheme, announce the launch of the scheme, the date when the scheme starts and the contracts to which the scheme relates.
11. RULES APPLICABLE TO MTF OPERATORS
(1) MTF Operators may not execute Member orders against proprietary capital, or engage in matched principal trading.
(2) Each MTF Operator must establish rules prohibiting the execution of Member orders against proprietary capital, and rules prohibiting the operator from engaging in matched principal trading.
12. RULES APPLICABLE TO OTF OPERATORS
(1) An OTF Operator may engage in matched principal trading in Qualified Investments only if the Member has consented to the process.
(2) An OTF Operator must not use matched principal trading to execute Member orders in an OTF in Qualified Investments pertaining to a class of derivatives that has been declared, by the AFSA, subject to the clearing obligation.
(3) OTF Operators may engage in dealing on own account other than matched principal trading only with regard to sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.
(4) OTF Operators may engage another Authorised Firm to carry out market making on that OTF on an independent basis, provided that such other Authorised Firm does not have close links with the OTF Operator.
(5) Execution of orders on an OTF must be carried out on a discretionary basis.
(6) An OTF Operator must exercise discretion only in the following circumstances:
- (a)when deciding to place or retract an order on the OTF they operate; or
- (b)when deciding not to match a specific Member order with other orders available in the systems at a given time, provided it is in compliance with specific instructions received from a Member and with its “best execution” obligations.
(7) For the purpose of MOTF 12(6), the “best execution” obligation means when an OTF Operator agrees, or decides in the exercise of its discretion, to execute any transaction with or for a client in a Qualified Investment, it must provide best execution, namely to take reasonable care to determine the best execution available for that Qualified Investment under the prevailing market conditions and deals at a price and other conditions which are no less advantageous to that client.
(8) With a system that crosses Member orders, the OTF Operator may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system. With regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the OTF Operator may facilitate negotiation between Members so as to bring together two or more potentially compatible trading interests in a transaction.
(9) OTF Operators must, on request, provide the AFSA with a detailed explanation why the system does not correspond to and cannot operate as a MTF, a detailed description as to how discretion is exercised, in particular when an order to the OTF may be retracted and when and how two or more Member orders are matched within the OTF. In addition, the OTF Operator must provide the AFSA with information explaining its use of matched principal trading.
12-1. RULES APPLICABLE TO AUTHORISED FIRMS OPERATING A FACILITY FOR QUALIFIED INVESTMENT TOKENS
Guidance
Operating a facility for Qualified Investment Tokens is defined in GLO as Operating a Multilateral Trading Facility or Operating an Organised Trading Facility on which Qualified Investment Tokens are traded.
12-1.1 Technology and governance requirements
A Trading Facility Operator must:
(a) establish and maintain policies and procedures to ensure that any DLT application used in connection with the facility operates on the basis of ‘permissioned’ access, such that it allows the operator to have and maintain adequate control over the Persons who are permitted to access and update records held on that DLT application;
(b) establish and maintain adequate measures to ensure that the DLT application it uses, and the associated rules and protocols, contain:
(i) clear criteria governing Persons who are permitted to access and update records for the purposes of trading or clearing Qualified Investment Tokens on the facility, including criteria about the integrity, credentials and competencies appropriate to the roles played by such Persons;
(ii) measures to address risks, including to network security and network compatibility, that may arise through systems used by Persons permitted to update the records on the DLT application;
(iii) processes to ensure that the Trading Facility Operator undertakes sufficient due diligence and adequate monitoring of ongoing compliance, relating to the matters referred to in (i) and (ii); and
(iv) measures to ensure there are appropriate restrictions on the transferability of Qualified Investment Tokens in order to address AML and CFT risks;
(c) ensure any DLT application used for its facility is fit for purpose; and
(d) have regard to industry best practices in developing its technology design and technology governance relating to DLT that it uses.
Guidance
1. To be fit for purpose, the technology design of the DLT application used by a Trading Facility Operator should be able to address how the rights and obligations relating to the Qualified Investment Tokens traded on that facility are properly managed and capable of being exercised or performed. For example, where a Qualified Investment Token confers rights and obligations substantially similar to those conferred by a Share in a company, the DLT application would generally need to enable the management and exercise of the shareholder’s rights. These may, for example, include the right to receive notice of, and vote in, shareholder meetings, receive any declared dividends and participate in the assets of the company in a winding up.
2. To ensure the technology governance of any DLT application used on its facility is fit for purpose, a Trading Facility Operator should, as a minimum, have regard to the following:
a. careful maintenance and development of the relevant systems and architecture in terms of its code version control, implementation of updates, issue resolution, and regular internal and third party testing;
b. security measures and procedures for the safe storage and transmission of data in accordance with agreed protocols;
c. procedures to address changes in the protocol which result in modifications of or the splitting of the underlying distributed ledger into two or more separate ledgers (often referred to as a ‘fork’), whether or not the new protocol is backwards compatible with the previous version;
d. procedures to deal with system outages, whether planned or not, and errors;
e. decision-making protocols and accountability for decisions;
f. procedures for establishing and managing interfaces with Digital wallet Service Providers; and
g. whether the protocols, smart contracts and other inbuilt features of the DLT application meet at least a minimum acceptable level of reliability and safety requirements, which should be appropriately justified, including to deal with a cyber or hacking attack, and how any resulting disruptions would be resolved.
3. Some parts of trading Qualified Investment Tokens, for example, order matching, may take place ‘offchain’ (i.e. not using DLT). In those circumstances, the operator should still maintain adequate control over Persons who are undertaking those activities, as they are agents or delegates of the operator.
12-1.2. Safe custody of Qualified Investment Tokens
A Trading Facility Operator must ensure that:
(1) Where its safe custody arrangements involve acting as a Digital wallet Service Provider, it complies with the following requirements for Authorised Firms Providing Custody for Qualified Investment Tokens:
(a) a Digital wallet Service Provider must ensure that:
(i) any DLT application it uses in Providing Custody for Qualified Investment Tokens is resilient, reliable and compatible with any relevant facility on which those Qualified Investment Tokens are traded or cleared;
(ii) it has the ability to clearly identify and segregate Qualified Investment Tokens belonging to different Clients; and
(iii) it has in place appropriate procedures to enable it to confirm Client instructions and transactions, maintain appropriate records and data relating to those instructions and transactions and to conduct a reconciliation of those transactions at appropriate intervals.
(b) a Digital wallet Service Provider, in developing and using DLT applications and other technology to provide custody of Qualified Investment Tokens, must ensure that:
(i) the architecture of any Digital wallet used adequately addresses compatibility issues and associated risks;
(ii) the technology used and its associated procedures have adequate security measures (including cyber security) to enable the safe storage and transmission of data relating to the Qualified Investment Tokens;
(iii) the security and integrity of cryptographic keys are maintained through the use of that technology, taking into account the password protection and methods of encryption used;
(iv) there are adequate measures to address any risks specific to the methods of usage and storage of cryptographic keys (or their equivalent) available under the DLT application used; and
(v) the technology is compatible with the procedures and protocols built into the operating rules or equivalent on any facility on which the Qualified Investment Tokens are traded or cleared or both traded and cleared.
(2) Where it appoints a Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider to provide custody for Qualified Investment Tokens traded or cleared on its facility, that Person is either:
(a) an Authorised Firm permitted to be a Digital wallet Service Provider; or
(b) a firm that is regulated by a Financial Services Regulator to an equivalent level as that provided for under the AFSA regime for Digital wallet Service Providers.
12-1.3. Provision of key features document
An Authorised Firm must not provide a Financial Service to which this Chapter applies to a Person unless it has provided that Person with a key features document containing the information in COB 4.6.
12-1.4. Technology audit reports
A Trading Facility Operator must:
(a) appoint a suitably qualified and independent third party professional to:
(i) carry out an annual audit of the Trading Facility Operator’s compliance with the technology resources and governance requirements that apply to it;
(ii) produce a written report which sets out the methodology and results of that annual audit;
(iii) confirm whether the requirements referred to in (i) have been met; and
(iv) list any recommendations or areas of concern;
(b) submit to the AFSA a copy of the report referred to in (a)(ii) within 4 months of the Trading Facility Operator’s financial year end; and
(c) be able to satisfy the AFSA that the independent third party professional who undertakes the annual audit has the relevant expertise to do so, including by reference to the due diligence undertaken by the Trading Facility Operator to satisfy itself of that fact.
Guidance
Where a Trading Facility Operator appoints a third party professional for the purposes of (a)(i) and (ii), the Trading Facility Operator is expected to ensure that the professional is suitably qualified.
Credentials which indicate a qualified and independent third party professional is suitable to conduct audits of technology governance may include:
(1) designation as a Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) or Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA); or
(2) designation as a Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC); or
(3) accreditation by a recognised and reputable body to certify compliance with relevant ISO/IEC 27000 series standards; or
(4) accreditation by the relevant body to certify compliance with the Kazakhstani standards in the area of information (cyber) security.
13. TRADE PROCESSING AND FINALISATION OF TRANSACTIONS
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must establish days and hours it is open for business under normal market conditions.
(2) A Trading Facility Operator must establish rules for a participant to submit instructions to a MTF or OTF.
14. TRANSACTION RECORDING
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must ensure that satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on and through its facilities.
(2) In determining whether a Trading Facility Operator has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on and through its facilities, the AFSA may have regard to:
(a)whether the Operator has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least 6 years; and
(b)the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes details for each transaction of:
- (i)the name of the Qualified Investment (and, if relevant, the underlying asset) and the price, quantity and date of the transaction;
- (ii)the identities and, if appropriate, the roles of the counterparties to the transaction;
- (iii)if the Operator’s rules make provision for transactions to be effected, cleared or to be cleared in more than one type of facility, or under more than one part of its rules, the type of facility in which, or the part of its rules under which, the transaction was effected, cleared or to be cleared; and
- (iv)the date and manner of settlement of the transaction.
15. SAFEKEEPING OF CLIENT ASSETS
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must not hold any financial instruments or other assets belonging to users of its MTF or OTF with respect to its operation of the MTF or OTF.
(2) Notwithstanding MOTF 15(1), a Trading Facility Operator may hold financial instruments or other assets belonging to its customers with respect to the Regulated Activities other than the operation of the MTF or OTF for which it is granted an authorisation.
16. OPERATIONAL SYSTEMS AND CONTROLS
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must establish a robust operational risk management framework with appropriate systems and controls to identify, monitor and manage operational risks that key Members, other Recognised Non-AIFC Market Institutions, service providers (including outsources) and utility providers might pose to itself.
(2)A Trading Facility Operator must have a business continuity plan, which is subjected to periodic review and scenario testing, that addresses events posing a significant risk of disrupting operations, including events that could cause a widespread or major disruption. The plan must:
- (a)outline objectives, policies, procedures and responsibilities to deal with internal and external business disruptions and measures to ensure timely resumption of service levels;
- (b)include policies and procedures for event and crisis management;
- (c)incorporate the use of a secondary site;
- (d)contain appropriate emergency rules for force majeure events;
- (e)be designed to ensure that critical information technology systems can resume operations within two hours following disruptive events; and
- (f)outline business continuity procedures in respect of its Members and other users of its facilities following disruptive or force majeure events.
(3) A Trading Facility Operator must have an incident management procedure to record, report, analyse and resolve all operational incidents.
(4) A Trading Facility Operator must have clearly defined operational reliability objectives and policies to achieve those objectives, as well as a scalable operational capacity adequate to handle increasing stress volumes, service‐level objectives and historical data.
(5)A Trading Facility Operator must have a comprehensive physical and information security policy, standards, practices and controls to identify, assess and manage security threats and vulnerabilities and to protect data from loss and leakage, unauthorised access and other processing risks.
(6) Upon request from the AFSA, an Operator must provide the documents listed in MOTF 16(2) to (5) in a timely manner.
17. DEFAULT MANAGEMENT
17.1.Default Rules
A Trading Facility Operator must have legally enforceable Default Rules which, in the event of a Member of the Operator being or appearing to be unable to meet its obligations in respect of one or more contracts, enable it:
- (1) to suspend or terminate such Member’s membership; and
- (2) to share information with its clearing house.
17.2.Public notice of suspended or terminated Membership
A Trading Facility Operator must issue a public notice on its website in respect of a Member whose membership is suspended or terminated.
17.3.Cooperation with office-holder
A Trading Facility Operator must be able and willing to cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the AFSA, a relevant office-holder and any other authority or body having responsibility for a matter arising out of, or connected with, the default of a Member of the Operator or the default of a clearing house or another Operator.
18. FINANCIAL CRIME AND MARKET ABUSE
(1) A Trading Facility Operator must:
(a)operate an effective market surveillance program and appropriate measures to identify, monitor, deter and prevent conduct which may amount to market misconduct, Financial Crime and money laundering on and through the Operator’s facilities; and
(b)immediately report to the AFSA any suspected market misconduct, Financial Crime or money laundering, along with full details of that information in writing.
(2) A Trading Facility Operator must have appropriate procedures and protections for enabling Employees to disclose any information to the AFSA or to other appropriate bodies involved in the prevention of market misconduct, money laundering or other Financial Crime or any other breaches of relevant legislation.
(3) In determining whether a Trading Facility Operator’s measures are appropriate to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with Market Abuse or Financial Crime, to facilitate their detection and to monitor their incidence, the AFSA may have regard to:
(a)whether the rules of the Operator enable it to disclose any information to the AFSA or other appropriate bodies involved in the detection, prevention or pursuit of Market Abuse or Financial Crime inside or outside AIFC; and
(b)whether the arrangements, resources, systems, and procedures of the Operator enable it to:
- (i)monitor the use made of its facilities so as to obtain information regarding possible patterns of normal, abnormal or improper use of those facilities;
- (ii)detect possible instances of Market Abuse or Financial Crime, for example, by detecting suspicious patterns in the use of its facilities;
- (iii)communicate information about Market Abuse or Financial Crime promptly and accurately to appropriate bodies; and
- (iv)cooperate with all relevant bodies in the prevention, investigation and pursuit of Market Abuse or Financial Crime.
19. RESOLUTION PLANNING
If a Trading Facility Operator anticipates that it or the MTF or OTF may be the subject of an insolvency order, it must act in a manner that reduces the impact on other market participants and may seek advice from external advisers.
20. SETTLEMENT AND CLEARING SERVICES
20.1.Settlement and clearing facilitation services
(1)A Trading Facility Operator, when engaging a clearing service, must ensure that satisfactory arrangements are made for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise), clearing and settlement of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on the MTF or OTF (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions).
(2) The engagement of a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House is deemed sufficient to satisfy MOTF 20.1(1)(1).
(3) If a Trading Facility Operator engages a party that is not a Recognised Non-AIFC Clearing House, the Operator must confirm to the AFSA, in writing, that satisfactory arrangements have been made under MOTF 20.1(1)(1).
(4)In determining whether there are satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions as required by MOTF 20.1(1)(1), the AFSA may have regard to the clearing house’s:
- (a)rules and practices relating to clearing and settlement including its arrangements with another Person for the provision of clearing and settlement services;
- (b)arrangements for matching trades and ensuring that the parties are in agreement about trade details;
- (c)if relevant, arrangements for making deliveries and payments, in all relevant jurisdictions;
- (d)procedures to detect and deal with the failure of a Member to settle in accordance with its rules;
- (e)arrangements for taking action to settle a trade if a Member does not settle in accordance with its rules;
- (f)arrangements for monitoring its Members’ settlement performance; and
- (g)if appropriate, default rules and default procedures.
(5)The rules of the Trading Facility Operator must permit a Member to use whatever settlement facility the Member chooses for a transaction. This paragraph only applies if:
- (a)such links and arrangements exist between the chosen settlement facility and any other settlement facility as are necessary to ensure the efficient and economic settlement of the transaction; and
- (b)the Operator is satisfied that the smooth and orderly functioning of the AIFC financial markets will be maintained.
SCHEDULE 1: CONTRACT DELIVERY SPECIFICATIONS
1.Application
This Schedule applies to a Trading Facility Operator which trades, or clears or settles, on its facilities commodity derivative contracts which require physical delivery of the underlying commodity.
2.Deliverability of the underlying commodity
A Trading Facility Operator must, for the purposes of meeting the requirement in MOTF 5.2(4)(c) ensure that the terms and conditions of the commodity derivative contracts which are to be traded, or cleared or settled, on its facilities, are designed to include the matters specified in this Schedule.
3.Quality or deliverable grade
A commodity derivative contract must include specifications of commodity characteristics for par delivery, including those relating to grade, class, and weight. The quality or grade specified must conform to the prevailing practices in the underlying physical market relating to the relevant commodity.
Guidance
Par delivery envisages delivery of commodities which are of a comparable quality or grade as specified in the contract. Contracts that call for delivery of a specific quality of commodity may provide commercial participants with a clearer, more efficient hedging and price-basing contracts than a contract that permits delivery of a broad range of commodity grades or classes.
However, as contracts that permit delivery of only a specific grade of commodity may be susceptible to manipulation if that grade of the commodity is in short supply or controlled by a limited number of sellers, a Trading Facility Operator should require appropriate measures to mitigate such risks.
4.Size of delivery unit
A commodity derivative contract must contain provisions relating to size or composition of delivery units which conform to the prevailing market practice in the underlying physical market to ensure that it does not constitute a barrier to delivery or otherwise impede the performance of the contract.
Guidance
A Trading Facility Operator should, if the provisions relating to size and delivery units of the commodity derivatives contract deviate from the underlying physical market, examine the reasons for such deviation and ensure that the risks arising from such deviation can be effectively addressed by the contract parties.
5.Delivery instruments
A commodity derivative contract must specify the acceptable form or type of delivery instruments, and whether such instruments are negotiable or assignable and, if so, on what conditions.
Guidance
Acceptable delivery instruments include warehouse receipts, bills of lading, shipping certificates, demand certificates, or collateralized depository receipts.
6.The delivery process and facilities
A commodity derivative contract must specify:
(a)the delivery process, including timing, location, manner and form of delivery, and
(b)the delivery or storage facilities available, which conform to the prevailing practices in the underlying physical market to permit effective monitoring and to reduce the likelihood of disruption.
Guidance
A Trading Facility Operator should consider issues associated with the delivery process, including those relating to acceptable delivery locations. Such issues include:
(a)the level of deliverable supplies normally available, including the seasonal distribution of such supplies;
(b)the nature of the physical market at the delivery point (e.g., auction market, buying station or export terminal);
(c)the number of major buyers and sellers; and
(d)normal commercial practices in establishing cash commodity values.
The delivery months specified in the commodity derivative contract should take into account cyclical production and demand and accord with when sufficient deliverable supplies are expected to exist in the underlying physical market. Seasonality of a commodity should also be taken into account in relation to transport and storage, as it may affect the availability of warehouse space and transportation facilities.
Consistent with the grade differentials noted above, commodity derivative contracts that permit delivery in more than one location should set delivery premiums or discounts consistent with those observed in the underlying physical market. The adequacy of transportation links to and from the delivery point should also be taken into account when setting delivery premiums.
The delivery facilities available can include oil or gas storage facilities, warehouses or elevators for agricultural commodities and bank or vault depositories for precious metals.
A Trading Facility Operator should consider issues relating to the selection of delivery facilities under the contract which include:
(a)the number and total capacity of facilities meeting contract requirements;
(b)the proportion of such capacity expected to be available for short traders who may wish to make delivery against commodity derivative contracts and seasonal changes in such proportions;
(c)the extent to which ownership and control of such facilities is dispersed or concentrated; and
(d)its ability to access necessary information from such facility.
7.Inspection and certification procedures
A commodity derivative contract must specify applicable inspection or certification procedures for verifying that the delivered commodity meets the quality or grade specified in the contract, which conform to the prevailing practices in the underlying physical market.
Guidance
If the commodity is perishable, the commodity derivative contract should specify if there are any limits on the duration of the inspection certificate and the existence of any discounts applicable to deliveries of a given age.
8.Payment for transportation or storage
A commodity derivative contract must specify:
(a)the respective responsibilities of the parties to the contract regarding costs associated with transporting the commodity to and from the designated delivery point and any applicable storage costs; and
(b)how and when title to the commodity transfers, including from any short to long position holder.
9.Legal enforceability
A commodity derivative contract must, where any one or more of the activities of trading, clearing or settlement under the contract take place in different jurisdictions, contain adequate arrangements to mitigate risks arising from any disparity between governing laws applicable in the relevant jurisdictions.
Guidance
A Trading Facility Operator should, when assessing whether the contractual terms adequately provide for addressing jurisdictional risks, take into account:
(a)whether the contract clearly identifies the different legal requirements applicable in the relevant jurisdictions and any differences, including those relating to the manner in which standard clauses are interpreted;
(b)the impact such differences may have in dealing with matters such as delivery disputes, and determination of rights in insolvency proceedings; and
(c)whether the contract contains effective measures to address risk of unenforceability of the contractual terms, particularly those relating to cargos and storage where jurisdictional differences could have a significant impact on the deliverability.
10.Default provisions and force majeure
A commodity derivative contract must specify:
(a)the rights and obligations of the parties to the contract in the event of default by the parties, or in the event of frustration of the contract due to force majeure or other specified event; and
(b)whether any Clearing House guaranties the settlement of the transaction in an event specified in (a), and if so, the manner in which such settlement will occur.
Guidance
A Trading Facility Operator, when considering whether a commodities derivative contract adequately provides for contract certainty in the event of default or force majeure, should take into account:
(a)whether any collateral provided by the contracting parties would be sufficient to address the replacement risk in the performance of the contract; and
(b)whether there are any monetary consequences attaching to defaulting parties that would act as a disincentive against default.
The contract terms should clearly specify which jurisdictional laws are applicable to the governing law, including where there are any significant variations in the rights and liabilities attaching to the contracting parties for the events that occur in the relevant jurisdiction.
AIFC RECOVERY AND RESOLUTION RULES
1. INTRODUCTION
1.1.Overview and purpose
1.1.1.Overview
The AIFC Recovery and Resolution Rules ("RAR") are made pursuant to section 136 of the Financial Services Framework Regulations (“FSFR”), in accordance with the international standards for Recovery and Resolution of financial institutions set out in the “Key Attributes of Effective Resolution Regimes for Financial Institutions” developed by the Financial Stability Board ("FSB”) as amended from time to time. The FSB is the international body that monitors and makes recommendations about the global financial system.
1.1.2. Purpose
The purpose of this rulebook is to set out:
- (a) general requirements to Recovery and Resolution Planning;
- (b) criteria for resolvability assessment;
- (c) detailed scope of Resolution Powers;
- (d) detailed description of Resolution Tools;
- (e) provisions for Resolution Safeguards; and
other provisions related to recovery and Resolution.
2. APPLICATION
2.1.Application and commencement date
2.1.1.Application
(1) These Rules apply to an Authorised Person that is authorised by the AFSA under its Licence to carry on any one or more of the following Financial Services:
(a) Accepting Deposits;
(b) Opening and Operating Bank Accounts;
(c) Providing Credit;
(d) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
(e) Islamic Banking Business;
(f) Operating a Clearing House;
(g) Effecting Contracts of Insurance;
(h) Carrying on Contracts of Insurance;
(i) Takaful Business.
(2) If specified these Rules also apply to a parent or Subsidiary of the Authorised Person, or to another entity in its Group.
(3) Authorised Person in these Rules means either Authorised Firm or Authorised Market Institution.
2.1.2. Commencement date
These Rules commence on 1 July 2023.
3. RECOVERY AND RESOLUTION PLANNING
3.1. Recovery planning
Guidance
In accordance with section 137 of the FSFR, an Authorised Firm or an Authorised Market Institution is required to prepare and submit a Recovery Plan to the AFSA:
- (a) if it is included in a class of Authorised Persons required to prepare and submit such a plan; or
- (b) if it is not included in such a class, it has been given written notice by the AFSA to prepare and submit a plan.
Rule 3.1.1 prescribes the classes of Authorised Persons required to prepare and submit a Recovery Plan.
3.1.1. Classes of Authorised Persons required to prepare Recovery Plan
An Authorised Person must prepare and submit to the AFSA for review a Recovery Plan if it is authorised under its Licence to carry one or more of the following Financial Services:
- (a) Accepting Deposits;
- (b) Islamic Banking Business;
- (c) Operating a Clearing House.
3.1.2. Submission of Recovery Plan
(1) The Recovery Plan for an Authorised Person referred to in Rule 3.1.1 must be submitted to the AFSA:
- (a) in the case of an Authorised Person that has an authorisation referred to in that Rule on the commencement date, no later than 6 months from the commencement date; or
- (b) in the case of an Authorised Person that receives such an authorisation after the commencement date, no later than 6 months from the date on which the authorisation is granted.
(2) If the AFSA gives an Authorised Person written notice under section 137(1)(b) of the FSFR that it must prepare a plan, the Authorised Person must submit the Recovery Plan to the AFSA by no later than the date specified in the notice.
(3) If the AFSA gives an Authorised Person written notice under section 137(5) of the FSFR requiring it to take measures to rectify any deficiencies in the Recovery Plan, the Authorised Person must submit the rectified Recovery Plan by no later than the date specified in the notice.
3.1.3. General requirements relating to Recovery Plan
(1) An Authorised Person must ensure that the Recovery Plan processes and implementation are integrated, and aligned, with its overall governance structure, processes and internal risk management frameworks (including its early warning indicators).
(2) An Authorised Person must ensure that it has in place appropriate contingency arrangements, which will enable it to continue to operate if it implements Recovery Measures set out in the Recovery Plan.
(3) The contingency arrangements must include processes relating to IT, access to financial market infrastructure such as clearing and settlement facilities, and the continuation of supplier and employee contracts.
3.1.4. Responsibility for Recovery Planning
(1) An Authorised Person must appoint a Senior Manager who will be responsible for leading, formulating and overseeing the recovery planning process, including providing to the AFSA any information relevant for the review of the Recovery Plan.
(2) The Authorised Person must notify the AFSA of the appointed Senior Manager.
(3) Without limiting the generality of the Principles for Approved Individuals and designated Individuals in GEN Rule 4.3, the senior management of an Authorised Person are responsible for the recovery planning of that Authorised Person.
3.1.5. Scope of Recovery Plan
A Recovery Plan prepared by an Authorised Person must be prepared on the following basis:
- (a) if the Authorised Person has its head office in the AIFC, the Recovery Plan must cover the recovery of the entire Group;
- (b) if the Authorised Person is a Subsidiary of a Financial Institution that has its head office outside the AIFC, the Recovery Plan must specifically address stress scenarios and triggers for the Authorised Person and adequately cover any downstream operations, as well as including specific recovery options for the AIFC operations; and
- (c) if the Authorised Person is a Branch of a Regulated Financial Institution, the Recovery Plan may generally be part of the Group plan, provided the Recovery Plan adequately covers the AIFC operations.
Guidance
- For a Branch with significant AIFC operations, the Recovery Plan should be tailored to the local operations and contain all relevant information. For a Branch with limited operations, the AFSA may accept considerable reliance on a Group plan, provided the Branch can demonstrate how the Recovery Plan options can be effectively applied to address stress scenarios that pose a risk to the Branch’s viability.
- The AFSA will approach the Recovery Plan requirements in a proportionate manner.
3.1.6. Content of Recovery Plan
(1) A Recovery Plan must be commensurate with the nature, complexity, interconnectedness, size and substitutability of the Authorised Person’s AIFC operations, and set out the Recovery Measures the Authorised Person can take, as well as how and when it can take them, including these key elements:
- (a) a range of scenarios for consideration, including both idiosyncratic (specific to the Group or Authorised Person) and market-wide scenarios;
- (b) the likely causes of severe stress which require Recovery Measures to be considered or activated;
- (c) the actual Recovery Measures, which may include measures to reduce the Authorised Person’s risk profile, address capital shortfalls or liquidity pressures, change funding strategy, or change governance structure; and
- (d) processes to ensure the timely implementation of Recovery Measures in a range of stress scenarios.
(2) A Recovery Plan must include:
- (a) a summary of the key elements of the plan and a summary of overall recovery capacity;
- (b) a summary of the material changes to the Authorised Person since the most recently filed Recovery Plan;
- (c) a communication and disclosure plan outlining how the Authorised Person intends to manage any potentially negative market reactions;
- (d) a range of capital and liquidity actions required to maintain or restore the viability and financial position of the Authorised Person;
- (e) indicators which identify the points at which appropriate actions referred to in the Recovery Plan may be taken;
- (f) an estimate of the timeframe for implementing each material aspect of the Recovery Plan;
- (g) a detailed description of any material impediment to the effective and timely implementation of the Recovery Plan, including consideration of impact on the rest of the Group, Clients and counterparties;
- (h) identification of Critical Functions;
- (i) a detailed description of the processes for determining the value and marketability of the Core Business Lines, operations and assets of the Authorised Person;
- (j) a detailed description of how recovery planning is integrated into the corporate governance structure of the Authorised Person as well as the policies and procedures governing the approval of the Recovery Plan and identification of the persons in the organisation responsible for preparing and implementing the Recovery Plan;
- (k) arrangements and measures to conserve or restore the Authorised Person’s own funds;
- (l) arrangements and measures to ensure that the Authorised Person has adequate access to contingency funding sources, including potential liquidity sources, an assessment of available collateral and an assessment of the possibility to transfer liquidity across Group entities and business lines, to ensure that it can continue to carry out its operations and meet its obligations as they fall due;
- (m) arrangements and measures to reduce risk and leverage;
- (n) arrangements and measures to restructure liabilities;
- (o) arrangements and measures to restructure business lines;
- (p) arrangements and measures necessary to maintain continuous access to financial markets infrastructures;
- (q) arrangements and measures necessary to maintain the continuous functioning of the Authorised Person’s operations, including infrastructure and IT services;
- (r) preparatory arrangements to facilitate the sale of assets or business lines in a timeframe appropriate for the restoration of financial soundness;
- (s) other management actions or strategies to restore financial soundness and the anticipated financial effect of those actions or strategies;
- (t) preparatory measures that the Authorised Person has taken or plans to take in order to facilitate the implementation of the Recovery Plan, including those necessary to enable the timely recapitalisation of the Authorised Person; and
- (u) stress scenarios that consider the FSB’s “Guidance on Recovery Triggers and Stress Scenarios”, relating them to the Authorised Person’s particular business model and specific fragile points which can cause it to become non-viable or fail.
(3) A Recovery Plan of an AIFC Company, or a Branch of an international Group, must include at least 2 scenarios:
- (a) 1 AIFC entity-specific scenario; and
- (b) 1 macroeconomic scenario that impacts the AIFC entity.
(4) The scenarios must be tested to ensure that the Recovery Plan is suitable for use in a range of stress scenarios.
Guidance
1.A Recovery Plan should serve as a guide or a “road map” for the Authorised Person and the AFSA in a recovery scenario, i.e., a situation of distress if there is still a reasonable prospect of recovery, if appropriate Recovery Measures are taken, and the Resolution Conditions have not been met.
2.While the stress scenarios in Recovery Plans need not be the same for all Authorised Persons, they should be realistic and specific to each Authorised Person’s business model.
The AFSA will check the assumptions used in the scenarios and may require additional scenarios.
3.The AFSA expects a Recovery Plan to adopt the following structure:
- a. high-level substantive summary of the key recovery strategies;
- b. the analysis that underlies the key recovery strategies;
- c. a range of factors indicating that the implementation of Recovery Measures may be necessary (recovery indicators);
- d. tangible and practical options for Recovery Measures;
- e. description of preparatory actions to ensure that the Recovery Measures can be implemented effectively and in a timely manner;
- f. an operational plan for implementation of the Recovery Plan, including sequencing and indication of time needed for implementing each step;
- g. details of any potential material impediments to an effective and timely implementation of the Recovery Plan and how these are being addressed;
- h. responsibilities for executing the preparatory actions, triggering the implementation of the Recovery Plan and the actual Recovery Measures; and
- i. internal and external communication and disclosure plan to manage any potential negative market reactions, if applicable.
4.The strategic analysis referred to in paragraph 3.b should include the Authorised Person’s analysis and, if relevant, identification of essential and systemically important functions carried out by the Authorised Person, which it should aim to maintain as part of the recovery process. The strategic analysis should also cover:
- a. actions necessary for maintaining operations of, and funding for, those essential and systemically important functions, if such are identified;
- b. assessment of the viability of any business lines and legal entities which may be subject to separation (sale) in a recovery scenario, as well as the impact of such separation on the remaining Group structure;
- c. assessment of the likely effectiveness of each material aspect of the Recovery Measures and potential risks related thereto, including potential impact on Clients, counterparties and market confidence;
- d. underlying assumptions for the preparation of the Recovery Plan; and
- e. processes for determining the value and marketability of the material business lines, operations, and assets.
5.The recovery indicators referred to in paragraph 3.c. are both quantitative and qualitative metrics that identify points at which an Authorised Person has to decide whether an action referred to in its Recovery Plan should be taken. The types and number of indicators should be appropriately selected to be well-targeted, but not to render the exercise unmanageable. They should be calibrated, and not linked to inherently lagging metrics, and to ensure sufficient notice to decide on the corrective action for the AFSA, so as to begin contingency planning.
6.These quantitative recovery indicators should, as a minimum, be included:
- a. Capital (e.g. CET1, total capital and leverage ratio);
- b. Liquidity (e.g. LCR (Liquidity Coverage Ratio) or NSFR (Net Stable Funding Ratio), cost of wholesale funding, deposit withdrawal, increased collateral demands);
- c. Profitability (e.g. return on equity (RoE) or return on assets (RoA), significant operational losses);
- d. Asset quality (e.g. non-performing loan (NPL) rate, including off-balance sheet (OBS)); and
- e. Market aspects (e.g. rating downgrades, negative review, credit default swap (CDS) spreads).
7.The qualitative recovery indicators could include, for example, difficulties in issuing liabilities at current market rates, an unexpected loss of senior management, adverse court rulings, negative market press and significant reputational damage to franchise.
8.The recovery indicators should be closely connected with the Authorised Person’s early warning indicators, which should form part of its internal risk management. They should be designed to prevent undue delays in the eventual implementation of Recovery Measures.
9.The expected result of one of several indicators occurring should lead to an appropriate, and clearly described in the Recovery Plan, internal escalation procedure to the senior management and the Board, without, however, leading to an automatic activation of the Recovery Plan.
10.The Recovery Measures can include a host of actions to be taken by the Authorised Person alone or in combination, depending on the circumstances and the business model of the Person. The Authorised Person should consider each situation on a case-by-case basis.
11.The Recovery Measures may include, among other things:
- a. actions to strengthen the capital profile through capital raising or capital conservation measures such as suspension of dividends and payments of variable remuneration;
- b. restructuring business lines with a view to permitting carrying out of sales of downstream entities and spin-off of business units, sales of assets or loan portfolios;
- c. voluntary restructuring of liabilities (e.g. through debt-to-equity conversion);
- d. liquidity improvement options through, for example, securing via various techniques such as improved valuation of available collateral, repurchase agreements (repo), bonds issuance, monetisation of unencumbered assets; and
- e. reduction of RWAs (Risk Weighted Assets) or leverage.
12.In terms of contingency funding sources, while it is conceivable that parental financial support would, in many cases, be the most credible recovery option, Authorised Persons are expected to consider all funding options available, at the level of the AIFC entity, and set them out in the Recovery Plan.
13.The Recovery Plan of an Authorised Market Institution should be consistent with CPSS-IOSCO Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures (including Principle 3, key consideration 4) and take into account the guidance in the CPMI-IOSCO report on Recovery of financial market infrastructures.
14.Recovery Plans of insurers should be developed on the basis of severe stress scenarios that combine adverse systemic and idiosyncratic conditions. They need to take into account insurance specificities such as the longer pay-out duration and the liquidity profile of insurers.
15.Insurers should identify possible Recovery Measures and the necessary steps and time needed to implement such measures and assess the associated risks of implementation. The range of possible Recovery Measures could include:
- a. actions to strengthen the capital situation, for example, recapitalisations after extraordinary losses, capital conservation measures such as suspension of dividends and payments of variable remuneration;
- b. triggering of contingent capital instruments;
- c. possible sales of subsidiaries, portfolios of insurance contracts, or spin-off of business units;
- d. changes to the reinsurance programme;
- e. changes to the investment strategy and hedging programme;
- f. changes to business mix, sales volumes and product designs, including options to close books of business to new sales or business;
- g. changes to underwriting and claims handling practices; and
- h. modifications to contract terms and conditions, the level of charges, fees and surrender payments, the amount and timing of any discretionary benefits and the operation of discretionary incentives to renew contracts (such as ‘no-claims discounts’ or contract renewals without new underwriting).
16.An insurer in solvent run-off should be required to have a scheme of operations plan that sets out how all liabilities to Policyholders will be met in full as they fall due and should include, for example, details on how expenses can be reduced as business volumes fall.
17.For Takaful/Retakaful companies the above guidance may be applied to the extent it does not conflict with their business model or Shariah principles.
3.2. Resolution planning
Guidance on the AFSA’s general approach to resolution planning
1.The AFSA will aim to approach resolution planning proportionally, taking into account its Resolution Objectives, including the systemic importance of the Authorised Person or its Group, the need to maintain Critical Functions, protect depositors, Policyholders and Client Assets as well as, more broadly, the impact on and the reputation of the AIFC.
2.Proportionality also implies that the AFSA’s approach will take account of the nature, complexity, interconnectedness, level of substitutability, size and extent of crossborder operations of the Authorised Person.
3.The AFSA will consider all potential, credible and feasible options for a Resolution strategy for an Authorised Person, including, if possible, options with respect to the position of the Authorised Person in its Group Resolution Plan prepared by the home Resolution Authority, provided its relevant parts are available to the AFSA.
4.The AFSA will cooperate, to the extent possible, with the home Resolution Authority and any other relevant Resolution Authorities.
5.The AFSA will consider Resolution Plans prepared by other Resolution Authorities in light of its Resolution Objectives and whether the position of the AIFC entity has been adequately taken into account:
- a. If the AFSA considers that the preferred Resolution strategy, as set out in the Group Resolution Plan, and the outcome for the AIFC, are indeed consistent with its Resolution Objectives and the position of the AIFC entity has been sufficiently taken into account, it may limit its resolution planning to anticipating actions and expressing acceptance of the Group Resolution Plan. This would often imply that, in the event of Resolution, the AFSA would aim to take measures in the AIFC consistent with the home Resolution Authority’s actions taken in line with the Group Resolution Plan.
- b. If the AFSA is not satisfied that the Group Resolution Plan meets or is consistent with its Resolution Objectives, it will consider whether it is necessary to pursue alternative or independent strategies as the preferred resolution strategy in the AIFC. The AFSA will attempt to ensure, as far as it is possible, that the AIFC Resolution Plan is as consistent as possible with the Group Resolution Plan.
6.The AFSA will consider these matters in preparing a Resolution Plan for an Authorised Market Institution:
- a. scenarios when some or all existing loss allocation arrangements between participants under the Authorised Market Institution rules have been fully or partially put into effect or not implemented;
- b. scenarios when there may be no existing alternative provider to which the Critical Functions of an Authorised Market Institution can be transferred in the short term;
- c. potential technical and legal barriers to a transfer of Authorised Market Institution functions;
- d. if necessary to ensure continuity of the Authorised Market Institution’s legal and technical arrangement and support the transfer of its functions, provision of advance agreement with other Authorised Market Institutions or relevant service providers;
- e. the legal mechanism by which collateral is provided, including whether collateral is provided as a security interest or pledge or by way of title transfer, the status of that collateral in insolvency (that is, whether it could be considered “bankruptcy remote”), and the implications of that status for the extent to which losses can be imposed under loss allocation rules of the Authorised Market Institution and the exercise of statutory powers;
- f. whether assets pledged or available to the Authorised Market Institution would in fact be available for use in Resolution or whether such use or the transfer of functions could be hampered or prevented by residual interests of direct and indirect participants in those assets;
- g. if Resolution measures would split netting sets, the impact of that splitting on liquidity and collateral requirements;
- h. how providers of liquidity to the Authorised Market Institution before and during Resolution will be repaid;
- i. the structure of the Authorised Market Institution, for example, whether it is part of a broader group of Authorised Market Institutions, and the different legal and regulatory regimes under which it operates;
- j. any need to maintain links with other Authorised Market Institutions (both domestic and in another jurisdiction) that are necessary for the continuity of critical Authorised Market Institution services in any relevant jurisdiction; and
- k. the impact on direct and indirect participants.
7. The Resolution Plan for an Authorised Market Institution should include:
- a. draft transition agreements that would allow the Authorised Market Institution to continue to provide uninterrupted critical services on behalf of a purchaser or institution using existing staff and infrastructure or, if it is not possible to develop such draft agreements in advance, an issues list and the information necessary to draw up such an agreement at short notice; and
- b. key information on the critical operations, IT procedures, creditors and list of key staff and service providers necessary to facilitate the continued operation of Critical Functions in Resolution or the transfer of some or all of the operations to another Authorised Market Institution or institution.
3.2.1. Resolution planning
(1)The AFSA may, if it considers it necessary and practicable to do so, prepare a Resolution Plan pursuant to section 138 of the FSFR for an Authorised Person.
(2)The AFSA may, in preparing a Resolution Plan:
- (a) create the Resolution Plan, or parts thereof, itself;
- (b) amend or accept a Resolution Plan, or parts thereof, created or provided by the Authorised Person or any other person (such as a Resolution Authority in another jurisdiction); or
- (c) prepare the Resolution Plan using a combination of (a) and (b).
(3)If it has prepared a Resolution Plan, the AFSA may review and update it:
- (a) on a regular basis; or
- (b) after material changes to the legal or organisational structure of the Authorised Person, or to its business or financial position, which could have a material effect on the effectiveness of the Resolution Plan.
(4)The Resolution Plan may set out any relevant matters, including:
- (a) financial and economic functions for which continuity is critical;
- (b) the Resolution strategy and the Resolution Powers or Resolution Tools which the AFSA would plan to take if the Authorised Person concerned met the Resolution Conditions, particularly in view of preserving Critical Functions;
- (c) options for exercising Resolution Powers and applying Resolution Tools in the context of the potential Resolution scenarios;
- (d) data requirements for the Authorised Person’s operations, structures and Critical Functions;
- (e) potential barriers to effective Resolution and actions to mitigate these;
- (f) actions to protect depositors, Policyholders and for the prompt return of Client Assets; and
- (g) actions or principles for exit from Resolution.
(5)The Resolution Plan for insurers must contain the relevant matters set out in the subrule above, as appropriate to insurers in general and to the type of insurer, and include in particular:
- (a) identification of Policyholders that are protected by a Policyholder protection scheme and Policyholders that are not eligible for benefits from such schemes;
- (b) the actuarial assumptions used for calculating insurance liabilities and an independent actuarial valuation of the technical provisions (Policyholder liabilities);
- (c) review of asset quality and concentration issues;
- (d) preparation of insurance portfolio transfers to the best extent possible, including a determination of the acceptability of assets to be transferred to any insurer assuming liabilities in a portfolio transfer;
- (e) sources of funding;
- (f) provision for continuity or an orderly winding down of any derivatives portfolio;
- (g) details on a transfer of reinsurance, if any, and impact on coverage;
- (h) operational and practical arrangements for ensuring continuity of coverage and payment under insurance policies, and, if appropriate, a restructuring or termination of insurance policies;
- (i) identification of major counterparties and their interconnectedness with the insurer, and the impact that the failure of a major counterparty would likely have on the insurer;
- (j) a communications and coordination strategy with insurance policy holder protection schemes and other authorities with a role in the Resolution of an insurer; and
- (k) participation in financial market infrastructures.
Guidance
Under section 138(4) of the FSFR, if the AFSA decides to prepare a Resolution Plan for an Authorised Person it may require the Authorised Person to provide information or assistance.
3.2.2. Obligation to provide information for Resolution Plan
The information which the AFSA may by written notice require an Authorised Person to provide for the purposes of preparing, amending or reviewing a Resolution Plan, may include:
- (a) a detailed description of the Authorised Person’s organisational structure including a list of all legal entities in its Group (“legal entities”);
- (b) the direct holders, and the percentage, of voting and nonvoting rights of each legal entity;
- (c) the location, jurisdiction of incorporation, licensing and key management associated with each legal entity;
- (d) a mapping of the Authorised Person’s Critical Functions and Core Business Lines including material asset holdings and liabilities relating to such operations and business lines, by reference to legal entities;
- (e) a detailed description of the components of the Authorised Person’s and all its legal entities’ liabilities, separating, at a minimum, by types and amounts of short term and long-term debt, secured, unsecured and subordinated liabilities;
- (f) details of liabilities of the Authorised Person that are Eligible Liabilities;
- (g) processes needed to determine to whom the Authorised Person has pledged collateral, the person that holds the collateral and the jurisdiction in which the collateral is located;
- (h) a description of the off-balance sheet exposures of the Authorised Person and its legal entities, including a mapping to its Critical Functions and Core Business Lines;
- (i) the material hedges of the Authorised Person including a mapping to legal entities;
- (j) identification of the major or most critical counterparties of the Authorised Person and entities in its Group as well as an analysis of the impact of the failure of major counterparties on the Authorised Person’s financial situation;
- (k) each system on which the Authorised Person conducts a material number or value amount of trades, including a mapping to legal entities, Critical Functions and Core Business Lines;
- (l) each payment, clearing or settlement system of which the Authorised Person is directly or indirectly a member, including a mapping to the legal entities, Critical Functions and Core Business Lines;
- (m) a detailed inventory and description of the key Management Information Systems, including those for risk management, accounting and financial and regulatory reporting used by the Authorised Person including a mapping to legal entities, Critical Functions and Core Business Lines;
- (n) the owners of the systems identified in (m), service level agreements related thereto, and any software and systems or licences, including a mapping to their legal entities, Critical Functions and Core Business Lines;
- (o) the legal entities in the Group and the interconnections and interdependencies among the different legal entities such as:
- (i) common or shared personnel, facilities and systems;
- (ii) capital, funding or liquidity arrangements;
- (iii) existing or contingent credit exposures;
- (iv) cross guarantee agreements, cross-collateral arrangements, cross-default provisions and cross-affiliate netting arrangements;
- (v) risks transfers and back-to-back trading arrangements; and
- (vi) service level agreements;
- (p) the Senior Manager appointed under subrule 3.2.3 as well as those responsible, if different, for the different legal entities, Critical Functions and Core Business Lines;
- (q) a description of the arrangements that the Authorised Person has in place to ensure that, in the event of Resolution, the AFSA will have all the necessary information, as determined by the AFSA, for exercising a Resolution Power or applying a Resolution Tool;
- (r) all the agreements entered into by the Authorised Person and their legal entities with third parties the termination of which may be triggered by a decision to exercise a Resolution Power and apply a Resolution Tool and whether the consequences of termination may affect the exercise of the Resolution Power or application of the Resolution Tool;
- (s) a description of possible liquidity sources for supporting Resolution; and
- (t) information on asset encumbrance, liquid assets, off-balance sheet activities, hedging strategies and booking practices.
Guidance
1.To approach resolution planning on a proportionate basis, and to alleviate the burden on an Authorised Person, the AFSA will:
- a. consider the actual scope of information required based on the preferred Resolution strategy chosen for the Authorised Person in the AFSA’s discretion;
- b. not require all data to be provided immediately, or from all Authorised Persons. The AFSA will consider the information required in terms of scope and granularity. As the Authorised Person will be individually contacted by the AFSA, a large majority can expect to be asked to provide, at first, high level core data, and only some would be asked for supplementary information; and
- c. will make use of the information already available to it, e.g. through prudential returns.
2.The process for requesting, and submission of, information, may require several exchanges between the AFSA and the Authorised Person and, in many instances, a continual dialogue before the AFSA is satisfied with the information. On this basis, the AFSA may request relevant information from the Authorised Person or its senior management in writing, as frequently as reasonably necessary, setting out appropriate deadlines to satisfy the request. On site visits may also be carried out.
3.2.3. Person responsible for providing information relevant to resolution planning
(1) An Authorised Person must appoint a Senior Manager who is responsible for providing the AFSA with the information for preparing, amending or reviewing a Resolution Plan upon receipt of the written notice sent by the AFSA pursuant to subrule 3.2.2.
(2) The Authorised Person must notify the AFSA of the appointed Senior Manager.
Guidance
The AFSA considers that it may make sense for an Authorised Person, from an operational and resourcing perspective, to appoint the same Senior Manager who is responsible for recovery planning under subrule 3.1.5 as the person responsible under subrule 3.2.3 for providing information relevant to resolution planning.
3.3. Resolvability assessment
Guidance
1.The AFSA may under section 139(1) of the FSFR conduct a Resolvability Assessment to determine if there are any impediments that may prevent or affect the Resolvability of an Authorised Person.
2.The AFSA may consider a range of matters when it conducts a Resolvability Assessment and to identify whether it is feasible and credible for an Authorised Person to be subject to Resolution. For example, it may consider any one or more of these:
- a.the extent to which the Authorised Person is able to map Core Business Lines and Critical Functions to legal persons;
- b.the extent to which legal and corporate structures are aligned with Core Business Lines and Critical Functions;
- c.the extent to which there are arrangements in place to provide for essential staff, infrastructure, funding, liquidity and capital to support and maintain the Core Business Lines and the Critical Functions;
- d.the extent to which the service agreements that the Authorised Person maintains are fully enforceable in the event of the Resolution of the Authorised Person;
- e.the extent to which the governance structure of the Authorised Person is adequate for managing and ensuring compliance with the Authorised Person’s internal policies with respect to its service level agreements;
- f.the extent to which the Authorised Person has a process for transitioning the services provided under service level agreements to third parties in the event of the separation of Critical Functions or of Core Business Lines;
- g.the extent to which there are contingency plans and measures in place to ensure continuity in access to Authorised Market Institutions, Regulated Exchanges, payment systems, Central Counterparties, Securities Settlement Systems and Central Securities Depositories;
- h.the adequacy of the Management Information Systems in ensuring that the AFSA is able to gather accurate and complete information regarding the Core Business Lines and Critical Functions so as to facilitate rapid decision making;
- i.the capacity of the Management Information Systems to provide the information essential for the effective Resolution of the Authorised Person at all times even under rapidly changing conditions;
- j.the extent to which the Authorised Person has tested its Management Information Systems under stress scenarios;
- k.the extent to which the Authorised Person can ensure the continuity of its Management Information Systems both for the affected Authorised Person and the new institution in the case that the Critical Functions and Core Business Lines are separated from the rest of the operations and business lines;
- l.the extent to which the Authorised Person has established adequate processes to ensure that it provides the AFSA with the information necessary to identify depositors and Policyholders;
- m.if the Authorised Person’s Group uses intragroup financial support, the extent to which those guarantees are provided at market conditions and to which the risk management systems concerning those guarantees are robust;
- n.if the Authorised Person or the Authorised Person’s Group engages in back-to-back transactions, the extent to which those transactions are performed at market conditions and to which the risk management systems concerning those transactions practices are robust;
- o.the extent to which the use of intragroup financial support or back-to-back booking transactions increases contagion across the Authorised Person’s Group;
- p.the extent to which the legal structure of the Authorised Person or its Group inhibits the application of a Resolution Tool as a result of the number of legal persons, the complexity of the Group structure or the difficulty in aligning business lines to the Group entities;
- q.the existence and robustness of service level agreements;
- r.the amount and type of Eligible Liabilities of the Authorised Person;
- s.the extent to which the Resolution of the Authorised Person could have a negative impact on its Group, if applicable;
- t.whether Resolution Authorities in the other jurisdictions in which the Authorised Person’s Group operates have the power to apply a Resolution Tool necessary to support Resolution Actions by the AFSA and the extent to which there is scope for cooperation between such Resolution Authorities and the AFSA;
- u.the feasibility of applying a Resolution Tool in such a way which meets the Resolution Objectives, given the tools available and the Authorised Person’s structure;
- v.the extent to which the structure of the Authorised Person’s Group allows the Resolution Authorities of the Group entities to resolve the whole Group or one or more of its Group entities without causing a significant direct or indirect adverse effect on the financial system, market confidence or the financial services industry in the AIFC and with a view to maximising the value of the Group as a whole including the AIFC Branch/es and Subsidiaries;
- w.the arrangements and means through which Resolution could be facilitated in the cases of Groups that have subsidiaries established in different jurisdictions;
- x.the arrangements and means by which Resolution could be hampered due to collateral arrangements being established in different jurisdictions;
- y.the credibility of applying a Resolution Tool in such a way which meets the Resolution Objectives, given possible impacts on creditors, counterparties, Clients, clearing participants and employees and possible actions that third-country authorities may take;
- z.the extent to which the impact of the Authorised Person’s Resolution on the financial system in the AIFC and on financial markets confidence can be adequately evaluated;
- aa.the extent to which the Resolution of the Authorised Person could have a significant direct or indirect adverse effect on the financial system, market confidence or on the AIFC;
- bb.the extent to which contagion to other Authorised Persons or to the financial markets could be contained through the exercise of a Resolution Power and application of a Resolution Tool; and
- cc.the extent to which the Resolution of the Authorised Person could have a significant effect on the operation of Authorised Market Institutions, Regulated Exchanges, payment systems, Central Counterparties, Securities Settlement Systems or Central Securities Depositories.
3.For the purposes of the Guidance in subparagraph 2(cc) when conducting a resolvability assessment of an Authorised Market Institution, the AFSA should assess in particular the feasibility and credibility of implementing the Resolution strategy and operational Resolution Plan developed for the Authorised Market Institution, by assessing in particular:
- a.the likely implications for resolution (including the availability of funds to repay liquidity providers) of the implementation of the Authorised Market Institution’s Recovery Plan, including any rules and procedures for loss allocation or for the allocation of contracts;
- b.technical and legal barriers to the transfer of the Critical Functions of the Authorised Market Institution to another entity, including those arising from the bespoke nature of the risk management and technical processes of individual Authorised Market Institutions;
- c.if the Resolution Plan provides for transfer of the critical Authorised Market Institution functions to another entity or institution, the robustness of any arrangements in place to facilitate the transfer and to maintain continuity, including of the legal and technical arrangements, such as delivery-versus-payments arrangements;
- d.the impact of Resolution strategies and measures set out in the operational Resolution Plan on Authorised Market Institution participants and on any linked Authorised Market Institutions, including the ability of participants and those linked Authorised Market Institutions to retain continuous access to the Authorised Market Institution’s Critical Functions during the Resolution;
- e.the ability of the Authorised Market Institution in Resolution or of a successor entity or institution to which critical Authorised Market Institution functions have been transferred to maintain access to the services of any linked Authorised Market Institutions and other service providers during the Resolution;
- f.the rights and obligations of linked Authorised Market Institutions in the event of the failure of one of those Authorised Market Institutions that could affect the conduct of Resolution and the ability to maintain enforcement rights over collateral; and
- g.any interoperability agreements and cross-margining or loss-sharing arrangements with other Authorised Market Institutions.
4. For the purposes of the Guidance in paragraph 2:
- a.the feasibility test involves looking at whether the preferred Resolution strategy can be implemented effectively and in a timely manner; and
- b.the credibility test checks the impact of the preferred Resolution strategy and its ability to mitigate risks which have been identified against the Resolution Objectives.
5.In practice, if the AFSA prepares or updates a Resolution Plan, the Resolvability Assessment will typically be done concurrently.
6.The AFSA will exercise its power under section 140 of the FSFR to require measures it considers reasonably necessary to remove impediments to, or improve, the resolvability of an Authorised Person in a proportionate and priority-driven manner. The AFSA will target the removal of the most important impediments first. It will also inform other relevant Resolution Authorities, if applicable, of its intentions to formally require the removal of the impediments.
3.4. Loss-Absorbing Capacity Requirement
Guidance
Under section 141 of the FSFR, the AFSA may by written notice require an Authorised Person to hold and maintain a minimum amount of financial resources which will be available during Resolution to absorb losses and recapitalize it so that it can continue to perform Critical Functions while Resolution is ongoing (Loss Absorbing Capacity).
3.4.1.Loss-Absorbing Capacity Requirement
(1)This Rule applies if the AFSA by written notice under section 141 of the FSFR requires an Authorised Person to hold and maintain a minimum amount of Loss Absorbing Capacity (LAC).
(2)The AFSA will issue a LAC requirement only in relation to an Authorised Person that is not a Branch.
(3)The Authorised Person must maintain the specified amount of LAC at all times from the date specified by the AFSA in the notice.
(4)The LAC requirement:
- (a)must include the Authorised Person’s own funds and Eligible Liabilities, whether issued externally or internally within its Group;
- (b)may be applied on an unconsolidated balance sheet basis to an individual entity or on a consolidated balance sheet basis to 2 or more entities that the AFSA groups together;
- (c)may specify criteria that must be met by Debentures or other instruments issued for the purpose of complying with the requirement; and
- (d)may require eligible instruments to contain contractual terms designed to promote recognition of their loss-absorbing characteristics and their eligibility to be the subject of the exercise of the Bail-In Tool.
Guidance
1.The AFSA will calibrate the LAC requirement according to the existing level of capitalisation of the Authorised Person and having regard to its business model and the other relevant parameters such as the Resolution strategy, situation of other Group or sub-Group entities and macro-prudential considerations.
2.The LAC requirement will be based on the Total Loss-Absorbing Capacity Standard issued by the FSB, or any relevant document relating to loss-absorbing capacity issued by an international standard-setting body, which will be given effect in whole or in part and subject to any modifications that the AFSA thinks fit, having regard to the prevailing circumstances in the AIFC.
3.A LAC requirement may be imposed concurrently or separately to the resolution planning process regarding the Authorised Person,and will have regard to the Resolution strategy adopted for the Authorised Person.
4.The AFSA will set reasonable deadlines for the Authorised Person to meet the LAC requirement, which may include staggered build-up toward the target amount of the LAC.
4. RESOLUTION
4.1. Valuation
4.1.1. Eligibility criteria for independent valuer
A person is eligible to be appointed as an independent valuer under section 145 of the FSFR if that person:
- (a)has suitable qualifications, skills and experience to be able to carry out such valuation; and
- (b)is independent and free of conflicts of interest in respect of the valuation.
4.1.2. Powers of an independent valuer
(1)An independent valuer may do anything necessary or desirable for the purpose of, or in connection with, the performance of the independent valuer's functions under these Rules.
(2)The independent valuer has, without limiting (1), the powers to:
- (a)require any member of the management of an Authorised Person to attend an interview at a specified time and place and answer questions;
- (b)require an Authorised Person to produce at a specified time and place any specified documents or information;
- (c)require an Authorised Person to provide such assistance as the independent valuer may require; and
- (d)enter the business premises of an Authorised Person during normal business hours for the purposes of inspecting and copying documents on such premises.
(3)The AFSA may confer on an independent valuer such ancillary powers as it considers necessary for the purpose of, or in connection with, the independent valuer exercising its functions under these Rules.
4.1.3. Pre-Resolution Valuation
(1)An independent valuer must carry out a Pre-Resolution Valuation:
- (a)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, on the assets and liabilities of the Authorised Person; or
- (b)in the case of an Authorised Person that is a Branch, on the business of the Branch.
(2)The purposes of a Pre-Resolution Valuation are:
- (a)to inform the decision of whether the Resolution Conditions are met;
- (b)if the Resolution Conditions are met, to inform the decision on the application of a Resolution Tool;
- (c)if the Bail-In Tool is applied, to inform the decision on the extent of the write down or conversion of Eligible Liabilities;
- (d)if the Write Down or Conversion Power is exercised, to inform the decision on the extent of the cancellation or dilution of Shares and the extent of the write down or conversion;
- (e)if the Sale of Business Tool must be applied, to inform the decision on the rights, assets, liabilities or Shares to be transferred and to inform the AFSA’s understanding of what constitutes commercial terms for the purpose of the application of the tool; and
- (f)in all cases, to ensure that any losses on the assets of the Authorised Person are fully recognised at the moment a Resolution Tool is applied or the Write Down or Conversion Power is exercised.
(3)The independent valuer carrying out the Pre-Resolution Valuation must:
- (a)make prudent, realistic and credible assumptions of the market value of the assets and liabilities of the entity, including as to the rates of defaults and severity of losses, recognised as of the date of entry into Resolution, relevant market conditions and expected stakeholder reactions;
- (b)disregard any potential future provision of extraordinary public financial support, wherever available; and
- (c)take into account the fact that if any Resolution Tool is applied the AFSA may recover any reasonable expenses properly incurred from the Authorised Person in accordance with section 152 of the FSFR.
(4)A Pre-Resolution Valuation must be supplemented by the following information as appearing in the accounting books and records of the Authorised Person (or, in the case of a Branch, the Regulated Financial Institution of which it is a Branch):
- (a)a balance sheet, as at the date of the Pre-Resolution Valuation, of:
- (i)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the Authorised Person; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the business of the Branch;
- (b)a report on the financial position of the Authorised Person;
- (c)an analysis and estimate of the accounting value of:
- (i)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the assets of the Authorised Person; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the property and rights of the Regulated Financial Institution which form part of the business of the Branch;
- (d)if required to inform a decision relating to the Sale of Business Tool, an analysis and estimate of the market value of:
- (i)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the assets and liabilities of the Authorised Person; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the business of the Branch;
- (e)a list of outstanding liabilities (including any off-balance sheet liabilities) of:
- (i)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the Authorised Person; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the Regulated Financial Institution of which it is a Branch, with the creditors subdivided into classes according to the hierarchy their claims have under insolvency proceedings; and
- (f)an estimate of the amount each class of creditors and shareholders might be expected to receive if:
- (i)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the Authorised Person must be wound up under insolvency proceedings; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the Regulated Financial Institution in its home jurisdiction went into non-AIFC insolvency proceedings.
4.1.4. Provisional Valuation
(1)The AFSA may, under section 146(2) of the FSFR, appoint an independent valuer to carry out a Provisional Valuation of:
- (a)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the assets and liabilities of the Authorised Person; or
- (b)in the case of a Branch, the business of the Branch.
(2)If a Provisional Valuation is carried out:
- (a)the independent valuer must comply with subrules 4.1.3(3) and 4.1.3(4) so far as it is reasonable to do so in the circumstances;
- (b)the Provisional Valuation must make provision in respect of additional losses by the Authorised Person that are reasonably foreseeable; and
- (c)the Provisional Valuation is a valid basis on which the AFSA may exercise a Resolution Power or apply a Resolution Tool.
(3)For the purpose of carrying out a Provisional Valuation, the independent valuer may rely on accounts drawn up by the Authorised Person.
4.1.5. Definitive Valuation
(1)If the AFSA has caused a Provisional Valuation to be carried out under subrule 4.1.4, the AFSA must appoint an independent valuer to carry out, as soon as practicable, a Definitive Valuation of:
- (a)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the assets and liabilities of the Authorised Person; or
- (b)in the case of a Branch, the business of the Branch.
(2)The purposes of the Definitive Valuation are:
- (a)to ensure that:
- (i)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the full extent of any losses on the assets of the Authorised Person is recognised in the accounting records of the Authorised Person; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the full extent of any losses on the property and rights of the Regulated Financial Institution of which it is a Branch is recognised in the accounting records of the Authorised Person; and
- (b)to inform a decision by the AFSA as to whether:
- (i)additional consideration must be paid by a purchaser for any property, rights, liabilities or Shares transferred under a Sale of Business Tool; or
- (ii)to increase or reinstate any liability which has been reduced or cancelled by the exercise of a Resolution Power or application of a Resolution Tool.
(3)An independent valuer must comply with subrule 4.1.2 in respect of the Definitive Valuation.
(4)A person who acts as the independent valuer in a Provisional Valuation of an Authorised Person may be the same person who acts as the independent valuer for the purpose of carrying out a Definitive Valuation of that Authorised Person.
4.1.6. Consequences of a higher valuation being produced by Definitive Valuation
If a Definitive Valuation produces a higher valuation of the net asset value of an Authorised Person than the Provisional Valuation, the AFSA may:
- (a)instruct a purchaser to pay additional consideration for any rights, assets, liabilities or Shares transferred under the Sale of Business Tool; or
- (b)modify any liability of:
- (i)an Authorised Person, if it is not a Branch; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the Regulated Financial Institution of which it is a branch, which has been reduced, deferred or cancelled pursuant to the Write Down or Conversion Power or the exercise of a Resolution Power or application of a Resolution Tool so as to increase or reinstate that liability.
Guidance
A Pre-Resolution Valuation or Definitive Valuation should be carried out in accordance with any technical standards specified by the AFSA or otherwise in accordance with applicable accounting standards.
4.2. Resolution Powers
Guidance
1.This section covers some of the Resolution Powers set out in section 147 of the FSFR. The powers can be used in any combination or in connection with a Resolution Tool and different powers may be exercised in relation to the Authorised Person and entities in its Group. The conditions and limitations for the use of certain powers are explained below.
2.The choice of Resolution Powers that are exercised with regard to an Authorised Market Institution should take into account:
- a.the type of Authorised Market Institution and the Critical Functions that it provides;
- b.the risk profile of the Authorised Market Institution, including its exposure to credit, liquidity and general business risks and, in particular, whether it takes credit risk through exposures to its participants as principal;
- c.the Authorised Market Institution’s capital structure, available assets, default resources and loss allocation arrangements;
- d.any Recovery Measures taken by the Authorised Market Institution;
- e.in the case of an Authorised Market Institution that has rules-based loss allocation procedures, the extent to which those procedures have not been exhausted before entry into Resolution;
- f.the type of the stress (for example, credit losses or liquidity shortfalls) and its source (for example, stress arising from participant default or from other causes, such as, business, operational or other structural weaknesses); and
- g.the market structure in which it operates (for example, the existence of alternative providers).
3.The choice of Resolution Powers may also take into account the expected impact of those powers on direct and indirect Authorised Market Institution participants, any linked Authorised Market Institutions and third parties, regardless of where they are located, and the expected impact on financial markets more widely.
4.The choice of Resolution Powers that are exercised with regard to insurers should take into account:
- a.prohibition of transfer of the insurer’s assets without supervisory approval;
- b.withdrawal of the license to write new business and putting all or part of the insurance business contracts into run-off;
- c.restructuring, limiting or writing down liabilities (including insurance liabilities), and allocating losses to creditors and Policyholders, where applicable and in a manner consistent with the liquidation claims hierarchy;
- d.terminating, continuing or transferring certain types of contracts, including insurance contracts;
- e.transferring or selling the whole or part of the assets and liabilities of the insurer to a solvent insurer or third party;
- f.transferring any reinsurance associated with transferred insurance policies without the consent of the reinsurer;
- g.temporarily restricting or suspending the Policyholders’ rights of withdrawing their insurance contracts;
- h.staying rights of the reinsurers of the ceding insurer in Resolution to terminate or not reinstate coverage relating to periods after the commencement of Resolution; and
- i.imposing a temporary suspension of payments to unsecured creditors and a stay on creditor actions to attach assets or otherwise collect money or property from the insurer.
4.2.1. Power to require provision of services and facilities
If the AFSA exercises the power to require an Authorised Person in Resolution, or any of its Group entities, to provide any services or facilities, those services and facilities must be provided on these terms:
- (a)if the services and facilities are provided under an agreement to the Authorised Person in Resolution immediately before the Resolution Action is taken and for the duration of that agreement, on the same terms; and
- (b)if there is no agreement for provision of the services and facilities or if the agreement has expired, on reasonable terms.
4.2.2. Power to suspend certain obligations
(1)If the AFSA exercises the power under section 147(1)(p) of the FSFR to suspend any payment or delivery obligations the suspension will take effect from when notice under that section is given of the suspension (as an action the AFSA intends to take) until midnight at the end of the second business day after the notice is given, except that:
- (a)if a payment or delivery obligation is due during the suspension period the payment or delivery obligation will be due immediately upon expiry of the suspension period; and
- (b)if a payment or delivery obligation has been suspended the payment and delivery obligations of the counterparty under the contract will also be suspended for the same period.
(2)A suspension does not apply to:
- (a)Deposits of an Eligible Depositor; or
- (b)payment and delivery obligations owed to an Authorised Market Institution, payment system, Central Counterparty, Securities Settlement System, Central Securities Depository or the central bank.
Guidance
The AFSA will, when exercising its power under section 147(1)(p) of the FSFR, have regard to the impact the exercise of the power might have on the orderly functioning of financial markets.
4.2.3. Power to restrict enforcement of security interests
(1)If the AFSA exercises its power under section 147(1)(q) of the FSFR to restrict secured creditors of an Authorised Person in Resolution from enforcing security interests in relation to any assets of the Authorised Person, the suspension has effect from when notice under that section is given, of that restriction (as an action the AFSA intends to take) until midnight at the end of the second business day after the giving of the notice.
(2)A restriction does not apply to restrict secured creditors in relation to any security interest of a payment system, Central Counterparty, Securities Settlement System, Central Securities Depository or the central bank over assets pledged or otherwise provided by way of margin or collateral by the Authorised Person in Resolution.
Guidance
The AFSA will, when exercising its power under section 147(1)(q) of the FSFR, have regard to the impact the exercise of the power might have on the orderly functioning of financial markets.
4.2.4. Power to temporarily suspend termination rights
(1)If the AFSA exercises its power to suspend the termination rights under section 147(1)(k) of the FSFR of any party to a contract with an Authorised Person in Resolution, the suspension has effect from when notice under that section is given, until midnight at the end of the second business day after the notice is given, provided that the payment and delivery obligations and the provision of collateral continue to be performed by the Authorised Person in Resolution.
(2)A suspension does not apply to payment and delivery obligations owed to payment systems, Central Counterparties, Securities Settlement Systems, Central Securities Depositories or the central bank.
(3)A person may exercise a termination right under a contract before the end of the period referred to in (1) if that person receives notice from the AFSA that the rights, assets or liabilities covered by the contract will not be:
- (a)transferred to another entity; or
- (b)subject to write down or conversion on the application of the Bail-In Tool.
(4)If the AFSA exercises the power to suspend termination rights, and if no notice has been given under (3) those rights may be exercised on the expiry of the period of suspension, if the rights, assets or liabilities covered by the contract:
- (a)remain with the Authorised Person in Resolution and the AFSA has not applied the Bail-In Tool; or
- (b)have been transferred to another entity, only on the occurrence of any continuing or subsequent enforcement event.
Guidance
The AFSA will, when exercising its power under section 147(1)(k) of the FSFR, have regard to the impact the exercise of the power might have on the orderly functioning of financial markets.
4.2.5. Write Down or Conversion Power
(1)The AFSA may in writing down or converting any instrument or liability relating to an Authorised Person:
- (a)reduce, including reducing to zero, the principal amount of, or outstanding amount due, in respect of Eligible Liabilities of the Authorised Person;
- (b)cancel Debentures issued by the Authorised Person, except secured liabilities;
- (c)reduce, including reducing to zero, the nominal amount of Shares of the Authorised Person and cancel the Shares; or
- (d)require the Authorised Person to issue new Shares or other capital instruments, including preference Shares and contingent convertible instruments.
(2)A Pre-Resolution Valuation or a Provisional Valuation (as the case may be) may form the basis of the calculation of the write down to be applied to the relevant capital instruments in order to absorb losses and the level of conversion to be applied to the relevant capital instruments in order to recapitalize the Authorised Person.
(3)The AFSA may exercise the Write Down or Conversion Power:
- (a)independently of any other Resolution Action; or
- (b)in combination with a Resolution Action.
(4)The AFSA may exercise the Write Down or Conversion Power in relation to relevant capital instruments issued by an Authorised Person in Resolution, if one or more of the following circumstances apply:
- (a)the AFSA determines that unless the Write Down or Conversion Power is exercised in relation to relevant capital instruments, the Authorised Person will no longer be viable;
- (b)in the case of relevant capital instruments issued by an Authorised Person that is a subsidiary or another entity in its Group, the AFSA determines that unless the Write Down or Conversion Power is exercised the Authorised Person will no longer be viable; or
- (c)in the case of relevant capital instruments issued by an Authorised Person that is a parent, the AFSA determines that unless the Write Down or Conversion Power is exercised the Authorised Person’s Group will no longer be viable.
(5)In complying with (4), the AFSA must exercise the Write Down or Conversion Power in accordance with the hierarchy of claims that would apply if the Authorised Person in Resolution must be wound up under the AIFC Insolvency Regulations.
(6)If the principal amount of a relevant capital instrument is written down:
- (a)the reduction of that principal amount is permanent;
- (b)no liability to the holder of the relevant capital instrument remains under or in connection with that amount of the instrument which has been written down, except for any liability already accrued; and
- (c)no compensation is paid to any holder of the relevant capital instruments other than in accordance with (7) and (8).
(7)In order to effect a conversion of relevant capital instruments, the AFSA may require an Authorised Person to issue instruments to the holders of the relevant capital instruments.
(8)The relevant capital instruments may only be converted if these conditions are met:
- (a)the instruments are issued by the Authorised Person with the agreement of the AFSA;
- (b)the instruments are awarded and transferred without delay after the exercise of the Write Down or Conversion Power; and
- (c)the Conversion Rate that determines the number of instruments that are provided in respect of each relevant capital instrument complies with these Rules.
4.3. Sale of Business Tool
4.3.1. Application of Sale of Business Tool
(1)The AFSA must ensure that a transfer made by applying the Sale of Business Tool is made on commercial terms having regard to the particular circumstances.
(2)The AFSA must take reasonable measures to specify, on the basis of a Pre-Resolution Valuation or Provisional Valuation, commercial terms for the transfer made under the Sale of Business Tool.
(3)Except as provided in section 152 of the FSFR, the net proceeds of consideration paid by the purchaser on the transfer made under the Sale of Business Tool under this Rule must be applied for the benefit of:
- (a)the owners of the Shares, if the Sale of Business Tool has been effected by transferring Shares issued by the Authorised Person in Resolution from the holders of those Shares or instruments to the purchaser subject to first reimbursing any creditor of the Residual Institution ranking higher in the hierarchy whose instruments have been written down, to the extent reasonably practicable; and
- (b)the Authorised Person in Resolution, if the Sale of Business Tool has been effected by transferring some or all of:
- (i)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, the assets or liabilities of the Authorised Person to the purchaser; or
- (ii)in the case of a Branch, the business of the Branch.
(4)When applying the Sale of Business Tool to an Authorised Person, the AFSA may exercise its transfer power more than once in order to make supplemental transfers of:
- (a)in the case of an Authorised Person that is not a Branch, any rights, assets or liabilities of or Shares issued by the Authorised Person; or
- (b)in the case of a Branch, the business of the Branch.
(5)A written notice under section 147 of the FSFR relating to the application of the Sale of Business Tool to an Authorised Person has effect according to its terms.
4.3.2. Power to transfer rights, assets, liabilities or Shares back to Authorised Person in Resolution or to original owners
(1) After applying the Sale of Business Tool, the AFSA may, with the consent of the purchaser, transfer:
- (a)the rights, assets, or liabilities transferred to the purchaser back to the Authorised Person in Resolution; or
- (b)the Shares back to their original owners.
(2)The Authorised Person in Resolution or the original owners must take back any such rights, assets, liabilities or Shares.
4.3.3. Rights of Authorised Person in Resolution under Sale of Business Tool
If an Authorised Person is not a Branch, and a transfer under the Sale of Business Tool is effected by way of a transfer of Shares of the Authorised Person in Resolution, the Authorised Person may exercise any rights after the transfer that it was entitled to exercise before the transfer.
4.3.4. Rights of purchaser under Sale of Business Tool
(1)If a transfer under the Sale of Business Tool results in the purchaser acquiring activities or services that require it to be an Authorised Person, the purchaser may, subject to it satisfactory complying with any other regulatory requirements, continue to operate the business for a period not exceeding six months, within which period the purchaser must apply for authorisation in the AIFC.
(2)If a transfer under the Sale of Business Tool has been effected by a transfer of rights, assets and liabilities, the purchaser:
- (a)is entitled to exercise any such rights after the transfer that the Authorised Person in Resolution was entitled to exercise before the transfer;
- (b) is subject to all such liabilities, (including membership rights and access to Authorised Market Institutions, Regulated Exchanges, payment systems, Central Counterparties, Securities Settlement Systems and Central Securities Depositories) and rights; and
- (c)Is subject to liabilities between such entities and the purchaser, provided that the purchaser meets the criteria for such membership or participation in such systems.
(3)Shareholders and creditors of an Authorised Person in Resolution and other third parties whose rights, assets and liabilities are not transferred under the Sale of Business Tool do not have any rights over or in relation to the rights, assets or liabilities transferred.
4.3.5. Marketing of rights, assets, liabilities or Shares
(1)Except as provided in (4) and subrule 4.3.6, if the AFSA applies the Sale of Business Tool to an Authorised Person, the AFSA:
- (a)must market or arrange for the marketing of the rights, assets, liabilities or Shares that the AFSA intends to transfer; and
- (b)may market separately pools of rights, assets, liabilities or Shares.
(2)The AFSA must ensure that marketing:
- (a)involves good faith efforts not to materially misrepresent the rights, assets, liabilities, or Shares that the AFSA intends to transfer, having regard to the circumstances and in particular the need to maintain financial stability;
- (b)does not unduly favour or discriminate between identified potential purchasers;
- (c)is free from conflicts of interest;
- (d)does not confer any unfair advantage on a potential purchaser;
- (e)takes account of the need to effect a rapid Resolution Action; and
- (f)aims to maximise, as far as possible, the sale price for the rights, assets, liabilities or Shares involved.
(3)The requirements in (2) do not prevent the AFSA from soliciting particular potential purchasers.
(4)The AFSA may apply the Sale of Business Tool to an Authorised Person without complying with the requirement to market under (1)(a):
- (a)if the AFSA determines that compliance with such requirements is likely to undermine one or more of the Resolution Objectives; and
- (b)in particular, if the AFSA considers that complying with the requirement is likely to undermine the effectiveness of the Sale of Business Tool in addressing the failure or likely failure identified under section 144(2) of the FSFR or achieving the Resolution Objectives.
4.3.6. Residual Institution to be Wound Up
If the Sale of Business Tool has been used to transfer Critical Functions or the viable business of an Authorised Person to a private sector purchaser, the Residual Institution must be wound up under insolvency proceedings, within an appropriate timeframe, having regard to any need for the Residual Institution to provide services or support to enable the purchaser to carry on the activities or services acquired by virtue of that transfer.
4.4. Bail-In Tool
4.4.1. Application of Bail-In Tool
(1)The AFSA may exercise one or more Resolution Powers, in particular the Write Down or Conversion Power in order to apply the Bail-In Tool to an Authorised Person.
(2)The Bail-In Tool may be applied in respect of a capital instrument or liability of an Authorised Person (Eligible Liability), provided that the liability is not excluded from the scope of the Bail-In Tool.
(3)The AFSA must not exercise the Write Down or Conversion Power in relation to the following liabilities (whether they are governed by Acting Law of the AIFC or by the law of another jurisdiction):
- (a)secured liabilities, including bonds and liabilities in the form of financial instruments used for hedging purposes which form an integral part of the cover pool and which are secured in a way similar to covered bonds, but this exclusion does not prevent the write down of any liability in respect of net sum after close out of a Derivative in accordance with subrule 4.4.5;
- (b)a Deposit of an Eligible Depositor;
- (c)any liability that arises by virtue of the holding of Client Assets, to the extent such Client Assets are protected under Acting Law of the AIFC;
- (d)any liability that arises by virtue of a fiduciary relationship between the Authorised Person (as fiduciary) and another person (as beneficiary) provided that such beneficiary's interests are protected under Acting Law of the AIFC;
- (e)unsecured liabilities to other financial institutions excluding entities that are part of the same Group, with an original maturity of less than 7 days;
- (f)liabilities owed to payment systems, Central Counterparties, Securities Settlement Systems, Central Securities Depositories, or their operators or their participants and arising from the participation in any such system; or
- (g)a liability to:
- (i)an employee, in relation to accrued salary, pension benefits or other fixed remuneration, except for the variable component of remuneration;
- (ii)a commercial or trade creditor arising from the provision to the Authorised Person in Resolution of goods and services that are critical to the daily functioning of its operations, including information technology services, utilities and rental, servicing and upkeep of premises; or
- (iii)any tax and social security authority or scheme in Kazakhstan.
(4)In exceptional circumstances, if the Bail-In Tool is applied, the AFSA may exclude or partially exclude certain liabilities from the application of the Write Down or Conversion Power if:
- (a)it is not possible to bail-in that liability within a reasonable time despite the reasonable efforts of the AFSA;
- (b)the exclusion is strictly necessary and is proportionate to meet the Resolution Objectives;
- (c)the exclusion is strictly necessary and proportionate to avoid giving rise to widespread contagion, that severely disrupts the functioning of financial markets, including financial market infrastructures, in a manner that may cause broader financial instability; or
- (d)the application of the Bail-In Tool to those liabilities may cause a destruction of value such that the losses borne by other creditors will be higher than if those liabilities were excluded from bail-in.
(5)If the AFSA decides to exclude or partially exclude an Eligible Liability or class of Eligible Liabilities under (4), the level of write down or conversion applied to other Eligible Liabilities may be increased to take account of such exclusions, provided that the level of write down or conversion applied to other Eligible Liabilities is consistent with the Resolution Objectives.
(6)If the AFSA decides to apply the Bail-In Tool, the AFSA must set out in the written notice given under section 147 of the FSFR the type and amount of liabilities owed by the Authorised Person in Resolution that is subject to the Bail-In Tool and state whether the liabilities are:
- (a)cancelled (i.e. written down to zero);
- (b)modified (as far as their terms or the effects of the terms therein are concerned); or
- (c)caused to change their form by converting from a form or a class to a different one, replacing the existing instrument with one of another form or class or creating a new security.
(7)A written notice under section 147 of the FSFR relating to the application of the Bail-In Tool has effect according to its terms.
Guidance
1.The AFSA may apply the Bail-In Tool if there is a reasonable prospect that applying the tool together with other relevant measures can, in addition to achieving the relevant Resolution Objectives, restore the Authorised Person to financial soundness and long-term viability. The Bail-In Tool may also be applied in connection with the Sale of Business Tool.
2.In exercising its discretion under subrule 4.4.1(4), the AFSA will consider:
- a.the need not to apply any bail-in to a netting set before such netting is completed;
- b.the need to avoid disruption to Authorised Market Institutions, Regulated Exchanges, payment systems, Central Counterparties, Securities Settlement Systems and Central Securities Depositories;
- c.the principle that losses must be borne first by shareholders and subsequently by creditors of the Authorised Person in Resolution in order of preference in light of the Resolution Objectives;
- d.the level of LAC that remains in the Authorised Person in Resolution if the liability or class of liabilities were excluded; and
- e.the need to maintain adequate resources for Resolution financing.
4.4.2. Assessment of amount of bail-in
(1) In applying the Bail-In Tool the AFSA must assess for the purposes of (2), on the basis of the Pre-Resolution Valuation or Provisional Valuation, the aggregate of:
- (a)if applicable, the amount by which capital instruments and Eligible Liabilities must be written down in order to ensure that the net asset value of the Authorised Person in Resolution is equal to zero; and
- (b)if applicable, the amount by which capital instruments and Eligible Liabilities must be converted into Shares or other types of capital instruments in order to restore the CET1 Capital ratio of the Authorised Person in Resolution.
(2)The purpose of the assessment is to establish the amount by which Eligible Liabilities need to be written down or converted in order:
- (a)to restore the CET1 Capital ratio of the Authorised Person in Resolution;
- (b)to sustain sufficient market confidence in the Authorised Person in Resolution; and
- (c)to enable the Authorised Person to continue, for at least 12 months, to satisfy the requirements for authorisation and to carry on the activities or services for which it is authorised.
(3)If capital instruments have been written down in accordance with the Write Down or Conversion Power under subrule 4.2.5, the Bail-In Tool has been applied, and the level of write down based on the Pre-Resolution Valuation is found to exceed requirements if assessed against the Definitive Valuation, a write up mechanism may be applied to reimburse creditors and then shareholders to the extent necessary.
4.4.3. Treatment of shareholders in bail-in
(1)In applying the Bail-In Tool, the AFSA must take, in respect of shareholders of the Authorised Person in Resolution, one or both of these actions:
- (a)cancel existing Shares or transfer them to bailed-in creditors; or
- (b)if, in accordance with the Pre-Resolution Valuation (or Provisional Valuation, if applicable), the Authorised Person in Resolution has a positive net value, dilute existing shareholders as a result of the conversion into Shares of:
- (i)relevant capital instruments; or
- (ii)Eligible Liabilities, issued by the Authorised Person in Resolution.
(2)The AFSA must take the action referred to in (1) in respect of shareholders if the Shares were issued or conferred in these circumstances:
- (a)pursuant to the conversion of Debentures to Shares in accordance with the contractual terms of the original Debentures, on the occurrence of an event that preceded or occurred at the same time as the assessment by the AFSA that the Authorised Person met the Resolution Conditions; or
- (b)pursuant to the conversion of relevant capital instruments to CET1 Capital instruments, under the Write Down or Conversion Power.
(3)In considering which action to take in accordance with (1), the AFSA will have regard to:
- (a)the Pre-Resolution Valuation (or Provisional Valuation, if applicable);
- (b)the amount by which the AFSA has assessed that CET1 Capital items must be reduced and relevant capital instruments must be written down or converted pursuant to the Write Down or Conversion Power; and
- (c)the aggregate amount assessed by the AFSA under subrule 4.4.2(1).
4.4.4. Sequence of bail-in
(1)Subject to any exclusions set out in subrule 4.4.1(3) and (4), in exercising the Write Down or Conversion Power when applying the Bail-In Tool, the AFSA applies the following sequence to write down or conversion:
- (a)the AFSA must reduce the CET1 items in accordance with subrule 4.4.3;
- (b)if the total reduction is less than the sum of the amounts referred to in subrule 4.4.3(3)(b) and (c) (the “threshold amount”), the AFSA must reduce the principal amount of AT1 Capital instruments to the extent required and to the extent of their capacity;
- (c)if the total reduction pursuant to (a) and (b) is less than the threshold amount, the AFSA must reduce the principal amount of T2 Capital instruments to the extent required and to the extent of their capacity;
- (d)if the total reduction of AT1 and T2 Capital instruments pursuant to (a), (b) and (c) is less than the threshold amount, the AFSA must reduce to the extent required the principal amount of Eligible Liabilities in accordance with the ranking of claims that apply to the Authorised Person under the AIFC Insolvency Regulations, in conjunction with the write down pursuant to (a), (b) and (c) to produce the threshold amount; and
- (e)if the total reduction of AT1 and T2 Capital instruments and Eligible Liabilities pursuant to (a) to (d) is less than the threshold amount, the AFSA must reduce to the extent required the principal amount of, or outstanding amount payable in respect of, the rest of Eligible Liabilities in accordance with the ranking of claims that will apply to the Authorised Person under the AIFC Insolvency Regulations, in conjunction with the write down pursuant to (a) to (d) to produce the threshold amount.
(2)When applying the Write Down or Conversion Power, the AFSA must allocate the losses represented by the threshold amount equally between Shares and Eligible Liabilities of the same rank by reducing the principal amount of, or outstanding amount payable in respect of, those Shares and Eligible Liabilities to the same extent pro rata to their value, except if a different allocation of losses amongst liabilities of the same rank is allowed in the circumstances specified in subrule 4.4.1(4).
(3)Before applying the Write Down or Conversion Power, the AFSA must convert or reduce the principal amount of instruments referred to in (1)(b), (c) (d) and (e) if those instruments have not been fully converted and contain either of the following terms:
- (a)terms that provide for the principal amount of the instrument to be reduced on the occurrence of any event that refers to the financial situation, viability, solvency or levels of Capital Resources of the Authorised Person; or
- (b)terms that provide for the conversion of the instrument to Shares on the occurrence of any such event.
(4)If the principal amount of an instrument has been reduced, but not reduced to zero, in accordance with terms referred to in (3)(a) before the application of the bail-in pursuant to (1), the AFSA must apply the Write Down or Conversion Power to the residual amount.
(5)In deciding on whether liabilities must be written down or converted into Shares, the AFSA must not convert one class of liabilities while a class of liabilities that is subordinated to that class remains substantially unconverted into Shares or not written down, unless otherwise permitted under subrule 4.4.1(4) and (5).
4.4.5. Derivative
(1)The AFSA may exercise the Bail-In Tool in relation to a liability arising from a Derivative only to the extent it is an unsecured liability and if, upon or after closing-out that Derivative, there is a net liability which is an Eligible Liability.
(2)The AFSA may terminate and close out any Derivative upon an Authorised Person’s entry into Resolution for the purpose of realising an Eligible Liability that must be subject to the Bail-In Tool.
(3)The AFSA may, if an Eligible Liability under a Derivative has been excluded from the application of the Bail-In Tool, terminate and close out the Derivative.
(4)If a Derivative is subject to a netting agreement, the value of the Eligible Liability for the purpose of the Pre-Resolution Valuation (or Provisional Valuation, if applicable) must be determined on a net basis in accordance with the terms of the agreement.
(5)The AFSA must determine the value of Eligible Liabilities arising from a Derivative on the basis of appropriate methodologies.
4.4.6. Conversion Rate
If the Write Down or Conversion Power is exercised, the AFSA may apply a different Conversion Rate to different classes of capital instruments and Eligible Liabilities provided that if different Conversion Rates are applied, the Conversion Rate applicable to liabilities that are considered to be senior under AIFC Insolvency Regulations must be higher than the Conversion Rate applicable to subordinated liabilities.
4.4.7. Business Reorganisation Plan
(1)A Business Reorganisation Plan must, if the Bail-In Tool has been appplied to recapitalise an Authorised Person, be prepared and implemented for that Authorised Person in accordance with this Rule.
(2)The AFSA may require persons to be appointed (under its powers over an Authorised Person in Resolution under section 147 of the FSFR) to be responsible for preparing and implementing the Business Reorganisation Plan.
(3)The management of the Authorised Person must, within 1 month after the application of the Bail-In Tool to that Authorised Person, draw up and submit to the AFSA a Business Reorganisation Plan that satisfies the requirements in (6).
(4)If the Bail-In Tool is applied to 2 or more Group entities, including if a Recognition Order has been made, a Group level Business Reorganisation Plan may be accepted by the AFSA for the purposes of this Rule.
(5)The AFSA may, in exceptional circumstances, and if it is necessary for achieving the Resolution Objectives, extend the period of 1 month up to a maximum of 2 months from the date of the application of the Bail-In Tool.
(6)A Business Reorganisation Plan must contain at least:
- (a)a detailed diagnosis of the factors and problems that caused the Authorised Person to fail or to be likely to fail and the circumstances that led to its difficulties;
- (b)a description of the measures aiming to restore the long-term viability of the Authorised Person or parts of its business that must be adopted, on the basis of realistic assumptions as to the economic and financial market conditions under which the Authorised Person will operate; and
- (c)a timescale for the implementation of those measures.
(7)The AFSA must, within 1 month of the submission of the Business Reorganisation Plan by the Authorised Person, assess the likelihood that the Business Reorganisation Plan, if implemented, is likely to restore the long-term viability of the Authorised Person.
(8)If after its assessment, the AFSA is satisfied that the Business Reorganisation Plan is likely to restore the long-term viability of the Authorised Person, the AFSA must approve the plan.
(9)If after its assessment, the AFSA is not satisfied that the Business Reorganisation Plan is likely to restore the long-term viability of the Authorised Person, the AFSA must notify the management of the Authorised Person or appointed persons of its concerns and require the Business Reorganisation Plan to be amended in a way that will address those concerns.
(10)The management of the Authorised Person or appointed persons must, within 2 weeks of receiving a notification by the AFSA under (9), submit an amended Business Reorganisation Plan to the AFSA for approval.
(11)The AFSA must, within 1 week of receipt of the amended Business Reorganisation Plan, assess the amended Business Reorganisation Plan and notify the management of the Authorised Person or appointed persons as to whether the AFSA is satisfied that the amended Business Reorganisation Plan addresses the concerns notified or whether further amendment is required.
(12)The management of the Authorised Person or appointed persons must implement the Business Reorganisation Plan as approved by the AFSA.
(13)The management of the Authorised Person or appointed persons must submit a report to the AFSA on the progress of the implementation of the Business Reorganisation Plan at least every six months or until the AFSA, in writing, specifies otherwise.
(14)A Business Reorganisation Plan may be further amended after its initial implementation if the AFSA is of the view that changes to the plan are required to achieve the long-term viability of the Authorised Person.
Guidance
1.Measures aiming to restore the long-term viability of the Authorised Person under subrule 4.4.7(6) may include:
- a.the reorganisation of the activities of the Authorised Person;
- b.changes to the operational systems and infrastructure within the Authorised Person;
- c.the withdrawal from loss-making activities;
- d.the restructuring of existing activities that can be made competitive; and
- e.the sale of assets or business lines.
2.The Business Reorganisation Plan must take account of, amongst other things, the current state and future prospects of the financial markets, reflecting best-case and worst-case assumptions, including a combination of events allowing the identification of the Authorised Person’s main vulnerabilities. Assumptions must be compared with appropriate sector-wide benchmarks.
4.4.8. Ancillary provisions relating to bail-in
(1)If the AFSA exercises the Write Down or Conversion Power in conjunction with the application of the Bail-In Tool, the write down or conversion takes effect and is immediately binding on the Authorised Person in Resolution and its creditors and shareholders.
(2)The AFSA may complete, or cause the completion, of all administrative and procedural tasks necessary to give effect to the Write Down or Conversion Power including, effecting amendments to all relevant registers and listing rules applicable.
(3)If the AFSA reduces to zero the principal amount of, or outstanding amount payable in respect of, a liability by means of the Write Down or Conversion Power, that liability and any obligations, rights or claims arising in relation to it that are not accrued at the time when the power is exercised are fully discharged for all purposes in relation to the Authorised Person in Resolution or any successor entity in any subsequent winding up.
(4)If the AFSA reduces in part, but not in full, the principal amount of, or outstanding amount payable in respect of, a liability by means of the Write Down or Conversion Power:
- (a)the liability, and the counterparty's corresponding claim, is discharged to the extent of the amount reduced; and
- (b)the relevant instrument or agreement that created the original liability continues to apply in relation to the residual principal amount of, or outstanding amount payable in respect of the liability, subject to any modification of the amount of interest payable to reflect the reduction of the principal amount, and any further modification of the terms that the AFSA might make by means of the Write Down or Conversion Power or other powers under section 147 of the FSFR.
(5)The AFSA is not prevented from exercising a Resolution Power or applying a Resolution Tool because of any procedural impediments to the conversion of Eligible Liabilities to Shares by virtue of the instrument of incorporation or of any other AIFC Acts, including pre-emption rights for shareholders or requirements for the consent of shareholders to an increase in capital.
4.4.9. Contractual recognition of bail-in
(1)The AFSA may, subject to (2), require that Authorised Person must include in its contractual documents a contractual term by which the creditor or party to an agreement creating an Eligible Liability recognises that that liability may be subject to the Write Down orConversion Power and agrees to be bound by any reduction of the principal or outstanding amount due, conversion or cancellation that is effected by the exercise of that power by the AFSA, provided that such liability is:
- (a)not excluded under subrule 4.4.1(4);
- (b)governed by the law of another jurisdiction; and
- (c)issued or entered into after the date on which these Rules come into force.
(2)If the AFSA determines that the Eligible Liability referred to in (1) can be subject to Write Down or Conversion Powers by the Resolution Authority of another jurisdiction or pursuant to a binding agreement concluded with that other jurisdiction, (1)(a) will not apply.
(3)A failure to include the terms referred to in (1) does not prevent the AFSA from exercising the Write Down or Conversion Power in relation to that liability.
(4)The AFSA may require the Authorised Person to provide independent legal opinions on the enforceability and effectiveness of the contractual bail-in recognition provisions.
4.5. Temporary Administrator
4.5.1. Temporary Administrator
If the AFSA appoints a Temporary Administrator for an Authorised Person, the Temporary Administrator’s powers are exercised under the control of the AFSA. The AFSA may set limits on the actions the Temporary Administrator may take or require the AFSA’s prior consent to any action.
4.5.2. Terms of appointment of the Temporary Administrator
The AFSA must set out in writing the terms of appointment of the Temporary Administrator including the requirement that the Temporary Administrator report regularly to the AFSA on the progress of the Temporary Administrator’s activities, the budget, forecasts and other relevant matters concerning the Authorised Person.
Guidance
1.The AFSA will, when appointing a Temporary Administrator to an Authorised Person in Resolution that is a Group entity, consider whether it is appropriate to appoint the same Temporary Administrator that has been appointed to another entity.
2.The AFSA when appointing a Temporary Administrator to an Authorised Market Institution should take reasonable effort to ensure the continued provision of the Critical Functions of an Authorised Market Institution in Resolution and to fulfil the Authorised Market Institution’s payment and settlement obligations on time, including on the day that the Authorised Market Institution enters into Resolution, until the Authorised Market Institution is restored to viability or those functions are transferred, replaced by another provider or wound down in an orderly manner.
4.6. Resolution Safeguards
Guidance
Under section 151(b) of the FSFR, the AFSA may prescribe safeguards that the AFSA should aim to meet if it exercises a Resolution Power or applies a Resolution Tool. This section prescribes a number of safeguards that are in addition to the safeguard specified in section 151(a) of the FSFR.
The ranking of claims applied in insolvency proceedings will apply pari-passu to Resolution. In particular, creditors and Clients of the same class shall be treated the same way as other members of the class.
4.6.1. Procedural requirements after exercise of a Resolution Power or Resolution Tool
The AFSA must, as soon as is reasonably practicable after the exercise of a Resolution Power or application of a Resolution Tool (including in conjunction with a Recognition Order), publish or arrange for the publication of a copy of a notice summarising the key terms of its Resolution Action by:
(a)publishing it on the websites of both the AFSA and the Authorised Person in Resolution; and
(b)if Securities issued by the Authorised Person in Resolution have been admitted to trading on an Authorised Market Institution or on an exchange in a Recognised Jurisdiction, by means of a relevant regulatory information service used on that exchange.
4.6.2. Safeguard for counterparties in partial transfers
(1)If the AFSA:
- (a)transfers some but not all of the rights, assets or liabilities of an Authorised Person in Resolution to another entity; or
- (b)exercises the power to cancel or modify the terms of a contract to which the Authorised Person in Resolution is a party or substitute a recipient as a party
the AFSA must protect the arrangements specified in (2) and the counterparties of such arrangements.
(2)The arrangements protected are as follows:
- (a)collateral arrangements, including title transfer collateral arrangements;
- (b)set-off arrangements under which 2 or more claims or obligations owed between the Authorised Person in Resolution and a counterparty can be set off against each other;
- (c)netting arrangements;
- (d)collateral and default fund contributions provided to payment systems, Central Counterparties, Securities Settlement Systems and Central Securities Depositories; and
- (e)any transfer or obligation that is subject to irrevocable settlement finality protections under applicable AIFC Acts.
(3)The arrangements are protected irrespective of the number of parties involved in the arrangements or whether the arrangements:
- (a)are created by contract, deed, trusts or other means, or arise automatically by operation of law; or
- (b)arise under or are governed in whole or in part by the law of another jurisdiction.
(4)The protections in subrules 4.6.3, 4.6.4 and 4.6.5 also apply to arrangements under this Rule.
4.6.3. Protection for title transfer collateral arrangements and set-off and netting arrangements
If the AFSA makes a transfer referred to in subrules 4.6.2(1)(a), the AFSA must not transfer some, but not all, of any rights, assets and liabilities that form part of arrangements protected under subrule 4.6.2(2) between the Authorised Person and another entity, party or a counterparty.
4.6.4. Protection for security arrangements
The AFSA must not, in respect of liabilities secured under the collateral arrangements referred to in subrules 4.6.2(2)(a) that are not title transfer collateral arrangements:
- (a)transfer assets against which a liability is secured under any such arrangement, unless that liability and the benefit of the security are also transferred;
- (b)transfer a secured liability, unless the benefit of the security is also transferred;
- (c)transfer the benefit of the security under any such arrangement, unless the secured liability is also transferred; or
- (d)modify or terminate such an arrangement through the exercise of ancillary powers, if the effect of that modification or termination is that the liability ceases to be secured.
4.6.5. Protection of trading, clearing and settlement systems
(1)The AFSA must take reasonable steps to ensure that the application of a Resolution Tool does not affect the operation of an Authorised Market Institution, Regulated Exchange, payment system, Central Counterparty, Securities Settlement System or Central Securities Depository if it:
- (a)transfers some but not all of the rights, assets or liabilities of an Authorised Person in Resolution to another entity; or
- (b)exercises its Resolution Power to cancel or modify the terms of a contract to which the Authorised Person in Resolution is a party or to substitute a recipient as a party.
(2)The AFSA must take reasonable steps to ensure that the exercise of Resolution Powers does not affect continuity of settlement finality rules in Resolution of an Authorised Market Institution.
(3)The AFSA must take reasonable steps to ensure that the exercise of Resolution Powers to an Authorised Market Institution:
- (a)does not result in automatic revocation of any licenses, authorisations, recognitions and legal designations of a (domestic or foreign) Authorised Market Institutions that are necessary for the continued performance of the Authorised Market Institution’s Critical Functions in Resolution, including its recognition for the purpose of the application of relevant settlement finality rules, solely as a result of entry into Resolution under either domestic or foreign law; and
- (b)allows those licences, authorisations, recognitions and legal designations to remain effective to the extent necessary to allow for continuity of the Critical Functions of the Authorised Market Institution in Resolution.
(4)The AFSA must take reasonable steps to ensure that the exercise of Resolution Powers to an Authorised Market Institution does not lead automatically to the restriction, suspension or termination of its participation in, or link with, other Authorised Market Institutions (wherever located). Authorised Market Institutions must not be prevented (including by law or regulations) from maintaining its participation of, or link with, another Authorised Market Institution that is in Resolution provided that the Authorised Market Institution in Resolution continues:
- (a)to meet its payment and delivery obligations when due; and
- (b)to comply with any other applicable obligations under the rules of the Authorised Market Institution.
(5)The AFSA must take reasonable steps to ensure that the application of Sale of Business Tool to an Authorised Market Institution:
- (a)does not affect continuity of the Authorised Market Institution’s legal and technical arrangements, such as delivery-versus-payments arrangements, domestic or cross-border links with other Authorised Market Institutions or other critical service providers and relevant contractual arrangements;
- (b)envisages transfer or application of any licenses, authorisations, recognitions and legal designations of the Authorised Market Institution necessary for the continued performance of those functions in Resolution, including recognition for the purpose of the application of relevant settlement finality rules;
- (c)envisages transfer of Client Assets that the Authorised Market Institution holds as a custodian without affecting the ownership rights or entitlements of the relevant Clients to those assets.
5. MISCELLANEOUS
5.1. Management Information Systems
5.1.1. Management Information Systems (MIS)
An Authorised Person must:
- (a) maintain in the AIFC a detailed inventory of appropriate computer-based systems and procedures which gather, process, present and store information supporting the activities of an Authorised Person (“Management Information Systems” or “MIS”) including those relating to accounting, financial, prudential and market information;
- (b) demonstrate to the AFSA that it is able to obtain and produce at short notice the information derived from its MIS in normal times, for the purposes of preparing or implementing a Recovery Plan or a Resolution Plan, for the purpose of a Resolvability Assessment, or in the course of Resolution;
- (c) maintain, in the AIFC, information which is essential and specific to the Authorised Person and other vital business relationships which are essential to access by the AFSA for the above purposes; and
- (d) identify and address any legal constraints related to the flow of management information to the Authorised Person from other parts of its Group in normal times and in crisis situations.
AIFC RULES ON DIGITAL ASSET ACTIVITIES
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1. GENERAL
1.1. Application of these Rules
These Rules, which may be cited as the AIFC Rules on Digital Asset Activities (“DAA”), apply to a Person carrying out, in or from the AIFC, the following Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets:
(a) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
(b) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
(c) Managing Investments;
(d) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme;
(e) Providing Custody;
(f) Arranging Custody;
(g) Advising on Investments;
(h) Arranging Deals in Investments;
(i) Providing Money Services; and
(j) Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility.
Guidance:
The following activities do not constitute Operating a Digital Asset Business:
(a) trading of Digital Assets for the Person’s own investment purposes, where such trading is not carried out by way of business; or
(b) any other activity or arrangement that is deemed by the AFSA to not constitute Operating a Digital Asset business, where necessary and appropriate in order for the AFSA to pursue its objectives.
2. RULES APPLICABLE TO DIGITAL ASSET TRADING FACILITY OPERATORS
This Chapter 2 applies to all Digital Asset Trading Facility Operators.
Guidance
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is an Authorised Firm to which provisions of the Constitutional Statute, FSFR, GEN, COB, AML, and MAR are applicable either directly or in respect of its officers and Employees who are Approved Individuals or Designated Individuals:
Article 4-1 of the Constitutional Statute;
FSFR (in whole);
AML (in whole);
Chapter 2 (Client classification) of the COB;
Chapter 3 (Communications with Clients and Financial Promotions) of the COB;
Chapter 4 (Key information and client agreement) of the COB;
Chapter 7 (Conflicts of interest) of the COB;
Chapter 8 (Client Assets) of the COB;
Chapter 9 (Reporting to Clients) of the COB;
Chapter 15 (Complaints handling and dispute resolution) of the COB;
Chapter 5 (Market Abuse) of the MAR;
Chapter 2 (Controlled and Designated Functions) of the GEN;
Chapter 3 (Control of Authorised Persons) of the GEN;
Chapter 4 (Core Principles) of the GEN;
Chapter 5 (Systems and Controls) of the GEN;
Chapter 6 (Supervision) of the GEN; and
Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC.
2.1. Authorisation
(1) A Person wishing to carry out the Regulated Activity of Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility must be an Authorised Firm licensed by the AFSA.
(2) A Person wishing to carry out the Regulated Activity of Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility must submit to the AFSA relevant policies and controls.
2.2. Requirements for Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator authorisation
The AFSA may not grant authorisation or variation to operate a Digital Asset Trading Facility unless the applicant satisfies all of the following requirements:
(1) general authorisation requirements applicable to the applicant under the Framework Regulations and other applicable rules, and
(2) the applicant must ensure that it maintains at all times capital resources in the amount specified in Table 1 by reference to the activity that the Authorised Firm is licensed to conduct or, if it is authorised to conduct more than one such activity, the amount that is the higher or highest of the relevant amounts in Table 1.
Table 1
Regulated Activity |
Capital requirement (USD) |
Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility |
The higher of (i) 200,000 or (ii) an amount equal to sufficient working capital in fiat currency to continue business for a period of 12 months, based on realistic forecasts for the business in different market conditions (both negative and positive scenarios) |
Providing Custody (in relation to Digital Assets) |
250,000 |
(3) In determining whether the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator meets the capital requirement(s) and, in particular, has sufficient working capital to continue business on a go-forwards basis, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have regard to the following matters:
(a) the business carried out, or to be carried out by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, including any outsourced services (including services outsourced to a Group entity where applicable);
(c) the liabilities to which the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is exposed or could be exposed to, including as a result of any failure by any third party; and
(d) the means by which the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator manages and, if the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is a member of a Group, by which other members of the Group manage, the occurrence of risk in connection with the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s business.
Guidance
Intangible assets, including goodwill, cannot be used as part of determining whether the capital requirement value is met or whether the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has sufficient working capital, and must be disregarded when determining whether the requirements are met for the purposes of Table 1.
2.3. Governance
2.3.1. Mandatory appointments
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must make the following appointments:
(a) Senior Executive Officer;
(b) Finance Officer;
(c) Compliance Officer; and
(d) Money Laundering Reporting Officer.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must appoint a Chief Information Technology Officer, who is an individual responsible for its ongoing information technology (“IT”) operations, maintenance and security oversight, and for ensuring that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s IT systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident.
(3) AFSA may direct a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator to appoint a Risk Manager.
(4) A person may not combine two roles specified in (1) unless the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator obtains the AFSA’s written approval.
2.3.2. Board of Directors of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have an effective Board of Directors which is collectively accountable for ensuring that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s business is managed prudently and soundly. At least one-third of the Board of Directors should comprise independent Directors.
Note: Rule 2.3.2(1) will come into force 12 months after the commencement of these Rules.
(2) The AFSA may issue guidance on the requirements relating to Board composition, structure, duties and powers as well as skills, experience and qualifications of Directors, and other relevant requirements.
(3) The Board must ensure that there is a clear division between its responsibility for setting the strategic aims and undertaking the oversight of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and the senior management’s responsibility for managing the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s business in accordance with the strategic aims and risk parameters set by the Board.
(4) The Board and its committees must have an appropriate balance of skills, experience, independence, and knowledge of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s business, and adequate resources, including access to expertise as required and timely and comprehensive information relating to the affairs of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
(5) The Board must ensure that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has an adequate, effective, well-defined and well-integrated risk management, internal control and compliance framework.
(6) The Board must ensure that the rights of shareholders are properly safeguarded through appropriate measures that enable the shareholders to exercise their rights effectively, promote effective dialogue with shareholders and other key stakeholders as appropriate, and prevent any abuse or oppression of minority shareholders.
(7) The Board must ensure that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s financial and other reports present an accurate, balanced and understandable assessment of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s financial position and prospects by ensuring that there are effective internal risk control and reporting requirements.
(8) A Director of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must act:
(a) on a fully informed basis;
(b) in good faith;
(c) honestly;
(d) with due skill, care and diligence; and
(e) in the best interests of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and its shareholders and Clients.
2.4. Technology resources
2.4.1. Sufficient resources
In addition to appropriate systems, resources and controls, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have sufficient technology resources to continually operate, maintain, and supervise its facility.
2.4.2. Confidentiality
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must take reasonable steps to ensure that its information, records and data are secure, and the confidentiality is maintained.
2.4.3. Cyber-security
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must take reasonable steps to ensure that its IT systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident, as well as from risks that can arise from inadequacies or failures in the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s processes and systems and, as appropriate, the systems of third-party suppliers, agents and others. This includes the fact that a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure there are the necessary resources in place to manage these risks.
2.4.4. Cyber-security policy
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must implement a written cyber-security policy setting forth its policies and procedures for the protection of its electronic systems, Members and counterparty data stored on those systems, which must be reviewed and approved by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s Board of Directors at least on an annual basis.
(2) The cyber-security policy must, as a minimum, address the following areas:
(a) information security;
(b) data governance and classification;
(c) access controls;
(d) business continuity and disaster recovery planning and resources;
(e) capacity and performance planning;
(f) appropriateness of systems (including the allocation of responsibilities between internal IT functions and reliance on third party systems);
(g) systems operations and availability concerns;
(h) systems and network security;
(i) systems and application development and quality assurance;
(j) physical security and environmental controls;
(k) customer data privacy;
(l) vendor and third-party service provider management;
(m) incident response; and
(n) arrangements and methods for periodically reviewing and evaluating the effectiveness of the systems.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must inform the AFSA immediately if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that a significant breach by any Person of its cyber-security policy may have occurred or may be about to occur.
(4) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must consider the impact of any outsourcing arrangements, as well as the interoperability risks when dealing with systems and software provided by third parties.
(5) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure all staff receive appropriate training in relation to cybersecurity.
2.4.5. On-going monitoring
For the purposes of meeting the requirement in DAA 2.4.1, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have adequate procedures and arrangements for the evaluation, selection and on-going maintenance and monitoring of IT systems. Such procedures and arrangements must, at a minimum, provide for:
(a) incident and problem management and system change;
(b) testing IT systems before live operations in accordance with the requirements in DAA 2.4.6. and 2.4.7;
(c) real time monitoring and reporting on system performance, availability and integrity; and
(d) adequate measures to ensure:
(i) the IT systems are resilient and not prone to failure;
(ii) business continuity in the event that an IT system fails;
(iii) protection of the IT systems from damage, tampering, misuse or unauthorised access; and
(iv) the integrity of data forming part of, or being processed through, IT systems.
2.4.6. Testing of technology systems
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must, before commencing live operation of its IT systems or any updates thereto, use development and testing methodologies in line with internationally accepted testing standards in order to test the viability and effectiveness of such systems. For this purpose, the testing must be adequate for the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator to obtain reasonable assurance that, as a minimum, the systems:
(a) enable it to comply with all the applicable requirements on an on-going basis;
(b) can continue to operate effectively in stressed market conditions;
(c) have sufficient electronic capacity to accommodate reasonably foreseeable volumes of messaging and orders;
(d) are adequately scalable in emergency conditions that might threaten the orderly and proper operations of its facility; and
(e) embed any risk management controls, such as generating automatic error reports, which work as intended.
2.4.7. Testing relating to Members’ technology systems
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must implement standardised conformance testing procedures. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that the systems which its Members are using to access facilities operated by it have a minimum level of functionality that is compatible with its IT systems and will not pose any threat to fair and orderly conduct of its facility.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must also require its Members, before commencing live operation of any electronic trading system, user interface or a trading algorithm, including any updates to such arrangements, to use adequate development and testing methodologies to test the viability and effectiveness of their systems, to include system resilience and security.
(3) The requirements in (1) and (2) do not apply to the Member of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator if the Member is a Body Corporate or an individual (natural person) that carries out the activity solely as principal.
2.4.8. Regular review of systems and controls
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must undertake at least an annual review of its IT systems and controls as appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of its operations, the diversity of its operations, the volume and size of transactions, and the level of risk inherent with its business
(2) For the purposes of (1), a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must adopt well defined and clearly documented development and testing methodologies which are in line with internationally accepted testing standards.
(3) After the review is complete, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must promptly remedy any deficiencies discovered during the review and keep a record of the review and its findings for a period of 6 years from the review. This record must be provided promptly to the AFSA on request.
2.4.9. Mandatory third-party audit of technology governance and IT systems
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is required to undergo a qualified independent third-party technology governance and IT audit to conduct vulnerability assessments and penetration testing at least on an annual basis.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must provide the results of technology governance and IT assessments and tests to the AFSA on its request.
(3) The AFSA may publish a list of requirements that should be met by qualified auditors who conduct independent third-party technology governance and IT audit.
Guidance:
Credentials which indicate a qualified independent third-party auditor is suitable to conduct audit of technology governance and IT systems may include:
(1) designation as a Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) or Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA); or
(2) designation as a Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC); or
(3) accreditation by a recognised and reputable body to certify compliance with relevant ISO/IEC 27000 series standards; or
(4) accreditation by the relevant body to certify compliance with the Kazakhstani standards in the area of information (cyber) security.
2.4.10. Systems and controls
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that it has appropriate systems and controls to address the risks to its business. Such systems and controls should be developed considering such factors as the nature, scale and complexity of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s business, the diversity of its operations, the volume and size of transactions, and the level of risk inherent with its business.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must, as a minimum, have in place systems and controls with respect to the procedures describing the creation, management and control of Digital wallets and private keys, as well as the infrastructure to deal with updates and technological changes such as forks.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have adequate systems and controls to enable it to calculate and monitor its capital resources and its compliance with the requirements in DAA 2.2.(2). The systems and controls must be in writing and must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s business and its risk profile.
(4) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have due regard to its obligations to keen data secure, including the safe storage and transmission of data in accordance with clear protocols.
2.4.11. Technology governance
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must, as a minimum, have in place systems and controls with respect to the following:
(a) Procedures describing the creation, management and controls of Digital wallets, including:
(i) wallet setup/configuration/deployment/deletion/backup and recovery;
(ii) wallet access management;
(iii) wallet user management;
(iv) wallet rules and limit determination, review and update; and
(v) wallet audit and oversight.
(b) Procedures describing the creation, management and controls of private and public keys, including, as applicable:
(i) private key generation;
(ii) private key exchange;
(iii) private key storage;
(iv) private key backup;
(v) private key destruction;
(vi) private key access management;
(vii) public key sharing; and
(viii) public key re-use.
(c) Systems and controls to mitigate the risk of misuse of Digital Assets and money laundering and terrorist financing risks, setting out how:
(i) the origin of Digital Assets is determined, in case of an incoming transaction; and
(ii) the destination of Digital Assets is determined, in case of an outgoing transaction.
(d) A security plan describing the security arrangements relating to:
(i) the privacy of sensitive data;
(ii) networks and systems;
(iii) cloud based services;
(iv) physical facilities; and
(v) documents, and document storage.
(e) A risk management plan containing a detailed analysis of likely risks with both high and low impact, as well as mitigation strategies. The risk management plan must cover, but is not limited to:
(i) operational risks;
(ii) technology risks, including ‘hacking’ related risks;
(iii) market risk for each Digital Asset; and
(iv) risk of Financial Crime.
2.5. Requirements applicable to a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator
2.5.1. Business Rules, Membership Rules and Admission to Trading Rules
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must prepare Business Rules, Admission to Trading Rules, and Membership Rules (the “DATF Operator’s Rules”).
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must seek prior approval of any of the DATF Operator’s Rules and of amendments to any of its Rules by obtaining approval of the AFSA.
(3) Members and Clients of a Digital Asset Trading Facility must be notified at least 10 days before approved by the AFSA amendments are introduced to the relevant rules of the DATF Operator.
2.5.2. Content of Business Rules
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s Business Rules must:
(a) be based on objective criteria;
(b) be non-discriminatory;
(c) be clear, fair and not misleading;
(d) set out the Members’ and other participants’ obligations:
(i) arising from the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s constitution and other administrative arrangements;
(ii) when undertaking transactions on its facility; and
(iii) relating to professional standards that must be imposed on staff and agents of the Members and other participants when undertaking transactions on its facility;
(e) be made publicly available free of charge;
(f) contain provisions for the resolution of Members’ and other participants’ disputes and an appeal process for the decisions of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, whether by an independent internal body or otherwise; and
(g) contain disciplinary procedures, including any sanctions that may be imposed by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator against its Members and other participants.
2.5.3. Monitoring and enforcing compliance with Business Rules
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its Business Rules including procedures for:
(a) prompt investigation of complaints made to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator about the conduct of Persons in the course of using the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility; and
(b) where appropriate, disciplinary action resulting in financial and other types of penalties.
2.5.4. Financial penalties
If arrangements made pursuant to DAA 2.5.3. include provision for requiring the payment of financial penalties, they must include arrangements for ensuring that any amount so paid is applied only in one or more of the following ways:
(a) towards meeting expenses incurred by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator in the course of the investigation of the breach or course of conduct in respect of which the penalty is paid, or in the course of any appeal against the decision of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator in relation to that breach or course of conduct; or
(b) for the benefit of Members and Clients of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator's facility.
2.5.5. Appeals
Arrangements made pursuant to DAA 2.5.3. must include provision for fair, independent and impartial resolution of appeals against decisions of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
2.5.6. Membership Rules
The Membership Rules of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must specify the obligations imposed on Members and Clients of its facility arising from:
(a) the constitution and administration of the facility;
(b) where appropriate rules relating to transactions using its facilities;
(c) admission criteria for Members, which must comply with DAA 2.6.2;
(d) where appropriate rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions; and
(e) where appropriate rules and procedures for the prevention of Market Abuse, money laundering and Financial Crime.
2.5.7. Admission to Trading Rules
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must make clear and transparent rules concerning the admission of Digital Assets to trading on its facility.
(2) The Admission to Trading Rules of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that Digital Assets admitted to trading on a facility of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator are:
(a) capable of being traded in a fair, orderly and efficient manner; and
(b) freely negotiable.
2.6. Membership
2.6.1. Persons eligible for Membership
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may only admit as a Member a Person who satisfies the admission criteria set out in its Membership Rules and which is:
(a) an Authorised Firm whose Licence permits it to carry out the Regulated Activities of Dealing in Investments as Principal or Dealing in Investments as Agent;
(b) a Recognised Non-AIFC Member; or
(c) a Body Corporate or an individual (natural person) which carries out the activity solely for its own investment purposes, where such trading does not constitute Dealing in Investments as Principal by way of business.
2.6.2. Admission criteria
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that access to its facility is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors generally.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may only give access to or admit to membership a Person who:
(a) is fit and proper and of good repute;
(b) if applicable, has a sufficient level of ability, competence and experience, including appropriate standards of conduct for its staff; and
(c) if applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, including financial and technological resources.
(3) In assessing whether access to a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors, the AFSA may have regard to whether:
(a) the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator limits access as a Member to such Persons:
(i) over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;
(ii) who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities; and
(iii) if appropriate, who have adequate financial resources in relation to their exposure to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(b) indirect access to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility is subject to suitable criteria, remains the responsibility of a Member of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and is subject to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s rules; and
(c) the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s rules:
(i) set out the design and operation of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s relevant systems;
(ii) set out the risk for Members and Clients when accessing and using the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facilities;
(iii) contain provisions for the resolution of Members’ and Clients’ disputes and an appeal process for the decisions of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(iv) contain disciplinary proceedings, including any sanctions that may be imposed by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator against its Members and Clients; and
(v) set out other matters necessary for the proper functioning of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and the facilities operated by it.
2.6.3. List of Members and Clients
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must be able to provide the AFSA with a list of Members and Clients of its facility on the AFSA’s request.
2.6.4. Undertaking to comply with AFSA rules
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may not admit a Recognised Non-AIFC Member as a Member unless:
(a) the Recognised Non-AIFC Member agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AFSA in relation to any matters which arise out of or which relate to its use of the facility of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(b) the Recognised Non-AIFC Member agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC Court in relation to any disputes, or other proceedings in the AIFC, which arise out of or relate to its use of the facility of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(c) the Recognised Non-AIFC Member agrees in writing to subject itself to the Acting Law of the AIFC in relation to its use of the facility of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator; and
(d) where the Recognised Non-AIFC Member is incorporated outside the Republic of Kazakhstan, appoints and maintains at all times, an agent for service of process in the AIFC.
2.7. Direct Electronic Access
2.7.1. Direct Electronic Access to the facility
For the purposes of these Rules, Direct Electronic Access means any arrangement, such as the use of the Member's trading code, through which a Member or the Clients of that Member are able to transmit electronically orders relating to Digital Assets directly to the facility provided by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and includes arrangements which involve the use by a Person of the infrastructure of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator or the Member or Client or any connecting system provided by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator or Member or Client, to transmit the orders and arrangements where such an infrastructure is not used by a Person.
Guidance:
A Person who is permitted to have Direct Electronic Access to a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator's facility through a Member is not, by virtue of such permission, a Member of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
2.7.2. Permitting Members that are Body Corporates to provide Direct Electronic Access to Clients
(1) This rule applies if a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator proposes to permit a Member that is a Body Corporate to provide its Clients Direct Electronic Access to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may permit a Member to provide its Clients Direct Electronic Access to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility only if:
(a) the Clients meet the suitability criteria established by the Member in order to meet the requirements in DAA 2.7.3;
(b) the Member retains responsibility for the orders and trades executed by its Clients who are using Direct Electronic Access; and
(c) the Member has adequate mechanisms to prevent its Clients placing or executing orders using Direct Electronic Access in a manner that would result in the Member exceeding its position or margin limits.
2.7.3. Criteria, standards and arrangements for providing Direct Electronic Access to Clients of Members that are Body Corporates
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator which permits its Members to provide its Clients Direct Electronic Access to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility under DAA 2.7.2. must:
(a) set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through Direct Electronic Access;
(b) be able to identify orders and trades made through Direct Electronic Access; and
(c) if necessary, be able to stop orders or trades made by a Client using Direct Electronic Access provided by the Member without affecting the other orders or trades made or executed by that Member.
(2) A Client who is permitted to have Direct Electronic Access to a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility through a Member is not, by virtue of such permission, a Member of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator. However, such Client is subject to the jurisdiction of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
(3) In determining whether a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has adequate arrangements to permit Direct Electronic Access to its facility and to prevent and resolve problems likely to arise from the use of electronic systems to provide indirect access to its facility to Persons other than the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s Members, the AFSA may have regard to:
(a) the rules and guidance governing Members’ procedures, controls and security arrangements for inputting instructions into the system;
(b) the rules and guidance governing the facilities that Members provide to their Clients to input instructions into the system and the restrictions placed on the use of those systems;
(c) the rules and practices to detect, identify, and halt or remove instructions breaching any relevant restrictions;
(d) the quality and completeness of the audit trail of a transaction processed through an electronic connection system;
(e) the systems and controls in place to monitor compliance with applicable law and regulation, cybersecurity requirements, as well as prevention of money laundering, Market Abuse and other Financial Crime; and
(f) the procedures in place to determine whether to suspend trading by Direct Electronic Access systems generally or access to those systems by or through individual Members.
2.7.4. Criteria, standards and arrangements for giving Direct Electronic Access to Members who are individuals (natural persons)
(1) This rule applies if a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator proposes to give to a Member who is an individual (natural person) Direct Electronic Access to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that:
(a) its rules clearly set out:
(i) the duties owed by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator to its Members with Direct Electronic Access, and how the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is held accountable for any failure to fulfil those duties; and
(ii) the duties owed by the Members with Direct Electronic Access to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and how such Members are held accountable for any failure to fulfil those duties;
(b) appropriate investor redress mechanisms are available, in accordance with COB Chapter 15, and disclosed to Members permitted to trade Digital Assets on its facility; and
(c) its facility contains a prominent disclosure of the risks associated with trading and clearing Digital Assets.
(3) Without limiting the generality of the systems and controls obligations of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have adequate systems and controls to address market integrity, AML and CTF, and investor protection risks in giving Direct Electronic Access to a Member, to trade on its facility, including procedures to:
(a) ensure that appropriate customer due diligence sufficient to address AML and CTF risks has been conducted on each Member, before permitting the Member to trade on its facility, and that such due diligence is updated periodically on an ongoing basis, and at least quarterly, after the establishment of relations with a Member;
(b) detect and address potential market manipulation and abuse; and
(c) ensure that there is adequate disclosure relating to the Digital Assets that are traded on the facility, including as regards any particular risks in relation to such.
(4) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must maintain written policies and procedures to evidence compliance with the requirements of DAA 2.7.4(3).
(5) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have adequate controls and procedures to ensure that trading Digital Assets by Members with Direct Electronic Access does not pose any risks to the orderly and efficient functioning of the facility’s trading system, including controls and procedures to:
(a) mitigate counterparty risks that may arise from defaults by such Members through adequate collateral management measures, such as margin requirements, based on the settlement cycle adopted by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(b) identify and distinguish orders that are placed by such Members, and, if necessary, enable the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator to stop orders of, or trading by, such Members;
(c) prevent such Members from allowing access to unauthorised Persons to trade on the trading facility; and
(d) ensure that such Members fully comply with the rules of the facility and promptly address any gaps and deficiencies that are identified.
(6) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have adequate resources and systems to carry out frontline monitoring of the trading activities of Members with Direct Electronic Access.
2.8. Admission of Digital Assets to trading
2.8.1. Application for admission of Digital Assets to trading
(1) Applications for the admission of a Digital Asset to trading can be made to a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator by:
(a) an issuer of a Digital Asset;
(b) a third party on behalf of and with the consent of an issuer of a Digital Asset; or
(c) a Member of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
(2) A Digital Asset can be admitted to trading on the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s own initiative.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must, before admitting any Digital Asset to trading:
(a) be satisfied that the applicable requirements, including those in its Admission to Trading Rules, have been or will be fully complied with in respect of such Digital Asset; and
(b) obtain approval of the AFSA in respect of Fiat and Commodity stablecoins, except for stablecoins issued by the Digital Asset Service Providers holding the relevant Licence.
(4) For the purposes of (1), a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must notify an applicant in writing of its decision in relation to the application for admission of the Digital Asset to trading.
(5) For the purposes of 3(b), an application to the AFSA by a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must include:
(a) a copy of the admission application; and
(b) any other information requested by the AFSA.
2.8.2. Admission criteria
(1) For the purposes of 2.8.1(3)(b), a Digital Asset can be admitted to trading on the Operator’s facility if the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is satisfied that:
(a) having considered the matters in (2), the Digital Asset is suitable for use in the AIFC;
(b) the Digital Asset is not prohibited for use in the AIFC; and
(c) for a Fiat or Commodity stablecoin, all of the requirements in (4) or (5) as applicable are met in respect of that Fiat or Commodity stablecoin (and conditions (a) and (b) above are met).
(2) The matters referred to in (1)(a), which the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator considers, are:
(a) the regulatory status of the relevant Digital Asset in other jurisdictions, including whether it has been assessed or approved for use in another jurisdiction, and the extent to which the laws and regulations of that jurisdiction are equivalent to the requirements of the AFSA;
(b) whether there is adequate transparency relating to the Digital Asset and underlying blockchain, including sufficient detail about its purpose, protocols, consensus mechanism, governance arrangements, founders, key persons, miners and significant holders;
(c) the size (the market capitalisation), liquidity and volatility of the market for the Digital Asset globally;
(d) whether there is a total limit (cap) for the issuance of Digital Asset;
(e) the controls/processes to manage volatility of a particular Digital Asset (tokenomics);
(f) the adequacy and suitability of the technology used in connection with the Digital Asset; and
(g) whether risks associated with the Digital Asset are adequately mitigated, including risks relating to governance, legal and regulatory issues, cybersecurity, money laundering, Market Abuse and other
Financial Crime;
(h) whether a Digital Asset is traceable;
(i) whether there are any issues relating to the security or usability of a DLT used for the purposes of a Digital Asset; and
(j) whether a DLT and smart contract (if any) have been stress tested or subject to independent audit.
(3) In assessing the matters in (2), the AFSA may consider the cumulative effect of factors which, if taken individually, may be regarded as insufficient to give reasonable cause to doubt that the criteria in (1)(a) is satisfied.
(4) In the case of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin backed by a reserve, the additional criteria referred to in (1)(c) are that:
(a) information is published at least quarterly on the value and composition of the reserves backing the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin;
(b) the published information referred to in (4)(a) is verified by a suitably qualified third-party professional who is independent of the issuer of the Digital Asset and any persons responsible for the Digital Asset;
(c) the published information referred to in (4)(a) demonstrates that the reserves in respect of Fiat stablecoins:
(i) are at least equal in value to the notional value of outstanding Digital Assets in circulation (that value being calculated by multiplying the number of Digital Assets in circulation by the purported pegged Fiat Currency value);
(ii) are denominated in the reference currency; and
(iii) are held in segregated accounts with properly regulated banks or custodians in jurisdictions with regulation that is equivalent to the AFSA’s regime and AML regulation that is equivalent to the
standards set out in the FATF Recommendations;
(d) the Digital Asset is able to maintain a stable price relative to the Fiat Currency or Commodity stablecoin it references; and
(e) a Person is clearly responsible and liable to investors for the Digital Asset.
(5) If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator decides to admit a Digital Asset to trading, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is required to notify the AFSA 10 days prior to the date of the admission of the Digital Asset to trading.
2.8.3. Events or developments affecting the Digital Asset
(1) If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator becomes aware of any significant event or development that reasonably suggests that the Digital Asset no longer meets the criteria in DAA 2.8.2 for it to be admitted to trading, it must immediately suspend or withdraw a Digital Asset from trading.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that, where it seeks to offer services in relation to the Digital Asset associated with the new version of an underlying protocol (“hard fork”), this new Digital Asset meets the requirements in DAA 2.8.2.
2.8.4. Publication of key features document
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may permit a Digital Asset to trading only if it has published a key features document on its website about the Digital Asset.
(2) The key features document must include the following if known (or, if not known, after having taken reasonable steps to determine this information, a clear statement must be provided that such information is not known):
(a) information about the issuer and the individuals responsible for designing the Digital Asset;
(b) characteristics of the Digital Asset, including rights attaching to the Digital Asset and any project or venture to be funded in connection with the Digital Asset (if relevant);
(c) details of Persons responsible for performing obligations associated with the Digital Asset and details of where and against whom rights conferred by the Digital Asset may be exercised;
(d) information on the underlying DLT or similar technology used for the Digital Asset, including details of the technology that is used to issue, store or transfer the Digital Asset and any interoperability with other DLT;
(e) information on the underlying technology used by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, as relevant to making a decision to participate in the Digital Asset, including information on relevant protocols and technical standards adhered to;
(f) details about how ownership of the Digital Asset is established, certified or otherwise evidenced (to the extent relevant);
(g) how the Digital Asset will be valued by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, and an explanation of how this is carried out and what benchmarks, indices or third parties relied on;
(h) the risks relating to the volatility and unpredictability of the price of the Digital Asset;
(i) in the case of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin based on reserves, details about the reserves backing that Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin and the stabilisation and redemption mechanisms;
(j) cyber-security risks associated with the Digital Asset or its underlying technology, including whether there is a risk of loss of the Digital Asset in the event of a cyberattack, and details of steps that have been taken, or can be taken, to mitigate those risks;
(k) the risks relating to fraud, hacking and Financial Crime;
(l) any other information relevant to the Digital Asset that would reasonably assist the Client to understand the Digital Asset and whether to participate in the Digital Asset, or otherwise use the service(s) being offered to the Client.
Guidance:
The Digital Asset white paper is a document outlining the main economic and technical aspects of a specific Digital Asset. The key features document is a document outlining the main characteristics of the Digital Asset in a simple format to provide potential investors with the aims and benefits of the Digital Asset, along with the relevant risks and limitations. The content of the Digital Asset white paper and key features document should not conflict each other.
2.8.5. Risk warnings
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must display prominently on its website the following risk warnings relating to Digital Assets:
(a) (except in the case of a Central Bank Digital Currency) that Digital Assets are not legal tender or backed by a government;
(b) that Digital Assets are subject to extreme volatility and the value of the Digital Asset can fall quickly (including, in respect of a stablecoin, if it loses its stability peg);
(c) that an investor in Digital Assets may lose all, or part, of the value of their investment;
(d) that Digital Assets may not always be liquid or transferable;
(e) that investments in Digital Assets may be complex making it hard to understand the risks associated with participating in them;
(f) that Digital Assets can be stolen because of cyber attacks;
(g) that trading in Digital Assets is susceptible to irrational market forces;
(h) there being limited or, in some cases, no mechanisms for the recovery of lost or stolen Digital Assets;
(i) the risks of Digital Assets with regard to anonymity, irreversibility of transactions, accidental transactions, transaction recording, and settlement;
(j) that the nature of Digital Assets means that technological difficulties experienced by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator or relevant Member may prevent access to or use of a Client’s Digital Assets;
(k) that participating in Digital Assets is not comparable to participating in traditional investments such as Securities; and
(l) that there is no recognised compensation scheme to provide an avenue of redress for aggrieved participants.
(2) Where a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator presents any marketing or educational materials and other communications relating to a Digital Asset on a website, in the general media or as part of a distribution made to existing or potential new Clients, it must include the risk warning referred to in DAA 2.8.5 (1) in a prominent place at or near the top of each page of the materials or communication.
(3) If the material referred to in DAA 2.8.5 (1) is provided on a website or an application that can be downloaded to a mobile device, the warning must be:
(a) statically fixed and visible at the top of the screen even when a person scrolls up or down the webpage; and
(b) included on each linked webpage on the website.
2.8.6. Undertaking to comply with the Acting Law of the AIFC
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may not admit a Digital Asset to trading unless the Person who seeks to have Digital Assets admitted to trading:
(a) gives an enforceable undertaking to the AFSA to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC in relation to any matters which arise out of or which relate to its use of the facilities of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(b) agrees in writing to submit unconditionally to the jurisdiction of the AIFC Court in relation to any disputes, or other proceedings in the AIFC, which arise out of or relate to its use of the facilities of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator; and
(c) agrees in writing to subject itself to the Acting Law of the AIFC in relation to its use of the facilities of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
2.8.7. Review of compliance
The Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must maintain arrangements to semi-annually review whether the Digital Assets admitted to trading on its facilities comply with the Admission to Trading Rules.
2.8.8. Admission of Digital Asset Derivatives
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may admit Digital Asset Derivatives to trading if it has obtained the AFSA’s approval to do so.
(2) The AFSA may grant its approval under (1) only if it is satisfied that a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has appropriate systems and controls and policies and procedures to determine the appropriateness of Retail Clients to be offered Digital Asset Derivatives.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator that intends to offer Digital Asset Derivatives to Retail Clients must carry out an appropriateness test of a Retail Client and form a reasonable view that the Retail Client has:
(a) adequate skills and expertise to understand the risks involved in trading Digital Asset Derivatives; and
(b) the ability to absorb potentially significant losses resulting from trading in Digital Asset Derivatives.
(4) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must maintain records of the appropriateness test that it carries out in respect of each Retail Client and make such records available to the AFSA on request.
(5) If it considers appropriate, the AFSA may restrict or prohibit the trading of Digital Asset Derivatives for certain types of Clients.
Guidance:
(1) To form a reasonable view referred to in DAA 2.8.8.(3) in relation to a Person, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator should consider issues such as whether the Person:
(a) has sufficient knowledge and experience relating to the type of a Digital Asset Derivative offered, having regard to such factors as:
(i) how often and in what volumes that Person has traded in the relevant type of a Digital Asset Derivative; and
(ii) the Person’s relevant qualifications, profession or former profession;
(b) understands the characteristics and risks relating to Digital Asset Derivatives, and the volatility of the prices of Digital Asset Derivatives;
(c) understands the potential impact of leverage, due to which, there is potential to make significant losses in trading in Digital Asset Derivatives; and
(d) has the ability, particularly in terms of net assets and liquidity available to the Person, to absorb and manage any losses that may result from trading in the Digital Asset Derivatives offered.
(2) To be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that it complies with DAA 2.8.8.(3), a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator should have in place systems and controls that include:
(a) pre-determined and clear criteria against which a Retail Client’s ability to trade in Digital Asset Derivatives can be assessed;
(b) adequate records to demonstrate that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has undertaken the appropriateness test for each Retail Client; and
(c) in the case of an existing Retail Client with whom the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has previously traded in Digital Asset Derivatives, procedures to undertake a fresh appropriateness test on at least an annual basis, and if:
(i) a new Digital Asset Derivative with a materially different risk profile is offered to the Retail Client; or
(ii) there has been a material change in the Retail Client’s circumstances.
(3) If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator forms the view that it is not appropriate for a Person to trade in Digital Asset Derivatives, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator should refrain from offering that service to the Person. As a matter of good practice, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator should inform the Person of such decision.
2.9. Suspending or removing Digital Assets from trading
2.9.1. Power to suspend or remove a Digital Asset from trading
(1) The rules of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must provide that it has the power to suspend or remove from trading on its facility any Digital Assets with immediate effect or from such date and time as may be specified where it is satisfied that there are circumstances that warrant such action, or it is in the interests of the AIFC.
(2) The AFSA may direct a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator to suspend or remove Digital Assets from trading with immediate effect or from such date and time as may be specified by the AFSA if it is satisfied there are circumstances that:
(a) warrant such action, or
(b) it is in the interests of the AIFC.
(3) The AFSA may withdraw a direction made under (2) at any time.
(4) Digital Assets that are suspended from trading must remain admitted to trading for the purposes of this Chapter.
(5) The AFSA may prescribe any additional requirements or procedures relating to the removal or suspension of Digital Assets from or restoration of Digital Assets to trading.
2.9.2. Limitation on power to suspend or remove Digital Assets from trading
The rules of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must contain provisions for orderly suspension and removal from trading on its facility of any Digital Asset which no longer complies with its rules, considering the interests of investors and the orderly functioning of the financial market of the AIFC.
2.9.3. Publication of decision
(1) Where the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator suspends or removes any Digital Asset from trading on its facility, it must notify the AFSA in advance and make that decision public by issuing a public notice on its website.
(2) Where the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator lifts a suspension or re-admits any Digital Asset to trading on its facility, it must notify the AFSA in advance and make that decision public by issuing a public notice on its website.
(3) Where a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has made any decisions on admission, suspension, or removal of Digital Assets from trading on its facility, it must have adequate procedures for notifying Members and Clients of such decisions.
2.10. Transparency obligations
2.10.1. Pre-trade disclosure
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must disclose to its Members and Clients the following information relating to trading of Digital Assets on its facility:
(a) the current bid and offer prices, and volume of Digital Assets traded on its systems on a continuous basis during normal trading hours;
(b) the depth of trading interest shown at the prices and volumes advertised through its systems for the Digital Assets;
(c) the methods of communication to be used between the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and its Members and Clients;
(d) the languages in which the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and its Members and Clients may communicate;
(e) a statement that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has the appropriate Licence to operate, and the details of that Licence;
(f) a description, which may be in summary form, of any conflicts of interest which may arise in relation to potential transaction, and how the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator will manage these to ensure the fair treatment of Members and Clients;
(g) any cancellation or withdrawal rights that Members and Clients may have;
(h) any rights of Members and Clients may or may not have to terminate a trade early or unilaterally under the terms of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facilities, including whether any fees or costs may be imposed in connection with exercising such a right;
(i) any specific technological requirements that the Members and Clients must have in place in order to use the Digital Asset Trading Facility; and
(j) any other information relating to Digital Assets which would materially promote transparency for Members and Clients relating to trading.
(2) The AFSA may waive or modify the disclosure requirement in DAA 2.10.1 (a) and (b) in relation to certain transactions where the order size is predetermined, exceeds a pre-set and published threshold level and details of the exemption are made available to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s Members and the public.
(3) In assessing whether an exemption from pre-trade disclosure is allowed in relation to in DAA 2.10.1 (a) and (b), the AFSA would regard to such factors as:
(a) the level of an order threshold compared with the normal market size for the Digital Asset;
(b) the impact such an exemption would have on price discovery, fragmentation, fairness and overall market quality;
(c) whether there is sufficient transparency relating to trades executed without pre-trade disclosure (as a result of orders executed on execution platforms without pre-trade transparency), whether or not they are entered in transparent markets;
(d) whether the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator supports transparent orders by giving a priority to transparent orders over dark orders, for example, by executing such orders at the same price as transparent orders; and
(e) whether there is adequate disclosure of details relating to dark orders available to Members and other participants on the Digital Asset Trading Facility to enable them to understand the manner in which their orders are handled and executed on the Digital Asset Trading Facility.
(4) When making disclosure, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must adopt a technical mechanism showing differentiations between transactions that have been recorded in the central order book and transactions that have been reported to the Digital Asset Trading Facility as off-order book transactions. Any transactions that have been cancelled pursuant to its rules must also be identifiable.
(5) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must use appropriate mechanisms to enable pre-trade information to be made available to Members and Clients in an easy to access and uninterrupted manner at least during normal trading hours.
2.10.2. Post-Trade Disclosure
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must disclose the price, volume and time of the transactions effected in respect of Digital Assets to Members and Clients involved in the relevant transaction as close to real-time as is technically possible on a non-discretionary basis. The Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must use adequate mechanisms to enable post-trade information to be made available to Members and Clients involved in the relevant transaction in an easy to access and uninterrupted manner at least during business hours.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must provide price, volume, time and counterparty details to the AFSA within 24 hours of the close of each trading day via a secure electronic feed.
2.10.3. Public notice of suspended or terminated Membership
The Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must promptly issue a public notice on its website in respect of any Member that has a Licence to carry out the Regulated Activities whose Membership is suspended or terminated.
2.10.4. Cooperation with office-holder
The Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the AFSA, any relevant office-holder and any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of, or connected with, the default of a Member of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
2.10.5. Forums
If a Digital Asset trading Facility Operator provides a means of communication (a “forum”) for Members and Clients to discuss Digital Assets, it must:
(a) include a clear and prominent warning on the forum informing Members and Clients that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator does not conduct due diligence on information on the forum;
(b) restrict the posting of comments on the forum to Digital Asset Trading Facility Members and Clients;
(c) ensure that all Members and Clients of the forum have equal access to information posted on the forum;
(d) require a person posting a comment on the forum to disclose clearly if he is affiliated in any way with a Digital Asset or is being compensated, directly or indirectly, to promote a Digital Asset;
(e) take reasonable steps to monitor and prevent posts on the forum that are potentially misleading or fraudulent or may contravene the Market Abuse provisions (Chapter 5 of the MAR);
(f) immediately take steps to remove a post, or to require a post to be deleted or amended, if the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator becomes aware that (d) or (e) have not been complied with; and
(g) not participate in discussions on the forum except to moderate posts or to take steps referred to in (f).
2.11. Clients
2.11.1. Clients of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator
Members of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and their clients are Clients of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
2.11.2. Investment limits
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must maintain effective systems and controls to ensure that a Retail Client, who is a resident of the Republic of Kazakhstan, complies with any requirements and limits imposed by the Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC.
2.11.3. Calculation of an individual Client’s net assets
(1) For the purposes of calculating an individual Client’s net assets to treat him as an Assessed Professional Client under Rule 2.5.1(a) of the COB, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator:
(a) must exclude the value of the primary residence of the Client;
(b) must exclude Digital Assets belonging to the Client that are not admitted to trading;
(c) must include only 30% of the market value of a Digital Asset admitted to trading, which belongs to the Client, but must include 100% of the market value of Fiat and Commodity stablecoin backed by reserves, which belong to the Client; and
(d) may include any other assets held directly or indirectly by that Client.
2.11.4. Additional information for Providing Custody of Digital Assets
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator Providing Custody of Digital Assets must include in the Client Agreement:
(a) a breakdown of all fees and charges payable for a transfer of Digital Assets (a “transfer”) and when they are charged;
(b) the information required to carry out a transfer;
(c) the form and procedures for giving consent to a transfer;
(d) an indication of the time it will normally take to carry out a transfer;
(e) details of when a transfer will be considered to be complete;
(f) how, and in what form, information and communications relating to transfer services will be provided to the Client, including the timing and frequency of communications and the language used and technical requirements for the Client’s equipment and software to receive the communications;
(g) clear policies and procedures relating to unauthorised or incorrectly executed transfers, including when the Client is and is not entitled to redress;
(h) clear policies and procedures relating to situations where the holding or transfer of Digital Assets may have been compromised, such as if there has been hacking, theft or fraud; and
(i) details of the procedures the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator will follow to contact the Client if there has been suspected or actual hacking, theft or fraud.
2.11.5. Provision of prompt confirmation to Clients
(1) Prior to execution of each transaction in Digital Assets, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must confirm with its Clients the following terms:
(a) name of the Digital Asset in the proposed transaction, as well as any other identifying details required to be clear of the exact version of the Digital Asset subject to the proposed transaction;
(b) amount or value of the proposed transaction;
(c) fees and charges to be borne by the Client that are charged by or via the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, including applicable exchange rates; and
(d) a warning that once executed the transaction may not be undone.
(2) After a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator has effected a transaction for a Client, it must confirm promptly with the Client the essential features of the transaction. The following information should be included:
(a) name of the Digital Asset in the transaction, as well as any other identifying details required to be clear of the exact version of the Digital Asset;
(b) amount or value of the transaction; and
(c) fees and charges borne by the Client that are charged by or via the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, including applicable exchange rates.
2.11.6. Provision of statements of account on request
If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator receives a request from a Client for a statement of account it must:
(a) prepare a statement of account in respect of the Client which includes the following information:
(i) the name, address and account number of the Client to whom the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is required to provide the statement of account;
(ii) the date on which the statement of account is prepared;
(iii) the outstanding balance of that account; and
(iv) the quantity, and, in so far as readily ascertainable, the market price and market value of each Client Digital Asset, held for that account.
(b) prepare the requested statement of account to the Client as soon as practicable after the date of the request.
2.12. Conflicts of interest
2.12.1. Conflicts of interest – core obligation
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must take reasonable steps, including the maintenance of adequate systems and controls, governance and internal policies and procedures, to ensure that the performance of its regulatory functions and obligations is not adversely affected by its commercial interests.
Guidance: regulatory functions of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator
The regulatory functions of a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator include, as appropriate:
• its obligations to monitor and enforce compliance with its Business Rules, Admission to Trading Rules, and Membership Rules;
• its obligation to prevent, detect and report Market Abuse or Financial Crime, as well as to comply with applicable laws and regulations generally; and
• its obligations in respect of admission of Digital Assets to trading or to clearing.
2.12.2. Conflicts of interest – identification and management
For the purposes of compliance with DAA 2.12.1, a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must:
(a) identify conflicts between the interests of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator, its shareholders, owners and operators and the interests of the Persons who make use of its facilities operated by it; and
(b) manage and disclose such conflicts so as to avoid adverse consequences for the sound functioning and operation of the facilities operated by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and for the Persons who make use of its them.
2.12.3. Personal account transactions
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must establish and maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure that its Employees do not undertake personal account transactions in Digital Assets in a manner that creates or has the potential to create conflicts of interest or otherwise create a risk of Market Abuse or Financial Crime.
2.12.4. Conflicts of interest – code of conduct
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must establish a code of conduct that sets out the expected standards of behaviour for its Employees, including clear procedures for addressing (potential) conflicts of interest. Such a code must be binding on all of its Employees.
2.13. Other requirements and obligations
2.13.1. Measures to prevent, detect and report Market Abuse or Financial Crime2.13.1. Measures to prevent, detect and report Market Abuse or Financial Crime
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must:
(a) ensure that appropriate measures (including the monitoring of transactions effected on or through the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility) are adopted to reduce the extent to which the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facility can be used for a purpose connected with Market Abuse, Financial Crime or money laundering, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence; and
(b) immediately report to the AFSA any suspected Market Abuse, Financial Crime or money laundering, along with full details of that information in writing.
2.13.2. Whistleblowing
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have appropriate procedures and protections for its Employees to disclose any information to the AFSA in a manner which does not expose them to any disadvantage or discrimination as a result of so doing.
2.13.3. Lending and staking
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must not offer or provide any facility or service that allows a Member or another user of its facility to lend a Digital Asset to another Person unless it is reasonably satisfied that the Member or user is a Professional Client.
(2) The prohibition in (1) does not apply to the provision of any Digital Asset to an Authorised Firm as Collateral.
2.13.4. Trading of Digital Assets
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must establish and maintain policies and procedures relating to the trading process to detect and prevent (potential) errors, omissions, fraud, and other unauthorised or improper activities.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must execute a trade for a Client only if there are sufficient Fiat Currencies or Digital Assets, which are admitted to trading, in the Client’s account with the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator to cover that trade. This requirement does not apply to any off-platform transactions to be conducted by institutional investors which are settled intra-day.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator should not provide any financial assistance for its Clients to acquire Digital Assets. It should ensure, to the extent possible, that no Person within the same Group as the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator does so unless for exceptional circumstances which should be approved by the AFSA on a case-by-case basis.
2.13.5. Trading controls
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must put in place risk management and supervisory controls for the operation of its trading platform. These controls should include:
(a) automated pre-trade controls that are reasonably designed to:
(i) prevent the entry of any orders that would exceed appropriate position limits prescribed for each Member and Client;
(ii) alert the user to the entry of potential erroneous orders and prevent the entry of erroneous orders;
(iii) prevent the entry of orders which are not in compliance with regulatory requirements; and
(b) post-trade monitoring to reasonably identify any:
(i) suspicious market manipulative or abusive activities; and
(ii) market events or system deficiencies, such as unintended impact on the market, which call for further risk control measures.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must be able to:
(a) reject orders that exceed its pre-determined volume and price thresholds, or that are clearly erroneous;
(b) temporarily halt or constrain trading on its facility if necessary or desirable to maintain an orderly market; and
(c) cancel, vary, or correct any order resulting from an erroneous order entry or the malfunctioning of the system of a Member.
2.13.6. Settlement and clearing arrangements
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that satisfactory arrangements are made for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise), clearing and settlement of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s facilities (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions).
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that clearing and settlement of transactions on its facilities takes place only by means of Fiat Currencies or Digital Assets which are admitted to trading.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must take all reasonable steps to ensure that finality of settlement is achieved within 24 hours.
2.13.7. Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator Providing Custody of Digital Assets
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator which also carries out the Regulated Activity of Providing Custody of Digital Assets or Arranging Custody of Digital Assets must ensure that it complies with the requirements applicable to those Regulated Activities in addition to the requirements that apply by virtue of being a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator.
(2) Digital Assets held by a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator Providing Custody are not depository liabilities or assets of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and must be held on trust.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Providing Custody must segregate the Digital Assets of each Client in separate Digital wallets containing the Digital Assets of that Client only.
(4) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Providing Custody must maintain control of each Digital Asset at all times while Providing Custody.
(5) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator Providing Custody must:
(a) have appropriate rules, procedures, and controls, including robust accounting practices, to safeguard the rights of Digital Assets issuers and holders, prevent the unauthorised creation or deletion of Digital Assets, and conduct daily reconciliation of each Digital Asset balance it maintains for issuers and holders;
(b) prohibit overdrafts and credit balances in Digital Assets account;
(c) maintain Digital Assets in an immobilised or dematerialised form for their transfer by book entry;
(d) protect assets against custody risk through appropriate rules and procedures consistent with its legal framework;
(e) ensure segregation between its own assets and the Digital Assets of its participants, as well as keeping clear records regarding which Digital Assets belong to which participant; and
(f) identify, measure, monitor, and manage its risks from other activities that it may perform.
(6) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator acting as a Digital Asset Custodian must have systems and procedures to enable segregation and portability of the Clients’ assets.
(7) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must:
(a) have segregation and portability arrangements to effectively protect the Clients’ assets;
(b) structure portability arrangements in a way that ensures there is a high probability that the assets of one party will be transferred to another party; and
(c) disclose any constraints, including legal and operational constraints, that may impair its ability to segregate or port the Clients’ assets.
2.13.8. Requirements for a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator appointing a Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator which appoints a Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider to provide custody of Digital Assets traded on its facility, must ensure that the Person is:
(1) an Authorised Firm appropriately authorised to be a Digital wallet Service Provider; or
(2) a Person which is appropriately regulated by a Financial Services Regulator to an equivalent level of regulation to that provided for under the AFSA regime for providing digital wallet services.
(3) When determining whether a Third Party wallet Service Provider is appropriate, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must take into account:
(a) the expertise and reputation of the Third Party wallet Service Provider;
(b) the Third Party wallet Service Provider’s performance of its services to the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator;
(c) the arrangements the Third Party wallet Service Provider has in place for holding and safeguarding Digital Assets;
(d) the capital or financial resources of the Third Party wallet Service Provider;
(e) the credit-worthiness of the Third Party wallet Service Provider;
(f) any other activities carried out by the Third Party wallet Service Provider; and
(g) anything else that could adversely affect rights of Members and Clients.
(4) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must conduct on a regular basis, and least once every 2 months, reconciliations between its internal records and accounts of Digital Assets and those held by the Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider.
(5) If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator appoints a Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider, the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must accept the same level of responsibility to its Members and Clients and AFSA as would be the case if the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator were holding the relevant Digital Assets directly.
Guidance:
If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator appoints a non-AIFC firm regulated by a Financial Services Regulator, it must undertake sufficient due diligence to establish that the non-AIFC firm is subject to an equivalent level of regulation as under the AFSA regime in respect of that service.
2.13.9. Requirements in relation to Hot and Cold Digital wallets
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that not more than 30 % of the Retail Client’s Digital Assets are stored in Hot Digital wallets.
2.13.10. Obligation to report transactions
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must report to the AFSA details of transactions in Digital Assets traded on its facility which are executed, or reported, through its systems.
(2) The AFSA may, by written notice or guidance, specify:
(a) the information to be included in reports made under the preceding paragraph; and
(b) the manner in which such reports are to be made.
2.13.11. Obligation to report to the AFSA
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must submit to the AFSA a quarterly report that should include its financial statement, its income statement, a calculation of its relevant capital resources and a statement of its compliance and any non-compliance with these Rules.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must provide the following information to the AFSA within 6 months after financial year end:
(a) the number of prospective clients which the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator rejected during the reporting period;
(b) the number of Clients which were offboarded during the reporting period;
(c) the number of Clients where enhanced due diligence was applied;
(d) the total number of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s Clients;
(e) the number of Clients originating from a high risk jurisdiction;
(f) the number of Clients on-boarded on a face-to-face basis;
(g) a description of any changes to the Client onboarding process;
(h) the number of suspicious transaction reports filed during the reporting period;
(i) the number of individuals supporting the MLRO;
(j) when the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s risk assessment was last updated and if there were any additional risks;
(j) (if applicable) the number of private keys held;
(k) (if applicable) whether Client’s Digital Assets are held with a third party custodian;
(l) whether the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator forms part of a Group, and if so, the Group structure;
(m) whether the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator entered into any resource sharing agreements and, if so, the names of the counterparty/company;
(n) whether the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator outsources any of its functions and, if so, any changes to the functions outsourced and to which companies;
(o) an overview of any involvement of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s shareholders in the day-to-day operations of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator during the reporting period; and
(p) an overview of any instances of market abuse encountered by the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator during the reporting period.
(3) The AFSA may request a Digital Asset Trading Facility to submit other returns. The AFSA from time to time may prescribe the required list of returns to be submitted and the returns templates to be used.
(4) Returns submitted to the AFSA must be signed by two (2) Approved Individuals and one of them must be approved to exercise the Finance Officer function.
2.13.12. Obligation to notify the AFSA
If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator becomes aware, or has a reasonable ground to believe, that it is or may be (or may be about to be) in breach of any of these Rules, it must:
(a) notify the AFSA in writing about the breach and the relevant circumstances immediately and not later than within 1 business day of becoming aware of it.
Guidance:
In dealing with a breach, or possible breach, of this part, the AFSA’s primary concern will be the interests of existing and prospective members and clients, the potential adverse impact on market participants, and market stability. The AFSA recognises that there will be circumstances in which a problem may be resolved quickly, for example, by support from a parent entity, without jeopardising the interests of Members, Clients and other stakeholders. In such circumstances, it will be in the interests of all parties to minimise the disruption to the Digital Asset Trading facility Operator’s business. The AFSA will normally seek to work cooperatively with the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator in stressed situations to deal with any problems. There will, however, be circumstances in which it is necessary to take regulatory action to avoid exposing market participants, Members, Clients and other stakeholders to the potential adverse consequences of the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s Failure, and the AFSA will not hesitate to take appropriate action if it considers this necessary.
2.14. Restrictions
2.14.1. Restriction on own account transactions
(1) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator or any of its Associates may not execute an Own Account Transaction in a Digital Asset if it is expected to materially affect the price of the Digital Asset.
(2) For the purposes of this Rule:
(a) “Own Account Transaction” means a transaction Executed for the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s own benefit or for the benefit of its Associate; and
(b) “Execute”, in relation to a transaction, means carrying into effect or performing the transaction, whether as principal or as agent, including instructing another Person to execute the transaction.
(3) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator or any of its Associate must not use the Client’s Digital Assets for their own account or the account of any other Person unless:
(a) the Client has given express prior consent to such use of the Digital Assets on specified terms; and
(b) the use of that Client’s Digital Assets is restricted to the specified terms to which the Client consents.
2.14.2. Offer of incentives
If a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator offers or provides to a Retail Client any incentive that influences, or is reasonably likely to influence, the Retail Client to trade in a Digital Asset or Digital Asset Derivative, it must comply with the requirements set out in Chapter 3 of the COB.
2.15. Prohibitions
2.15.1. Prohibition on use of Privacy Tokens and Privacy Devices
A Person must not in or from the AIFC:
(a) carry out a Regulated Activity relating to a Privacy Token or that involves the use of a Privacy Device;
(b) make or approve a Financial Promotion relating to a Privacy Token; or
(c) offer to the public a Privacy Token.
2.16. AFSA power to impose requirements
Without limiting the powers available to the AFSA under Part 8 of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA may direct an Authorised Market Institution to do or not do specified things that the AFSA considers are necessary or desirable or to ensure the integrity of the AIFC financial markets, including but not limited to directions imposing on a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator any additional requirements that the AFSA considers appropriate.
3. RULES APPLICABLE TO DIGITAL ASSET SERVICE PROVIDERS
This Part 3 applies to a Person carrying on, in or from the AIFC, one or more of the following Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets:
(a) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
(b) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
(c) Managing Investments;
(d) Managing a Collective Investment Scheme;
(e) Providing Custody;
(f) Arranging Custody;
(g) Advising on Investments; and
(h) Arranging Deals in Investments.
3.1. Authorisation of Digital Asset Service Providers
A Person wishing to carry on one or more of the Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets in or from the AIFC must be an Authorised Firm licensed by the AFSA.
3.2. Requirements for Digital Asset Service Providers
(1) The AFSA may not grant authorisation or variation of a Licence to a Person to carry on the Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets unless the applicant satisfies all of the following requirements:
(a) general authorisation requirements applicable to the applicant under the Framework Regulations and other applicable rules, and
(b) the applicant must ensure that it maintains at all times capital resources in the amount specified in Table 2 by reference to the activity that the Digital Asset Service Provider is authorised to conduct or, if it is authorised to conduct more than one such activity, the amount that is the higher or highest of the relevant amounts in Table 2.
Table 2
Regulated Activity |
Capital requirement (USD) |
Dealing in Investments as Principal, unless such activities are limited to matching client orders and the AFSA determines that it is appropriate in all the circumstances to apply a lower capital requirement |
250,000 |
Dealing in Investments as Principal, where such activities are limited to matching client orders and the AFSA determines that it is appropriate in all the circumstances to apply a lower capital requirement than above |
50,000 |
Dealing in Investments as Agent |
50,000 |
Managing Investments |
100,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which is an externally managed Exempt Fund and has an appointed Eligible Custodian (if an Eligible Custodian is required) |
50,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which is a Non-Exempt Fund |
150,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which is a Self-managed Fund and has an appointed Eligible Custodian, unless the appointment of an Eligible Custodian is not required due to the nature of the Fund and the type of assets which it holds |
200,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which does not have an appointed Eligible Custodian, except where an Eligible Custodian is not required due to the nature of the Fund and type of assets which it holds |
250,000 |
Providing Custody |
250,000 |
Arranging Custody |
10,000 |
Advising on Investments |
10,000 |
Arranging Deals in Investments |
10,000 |
(2) In determining whether a Digital Asset Service Provider meets the capital requirement(s) and, in particular, has sufficient working capital to continue business on a go-forwards basis, the Digital Asset Service Provider must have regard to the following matters:
(a) the business carried out, or to be carried out by the Digital Asset Service Provider;
(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, the Digital Asset Service Provider, including any outsourced services (including services outsourced to a Group entity where applicable);
(c) the liabilities to which the Digital Asset Service Provider is exposed or could be exposed to, including as a result of any failure by any third party; and
(d) the means by which the Digital Asset Service Provider manages and, if the Digital Asset Service Provider is a member of a Group, by which other members of the Group manage, the occurrence of risk in connection with the Digital Asset Service Provider’s business.
Guidance
Intangible assets, including goodwill, cannot be used as part of determining whether the capital requirement value is met or whether the Digital Asset Service Provider has sufficient working capital, and must be disregarded when determining whether the requirements are met for the purposes of Table 2.
A Digital Asset Service Provider may carry on the Regulated Activities only in relation to Digital Assets and may not carry on the Regulated Activities in relation to other Investments unless for circumstances which could be approved by the AFSA on a case-by-case basis.
3.3. Governance
3.3.1. Mandatory appointments
(1) In addition to the mandatory appointments required by GEN 2.1., a Digital Asset Service Provider must appoint a Chief Information Technology Officer, who is an individual responsible for its ongoing information technology (“IT”) operations, maintenance and security oversight to ensure that the Digital Asset Service Provider’s IT systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident.
(2) AFSA may direct a Digital Asset Service Provider to appoint a Risk Manager.
3.3.2. Board of Directors of a Digital Asset Service Provider
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must have an effective Board of Directors which is collectively accountable for ensuring that the Digital Asset Service Provider's business is managed prudently and soundly. At least one-third of the Board of Directors should comprise independent Directors.
Note: Rule 2.3.2(1) will come into force 12 months after the commencement of these Rules.
(2) The AFSA may issue guidance on the requirements relating to Board composition, structure, duties and powers as well as skills, experience and qualifications of Directors, and other relevant requirements.
(3) The Board must ensure that there is a clear division between its responsibility for setting the strategic aims and undertaking the oversight of the Digital Asset Service Provider and the senior management’s responsibility for managing the Digital Asset Service Provider’s business in accordance with the strategic aims and risk parameters set by the Board as well as applicable law and regulation.
(4) The Board and its committees must have an appropriate balance of skills, experience, independence, and knowledge of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s business, and adequate resources, including access to expertise as required and timely and comprehensive information relating to the affairs of the Digital Asset Service Provider.
(5) The Board must ensure that the Digital Asset Service Provider has an adequate, effective, well-defined and well-integrated risk management, internal control and compliance framework.
(6) The Board must ensure that the rights of shareholders are properly safeguarded through appropriate measures that enable the shareholders to exercise their rights effectively, promote effective dialogue with shareholders and other key stakeholders as appropriate, and prevent any abuse or oppression of minority shareholders.
(7) The Board must ensure that the Digital Asset Service Provider’s financial and other reports present an accurate, balanced and understandable assessment of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s financial position and prospects by ensuring that there are effective internal risk control and reporting requirements.
(8) A Director of the Digital Asset Service Provider must act:
(a) on a fully informed basis;
(b) in good faith;
(c) honestly;
(d) with due skill, care and diligence; and
(e) in the best interests of the Digital Asset Service Provider and its shareholders and users.
3.4. Technology governance, controls and security
3.4.1. Systems and controls
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that it implements systems and controls necessary to address the risks, including cybersecurity-related risks, to its business. The relevant systems and controls should take into account such factors that include but are not limited to the nature, scale and complexity of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s business, the diversity of its operations, the volume and size of transactions made using its facilities and the level of risk inherent with its business and activities.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must have adequate systems and controls to enable it to calculate and monitor its capital resources and its compliance with the requirements in DAA 3.2. The systems and controls must be in writing and must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s business and its risk profile.
3.4.2. Technology governance and risk assessment framework
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must implement a technology governance and risk assessment framework which must be comprehensive and proportionate to the nature, scale, and complexity of the risks inherent in its business model.
(2) The technology governance and risk assessment framework must apply to all technologies relevant to a Digital Asset Service Provider’s business and clearly set out the Digital Asset Service Provider’s cybersecurity objectives, including the requirements for the competency of its relevant Employees and, as relevant, end users and Clients, and there must be in place clearly defined systems and procedures necessary for managing risks.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its technology governance and risk assessment is capable of determining the necessary processes and controls that it must implement in order to adequately mitigate any risks identified. In particular, a Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its technology governance and risk assessment framework includes consideration of international standards and industry best practice codes.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its technology governance and risk assessment framework incorporates appropriate governance policies and system development controls, such as a development, maintenance and testing process for technology systems and operations controls, back-up controls, capacity and performance planning and availability testing.
3.4.3. Cyber-security matters
A Digital Asset Service Provider must take reasonable steps to ensure that its IT systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident, as well as from risks that can arise from inadequacies or failures in its processes and systems (and, as appropriate, the systems of third-party suppliers, agents and others). A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure there are the necessary resources in place to manage these risks..
3.4.4. Cyber-security policy
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must create and implement a policy which outlines its procedures for the protection of its electronic systems.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its cyber-security policy is reviewed at least on an annual basis by its Chief Information Technology Officer, and that such review is provided to the Board of Directors.
(3) The cyber-security policy must, as a minimum, address the following areas:
(a) information security;
(b) data governance and classification;
(с) access controls;
(d) business continuity and disaster recovery planning and resources;
(e) capacity and performance planning;
(f) systems operations and availability concerns;
(g) systems and network security, consensus protocol methodology, code and smart contract validation and audit processes;
(h) systems and application development and quality assurance;
(i) physical security and environmental controls, including but not limited to procedures around access to premises and systems;
(j) customer data privacy;
(k) procedures regarding facilitation of Digital Asset transactions initiated by a Client including, but not limited to, considering multi-factor authentication or any better standard for Digital Asset transactions that—
(i) exceed transaction limits set by the Client, such as accumulative transaction limits over a period of time; and
(ii) are initiated after a material change of personal details by the Client, such as the address of a Digital wallet;
(l) procedures regarding Client authentication and session controls including, but not limited to, the maximum number of incorrect attempts permitted for entering a password, appropriate time-out controls and password validity periods;
(m) procedures establishing adequate authentication checks when a change to a Client’s account information or contact details is requested;
(n) vendor and third-party service provider management;
(o) monitoring and implementing changes to core protocols not directly controlled by the Digital Asset Service Provider, as applicable;
(p) incident response, including but not limited to, root cause analysis and rectification activities to prevent reoccurrence;
(q) governance framework and escalation procedures for effective decision-making and proper management and control of risks and emergency incidents, including but not limited to responses to ransomware and other forms of cyberattacks; and
(r) hardware and infrastructure standards, including but not limited to network lockdown, services/desktop security and firewall standards.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider must consider the impact of any outsourcing arrangements, as well as the interoperability risks when dealing with systems and software provided by third parties, where applicable.
(5) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure all staff receive appropriate training in relation to cybersecurity.
(6) A Digital Asset Service Provider must inform the AFSA as soon as practicable if it becomes aware, or has reasonable grounds to believe, that a significant breach by any Person of its cyber-security may have occurred.
3.4.5. Cryptographic keys and Digital wallets management procedure
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its cryptographic keys and Digital wallets management procedure addresses, to the extent necessary, the generation of cryptographic keys and Digital wallets, the signing and approval of transactions, the storage of cryptographic keys and seed phrases, and Digital wallets creation and management thereof.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must:
(a) safeguard access to Digital Assets in accordance with industry best practices and, in particular, ensure that there is no single point of failure in the Digital Asset Service Provider’s access to, or knowledge of, Digital Assets held by the Digital Asset Service Provider;
(b) adopt industry best practices for storing the private keys of Clients, including ensuring that keys stored online or in one physical location are not capable of being used to conduct a Digital Asset transaction, unless appropriate controls are in place to ensure that access by an unauthorised individual is insufficient to conduct a transaction;
(c) ensure that backups of the key and seed phrases are stored in a separate location from the primary key or seed phrase;
(d) adopt strict access management controls to manage access to keys, including an audit log detailing each change of access to keys; and
(e) adopt procedures designed to be able to immediately revoke a key signatory’s access.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must:
(a) ensure that the key generation process ensures that revoked signatories do not have access to the backup seed phrase or knowledge of the phrase used in the key’s creation;
(b) perform internal audits on a quarterly basis concerning the removal of user access by reviewing access logs and verifying access as appropriate;
(c) implement and maintain a procedure for documenting the onboarding and offboarding of staff;
(d) implement and maintain a procedure for documenting a Digital Asset Service Provider’s permission to grant or revoke access to each role in its key management system; and
(e) regularly assess the security of its IT systems or software integrations with external parties and ensure that the appropriate safeguards are implemented in order to mitigate all relevant risks.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider should provide information to Clients on measures they can take to protect their keys or seed phrases from misuse or unauthorised access, and the consequences of sharing their private keys and other security information.
(5) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that access to its systems and data may only be granted to individuals with a demonstrable business need and implement safeguards to ensure the proper identification of all individuals, including the maintenance of an access log.
3.4.6. On-going monitoring
For the purposes of meeting the requirement in DAA 3.4.1, a Digital Asset Service Provider must have adequate procedures and arrangements for the evaluation, selection and on-going maintenance and monitoring of its IT systems. Such procedures and arrangements must, at a minimum, provide for:
(a) problem management and system change;
(b) testing IT systems before live operations in accordance with the requirements in DAA 3.4.7;
(c) real time monitoring and reporting on system performance, availability and integrity; and
(d) adequate measures to ensure:
(i) IT systems are resilient and not prone to failure;
(ii) business continuity in the event that an IT system fails;
(iii) protection of IT systems from damage, tampering, misuse or unauthorised access; and
(iv) the integrity of data forming part of, or being processed through, IT systems.
3.4.7. Testing and audit of technology systems
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must, before commencing live operation of its IT systems or any updates thereto, use development and testing methodologies in line with internationally accepted testing standards in order to test the viability and effectiveness of such systems. For this purpose, the testing must be adequate for the Digital Asset Service Provider to obtain reasonable assurance that, among other things:
(a) the systems enable it to comply with all the applicable requirements on an on-going basis;
(b) the systems can continue to operate effectively in stressed market conditions;
(c) the systems have sufficient electronic capacity to accommodate reasonably foreseeable volumes of messaging and orders; and
(d) any risk management controls embedded within the systems, such as generating automatic error reports, work as intended.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must to undergo a qualified independent third-party technology governance and IT audit to conduct vulnerability assessments and penetration testing at least on an annual basis.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must engage a qualified independent third-party auditor to audit any new systems, applications and products prior to their use.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider must provide the results of technology governance and IT assessments and tests to the AFSA promptly upon its request.
3.4.8. Technology audit reports
(1) This Rule applies to a Digital Asset Service Provider that:
(a) holds or controls Digital Assets;
(b) relies on DLT or similar technology to carry on one or more of the following Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets:
(i) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
(ii) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
(iii) Arranging Deals in Investments;
(iv) Managing Investments;
(v) Advising on Investments;
(vi) Providing Custody; or
(vii) Arranging Custody; or
(viii) is Managing a Collective Investment Scheme where 10% or more of the gross asset value of the Fund Property of the Fund consists of Digital Assets.
(2) The Authorised Firm must:
(a) appoint a suitably qualified independent third-party professional to:
(i) carry out an annual audit of the Authorised Firm’s compliance with the technology resources and governance requirements that apply to it; and
(ii) produce a written report which sets out the methodology and results of that annual audit, confirms whether the requirements referred to in DAA 3.4.7 have been met and lists any recommendations or areas of concern;
(b) submit to the AFSA a copy of the report referred to in DAA 3.4.8. (2)(a)(ii) within 6 months of the financial year end; and
(c) be able to satisfy the AFSA that the independent third party professional appointed to carry out the annual audit has the relevant expertise to do so, and that the Authorised Firm has done proper due diligence to satisfy itself of that fact.
Guidance:
Credentials which indicate a qualified independent third-party auditor is suitable to conduct audit of technology governance and IT systems may include:
(1) designation as a Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) or Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA);
(2) designation as a Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC);
(3) accreditation by a recognised and reputable body to certify compliance with relevant ISO/IEC 27000 series standards; or
(4) accreditation by the relevant body to certify compliance with the Kazakhstani standards in the area of information (cyber) security.
3.5. Policies, procedures, and public disclosures
3.5.1. Policies and procedures required for Digital Asset Service Providers
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider carrying out a Regulated Activity of Advising on Investments must establish, implement and enforce appropriate written internal policies and procedures relating to the following:
(a) how it ensures the independent basis of its advice;
(b) how it explains the range of Digital Assets considered in providing its advice;
(c) how it ensures all Directors and Employees providing the relevant advice are sufficiently competent; and
(d) such other policies and procedures as the AFSA may require from time to time.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider carrying out Regulated Activities of Dealing in Investments as Principal or Agent must establish, implement and enforce appropriate written internal policies and procedures relating to the following:
(a) the prohibition, detection, prevention or deterrence of market offences and any other abusive practices within their business or using their services including, but not limited to, relevant internal rules, compliance programmes, sanctioning policies and powers;
(b) Execution and routing of Client orders;
(c) the ability of Clients to have access to and withdraw their Digital Assets including, but not limited to, during periods of high uncertainty or extreme volatility; and
(d) such other policies and procedures as the AFSA may require from time to time.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider carrying out a Regulated Activity of Providing Custody must establish, implement and enforce appropriate written internal policies and procedures relating to the following:
(a) the ability of Clients to have access to and withdraw their Digital Assets including, but not limited to, during periods of high uncertainty or extreme volatility; and
(b) such other policies and procedures as the AFSA may require from time to time.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider carrying on a Regulated Activity of Managing Investments must establish, implement and enforce appropriate written internal policies and procedures relating to the following:
(a) the ability of Clients to have access to and withdraw their Digital Assets including, but not limited to, during periods of high uncertainty or extreme volatility;
(b) their assessment of Client suitability for relevant products or services, including but not limited to the nature, features, costs, complexity and risks of investment services, Digital Assets or other financial instruments selected for their Clients;
(c) how they ensure all Directors and Employees Managing Investments to Clients are sufficiently competent;
(d) the nature and frequency of reports to be provided to Clients; and
(e) such other policies and procedures as the AFSA may require from time to time.
(5) All Digital Asset Service Providers specified in (1) to (4) must assess and, in any case, at least yearly review the effectiveness of their policies and procedures and take appropriate measures to address any deficiencies.
3.5.2. Public disclosures
(1) All Digital Asset Service Providers specified in (1) to (4) in DAA 3.5.1. must publish on their website in a prominent place or make available by other publicly accessible means:
(a) a detailed description of any actual or potential conflicts of interest arising out of their activities, and how these are managed; and
(b) their policies and procedures relating to data privacy, whistleblowing and handling of Client complaints.
(2) In addition to (1), a Digital Asset Service Provider carrying out a Regulated Activity of Advising on Investments must publish on their website in a prominent place or make available by other publicly accessible means:
(a) a statement of whether the Digital Asset Service Provider refers or introduces Clients to other Persons including, but not limited to, other Digital Asset Service Providers, and if so, a description of the terms of such arrangements, and the monetary or non-monetary benefits received by the Digital Asset Service Provider, including by way of reciprocation for any service or business; and
(b) a statement of whether the Digital Asset Service Provider has accounts, funds or Digital Assets maintained by a third party and if so, provide the identity of that third party.
(3) In addition to (1), a Digital Asset Service Provider carrying out Regulated Activities of Dealing in Investments as Principal or Agent must publish on their website in a prominent place or make available by other publicly accessible means:
(a) a statement as to the Digital Asset Service Provider’s arrangements for the protection of Clients’ ownership of assets held by the Digital Asset Service Provider;
(b) a statement of whether the Digital Asset Service Provider refers or introduces Clients to other Persons including, but not limited to, other Digital Asset Service Providers and, if so, a description of the terms of such arrangements and the monetary or non-monetary benefits received by the Digital Asset Service Provider, including by way of reciprocation for any service or business; and
(c) a statement of whether the Digital Asset Service Provider has accounts, funds or Digital Assets maintained by a third party and if so, provide the identity of that third party.
(4) In addition to (1), a Digital Asset Service Provider carrying out a Regulated Activity of Providing Custody must publish on its website in a prominent place or make available by other publicly accessible means a statement of whether the Digital Asset Service Provider has accounts, funds or Digital Assets maintained by a third party and if so, provide the identity of that third party.
(5) In addition to (1), a Digital Asset Service Provider carrying out a Regulated Activity of Managing Investments must publish on its website in a prominent place or make available by other publicly accessible means:
(a) a statement as to the ability of Clients to have access to and withdraw their Digital Assets, particularly in times of extreme volatility;
(b) a statement as to the Digital Asset Service Provider’s arrangements for the protection of Clients’ assets held by the Digital Asset Service Provider;
(c) a statement as to how it protects Client Digital Assets from a counterparty risk;
(d) a statement as to how in the course of Managing Investments, Client Digital Assets are used and how Clients’ interests in relation to those Digital Assets are thereby respected;
(e) a statement explaining that Client Digital Assets used by the Digital Asset Service Provider in the course of Managing Investments may be at risk, including the types and nature of such risks, and a statement on the likelihood and severity of any losses which may be suffered;
(f) a statement in relation to order execution by the Digital Asset Service Provider, which includes an explanation of how orders will be executed;
(g) a statement as to how liquidity risk is managed; and
(h) such other information as the AFSA may require from time to time.
3.6. Requirements for Digital Asset Service Providers Advising on Investments and Arranging Deals in Investments
Guidance: A Digital Asset Service Provider which carries on a Regulated Activity of Advising on Investments in relation to Digital Assets is an Authorised Firm to which provisions of the following AIFC Acts apply either directly or in respect of its officers and Employees who are Approved or Designated Individuals:
FSFR (in whole);
AML (in whole);
Chapter 2 (Client classification) of the COB;
Chapter 3 (Communication with Clients and Financial Promotions) of the COB;
Chapter 4 (Key information and client agreement) of the COB;
COB 5.2 (Suitability assessment) of the COB;
Chapter 7 (Conflicts of interest) of the COB;
Chapter 10 (Investment research) of the COB;
Chapter 15 (Complaints handling and dispute resolution) of the COB;
Chapter 16 (Record keeping and internal audit) of the COB;
Chapter 2 (Controlled and Designated Functions) of the GEN;
Chapter 3 (Control of Authorised Persons) of the GEN;
Chapter 4 (Core Principles) of the GEN;
Chapter 5 (Systems and Controls) of the GEN;
Chapter 6 (Supervision) of the GEN; and
Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC (in whole).
3.6.1. Verification of information
(1) In addition to requirements set out in Chapter 3 of the COB, a Digital Asset Service Provider Advising on Investments must provide advice which does not contain statements, promises, forecasts or other types of information which it knows or suspects to be misleading, false or deceptive or which it should have reasonably known to be misleading, false or deceptive at the time of making such statement, promise or forecast.
(2) Prior to making any statement, promise or forecast, a Digital Asset Service Provider Advising on Investments must verify factual information against appropriate and reliable source materials and must use all reasonable endeavours to verify the continued accuracy of such information.
3.6.2. Methodology
A Digital Asset Service Provider in the course of Advising on Investments must assess a broad range of Digital Assets available to the Client which should be sufficiently diverse such that the Client’s investment objectives, as agreed with the Digital Asset Service Provider, are met. A Digital Asset Service Provider must be clear with Clients what range of Digital Assets have been considered in the course of Advising on Investments.
3.6.3. Appropriateness test
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider Arranging Deals in Investments must not carry on a Regulated Activity with or for a Retail Client unless the Digital Asset Service Provider has carried out an appropriateness test of the Retail Client and formed a reasonable view that the Retail Client has:
(a) adequate skills and expertise to understand the risks involved in trading in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives (as the case may be); and
(b) the ability to absorb potentially significant losses resulting from trading in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives (as the case may be).
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must maintain records of the appropriateness test that it carries out in respect of each Retail Client and make such records available to the AFSA on request.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must have appropriate systems and controls and policies and procedures to determine the appropriateness of Retail Clients
Guidance:
(1) To form a reasonable view referred to in DAA 3.6.3.(1) in relation to a Retail Client, a Digital Asset Service Provider should consider issues such as whether the Retail Client:
(a) has sufficient knowledge and experience relating to the type of a Digital Asset or Digital Asset Derivative offered, having regard to such factors as:
(i) how often and in what volumes that Person has traded in the relevant type of a Digital Asset or Digital Asset Derivative; and
(ii) the Retail Client’s relevant qualifications, profession or former profession;
(b) understands the characteristics and risks relating to Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives, and the volatility of their prices;
(c) understands the impact of leverage, due to which, there is potential to make significant losses in trading in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives; and
(d) has the ability, particularly in terms of net assets and liquidity available to the Retail Client, to absorb and manage any losses that may result from trading in the Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives offered.
(2) To be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that it complies with DAA 3.6.3., a Digital Asset Service Provider should have in place systems and controls that include:
(a) pre-determined and clear criteria against which a Retail Client’s ability to trade in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives can be assessed;
(b) adequate records to demonstrate that the Digital Asset Service Provider has undertaken the appropriateness test for each Retail Client; and
(c) in the case of an existing Retail Client with whom the Digital Asset Service Provider has previously traded in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives, procedures to undertake a fresh appropriateness test on at least an annual basis, and if:
(i) a new Digital Asset or Digital Asset Derivative with a materially different risk profile is offered to the Retail Client; or
(ii) there has been a material change in the Retail Client’s circumstances.
(3) If a Digital Asset Service Provider forms the view that it is not appropriate for a Person to trade in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives, the Digital Asset Service Provider should refrain from offering that service to the Person. As a matter of good practice, the Digital Asset Service Provider should inform the Person of its decision.
3.7. Requirements for Digital Asset Service Providers Providing and Arranging Custody
3.7.1. Requirements for Digital Asset Service Providers Providing Custody of Digital Assets
(1) A Digital wallet Service Provider must ensure that:
(a) they are recorded, registered and held in an appropriate manner to safeguard and control them, including the fact that they must be held separately from the Digital Asset Service Provider's own Digital Assets.
(b) any DLT application it uses in Providing Custody of Digital Assets is resilient, reliable and compatible with any relevant facility on which the Digital Assets are traded or cleared;
(c) it has in place Client agreements which specify the basis on which it holds Digital Assets on behalf of its Clients, and in particular whether they are held:
(i) on a segregated basis, in which case the Digital Asset Service Provider which is a Digital wallet Service Provider needs to clearly identify and segregate Digital Assets belonging to different Clients; or
(ii) on an omnibus basis, in which case the Digital Asset Service Provider which is a Digital wallet Service Provider needs to ensure at all times that the total amount and type of Digital Assets held for Clients at all times matches the amounts it has agreed to hold for all its Clients, and that there are clear records regarding the amount of Digital Assets held for each Client; and
(d) it has in place appropriate procedures to enable it to confirm Client instructions and transactions, maintain appropriate records and data relating to those instructions and transactions and to conduct a reconciliation of those transactions at appropriate intervals.
(2) A Digital wallet Service Provider must ensure that, in developing and using DLT applications and other technology to Provide Custody of Digital Assets:
(a) the architecture of any Digital wallet used adequately addresses potential compatibility issues and associated risks;
(b) the technology used and its associated procedures have adequate security measures (including enabling adequate cyber security) to enable the safe storage and transmission of data relating to the Digital Assets;
(c) the security and integrity of cryptographic keys are maintained through the use of that technology, taking into account the password protection and methods of encryption used;
(d) there are adequate measures to address any risks specific to the methods of usage and storage of cryptographic keys (or their equivalent) available under the DLT application used; and
(e) the technology is compatible with the procedures and protocols built into the relevant rules or equivalent procedures and protocols on any facility on which the Digital Assets are traded or cleared or both traded and cleared.
(3) Digital Assets held by the Digital Asset Service Provider Providing Custody are not depository liabilities or assets of the Digital Asset Service Provider and the Digital Asset Service Provider must hold them on trust.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider Providing Custody of Digital Assets must segregate the Digital Assets of each Client in separate Digital wallets containing the Digital Assets of that Client only.
(5) A Digital Asset Service Provider Providing Custody must maintain control of each Digital Asset at all times while Providing Custody.
(6) A Digital Asset Service Provider Providing Custody must:
(a) have appropriate rules, procedures, and controls, including robust accounting practices, to safeguard the rights of Digital Assets issuers and holders, prevent the unauthorised creation or deletion of Digital Assets, and conduct daily reconciliation of each Digital Asset balance it maintains for issuers and holders;
(b) prohibit overdrafts and credit balances in Digital Assets account;
(c) maintain Digital Assets in an immobilised or dematerialised form for their transfer by book entry;
(d) protect assets against custody risk through appropriate rules and procedures consistent with its legal framework;
(e) ensure segregation between its own assets and the Digital Assets of its participants, as well as keeping clear records regarding which Digital Assets belong to which participant; and
(f) identify, measure, monitor, and manage its risks from other activities that it may perform.
Guidance:
Where an Authorised Person which is a Digital wallet Service Provider delegates any functions to a Third Party Digital wallet Service provider, it must ensure that the delegate fully complies with the requirements of DAA 3.7.1. and the outsourcing and delegation requirements of GEN 5.2.
Delegation of any functions to a Third Party Digital wallet Service provider must not affect a Digital wallet Service Provider’s responsibility for the full and proper performance of those functions.
3.7.2. Digital wallet management
(1) Requirements in relation to Hot and Cold Digital wallet storage.
(a) A Digital wallet Service Provider must at all times maintain appropriate certifications as may be required under industry best practices applicable to the safekeeping of Digital Assets.
(b) Where a Digital wallet Service Provider uses a variety of storage mechanisms for Digital Assets, the Digital wallet Service Provider should conduct a risk-based analysis to determine the appropriate method of Digital Asset storage for different Digital Assets.
(c) Where a Digital wallet Service Provider uses a single storage mechanism for Digital Assets, the Digital wallet Service Provider should explicitly disclose to Clients any limitations regarding the suitability of that storage mechanism for different Digital Assets.
(d) A Digital wallet Service Provider should document in detail the methodology for determining when Digital Assets are transferred to and from Digital wallets. The mechanisms for transfer between different types of Digital wallets should be well documented and subject to internal controls and audits performed by an independent third-party auditor.
(2) Seed or key generation, storage, and use.
(a) To ensure a secure generation mechanism, a Digital wallet Service Provider must use industry best standards to create the seed, including by using asymmetric private and public key combinations, or other similar mechanisms.
(b) A Digital wallet Service Provider must consider all risks associated with producing a private key or seed for a signatory including whether the signatory should be involved in the generation process or whether creators of the seed, private key, or other similar mechanism should be prohibited from cryptographically signing any transaction or from having access to any relevant systems.
(c) A Digital wallet Service Provider must adopt industry best practices when using encryption and secure device storage for a Client’s private keys when not in use.
(d) A Digital wallet Service Provider must ensure that any keys stored online or in one physical location are not capable of being used to conduct a Digital Asset transaction, unless appropriate controls are in place to ensure that access by an unauthorised individual is insufficient to conduct a transaction.
(e) All key and seed backups must be stored in a separate location from the primary key and seed. Key and seed backups must be stored with encryption at least equal to the encryption used to protect the primary seed and key.
(f) Digital wallet Service Providers must mitigate the risk of collusion between all authorised parties or signatories who are able to authorise the movement, transfer or withdrawal of Digital Assets held on behalf of Clients. The risk of collusion and other internal points of failure should be addressed during recurring operational risk assessments.
(3) Lost or stolen keys.
(1) Digital wallet Service Providers must establish and maintain effective policies and procedures in the event that any seed or cryptographic keys of any Digital wallet are lost or otherwise compromised.
(2) The policy and procedures must address matters including but not limited to:
(a) recovery of affected Digital Assets;
(b) timely communications with all Clients and counterparties regarding consequences arising from relevant incidents and measures being taken to remedy such consequences;
(c) cooperation with law enforcement agencies and regulatory bodies; and
(d) if applicable, preparation of winding down arrangements and public disclosure of such arrangements.
3.7.3. Contractual arrangement
A Digital Asset Service Provider that is Providing Custody for a Client should provide such activity based on a contractual arrangement. Under such an arrangement a Client is lawfully in control of, or entitled to control, a Digital Asset. Transfers of control of the Digital Asset to a Digital Asset Service Provider solely for the purpose of receiving custody services does not in any way transfer to the Digital Asset Service Provider any legal interest in the Digital Asset or any discretionary authority not stated in the Client Agreement or otherwise agreed to by the Client.
3.7.4. Client Agreement for a Digital Asset Service Provider Providing Custody of Digital Assets
A Digital Asset Service Provider Providing Custody of Digital Assets must enter into a Client Agreement with each Client that includes:
(a) a breakdown of all fees and charges payable to or via the Digital Asset Service Provider and when they are charged;
(b) any information required to carry out a transfer;
(с) the form and procedures for giving consent to a transfer;
(d) an indication of the time it will normally take to carry out a transfer;
(е) details of when a transfer will be considered to be complete;
(f) how, and in what form, information and communications relating to transfer services will be provided to the Client, including the timing and frequency of communications, the language used and any technical requirements for the Client’s equipment and software to receive the communications;
(g) clear policies and procedures relating to unauthorised or incorrectly executed transfers, including the circumstances in which the Client is and is not entitled to redress;
(h) clear policies and procedures relating to how situations where the holding or transfer of Digital Assets may have been compromised are dealt with, such as if there has been hacking, theft or fraud;
(i) details of the procedures the Authorised Firm will follow to contact the Client, or which the Client may use to contact the Authorised Firm if there has been suspected or actual hacking, theft or fraud; and
(j) the mechanisms by which the Client can keep track of Digital Assets held with the Digital Asset Service Provider.
3.7.5. Client accounts
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider which Provides Custody or holds or controls Client Digital Assets must register or record all Digital Assets in the legal title of a Client Account or
, where this is not feasible, for example, due a legal requirement or market practice, the Digital Asset Service Provider.
(2) A Client Account is an account which:
(a) is held with a Third Party Agent or by a Digital Asset Service Provider which is authorised under its Licence to carry on the Regulated Activity of Providing Custody;
(b) is established to hold Client Digital Assets;
(c) when held by a Third Party Agent, is maintained in the name of;
(i) if a Domestic Firm, the Digital Asset Service Provider; or
(ii) if not a Domestic Firm, a Nominee Company controlled by the Digital Asset Service Provider; and
(d) includes the words ‘Client Account’ in its title.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must maintain a master list of all Client Accounts for 6 years from the closure of the relevant acount that must detail:
(a) the name of the account;
(b) the account number;
(c) the location of the account;
(d) whether the account is currently open or closed; and
(e) the date of opening or closure.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider which intends to use the Client’s Digital Assets for its own purpose or that of another Person, must have systems and controls in place to ensure that:
(a) it obtains that Client’s prior explicit informed written consent to such use, and that Clients are aware of the risks incurred in giving such consent;
(b) adequate records are maintained to record how Digital Assets are applied as collateral or used for stock lending activities;
(c) equivalent assets are returned to the Client Account of the Client; and
(d) the Client is not disadvantaged by such use of his Digital Assets in any way in which the Client has not explicitly consented to.
3.7.6. Client disclosure
(1) Before a Digital Asset Service Provider arranges custody for a Client it must disclose to that Client, if applicable, that the Client’s Digital Assets may be held in a jurisdiction outside the AIFC and that the market practices, insolvency and legal regime applicable in that jurisdiction may differ from the regime applicable in the AIFC.
(2) Before a Digital Asset Service Provider provides custody for a Client it must disclose to the Client on whose behalf the Digital Assets will be held:
(a) the arrangements for recording and registering Digital Assets, claiming and receiving any entitlements, and the giving and receiving instructions relating to them;
(b) the obligations the Digital Asset Service Provider will have to the Client in relation to exercising rights on behalf of the Client;
(b) the basis on which, and any terms governing the way in which, Digital Assets will be held, including any rights which the Digital Asset Service Provider may have to realise Digital Assets held on behalf of the Client in satisfaction of a default by the Client;
(d) the method and frequency with which the Digital Asset Service Provider will report to the Client in relation to his Digital Assets;
(e) if applicable, a statement that the Digital Asset Service Provider intends to pool Digital Assets with those of other Clients;
(f) if applicable, a statement that the Client’s Digital Assets may be held in a jurisdiction outside the AIFC and the market practices, insolvency and legal regime applicable in that jurisdiction may differ from the regime applicable in the AIFC;
(g) if applicable, a statement that the Digital Asset Service Provider holds or intends to hold Digital Assets in a Client Account with a Third Party Agent which is in the same Group as the Digital Asset Service Provider; and
(h) the extent of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s liability in the event of default by a Third Party Agent, and any rights that the Client may have in respect of the Third Party Agent.
3.7.7. Client reporting
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider which provides custody or which holds or controls Digital Assets for a Client must send a statement to each Client at least every 6 months.
(2) The statement must include:
(a) a list of that Client’s Digital Assets as at the date of reporting;
(b) a list of that Client’s Collateral and the market value of that Collateral as at the date of reporting; and
(c) details of any Client Money held by the Digital Asset Service Provider as at the date of reporting.
(3) The statement must be sent to the Client within 25 business days of the statement date.
3.7.8. Reconciliation
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider which carries out a Regulated Activity of Providing Custody or Arranging Custody must:
(a) (where the Digital Asset Service Provider is Arranging Custody) at least every 25 business days reconcile its records of Client Accounts held with Third Party Agents with monthly statements received from those Third Party Agents in respect of each individual Client’s ledger balances; or
(b) (where the Digital Asset Service Provider is Providing Custody) at least every 25 business days perform an internal custody record reconciliation in respect of each individual Client’s ledger balances.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that the process of reconciliation does not involve any conflict of interest in terms of providing a full and accurate reconciliation.
3.7.9. Requirements where shortfalls or discrepancies are detected
(1) Where a Digital Asset Service Provider identifies a discrepancy as a result of carrying out an internal record check or an external custody reconciliation, the Digital Asset Service Provider must:
(a) promptly take all reasonable steps to investigate and resolve the discrepancy;
(b) take appropriate steps for the treatment of any shortfalls until the discrepancy is resolved;
(c) take reasonable steps to avoid a recurrence of any identifiable action which resulted in the discrepancy; and
(d) notify the AFSA where the discrepancy is material or otherwise cannot be promptly resolved.
(2) A discrepancy should not be considered resolved until it is investigated fully and corrected, and any associated shortfall is resolved by the Digital Asset Service Provider ensuring that:
(a) it is holding the correct Digital Assets for each of its Clients; and
(b) its own records, and the records of any relevant Third Party Digital wallet Service Provider, are accurate.
(3) Where a shortfall is detected, until such a shortfall is resolved, the Digital Asset Service Provider must do one of the following:
(a) allocate a specific number of its own applicable Digital Assets to cover the value of the shortfall and hold them in such a way for the relevant Clients so that the proceeds of their liquidation will be available for the benefit of the relevant Clients in the event of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s failure; or
(b) appropriate a sufficient amount of its own money to cover the value of the shortfall and hold it for the relevant Client(s).
(4) The value of any shortfall must be determined by reference to the previous day’s closing mark to market valuation of the relevant Digital Assets, or, if that information is not available in relation to a particular Digital Asset, the most recently available valuation information. If the value of a Digital Asset is volatile or there are any other reasons which make it difficult to value, the Digital Asset Service Provider should consider whether it is appropriate to set aside an additional amount to cover any change in the value of the shortfall.
(5) Until the discrepancy is resolved the Digital Asset Service Provider must consider whether it would be appropriate to notify affected Client(s) of the situation. In considering whether to notify Clients, the Digital Asset Service Provider must act honestly, fairly and professionally and in the best interests of its Client(s).
Guidance
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider should maintain a clear separation of duties to ensure that all Employees with responsibility for operating Client Accounts, or who have authority over Digital Assets held for Clients, should not perform the reconciliations under DAA 3.7.8.
(2) Reconciliations performed in accordance with DAA 3.7.8. must be reviewed by a member of the Digital Asset Service Provider who is a member of the Board.
(3) The individual referred to in (2) must provide a written statement confirming that the reconciliation has been undertaken in accordance with the requirements of DAA 3.7.8 and this Guidance.
(4) A material discrepancy includes discrepancies which have the cumulative effect of being material, such as longstanding discrepancies.
3.8. Requirements for Digital Asset Service Providers Managing Investments and a Collective Investment Scheme
Guidance: A Digital Asset Service Provider which carries on a Regulated Activity of Managing Investments in relation to Digital Assets is an Authorised Firm to which provisions of the following AIFC Acts apply either directly or in respect of its officers and Employees who are Approved or Designated Individuals:
FSFR (in whole);
AML (in whole);
Chapter 2 (Client classification) of the COB;
Chapter 3 (Communication with Clients and Financial Promotions) of the COB;
Chapter 4 (Key information and client agreement) of the COB;
COB 5.2 (Suitability assessment);
Chapter 7 (Conflicts of interest) of the COB;
Chapter 15 (Complaints handling and dispute resolution) of the COB;
Chapter 16 (Record keeping and internal audit) of the COB;
Chapter 2 (Controlled and Designated Functions) of the GEN;
Chapter 3 (Control of Authorised Persons) of the GEN;
Chapter 4 (Core Principles) of the GEN;
Chapter 5 (Systems and Controls) of the GEN;
Chapter 6 (Supervision) of the GEN; and
Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC (in whole).
A Digital Asset Service Provider which carries on a Regulated Activity of Managing a Collective Investment Scheme in relation to Digital Assets is an Authorised Firm to which provisions of the following AIFC Acts apply either directly or in respect of its officers and Employees who are Approved or Designated Individuals:
FSFR (in whole);
AML (in whole);
Chapter 2 (Client classification) of the COB;
Chapter 3 (Communication with Clients and Financial Promotions) of the COB;
Chapter 4 (Key information and client agreement) of the COB;
Chapter 7 (Conflicts of interest) of the COB;
Chapter 15 (Complaints handling and dispute resolution) of the COB;
Chapter 16 (Record keeping and internal audit) of the COB;
Chapter 2 (Controlled and Designated Functions) of the GEN;
Chapter 3 (Control of Authorised Persons) of the GEN;
Chapter 4 (Core Principles) of the GEN;
Chapter 5 (Systems and Controls) of the GEN;
Chapter 6 (Supervision) of the GEN; and
Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC (in whole).
3.8.1. Verification of information
(1) In addition to requirements set out in Chapter 3 of the COB, a Digital Asset Service Provider Managing Investments or a Collective Investment Scheme must not provide statements, promises, forecasts or other types of information which it knows or suspects to be misleading, false or deceptive or which it should have reasonably known to be misleading, false or deceptive at the time of making such statement, promise or forecast.
(2) Prior to making any statement, promise or forecast, a Digital Asset Service Provider Managing Investments or a Collective Investment Scheme must verify factual information against appropriate and reliable source materials and must use all reasonable endeavours to verify the continued accuracy of such information (for as long as such information is communicated by or on behalf of the Digital Asset Service Provider). A Digital Asset Service Provider should state the date on which the information was last verified in the relevant communication.
3.8.2. Client reporting and valuation
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider Managing Investments or a Collective Investment Scheme must, at least monthly, provide to each of its Clients a written statement containing the following information:
(a) the total value of Digital Assets in a Client’s account; and
(b) the change in amount and valuation of Digital Assets in a Client’s account during the relevant reporting period.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider Managing Investments or a Collective Investment Scheme must ensure that all assets under management are subject to ongoing independent valuation.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider Managing Investments or a Collective Investment Scheme must have comprehensive and well documented valuation policies and procedures in place to ensure the production of timely and accurate statement in accordance with DAA 3.8.2. (1).
3.8.3. Risk management and due diligence
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider Managing Investments or a Collective Investment Scheme must ensure that liquidity risk and market risk are each monitored and tested regularly, and appropriate measures are in place as required to address any such risk in a prompt manner.
(2) All such risk management and due diligence must be audited by an independent third party on an annual basis and provided to the AFSA upon request.
3.8.4. Content of confirmation notes
For the purposes of COB 9.1.3., a Digital Asset Service Provider Managing a Collective Investment Scheme must include the following general information:
(a) the Digital Asset Service Provider’s name and address;
(b) a description of the Digital Assets;
(c) whether the Transaction is a sale or purchase;
(d) the price or unit price at which the Transaction was executed;
(e) if applicable, a statement that the Transaction was executed on an execution-only basis;
(f) the date and time of the Transaction;
(g) the amount the Digital Asset Service Provider charges in connection with the Transaction, including Commission charges and the amount of any Mark-up or Mark-down, Fees, taxes or duties;
(h) the amount or basis of any amounts received from another Person in connection with the services; and
(i) a statement that the price at which the Transaction has been Executed is on a Historic Price or Forward Price basis, as the case may be.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider may combine items (f) and (j) above in respect of a Transaction where the Client has requested a note showing a single price combining both of these items.
3.9. Requirements for Digital Asset Service Providers Dealing in Investments as Principal or Agent
Guidance: A Digital Asset Service Provider which carries on a Regulated Activity of Dealing in Investments as Principal or Agent in relation to Digital Assets is an Authorised Firm to which provisions of the following AIFC Acts apply either directly or in respect of its officers and Employees who are Approved or Designated Individuals:
FSFR (in whole);
AML (in whole);
Chapter 2 (Client classification) of the COB;
Chapter 3 (Communication with Clients and Financial Promotions) of the COB;
Chapter 4 (Key information and client agreement) of the COB;
COB 5.3 (Appropriateness assessment);
Chapter 6 (Order execution and order handling) of the COB;
Chapter 7 (Conflicts of interest) of the COB;
Chapter 9 (Reporting to Clients) of the COB;
Chapter 15 (Complaints handling and dispute resolution) of the COB;
Chapter 16 (Record keeping and internal audit) of the COB;
Chapter 2 (Controlled and Designated Functions) of the GEN;
Chapter 3 (Control of Authorised Persons) of the GEN;
Chapter 4 (Core Principles) of the GEN;
Chapter 5 (Systems and Controls) of the GEN;
Chapter 6 (Supervision) of the GEN; and
Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC (in whole).
3.9.1. Content of confirmation notes
For the purposes of COB 9.1.3., a Digital Asset Service Provider must include the following general information:
(a) the Digital Asset Service Provider’s name and address;
(b) whether the Digital Asset Service Provider executed the Transaction as principal or agent;
(c) a description of the Digital Asset;
(d) whether the Transaction is a sale or purchase;
(e) the price or unit price at which the Transaction was executed;
(f) if applicable, a statement that the Transaction was executed on an execution-only basis;
(g) the date and time of the Transaction;
(h) the total amount payable by the Client and the date on which it is due;
(i) the amount the Digital Asset Service Provider charges in connection with the Transaction, including Commission charges and the amount of any Mark-up or Mark-down, Fees, taxes or duties; and
(j) the amount or basis of any amounts received from another Person in connection with the services.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider may combine items (f) and (j) above in respect of a Transaction where the Client has requested a note showing a single price combining both of these items.
3.9.2. Appropriateness test
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider Dealing in Investments as Principal or Agent must not carry on a Regulated Activity with or for a Retail Client unless the Digital Asset Service Provider has carried out an appropriateness test of the Retail Client and formed a reasonable view that the Retail Client has:
(a) adequate skills and expertise to understand the risks involved in trading in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives (as the case may be); and
(b) the ability to absorb potentially significant losses resulting from trading in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives (as the case may be).
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must maintain records of the appropriateness test that it carries out in respect of each Retail Client and make such records available to the AFSA on request.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must have appropriate systems and controls and policies and procedures to determine the appropriateness of Retail Clients
Guidance:
(1) To form a reasonable view referred to in DAA 3.9.2.(1) in relation to a Retail Client, a Digital Asset Service Provider should consider issues such as whether the Retail Client:
(a) has sufficient knowledge and experience relating to the type of a Digital Asset or Digital Asset Derivative offered, having regard to such factors as:
(i) how often and in what volumes that Person has traded in the relevant type of a Digital Asset or Digital Asset Derivative; and
(ii) the Retail Client’s relevant qualifications, profession or former profession;
(b) understands the characteristics and risks relating to Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives, and the volatility of their prices;
(c) understands the impact of leverage, due to which, there is potential to make significant losses in trading in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives; and
(d) has the ability, particularly in terms of net assets and liquidity available to the Retail Client, to absorb and manage any losses that may result from trading in the Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives offered.
(2) To be able to demonstrate to the AFSA that it complies with DAA 3.9.2., a Digital Asset Service Provider should have in place systems and controls that include:
(a) pre-determined and clear criteria against which a Retail Client’s ability to trade in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives can be assessed;
(b) adequate records to demonstrate that the Digital Asset Service Provider has undertaken the appropriateness test for each Retail Client; and
(c) in the case of an existing Retail Client with whom the Digital Asset Service Provider has previously traded in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives, procedures to undertake a fresh appropriateness test on at least an annual basis, and if:
(i) a new Digital Asset or Digital Asset Derivative with a materially different risk profile is offered to the Retail Client; or
(ii) there has been a material change in the Retail Client’s circumstances.
(3) If a Digital Asset Service Provider forms the view that it is not appropriate for a Person to trade in Digital Assets or Digital Asset Derivatives, the Digital Asset Service Provider should refrain from offering that service to the Person. As a matter of good practice, the Digital Asset Service Provider should inform the Person of its decision.
3.10. Provision of key features document and disclosure of risks
3.10.1. Provision of key features document to Person
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider which carries on any one or more of the following Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets:
(a) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
(b) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
(c) Advising on Investments; and
(d) Arranging Deals in Investments.
must not provide that service or services to a Person unless it has provided the Person with a key features document.
(2) The key features document must contain the following information if known (or, if not known after having taken reasonable steps to determine this information, a clear statement must be provided that such information is not known):
(a) risks associated with and essential characteristics of the Digital Assets, including where appropriate making reference to the location of any publicly available white paper setting out the features of the Digital Assets;
(b) risks associated with and essential characteristics of the Digital Asset;
(с) whether the Digital Asset is admitted to trading within the AIFC;
(d) (where the Digital Asset Service Provider is involved in Providing Custody or Arranging Custody of the Digital Asset) whether the Client, the Digital Asset Service Provider or a third party is responsible for providing a Digital wallet service in respect of the Digital Asset, and any related risks (including at whose risk the Client’s Digital Assets are held in the Digital wallet, whether it is accessible online or stored offline, what happens if keys to the Digital wallet are lost and what procedures can be followed in such an event);
(e) how the Client may exercise any rights conferred by the Digital Assets; and
(f) any other information relevant to the particular Digital Asset which would reasonably assist the Client to to make informed decisions in respect of it.
(3) The key features document must be provided in good time before the relevant service is provided to a Client, so that the Client to make an informed decision about whether to use the relevant service.
(4) The key features document does not need to be provided to a Client to whom the Digital Asset Service Provider has previously provided that information, if there has been no significant change since the information was previously provided.
(5) A Digital Asset Service Provider may use a key features document prepared by another Person if it has taken reasonable steps to ensure that the information in that document is complete, accurate and up to date.
(6) If a Digital Asset Service Provider provides a Client with a key features document prepared by another Person, the Digital Asset Service Provider remains accountable to the Client to whom the key features document is provided as if that document were prepared by the Digital Asset Service Provider itself.
3.10.2. Risk warnings
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must display prominently on its website the following risk warnings relating to Digital Assets:
(a) (except in the case of a Central Bank Digital Currency) that Digital Assets are not legal tender or backed by a government;
(b) that Digital Assets are subject to extreme volatility and the value of the Digital Asset can fall quickly (including, in respect of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin, if it loses its stability peg);
(c) that an investor in Digital Assets may lose all, or part, of the value of their investment;
(d) that Digital Assets may not always be liquid or transferable;
(e) that investments in Digital Assets may be complex making it hard to understand the risks associated with participating in them;
(f) that Digital Assets can be stolen because of cyber attacks;
(g) that trading in Digital Assets is susceptible to irrational market forces;
(h) that the nature of Digital Assets may lead to an increased risk of Financial Crime;
(i) there being limited or, in some cases, no mechanisms for the recovery of lost or stolen Digital Assets;
(j) the risks of Digital Assets with regard to anonymity, irreversibility of transactions, accidental transactions, transaction recording, and settlement;
(k) that the nature of Digital Assets means that technological difficulties experienced by a Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator may prevent access to or use of a Client’s Digital Assets;
(l) that participating in Digital Assets is not comparable to participating in traditional investments such as Securities; and
(m) that there is no recognised compensation scheme to provide an avenue of redress for aggrieved participants.
(2) If a Digital Asset Service Provider presents any marketing or educational materials and other communications relating to a Digital Asset on a website, in the general media or as part of a distribution made to existing or potential new Clients, it must include the risk warning referred to in 3.10.2 (1) in a prominent place at or near the top of each page of the materials or communication.
(3) If the material referred to in 3.10.2 (1) is provided on a website or an application that can be downloaded to a mobile device, the warning must be:
(a) statically fixed and visible at the top of the screen even when a person scrolls up or down the webpage;
(b) included on each linked webpage on the website; and
(c) If, due to limitations on the medium of communication used, it is not practicable to provide the material referred to in DAA 2.8.10(1), reference may be made instead to the fact that participation in Digital Assets is a high risk investment, accompanied with a link to the relevant section of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s website where the material referred to in DAA 2.8.10 (1) is provided.
3.10.3. Past performance and forecasts of Digital Assets
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that any information or representation relating to past performance, or any future forecast based on past performance or other assumptions, which is provided to or targeted at Retail Clients:
(a) presents a fair and balanced view of the Digital Assets and associated services to which the information or representation relates;
(b) identifies, in an easy-to-understand manner, the source of information from which the past performance is derived and any key facts and assumptions used in that context are clearly explained; and
(c) contains a clear and prominent warning that past performance is not necessarily a reliable indicator of future results.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider should in providing information about the past performance of a Digital Asset:
(a) consider the knowledge and sophistication of the audience to whom the information is targeted;
(b) fully disclose the source and the nature of the past performance presented;
(с) ensure that the time period used is not an inappropriately short period, or a selective period, that is potentially misleading; and
(d) if a comparison is being made, the comparison is fair, clear and not misleading.
3.11. Clients
3.11.1. Investment limits
A Digital Asset Service Provider must maintain effective systems and controls to ensure its compliance with the requirements and limits imposed by the Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC when dealing with a Retail Client who is a resident of the Republic of Kazakhstan.
3.11.2. Calculation of an individual Client’s net assets
(1) For the purposes of calculating an individual Client’s net assets to treat him as an Assessed Professional Client under Rule 2.5.1(a) of the COB, the Digital Asset Service Provider:
(a) must exclude the value of the primary residence of the Client;
(b) must exclude Digital Assets belonging to the Client that are not admitted to trading;
(c) must include only 30% of the market value of a Digital Asset admitted to trading, which belongs to the Client, but must include 100% of the market value of Fiat and Commodity stablecoins backed by reserves, which belong to the Client; and
(d) may include any other assets held directly or indirectly by that Client.
3.12. Prohibitions
(1) A Representative Office must not market a Digital Asset or a Financial Service related to a Digital Asset.
(2) An Authorised Crowdfunding Platform Operating an Investment Crowdfunding Platform must not facilitate a Person investing in the Digital Assets.
(3) An Authorised Firm may not carry on an activity related to a Utility Token or Non-Fungible Token.
(4) The prohibition in (3) does not apply to a Digital Asset Service Provider:
(a) which is authorised to Provide Custody; and
(b) to the extent that it Provides Custody in relation to a Utility Token or Non-fungible Token.
3.13. Obligations
3.13.1. Obligation to report to the AFSA
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must submit to the AFSA a quarterly report that should include its financial statement, its income statement, a calculation of its relevant capital resources and a statement of its compliance and any non-compliance with these Rules.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must provide the following information to the AFSA within 6 months after financial year end:
(a) the number of prospective clients which the Digital Asset Service Provider rejected during the reporting period;
(b) the number of Clients which were offboarded during the reporting period;
(c) the number of Clients where enhanced due diligence was applied;
(d) the total number of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s Clients;
(e) the number of Clients originating from a high risk jurisdiction;
(f) the number of Clients on-boarded on a face-to-face basis;
(g) a description of any changes to the Client onboarding process;
(h) the number of suspicious transaction reports filed during the reporting period;
(i) the number of individuals supporting the MLRO;
(j) when the Digital Asset Service Provider’s risk assessment was last updated and if there were any additional risks;
(j) (if applicable) the number of private keys held;
(k) (if applicable) whether Client’s Digital Assets are held with a third party custodian;
(l)whether the Digital Asset Service Provider forms part of a group, and if so, the group structure;
(m) whether the Digital Asset Service Provider entered into any resource sharing agreements and, if so, the names of the counterparty/company;
(n)whether the Digital Asset Service Provider outsources any of its functions and, if so, any changes to the functions outsourced and to which companies;
(o) an overview of any involvement of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s shareholders in the day-to-day operations of the Digital Asset Service Provider during the reporting period; and
(p) an overview of any instances of market abuse encountered by the Digital Asset Service Provider during the reporting period.
(3) The AFSA may request a Digital Asset Service Provider to submit other returns. The AFSA from time to time may prescribe the required list of returns to be submitted and the returns templates to be used.
(4) Returns submitted to the AFSA must be signed by two (2) Approved Individuals and one of them must be approved to exercise the Finance Officer function.
3.13.2. Obligation to notify the AFSA
If a Digital Asset Service Provider becomes aware, or has a reasonable ground to believe, that it is or may be (or may be about to be) in breach of any of these Rules it must:
(a) notify the AFSA in writing about the breach and the relevant circumstances immediately and not later than within 1 business day of becoming aware of it; and
(b) not make any cash transfers or payments or transfers of liquid assets to its Affiliates or Related Persons, whether by way of dividends or otherwise, without the AFSA’s written consent.
Guidance:
In dealing with a breach, or possible breach, of this part, the AFSA’s primary concern will be the interests of existing and prospective Clients, the potential adverse impact on market participants, and market stability. The AFSA recognises that there will be circumstances in which a problem may be resolved quickly, for example, by support from a parent entity, without jeopardising the interests of Clients and other stakeholders. In such circumstances, it will be in the interests of all parties to minimise the disruption to the firm’s business. The AFSA's will normally seek to work cooperatively with the Digital Asset Service Provider in stressed situations to deal with any problems. There will, however, be circumstances in which it is necessary to take regulatory action to avoid exposing market participants, Clients and other stakeholders to the potential adverse consequences of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s Failure, and the AFSA will not hesitate to take appropriate action if it considers this necessary.
3.14. AFSA power to impose requirements
Without limiting the powers available to the AFSA under Part 8 of the Framework Regulations, the AFSA may direct a Digital Asset Service Provider to do or not do specified things that the AFSA considers are necessary or desirable or to ensure the integrity of the AIFC financial markets, including but not limited to directions imposing on a Digital Asset Service Provider any additional requirements that the AFSA considers appropriate.
4. RULES APPLICABLE TO AUTHORISED FIRMS PROVIDING MONEY SERVICES IN RELATION TO DIGITAL ASSETS AND ISSUANCE OF FIAT STABLECOINS AND COMMODITY STABLECOINS
This Part 4 applies to a Digital Asset Service Provider which is an Authorised Person carrying on, in or from the AIFC, the Regulated Activity of Providing Money Services in relation to Digital Assets.
Guidance
An Authorised Firm Providing Money Services is a Centre Participant to which provisions of the following regulations and rules apply either directly or in respect of its officers and Employees who are Approved Individuals or Designated Individuals:
FSFR (in whole);
AML (in whole);
Chapter 3 (Communications with Clients and Financial Promotions) of the COB;
Chapter 4 (Key information and client agreement) of the COB;
Chapter 7 (Conflicts of interest) of the COB;
Chapter 8 (Client Assets) of the COB;
Chapter 15 (Complaints handling and dispute resolution) of the COB;
Chapter 2 (Controlled and Designated Functions) of the GEN;
Chapter 3 (Control of Authorised Persons) of the GEN;
Chapter 4 (Core Principles) of the GEN;
Chapter 5 (Systems and Controls) of the GEN;
Chapter 6 (Supervision) of the GEN; and
Rules on Currency Regulation and Provision of Information on Currency Transactions in the AIFC.
4.1. Authorisation
A Person wishing to carry on the Regulated Activity of Providing Money Services in relation to Digital Assets in or from the AIFC must be an Authorised Firm licensed by the AFSA.
4.2. Requirements
The AFSA may not grant authorisation or variation of a Licence to carry on the Regulated Activity of Providing Money Services in relation to Digital Assets if:
(a) the applicant does not meet general authorisation requirements under the Framework Regulations and other applicable rules, and
(b) the applicant does not have capital of at least USD 200,000. In the case of a Person applying for authorisation for the Regulated Activity of Providing Money Services in relation to Digital Assets in addition to conducting another Regulated Activity for which the capital requirement is higher than USD 200,000, the highest amount applies.
An Authorised Firm carrying on Regulated Activities, including Providing Money Services, in relation to Digital Assets cannot carry on Regulated Activities in relation to other Investments unless it obtains written approval from the AFSA.
4.3. Mandatory appointments
In addition to the mandatory appointments required by GEN 2.1, an Authorised Person Providing Money Services in relation to Digital Assets must appoint a Chief Information Technology Officer, who is an individual responsible for its ongoing information technology (“IT”) operations, maintenance and security oversight to ensure that the Authorised Firm’s IT systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident.
4.4 Governance arrangements
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must have robust governance arrangements, including a clear organisational structure with well-defined, transparent and consistent lines of responsibility, effective processes to identify, manage, monitor and report the risks to which it is or might be exposed, and adequate internal control mechanisms, including sound administrative and accounting procedures.
(2) A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must have an effective Board of Directors which is collectively accountable for ensuring that the Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s business is managed prudently and soundly. At least one-third of the Board of Directors should comprise independent Directors.
Note: Rule 4.4 (2) will come into force 12 months after the commencement of these Rules.
(3) Members of the Governing Body of the Digital Asset Service Provider must have sufficiently good repute and possess sufficient knowledge, experience, and skills to perform their duties. They must also demonstrate that they are capable of committing sufficient time to effectively perform their duties.
(4) Members of the Governing Body of the Digital Asset Service Provider that issues a Fiat or Commodity stablecoin (an “issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin”) must ensure effective and prudent management of the reserve of assets. The issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must ensure that issuance and redemption of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin is always matched by a corresponding increase or decrease of the reserve of assets.
4.5. Policies and procedures
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must establish, maintain and implement policies and procedures on:
(a) the reserve of assets, including how the reserve assets will be invested and held as applicable;
(b) the custody of the reserve assets, including the segregation of assets;
(c) the rights or the absence of rights granted to the holders of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoin, as specified in DAA 4.11.2;
(d) the mechanism through which Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoin are issued and redeemed;
(e) the protocols for validating transactions in Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoin;
(f) the functioning of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin’s or Commodity stablecoin's proprietary DLT, where the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoin are issued, transferred and stored on such DLT or similar technology that is operated by the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin or a third party acting on its behalf;
(g) the mechanisms to ensure the liquidity of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoin;
(h) the arrangements with third parties, incuding for managing the reserve assets and the investment of the reserve, the custody of reserve assets, and, where applicable, the distribution of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoins to the public;
(i) the written consent of the issuer of the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin given to Persons who may offer or admit to trading the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin;
(j) business continuity and operational resilience, including having in place a business continuity policy and contingency plan
(k) the plan that ensures, in case of an interruption of its systems and procedures, the preservation of essential data and functions and the maintenance of its activities, or, where that is not possible, the timely recovery of such data and functions and the timely resumption of its activities;
(l) the stabilisation mechanism which must in particular:
(i) list the reference assets in relation to which a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin aims at stabilising its value and the composition of such reference assets; and
(ii) describe the type of assets and the precise allocation of assets that are included in the reserve of assets;
(iii) contain a detailed assessment of the risks, including credit risk, market risk, concentration risk and liquidity risk resulting from the reserve of assets;
(iv) describe the procedure by which a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin is issued and redeemed, and the procedure by which such issuance and redemption will result in a corresponding increase and decrease in the reserve of assets;
(v) mention whether a part of the reserve of assets is invested as provided in DAA 4.7.4;
(vi) describe the procedure to purchase a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin and to redeem such stablecoin against the reserve of assets, and list the persons or categories of persons who are entitled to do so.
(m) complaint handling;
(n) conflicts of interests;
(o) recovery and winddown; and
(p) the management of reserve assets and the liquidity risks associated with redemptions.
(2) The policies and procedures required by DAA 4.5.1(n) must include an independent audit to be conducted by a third party at least annually to assess: (i) whether the amount required to achieve recovery and orderly winddown is set out in the policy; and (ii) whether that amount is sufficient.
4.6. Technology governance, controls and security
4.6.1. Systems, controls and procedures
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that it implements systems and controls necessary to address the risks, including cybersecurity-related risks, to its business. The relevant systems and controls should take into account such factors that include the nature, scale and complexity of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s business, the diversity of its operations, the volume and size of its business and the level of risk inherent in its business.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must have adequate systems and controls to enable it to calculate and monitor its capital resources and its compliance with the requirements in DAA 4.2. The systems and controls must be in writing and must be appropriate for the nature, scale and complexity of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s business and its risk profile.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must employ appropriate and proportionate systems, resources, and procedures to ensure the continued and regular performance of its services and activities.
(4) If the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin decides to discontinue providing services and activities, such as issuing the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin, the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must present a plan to the AFSA for such discontinuation, for the AFSA’s approval, and comply with any requirements imposed by the AFSA in relation to such discontinuation.
(5) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin must identify sources of operational risks and minimise those risks through the development of appropriate systems, controls and procedures.
(6) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin must have internal control mechanisms and effective procedures for risk management.
4.6.2. Technology governance and risk assessment framework
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must implement a technology governance and risk assessment framework which must be comprehensive and proportionate to the nature, scale, and complexity of the risks inherent in their business model.
(2) The technology governance and risk assessment framework must apply to all technologies relevant to a Digital Asset Service Provider’s business and clearly set out the Digital Asset Service Provider’s cybersecurity objectives.
(3) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its technology governance and risk assessment framework is capable of determining the necessary processes and controls that it must implement in order to adequately mitigate any risks identified.
(4) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its technology governance and risk assessment framework addresses appropriate governance policies and system development controls, such as a development, maintenance and testing process for technology systems and operations controls, back-up controls, capacity and performance planning and availability testing.
4.6.3. Cyber-security matters
A Digital Asset Service Provider must take reasonable steps to ensure that its IT systems are reliable and adequately protected from external attack or incident.
4.6.4. Cyber-security policy
(1) A Digital Asset Service Provider must create and implement a policy which outlines their procedures for the protection of its electronic systems.
(2) A Digital Asset Service Provider must ensure that its cyber-security policy is reviewed at least annually by its Chief Information Technology Officer.
(3) The cyber-security policy must, as a minimum, address the following areas:
(a) information security;
(b) data governance and classification;
(с) access controls;
(d) capacity and performance planning;
(e) systems operations and availability concerns;
(f) systems and network security, consensus protocol methodology, code and smart contract validation and audit processes;
(g) systems and application development and quality assurance;
(h) physical security and environmental controls, including procedures around access to premises and systems;
(i) customer data privacy;
(j) procedures regarding the facilitation of Digital Asset transactions initiated by a Client including considering multi-factor authentication or any better standard for Digital Asset transactions that—
(i) exceed transaction limits set by the Client, such as accumulative transaction limits over a period of time; and
(ii) are initiated after a change of personal details by the Client, such as the address of a Digital wallet;
(k) procedures regarding Client authentication and session controls including the maximum incorrect attempts for entering a password, appropriate time-out controls and password validity periods;
(l) procedures establishing adequate authentication checks when a change to a Client’s account information or contact details is requested;
(m) vendor and third-party service provider management;
(n) monitoring and implementing changes to core protocols not directly controlled by the Digital Asset Service Provider;
(o) incident response, including root cause analysis and rectification activities to prevent reoccurrence;
(p) governance framework and escalation procedures for effective decision-making and proper management and control of risks and emergency incidents, including responses to ransomware and other forms of cyberattacks; and
(q) hardware and infrastructure standards, including network lockdown, services/desktop security and firewall standards.
4.7. Reserve of assets
4.7.1. Requirements related to a reserve of assets
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must make reserve assets available for examination and for verification of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin's or Commodity stablecoin's disclosures on the AFSA’s request.
(2) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must fully back such stablecoin with reserve assets, meaning that the value of the reserve assets must at all times be at least equal to the nominal value of all outstanding units of the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin in circulation.
(3) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin must issue stablecoins whose reserve assets consist of only one of the following fiat currencies (“reference assets”):
(a) Australian dollar;
(b) British pound sterling;
(c) Canadian dollar;
(d) Chinese yuan renminbi;
(e) European euro;
(f) Japanese yen;
(g) New Zealand dollar;
(h) Norwegian krone;
(i) Swedish krona;
(j) Swiss franc;
(k) United States dollar; or
(l) any other currency, except for Kazakhstani tenge, agreed with the AFSA.
(3-1) Issuer of a Commodity stablecoin must issue stablecoins whose reserve assets consist of referenced Commodities only.
(4) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must ensure that the reserve of assets is operationally segregated from the proprierary assets of issuer of a Fiat stablecoin’s or Commodity Stablecoin's and from the reserve of assets of other Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin.
(5) The reserve of assets must be composed and managed in such a way that:
(a) the risks associated to the assets referenced by the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin are covered; and
(b) the liquidity risks associated with the permanent redemption rights of the holders are addressed.
(6) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin that offers two or more categories of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoin to the public must operate and maintain segregated pools of reserves of assets for each category of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoins. Each of these pools of reserve of assets must be managed separately.
(7) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must determine the aggregate value of reserve assets by using market prices. Their aggregated value must be at least equal to the aggregate value of the claims on the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin from holders of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoins in circulation.
(8) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must conduct monthly reconciliation of each Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin to demonstrate that the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin is fully backed with reserve assets.
(9) The reconciliation must include the information that the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin meets requirements under DAA 4.7.1 and DAA 4.7.3.
Guidance:
If an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin accepts fiat currency from a Client in exchange for giving them Fiat stablecoins. The fiat currency held by the issuer would be considered as Client Money, and the issuer of a Fiat Stablecoin would need to comply with the Client Money provisions in the COB.
4.7.2. Independent audit
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must mandate an independent third party audit of the reserve assets annually but not later than four months after the close of its financial year.
(2) The result of the audit conducted under (1) must be provided to the AFSA without delay, at the latest within 4 weeks of the reference date of the valuation. The result of the audit must be published within three weeks of the date of the provision of the result of the audit to the AFSA.
(3) The AFSA may instruct the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin to delay the publication of the result of the audit in the event that:
(a) the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin has been required to implement a recovery arrangement;
(b) the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin has been required to implement a redemption plan;
(c) it is deemed necessary to protect the interests of holders of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin;
(d) it is deemed necessary to avoid a significant adverse effect on the financial system of the AIFC;
(e) the AFSA considers appropriate in pursuing the Regulatory Objectives.
(4) The valuation referred to in DAA 4.7.1 (7) at market prices must be made by using mark-to-market.
(5) When using mark-to-market:
(a) the reserve asset must be valued at the more prudent side of the bid and offer unless the reserve asset can be closed out at mid-market; and
(b) only good quality market data must be used. The issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must record the basis on which they deem market data of good quality, and ensure that such data is assessed on the basis of all of the following factors:
(i) the number and quality of the counterparties;
(ii) the volume and turnover in the market of the reserve asset; and
(iii) size of the reserve of assets.
(6) If the use of mark-to-market is not possible or the market data is not of sufficient quality, a reserve asset must be valued conservatively by using mark-to-model.
(7) The mark-to-model must accurately estimate the intrinsic value of the reserve asset, based on all of the following up-to-date key factors:
(a) the volume and turnover in the market of that reserve asset;
(b) the size of the reserve of assets; and
(c) market risk, interest rate risk, and credit risk attached to the reserve asset.
(8) When using mark-to-model, the amortised cost method must not be used.
4.7.3. Custody of reserve assets
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must establish, maintain and implement custody policies, procedures and contractual arrangements that ensure at all times that:
(a) the reserve assets are not encumbered nor pledged as Collateral;
(b) the reserve assets are held in custody;
(c) the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin has prompt access to the reserve assets to meet any redemption requests from the holders of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoin;
(d) concentration risk in the custody of reserve assets is mitigated and there is appropriate contingency planning in the event that a custodian is unable to perform its obligations; and
(e) concentration risks in the reserve assets are avoided; and
(e) where appropriate there is proper due diligence of the robustness of the custodian used, including as regards ensuring that there is a credible and comprehensive wind-down plan in place for each custodian used.
(2) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin that issues two or more categories of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoins must have a custody policy for each pool of reserve of assets.
(3) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must operate and maintain only one custody policy per category of Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin.
(4) The reserve assets must be held in custody by no later than 5 working days after the issuance of the relevant Fiat stablecoins or Commodity stablecoins.
(5) A Person providing custody services must be a Person different from the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin.
(6) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin must ensure that a Person appointed as a custodian of the reserve assets has the necessary licences, expertise and market reputation to act as a custodian of such reserve assets, taking into account the accounting practices, safekeeping procedures and internal control mechanisms.
(7) The contractual arrangements between the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity stablecoin and custodians must ensure that the reserve assets held in custody are protected against claims of the custodians’ creditors.
(8) The custody policies and procedures referred to in (1) must set out the selection criteria for the appointments of custodians of the reserve assets and the procedure to review such appointments at least annually.
(9) A custodian of the reserve assets backing the Fiat stablecoin must comply with the rules relevant to Providing Custody, including those set out in chapter 8 of the COB (or, to the extent that the custodian is not based in the AIFC, in accordance with the rules of the jurisdiction of the custodian as well as any additional requirements which the AFSA may deem relevant to ensure that equivalent protections are in place as those provided by the Legal Framework provided by the AFSA).
(10) A custodian of the reserve assets backing the Commodity stablecoin must ensure that reserve assets are recorded, registered and held in an appropriate manner to safeguard and control such reserve assets.
(11) A custodian of the reserve assets backing the Commodity stablecoin must ensure compliance with any additional requirements which the AFSA may deem relevant to ensure that equivalent protections are in place.
4.7.4. Investment of reserve assets
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin must ensure that it has sufficient uninvested reserve assets to be able to meet the issuer of the Fiat stablecoin’s ongoing obligations under DAA 4.7.1 at all times.
(2) The instruments which the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin invests the reserve assets into must be held in custody in accordance with DAA 4.7.3.
(3) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin must hold at least 95% of reserve assets denominated in the reference assets in:
(a) cash or cash equivalents including central bank reserve deposits, bank deposits and Central Bank Digital Currency, which must comprise at least 30% of reserve assets; or
(b) highly liquid financial instruments with minimal market risk, credit risk, and concentration risk, which could be liquidated rapidly with minimal adverse market impact, including the following:
(i) debt securities with residual maturity of 90 days or less, issued by governments or central banks of the reference assets specified in DAA 4.7.1(3) or local or international government agencies;
(ii) repurchase agreements with a maturity of 7 or less which are backed by (i) above; and
(iii) short-term government money market funds.
(4) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin may invest up to 5% of reserve assets in precious metals. If an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin invests in precious metals, a 20% haircut applies to such investment.
(5) All losses, including fluctuations in the value of the financial instruments referred to in (3), must be borne by the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin.
(6) All profits or losses and any counterparty or operational risks that result from the investment of the reserve of assets must be borne by the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin.
(7) If an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin invests a part of the reserve of assets, it must describe in detail the investment policy and contain an assessment of how that investment policy can affect the value of the reserve of assets.
(8) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin must, at all times, manage reserve assets effectively and prudently, at least by:
(a)maintaining reserve assets only with custodians, as agreed with the AFSA during the authorisation process:
(i) appropriately and validly authorised to hold the specific type of reserve assets; and
(ii) that segregate reserve assets maintained by them from their own funds;
(b) ensuring newly added reserve assets are held in accordance with their custody arrangements;
(c) putting in place policies and procedures to ensure reserve assets can be promptly accessed and converted into the reference assets at all times, for the purpose of processing and completing any redemption requests in accordance with DAA 4.11.2; and
(d) conducting regular risk assessments to evaluate the appropriateness of the composition of reserve assets in ensuring compliance with DAA 4.7.1(2).
(9) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin must insert provisions in their agreements with the relevant financial services firms to ensure the AFSA has priority access to reserve assets, to the further extent permitted by applicable laws, for the purposes of the AFSA fulfilling its regulatory obligations.
4.8. White paper
4.8.1. Content and form of the white paper
(1) A Digital Asset white paper for a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must contain all of the following information:
(a) information about the issuer of a stablecoin;
(b) information about the stablecoin;
(c) information on the rights and obligations attached to a stablecoin;
(d) information on the underlying technology used to operate the stablecoin;
(e) information on risks;
(f) information on the reserve of assets;
(g) the method and all factors used to calculate the value of reserve assets;
(h) the initial value and composition of the reserve assets;
(i) the conditions and the procedure to purchase stablecoins and redeem such stablecoins against reserve assets;
(j) details of the arrangements for the custody and management of the reserve assets;
(k) the rights provided to holders of the stablecoin;
(l) a summary of the redemption policies; and
(m) any other information that the AFSA requires..
(2) All information in the white paper referred to in (1):
(a) must be fair, clear and not misleading;
(b) must not contain material omissions; and
(c) must be presented in a concise and comprehensible form.
(3) The white paper must not contain any assertions on the future value of the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin.
(4) The white paper must contain a clear and unambiguous statement that:
(a) the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin may lose their value in part or in full;
(b) the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin may not always be transferable; and
(c) the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin may not be liquid.
(5) The white paper for a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must contain a statement from the management body of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin confirming that the white paper complies with the requirements of this Rule and that, to the best knowledge of the management body, the information presented in the white paper:
(a) is in accordance with the facts; and
(b) makes no material omission likely to affect any decision to participate in the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin.
(6) The white paper must contain a summary that in brief and non-technical language provides key information about the offer to the public of the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin or about the intended admission of the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin to trading on a Digital Asset Trading Facility.
(7) The summary must be presented and laid out in easily understandable words and in a clear and comprehensive form, using characters of readable size.
(8) The format and content of the summary of the white paper must provide, in conjunction with the white paper, appropriate information about the characteristics of the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins concerned in order to help potential holders of the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins to make an informed decision.
(9) The summary must indicate that:
(a) the holders of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin have a redemption right at any moment; and
(b) the conditions of redemption.
(10) The summary must contain a warning that:
(a) it should be read as an introduction to the white paper; and
(b) the potential holder should base any decision to purchase a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin on the content of the whole white paper.
(11) Before the publication of the white paper no marketing communications or Financial Promotions can be made. This restriction does not affect the ability of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin to conduct market soundings.
4.8.2. Modification of the white paper
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must inform in writing the AFSA of any intended change of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin's business model likely to have a significant influence on the purchase decision of any actual or potential holder of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin, which occurs after the authorisation or approval of the white paper. Such changes may include:
(a) the governance arrangements, including reporting lines to the management body and risk management framework;
(b) the reserve assets and the custody of the reserve assets;
(c) the rights granted to the holders of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin;
(d) the mechanism through which Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin are issued and redeemed;
(e) the protocols for validating the transactions in Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin;
(f) the functioning of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin's proprietary DLT, where the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin are issued, transferred and stored on such a DLT;
(g) the mechanisms to ensure the liquidity of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins, including the liquidity management policy for issuers of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins;
(h) the arrangements with third parties, including for managing the reserve assets and the investment of the reserve, the custody of reserve assets, and, where applicable, the distribution of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin to the public;
(i) the complaint handling procedure; or
(j) the money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment and general policies and procedures.
(2) The AFSA must be informed in writing 30 working days before the intended changes take effect.
(3) The AFSA must grant its approval or refuse to approve the draft modified white paper within 30 working days following the acknowledgement of receipt.
(4) During the examination of the draft modified white paper, the AFSA may request an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin to provide any additional information, explanations or justifications on the draft modified white paper.
(5) If the AFSA requests additional information, the time limit of 30 working days must commence only when the AFSA has received the additional information requested.
(6) Where approving the modified white paper, the AFSA may require the issuer of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins:
(a) to put in place mechanisms to ensure the protection of holders of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins, when a potential modification of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin’s operations can have a material effect on the value, stability, or risks of the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins or reserve assets;
(b) to take any appropriate corrective measures to address concerns related to financial stability, the smooth operation of payment systems, or market integrity.
4.8.3. Liability of issuers of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins for the information given in the white paper
(1) If an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin or its management or supervisory bodies has breached requirements set out in DAA 4.8.1(2), by providing in its white paper or in a modified white paper information which is not complete, fair or clear or by providing information which is misleading, a holder of such Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins or bodies can claim for damage arising from the breach.
(2) To demonstrate that the issuer has breached DAA 4.8.1 (2), a holder of Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must present evidence indicating that the issuer of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins has breached DAA 4.8.1(2) and that such breach had an impact on the holder’s decision to buy, sell or exchange the said Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin.
(3) No claim for damages arising from information provided in a summary (whether in its original form or as translated) may be made by a holder of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins unless:
(a) the summary is misleading, inaccurate or inconsistent when read together with the other parts of the white paper; or
(b) the summary does not provide, when read together with the other parts of the white paper, key information in order to aid potential holders when considering whether to purchase such Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins.
4.8.4. Publication of the white paper
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must publish on its website its white paper as approved and as modified.
(2) The approved white paper must be publicly accessible by no later than the starting date of the offer to the public of the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin or the admission of those tokens to trading on a Digital Asset Trading Facility.
(3) The approved white paper and the modified white paper must remain available on the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin’s website for as long as the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin is available to the public.
4.9. AFSA power to limit the amount of Fiat stablecoins
(1) The AFSA may limit the amount of Fiat stablecoins to be issued or impose a minimum denomination to the Fiat stablecoins if the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan issues an opinion that the Fiat stablecoins pose a serious threat to monetary policy transmission, smooth operation of payment systems or monetary sovereignty. The AFSA may specify the applicable limit or minimum denomination amount.
(2) The AFSA may, at any time and in its sole discretion, prohibit or otherwise limit the issuance or use of a Fiat stablecoin before or after an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin which has been approved issues such Fiat stablecoin. The AFSA may require that any such issuer of a Fiat stablecoin delist, halt, or otherwise limit or curtail activity with respect to such Fiat stablecoin.
4.10. Monitoring of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins
(1) If the AFSA considers it appropriate, it may require the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin to provide a report with the following information:
(a) the customer base, including details of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin’s customer base which must include a breakdown of the type of customer by reference to their category, size, type and geographical distribution;
(b) the value of the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin issued and the size of the reserve of assets;
(c) the average number and value of issuances and redemption requests per day; and
(d) information that the AFSA requires.
(2) Digital Asset Service Providers, which provide services in relation to Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins, must make reasonable efforts to provide the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin with information necessary to prepare the report, including by reporting off chain transactions.
4.11. Miscellaneous
4.11.1. Ongoing information to holders of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must in a clear, accurate and transparent manner disclose at least once a quarter, on a publicly and easily accessible place on its website, the amount of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins in circulation, and the value and the composition of the reserve assets.
(2) In case of a Fiat stablecoin, the published information must demonstrate that the reserves:
(a) are at least equal in value to the notional value of outstanding Fiat stablecoins in circulation (that value is calculated by multiplying the number of Fiat stablecoins in circulation by the purported pegged Fiat Currency value);
(b) are denominated in the reference currency; and
(c) are held in segregated accounts with properly regulated custodians.
(3) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must publish as soon as possible on a publicly and easily accessible place on its website a brief, clear, accurate and transparent summary of the audit report and the full and unredacted audit report in relation to the reserve assets.
(4) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must as soon as possible and in a clear, accurate and transparent manner disclose on its website any event that has or is likely to have a significant effect on the value of the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin, or on the reserve assets.
4.11.2. Redemption rights
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must grant holders redemption rights at all times on the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin, and on the reserve assets when the issuer is not able to comply with its obligations.
(2) Holders should be able to redeem their Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins at any moment and at par value againts the referenced asset, by delivering the assets backing the Commodity stablecoins or other means approved by the AFSA.
(3) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must ensure that all requests made by holders, with valid client agreements with the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin, to redeem the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin at par are processed and completed:
(a) promptly and no later than 5 working days of any such requests, in case of a Fiat stablecoin, or within reasonable timeframe, in case of a Commodity stablecoin; or
(b) if the trading or settlement of the reserve assets is subject to significant disruption events beyond the control of an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin, promptly and no later than 5 working days of the trading or settlement of reserve assets no longer being significantly impacted by such disruption events, in case of a Fiat stablecoin, or within reasonable timeframe, in case of a Commodity stablecoin.
(4) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin is allowed to charge a reasonable fee for processing and completing redemption requests. The redemption fee must be clearly disclosed on the website of the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin and must be proportionate and commensurate with the actual costs incurred by the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin in completing the redemption request.
(5) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must establish, maintain and implement clear and detailed policies and procedures setting out:
(a) the conditions, including thresholds, periods and timeframes, for holders of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin to exercise this right;
(b) the mechanisms and procedures to ensure the redemption of the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin;
(c) the valuation, or the principles of valuation, of the Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins and of the reserve assets when this right is exercised by the holder of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin;
(d) the settlement conditions when this right is exercised; and
(e) measures the issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin is taking to adequately manage increases or decreases of the reserve, to avoid any adverse impacts on the market of the assets included in the reserve.
4.11.3. Ongoing capital
(1) In addition to DAA 4.2(b), an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must ensure that it maintains at all times ongoing capital resources in the amount of 2% of the average outstanding Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins in relation to each category of Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin issued by it.
(2) The ongoing capital referred to in 4.11.3(1) should consist of the Common Equity Tier 1 items and instruments.
(3) If an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin offers more than one category of Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins, the amount of the average outstanding Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins should be the sum of the average amounts of the reserve assets backing each category.
Guidance:
The term ‘average outstanding Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoin’ refers to the average amount of reserve assets at the end of each calendar day, calculated over the preceding 6 (six) months. If the relevant period does not exceed 6 (six) months, an issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin should calculate the average outstanding Fiat stablecoins or Commodity Stablecoins based on the actual data.
4.11.4. Prohibitions
(1) Issuer of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin is prohibited from granting any interest to holders of the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin.
(2) For the purposes of this Rule, any remuneration or any other benefit related to the length of time during which a holder of a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin holds such a Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin must be treated as interest.
(3) The interest includes net compensation or discount, with an equivalent effect of an interest received by the holder, directly from the issuer or through third parties, directly associated with the Fiat stablecoin or Commodity Stablecoin or through the remuneration or pricing of other products.
(4) The issuance of stablecoins that aim or purport to maintain a stable value via protocols that provide for the increase or decrease of the supply of such stablecoins or other digital assets in response to changes in demand is prohibited.
RULES AND MECHANISMS OF COOPERATION OF UNBACKED DIGITAL ASSET EXCHANGES AND/OR CENTRE PARTICIPANTS AUTHORIZED TO CARRY OUT DIGITAL ASSETS-RELATED ACTIVITIES WITH SECOND-TIER BANK OF THE REPUBLIC OF KAZAKHSTAN
1. GENERAL PROVISIONS
1.1 These Rules on "Rules and mechanisms of cooperation of Unbacked Digital Asset Exchanges and/or the Centre Participants authorised to carry out digital assets-related activities with second-tier bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan" (hereinafter - the "Rules") are developed in accordance with paragraph 5 of Article 4-1 of the Constitutional Statute of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated December 7, 2015 No. 438-V "On the Astana International Financial Centre" (hereinafter - the "Constitutional Statute”) and paragraph 2 of Article 11 of the Law of of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated February 6, 2023 № 193-VII “On Digital Assets in the of the Republic of Kazakhstan”.
1.2 The basic definitions used in these Rules are specified in Schedule 1. Other definitions used in these Rules and not specified in Schedule 1 are used in accordance with the acting law of the Astana International Financial Centre (hereinafter – “Centre” or “AIFC”).
1.3 These Rules regulate rules and mechanisms of cooperation of Digital Asset Service Providers with second-tier banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan and with National postal operator.
1.4 These Rules come into effect from the date of signing and apply to Digital Asset Service Providers, second-tier banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan and with National postal operator.
1.5 Any mention of or reference to the phrase "second-tier banks" shall be read as if it were a reference to "second-tier banks" and "National postal operator".
2. RULES AND MECHANISMS OF СOOPERATION OF DIGITAL ASSET SERVICE PROVIDERS WITH SECOND-TIER BANKS OF THE REPUBLIC OF KAZAKHSTAN
2.1. Opening of bank accounts by second-tier banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan
2.1.1. Within the framework of interaction second-tier banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan:
a) open one or several bank accounts for Digital Asset Service Providers authorised in the AIFC in accordance with the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan.
b) ensure control over Clients deposits and withdrawals of money for the purposes of Clients transactions with Digital Assets, customer due diligence and compliance with anti-money laundering and countering the financing of terrorism (AML/CFT) requirements, including identification and suspension of suspicious transactions.
c) ensure effective AML/CFT monitoring in particular in case of Clients of Digital Asset Service Providers depositing their bank accounts with money.
2.1.2. A bank shall assess the ML/TF risk of the Digital Asset Service Provider. If a Digital Asset Service Provider is assigned a high level of ML/TF risk, a bank shall apply enhanced customer due diligence measures and shall be responsible for the following when carrying out banking operations:
a) assessing the extent to which the services (products) provided by the Digital Asset Service Provider are exposed to ML/TF risks;
b) conducting due diligence procedures when establishing a business relationship, which include, in addition to the due diligence measures provided for Clients, obtaining and recording information about the reputation and nature of the Digital Asset Service Provider's business and measures taken against it by the Astana Financial Services Authority;
c) termination of business relationships with the Digital Asset Service Provider in cases where a bank has detected the facts of the use by the Digital Asset Service Provider of accounts held in a Shell Bank;
d) refusal to establish or termination of business relationships with a Digital Asset Service Provider whose founders are registered in a foreign country which is:
I. included in the list of states (territories) that do not or insufficiently implement the recommendations of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) compiled by the authorised financial monitoring body;
II. subject to international sanctions under the United Nations Security Council resolutions;
III. included in the list of offshore zones in accordance with the Decree of the Management Board of the Agency of the Republic of Kazakhstan on Regulation and Development of Financial Market dated 24 February 2020 № 8 "On the establishment of the List of offshore zones for the purposes of banking and insurance activities, activities of professional participants of the securities market and other licensed activities on the securities market, activities of joint stock investment funds and activities of organisations engaged in microfinance activities", registered in the Register of state registration of regulatory legal acts under №20095;
IV. identified by the bank as posing a high ML/TF risk based on other factors (information on the level of corruption, illegal production, trafficking and/or transit of drugs, information on support for international terrorism, and others).
e) monitoring and examining transactions with the Digital Asset Service Provider's money, as well as preventing illegal withdrawal of funds abroad, including to offshore zones;
f) taking measures set out by the requirements of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan on counteraction to legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime and terrorism financing in case of detection of suspicious transactions with money and (or) other property (hereinafter – “suspicious transactions”);
g) termination of business relationships with the Digital Asset Service Provider in cases set out by the requirements of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan on counteraction to legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime and terrorism financing;
h) ensuring that the Source of Funds of the Digital Asset Service Provider is verified when depositing a bank account;
i) ensuring that records of money transactions are kept, and the information is provided to the authorised financial monitoring body;
j) ensuring that documents, data and/or information obtained and collected as part of the due diligence of the Digital Asset Services Provider are retained for at least five years;
k) verification of affiliation and (or) involvement of the Digital Asset Service Provider and its beneficial owner with a politically exposed person, his/her spouse and close relatives in cases established by the requirements of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan on counteraction to legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime and terrorism financing;
l) submission of necessary information to the authorised financial monitoring body in case of detection of suspicious transactions within the period of time set out by the requirements of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan on counteraction legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime or financing of terrorism;
m) a bank must conduct enhanced customer due diligence measures with respect to the bank's Clients conducting occasional banking transactions with the Digital Asset Services Provider when a transaction amount equals to or exceeds USD 1,000 (one thousand) in equivalent at the market foreign exchange rate on the date of the banking transaction, and shall be responsible for:
i. ensuring verification of the Source of Funds of the bank's Clients in case of making transfer in favour of a Digital Asset Service Provider carrying on an activity of Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility;
ii. taking measures set out by the requirements of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan on counteraction legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime and financing of terrorism in case of detection of suspicious transactions;
iii. monitoring and examining operations with the bank's Clients' money, as well as preventing illegal withdrawal of funds abroad, including to offshore zones;
iv. termination of business relationships with the bank's Clients in cases provided under the requirements of the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan on counteraction to legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime and terrorism financing.
A bank shall ensure that the Сlients comply with the limits established by the Rules of formation of risk management and internal control system for second-tier banks, branches of non-resident banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan, approved by the Decree of the Management Board of the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan dated 12 November 2019 № 188 in respect of various categories of Clients on operations with Digital Assets.
n) When opening a bank account to service Clients transactions, a Digital Asset Services Provider shall submit the following documents:
i. a Digital Asset Services Provider’s licence issued by the Astana Financial Services Authority;
ii. an extract from the register confirming the registration of a Digital Asset Service Provider as a Centre Participant;
iii. a Digital Asset Services Provider’s business plan and business model;
iv. a Digital Asset Service Provider's policy on combating ML/TF;
v. order on the appointment of the Chief Executive Officer of a Digital Asset Service Provider;
vi. information on the executive body of a Digital Asset Service Provider and its Chief Executive Officer (identity document, proof of residence, letters of recommendation, information on the absence of an outstanding or unexpunged criminal conviction).
o) Effective internal control is ensured by forming appropriate management controls and a control culture (control environment).
p) Management control and control culture (control environment) characterise the general attitude, awareness and practical actions of the bank's board of directors and management board aimed at the establishment and effective functioning of the internal control system.
2.2. Requirements to bank accounts of a Digital Asset Service Provider
2.2.1 Following is used to open bank accounts to service the Clients’ transactions of a Digital Asset Service Provider:
a) documents required by the Rules of formation of risk management and internal control system of second-tier banks, branches of non-resident banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan, approved by Decree of the Management Board of the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan No. 188 dated 12 November 2019;
b) documents required by the Rules of internal control for the purposes on counteraction to legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime and terrorism financing and financing the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction for second-tier banks, branches of non-resident banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan and National postal operator, approved by the Decree of the Management Board of the Agency of the Republic of Kazakhstan on Regulation and Development of Financial Market No.18 dated 22 March 2020;
c) documents required by the Rules of opening, maintenance and closing of clients' bank accounts approved by the Decree of the Management Board of the National Bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan No.207 dated 31 August 2016 and bylaws of second-tier banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan.
2.2.2 A Digital Asset Service Provider opens bank accounts in one or several second-tier banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan to hold Сlients money in national, or foreign currency.
2.2.3 Digital Asset Service Providers shall hold Сlients money and its own money in separate accounts.
2.2.4 When depositing bank accounts in accordance with the requirements of legal acts indicated in rule 2.2.1 above, to service Client transactions of a Digital Asset Service Provider, second-tier banks of the Republic of Kazakhstan shall develop effective mechanisms of carrying out verification of Client funds.
2.2.5 Clients of a Digital Asset Services Provider are prohibited to carry out following transactions:
a) Third-party deposits and withdrawals (deposits and withdrawals can only be made from the Сlients’ own bank account or Virtual account with confirmation from the servicing bank that the bank account and Virtual account belong to this person); and,
b) withdrawal of fiat (money) from the Virtual account to the bank account of third persons.
2.2.6 A Digital Asset Service Provider shall ensure compliance with the requirements of rule 2.2.5 in cooperation with the second-tier bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan, with which a Digital Asset Service Provider has opened a bank account.
2.2.7 A Digital Asset Service Provider shall transfer funds from its Client bank account(s) opened with a second-tier bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan to its Client's bank account (when withdrawing by him/her money from a Digital Asset Service Provider) only after the second-tier bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan confirms that this bank account belongs to the Client.
2.2.8 The exchange of information between a Digital Asset Service Provider and a second-tier bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan shall be conducted on the basis of an agreement(s).
2.2.9 A Digital Asset Service Provider shall keep records of the Clients Money of the Digital Asset Service Provider through individual Virtual accounts. Such accounts shall be used to record fiat funds (money) transactions of the Digital Asset Service Provider’s Clients. If technically possible, the Digital Asset Service Provider may operate without keeping records of Clients Money through Virtual Accounts.
3. REQUIREMENTS FOR DIGITAL ASSET SERVICE PROVIDERS
3.1. Limits for investing
3.1.1. Digital Asset Service Provider is required to ensure effective monitoring systems and control measures (monitoring) to prevent individual Retail Clients - residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan from depositing more than 1,000 (one thousand) USD within one calendar month. If individual Retail Clients - residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan pass the relevant testing conducted by the Digital Asset Service Provider, confirming the knowledge, experience, and qualifications in the field of high-risk investment, the depositing above of the aforementioned limit is allowed.
3.1.2. A Digital Asset Service Provider shall have policies and procedures for supervising compliance with the requirements of rule 3.1.1 above.
3.1.3. A Digital Asset Service Provider ensures compliance with the limits on investments in Digital Assets by individual Retail Clients - residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan in good faith, with due diligence and duty of care, as provided under rule 3.1.1 above, through efficient and comprehensive exchange of information between Digital Asset Service Providers. When exchanging information (data) about limits with another Digital Asset Service Provider, the Digital Asset Service Provider ensures the accuracy, reliability, completeness, and timeliness of such information.
Guidance: Calculation of the limit
Only purchase transactions of Digital Assets in the jurisdiction of the Centre are taken into account when calculating the limit.
3.1.4. Staking services are provided by an Operator of Digital Asset Trading Facility and a Digital Asset Service Provider to individual Retail Clients - residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan, taking into account the requirements of rule 3.1.1 of these Rules and provisions of rule 2.13.3 of the AIFC Rules On Digital Asset Activities dated September 10, 2023 (AIFC Rules No. FR00062 of 2023).
3.1.5. Digital asset staking services are provided to legal entities — residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan if they are classified as Professional Clients in accordance with the requirements of rule 2.3. of the AIFC Conduct of Business Rules dated December 10, 2017 (AIFC Rules No. FR0005 0f 2017).
3.1.6. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator is allowed to provide margin trading services with Digital Assets to individual Retail Clients - residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan, in compliance with the requirements of rule 3.1.1. of these Rules, as well as in accordance with the rules 4.2.1., 8.2.6., 8.2.21., 8.2.22., 8.3.11., Schedule №2 of the AIFC Conduct of Business Rules dated December 10, 2017 (AIFC Rules No. FR0005 0f 2017) and rules 2.7.4., 2.7.2. of the AIFC Rules On Digital Asset Activities dated September 10, 2023 (AIFC Rules No. FR00062 of 2023).
A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator within margin trading provides to Retail and Professional Clients the right to trade on margin within the limits set for these Client categories, while the Client's loss cannot exceed the pre-funded amount.
3.1.7. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and a Digital Asset Service Provider are allowed to provide services to Clients with derivative instruments (Digital Asset Derivatives) on Digital Assets, subject to compliance with the requirements of rules 2.8.8., 3.6.3. and 3.9.2. of the AIFC Rules On Digital Asset Activities dated September 10, 2023 (AIFC Rules No. FR00062 of 2023).
3.1.8. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and Digital Asset Service Provider must not offer or provide any facility or service that allows their Clients its facility to lend a Digital Asset to another Person unless it is reasonably satisfied that the Client is a Professional Client.
3.1.9. A Digital Asset Service Provide and Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator are prohibited to provide services to an individual and a legal entity – a resident of the Republic of Kazakhstan by conducting Crypto - lending operations by attracting fiat through providing Digital Assets as a Collateral.
3.1.10. Legal entities - residents of the Republic of Kazakhstan can be Clients of Digital Asset Service Providers only if they are miners/mining pools or if they are classified as Professional Clients in accordance with the requirements of rule 2.3. of the AIFC Conduct of Business Rules dated December 10, 2017 (AIFC Rules No. FR0005 0f 2017).
3.2. Requirements for AML/CFT/FPWMD systems of Digital Asset Service Providers and other provisions in the field of AML/CFT/FPWMD
3.2.1 Digital Asset Service Providers authorised by the Centre are subject to the Acting law of the Centre and the legislation of the Republic of Kazakhstan in the field of counteraction of money laundering, terrorist financing and financing the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
3.2.2. Assessment of the risks of legalization (laundering) of proceeds and financing of terrorism and proliferation of weapons of mass destruction (hereinafter — LP/FT/FPWMD) is conducted in order to identify vulnerabilities, threats and opportunities for the legalization (laundering) of proceeds and financing of terrorism through the inter-jurisdictional cryptofiat system, identify shortcomings in the implementation of measures to counteract the legalization (laundering) of proceeds and financing of terrorism in the inter-jurisdictional cryptofiat system, and such an assessment is conducted as part of the national assessment risks of ML/FT/FPWMD, taking into account the provisions set out by Article 11-1 of the Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan № 191-lV "On counteraction to legalisation (laundering) of proceeds of crime and terrorism financing" dated August 28, 2009.
3.3 Capital Requirements for Digital Asset Service Providers
3.3.1. Digital Asset Service Providers are required to provide a minimum amount of capital in accordance with rules 2.2. and 3.2 of the of the AIFC Rules On Digital Asset Activities dated September 10, 2023 (AIFC Rules No. FR00062 of 2023).
3.3.2. The amounts of minimum capital of Digital Asset Service Providers are specified in Schedule 2 to these Rules.
3.4. Settlement and clearing mechanisms
3.4.1. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure that satisfactory arrangements are made for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise), clearing and settlement of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on its facility (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions).
3.4.2. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must ensure clearing and settlement of transactions on its facility exclusively with Fiat Currencies or Digital Assets admitted to trading.
3.4.3. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator must take all reasonable steps to ensure that finality of settlement is achieved within 24 hours. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and a Digital Asset Service Provider perform Client transactions in accordance with the "delivery versus payment" principle and pre-funding requirement. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and a Digital Asset Service Provider execute the Client's instruction to purchase Digital Assets if the Client has fiat funds, execute the Client's instruction to sell Digital Assets if a Client has Digital Assets in a Digital Wallet according to rule 2.13.6. of the AIFC Rules On Digital Asset Activities dated September 10, 2023 (AIFC Rules No. FR00062 of 2023).
3.4.4. Execution and processing gratuitous (free of charge) transfers of Digital Assets between Clients are prohibited.
3.5. Communication with Clients and Financial Promotion
3.5.1. Digital Asset Service Providers communicate with Clients, as well as conduct Financial Promotions in accordance with Chapter 3 of the AIFC Conduct of Business Rules.
3.6. Privacy Tokens
3.6.1. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator and a Digital Asset Services Provider must comply with the requirements of rule 2.15 of the AIFC Rules On Digital Asset Activities dated September 10, 2023 (AIFC Rules No. FR00062 of 2023) regarding the prohibition on the use of Privacy Tokens and Devices in the provision of their services.
3.7. A Digital Asset Trading Facility Operator’s and Digital Asset Service Provider’s services involving transactions with their own tokens
3.7.1. Digital Asset Service Providers and Digital Asset Trading Facility Operators provide services involving transactions with their own tokens (Digital Assets), according to provisions and requirements provided under rules 2.8.2, 2.12 and 2.13 of the AIFC Rules On Digital Asset Activities dated September 10, 2023 (AIFC Rules No. FR00062 of 2023), as well as in accordance with the requirements set out in rules 4.2.4 and 5 of the AIFC Market Rules dated October 17, 2017 (AlFC Market Rules No.FR0003 0f 2017).
Schedule No 1
These Rules use the following basic definitions:
1. Digital Asset Services Provider - a Centre Participant which has been authorised by the AFSA to carry on one or more of the following Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets:
a) Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility;
b) Dealing in Investments as Principal;
c) Dealing in Investments as Agent;
d) Managing Investments;
e) Providing Custody;
f) Arranging Custody;
g) Advising on Investments;
h) Arranging Deals in Investments;
A Person wishing to carry on one or more of the above Regulated Activities in relation to Digital Assets, cannot carry on the Regulated Activities in relation to other types of Investments.
2. Unbacked Digital Asset Exchange – a Centre participant, which has a licence to carry out a Regulated Activity of Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility under the AIFC Acts.
3. Virtual account - a Client's account on an Unbacked Digital Asset Exchange that reflects his/her money balance.
4. Privacy token - a Digital Asset where the Digital Asset or the DLT or another similar technology used for the Digital Asset, has any feature or features that are used, or intended to be used, to hide, anonymise, obscure or prevent the tracing of any of the following information:
a) a Digital Asset transaction; or
b) the identity of the holder of a Digital Asset; or
c) the cryptographic key associated with a Person; or
d) the identity of parties to a Digital Asset transaction; or
e) the value of a Digital Asset transaction; or
f) the beneficial owner of a Digital Asset.
5. A second-tier bank of the Republic of Kazakhstan (or "bank") - a legal entity, which is a commercial organisation and is authorised to carry out banking activities in accordance with the Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan № 2444 "On Banks and Banking Activities in the Republic of Kazakhstan" dated 31 August 1995.
6. National postal operator - a postal operator determined by the authorised body in the field of mail, established in the legal form of a joint stock company, which is subject to the obligations stipulated by the Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan "On Post' of 9 April 2016 No. 498-V.
Schedule No 2
Minimum capital requirements of Digital Asset Service Providers:
Regulated Activity |
Capital requirement (USD) |
Operating a Digital Asset Trading Facility |
The higher of (i) 200,000 or (ii) an amount equal to sufficient working capital in fiat currency to continue business for a period of 12 months, based on realistic forecasts for the business in different market conditions (both negative and positive scenarios) |
Dealing in Investments as Principal, unless such activities are limited to matching Client orders and the AFSA determines that it is appropriate in all the circumstances to apply a lower capital requirement |
250,000 |
Dealing in Investments as Principal, where such activities are limited to matching Client orders and the AFSA determines that it is appropriate in all the circumstances to apply a lower capital requirement than above |
50,000 |
Dealing in Investments as Agent |
50,000 |
Managing Investments |
100,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which is an externally managed Exempt Fund and has an appointed Eligible Custodian (if an Eligible Custodian is required) |
50,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which is a Non-Exempt Fund |
150,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which is a Self-managed Fund and has an appointed Eligible Custodian, unless the appointment of an Eligible Custodian is not required due to the nature of the Fund and the type of assets which it holds |
200,000 |
Managing a Collective Investment Scheme, which does not have an appointed Eligible Custodian, except where an Eligible Custodian is not required due to the nature of the Fund and type of assets which it holds |
250,000 |
Providing Custody |
250,000 |
Arranging Custody |
10,000 |
Advising on Investments |
10,000 |
Arranging Deals in Investments |
10,000 |